Evolution

-By Shivam Arya

MCQs

NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 110

Q1. Which of the following statements strictly defines Evolutionary Biology according to
NCERT?​
(a) It is the study of the origin of the universe and stars.​
(b) It is the study of the history of life forms on earth.​
(c) It is the study of flora and fauna changes over thousands of years.​
(d) It is the study of the chemical evolution of organic molecules.

Q2. Read the following statements regarding the origin of life and the universe:​
I. Stellar distances are measured in light years.​
II. When we look at stars, we are essentially looking back in time.​
III. The universe is very old, while the earth is relatively a speck.​
IV. The origin of life is considered a common and frequent event in the history of the
universe.

Which of the statements given above are correct?​

(a) I, II and III only​
(b) I and III only​
(c) II, III and IV only​
(d) I, II, III and IV

Q3. Assertion (A): When we see stars, we apparently are peeping into the past.​
Reason (R): The light emitted by stars started its journey millions of years back and reaches
our eyes now.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q4. According to the text, what follows in the chapter is described as:​
(a) The most accurate scientific account of biodiversity.​
(b) The longest of all the construed and conjectured stories.​
(c) A brief account of the mechanism of speciation.​
(d) The verified history of the solar system only.

Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 110)​

Q1 – (b) : Reason – NCERT Line 1 states: "Evolutionary Biology is the study of history of life
forms on earth."​
Q2 – (a) : Reason – Statement IV is incorrect because NCERT states "The origin of life is
considered a unique event in the history of universe."​
Q3 – (a) : Reason – NCERT explains that we see objects in the present instant, but stellar
light takes millions of years to reach us, hence we look into the past.​
Q4 – (b) : Reason – NCERT text states: "What follows is the longest of all the construed and
conjectured stories."

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NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 111

Q1. Which of the following statements regarding the Big Bang theory and the Universe is
INCORRECT?​
(a) The universe is almost 13.8 billion years old.​
(b) The Big Bang theory attempts to explain the origin of the universe.​
(c) The collision of galaxies caused the temperature to come down.​
(d) Hydrogen and Helium formed sometime later after the expansion.

Q2. Arrange the following events regarding the origin of Earth and atmosphere in the
correct sequence:

1.​ Formation of Ozone layer.

2.​ UV rays broke up water into Hydrogen and Oxygen.
3.​ Water vapour, methane, carbon dioxide and ammonia covered the surface.
4.​ Lighter H₂ escaped.
5.​ Earth formed.

(a) 5 → 3 → 2 → 4 → 1​
(b) 5 → 3 → 4 → 2 → 1​
(c) 5 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 1​
(d) 5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4

Q3. Regarding the conditions on early Earth, choose the correct option:​
(a) Life appeared 500 million years back.​
(b) There was a thick atmosphere of Oxygen and Nitrogen on early earth.​
(c) Oxygen combined with ammonia and methane to form water, CO₂ and others.​
(d) As the ozone layer cooled, the water vapor fell as rain to fill depressions.

Q4. Match the theory/scientist with their proposal:

Scientist/Theory Proposal

A. Panspermia 1. Life came out of decaying and rotting

matter like straw.

B. Spontaneous Generation 2. Units of life called spores were

transferred to different planets.

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 C. Louis Pasteur 3. The first form of life came from
pre-existing non-living organic molecules.

D. Oparin and Haldane 4. Life comes only from pre-existing life

(demonstrated with yeast).

(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3​

(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3​
(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3​
(d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Q5. In the experiment conducted by S.L. Miller in 1953, which specific conditions were
created?​
(a) Electric discharge in a closed flask containing CH₄, H₂, NH₃ and water vapour at 800°C.​
(b) UV radiation in an open flask containing CH₄, H₂, NH₃ and water vapour at 800°C.​
(c) Electric discharge in a closed flask containing CH₄, O₂, NH₃ and water vapour at 800°C.​
(d) Electric discharge in a closed flask containing CH₄, H₂, NH₃ and water vapour at 600°C.

Q6. Assertion (A): The theory of spontaneous generation was dismissed once and for all.​
Reason (R): Louis Pasteur showed that in pre-sterilised flasks, life did not come from killed
yeast while in another flask open to air, new living organisms arose from killed yeast.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q7. The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated ________ years back, while
the first cellular forms of life did not possibly originate till about ________ years ago.​
(a) 3 billion; 2000 million​
(b) 4 billion; 3 billion​
(c) 2 billion; 500 million​
(d) 4.5 billion; 4 billion

Q8. Which of the following was NOT observed in similar experiments (like Miller’s) or
meteorite analysis as mentioned in the text?​
(a) Formation of sugars​
(b) Formation of nitrogen bases​
(c) Formation of DNA helices​
(d) Formation of pigments and fats

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Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 111)​
Q1 – (c) : Reason – The universe expanded and hence temperature came down; it was not
caused by the "collision of galaxies."​
Q2 – (a) : Reason – Molten mass released gases (3) → UV rays broke water (2) → H2 escaped
(4) → Oxygen combined to form oxides and Ozone (1).​
Q3 – (c) : Reason – Option (a) is wrong (Life appeared 4 billion years back, i.e., 500 million
years after earth formation). Option (b) is wrong (No atmosphere). Option (d) is wrong (The
atmosphere cooled, water vapor fell).​
Q4 – (a) : Reason – Direct matching based on text definitions of Panspermia, Spontaneous
generation, Pasteur's work, and Oparin-Haldane.​
Q5 – (a) : Reason – Strict specific conditions: Electric discharge, closed flask, CH₄, H₂, NH₃,
water vapour, 800°C. (Note: O₂ was absent).​
Q6 – (a) : Reason – Pasteur's experiment with killed yeast directly disproved spontaneous
generation.​
Q7 – (a) : Reason – NCERT Page 111 (bottom) says non-cellular 3 billion years back. Page 112
(top) says cellular 2000 million years ago.​
Q8 – (c) : Reason – The text lists sugars, nitrogen bases, pigments, and fats. It does not
mention DNA helices being formed in these abiotic experiments.

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NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 112

Q1. According to the text, the first cellular forms of life were probably:​
(a) Multicellular and terrestrial.​
(b) Single-cells and in water environment only.​
(c) Single-cells and in both water and land environments.​
(d) Giant molecules like RNA and Protein.

Q2. Which of the following is NOT one of the connotations of the theory of special creation
mentioned in the text?​
(a) All living organisms that we see today were created as such.​
(b) The diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in future.​
(c) Earth is about 4.5 billion years old.​
(d) Earth is about 4000 years old.

Q3. Charles Darwin, based on observations during his sea voyage, concluded that:​
(a) Existing living forms share similarities only among themselves, not with extinct forms.​
(b) There has been gradual evolution of life forms.​
(c) Extinctions of different life forms occurred only due to catastrophic events like meteorites.​
(d) Any population has built-in variation that is purely non-heritable.

Q4. Assertion (A): The fitness of the individual or population, according to Darwin, refers
ultimately and only to reproductive fitness.​
Reason (R): Those who are better fit in an environment leave more progeny than others and
hence are selected by nature.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q5. Identify the ship used by Charles Darwin for his sea voyage:​
(a) H.M.S. Beagle​
(b) H.M.S. Eagle​
(c) H.M.S. Evolution​
(d) H.M.S. Galapagos

Q6. What is the accepted version of "biogenesis" regarding the origin of life?​
(a) Life arose spontaneously from decaying matter.​
(b) The first form of life arose slowly through evolutionary forces from non-living molecules.​

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(c) Life was transferred as spores from other planets.​
(d) Life has existed eternally without a specific origin point.

Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 112)​

Q1 – (b) : Reason – NCERT states: "These were probably single-cells. All life forms were in
water environment only."​
Q2 – (c) : Reason – The theory of special creation suggests Earth is about 4000 years old
(Connotation 3). 4.5 billion is the scientific estimate, not the religious/special creation view.​
Q3 – (b) : Reason – Darwin concluded "There has been gradual evolution of life forms." He
also noted similarities with life forms that existed millions of years ago (refuting option a).​
Q4 – (a) : Reason – Darwin defined fitness as reproductive fitness because those better
adapted leave more progeny (Natural Selection).​
Q5 – (a) : Reason – Factual recall: "Sail ship called H.M.S. Beagle".​
Q6 – (b) : Reason – The text states the majority accepts that "the first form of life arose
slowly... from non-living molecules."

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NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 113

Q1. Alfred Wallace, a naturalist, worked in which specific location?​

(a) Galapagos Islands​
(b) Malay Archipelago​
(c) Australian Island continent​
(d) South American grasslands

Q2. Which of the following statements regarding the geological history of earth is TRUE?​
(a) The geological history of earth does not correlate with the biological history of earth.​
(b) Earth is thousands of years old as was thought earlier.​
(c) Sedimentary rocks contain fossils of different life-forms who probably died during the
formation of that particular sediment.​
(d) Embryos of vertebrates pass through the adult stages of other animals.

Q3. Regarding evidences for evolution, identify the INCORRECT statement:​

(a) Fossils are remains of hard parts of life-forms found in rocks.​
(b) A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological period in which
they existed.​
(c) New forms of life have arisen at different times in the history of earth.​
(d) Paleontological evidence refers to the study of comparative anatomy and morphology.

Q4. Assertion (A): Ernst Haeckel's proposal of embryological support for evolution was
disapproved.​
Reason (R): Karl Ernst von Baer noted that embryos never pass through the adult stages of
other animals.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q5. The row of vestigial gill slits in human embryos is a functional organ only in:​
(a) All adult vertebrates​
(b) Fish​
(c) Amphibians and Fish​
(d) Reptiles

Q6. "Fitness" in the context of Darwinian evolution implies:​

(a) Physical strength to fight predators.​
(b) Ability to adapt and get selected by nature to leave more progeny.​

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(c) Long life span.​
(d) Dominance over other species in resource consumption.

Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 113)​

Q1 – (b) : Reason – Text states: "Alfred Wallace, a naturalist who worked in Malay
Archipelago".​
Q2 – (c) : Reason – Option (a) is false (it closely correlates). Option (b) is false (Billions, not
thousands). Option (d) is false (disapproved by von Baer). Option (c) is verbatim NCERT.​
Q3 – (d) : Reason – Paleontological evidence refers to the study of fossils. Comparative
anatomy is a separate line of evidence.​
Q4 – (a) : Reason – Haeckel proposed it based on common embryonic features (like gill slits),
but von Baer disapproved it specifically because embryos don't pass through adult stages of
ancestors.​
Q5 – (b) : Reason – Text states: "functional organ only in fish and not found in any other adult
vertebrates."​
Q6 – (b) : Reason – Darwinian fitness refers ultimately and only to reproductive fitness (better
fit in an environment, leave more progeny).

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NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 114

Q1. Which of the following sets of animals share similarities in the pattern of bones of
forelimbs?​
(a) Whales, Sharks, Cheetah and Human​
(b) Whales, Bats, Cheetah and Human​
(c) Whales, Bats, Birds and Human​
(d) Whales, Bats, Cheetah and Lizard

Q2. The specific bones found in the forelimbs of mammals like whales and humans are:​
(a) Humerus, radius, ulna, tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges.​
(b) Femur, tibia, fibula, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges.​
(c) Humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges.​
(d) Humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, femur.

Q3. Divergent evolution is best described by which of the following?​

(a) Different structures evolving for the same function.​
(b) The same structure developing along different directions due to adaptations to different
needs.​
(c) Anatomically dissimilar structures performing similar functions.​
(d) Selection of similar adaptive features in different groups of organisms.

Q4. Assertion (A): The forelimbs of Whales, Bats, Cheetah, and Humans are homologous
structures.​
Reason (R): Homology indicates common ancestry.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q5. Based on Figure 6.2 (Family tree of dinosaurs), which of the following organisms are
shown as modern day counterparts?​
(a) Crocodiles and Birds​
(b) Turtles and Snakes​
(c) Lizards and Tuataras​
(d) Pteranodon and Archaeopteryx

Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 114)​

Q1 – (b) : Reason – NCERT text explicitly lists: "Whales, bats, Cheetah and human (all

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mammals)".​
Q2 – (c) : Reason – Correct bone list: Humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges.
(Tarsals/Femur are hindlimb bones).​
Q3 – (b) : Reason – Definition of Divergent Evolution: "Same structure developed along
different directions due to adaptations to different needs."​
Q4 – (a) : Reason – They are homologous because they share the same anatomical structure
despite different functions, which indicates they evolved from a common ancestor.​
Q5 – (a) : Reason – Figure 6.2 caption states: "...living modern day counterpart organisms like
crocodiles and birds".

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NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 115

Q1. Which of the following pairs represents homology in plants?​

(a) Sweet potato and Potato​
(b) Thorn of Bougainvillea and Tendril of Cucurbita​
(c) Eye of Octopus and Eye of Mammals​
(d) Wings of Butterfly and Wings of Birds

Q2. Analogous structures are a result of:​

(a) Divergent evolution​
(b) Common ancestry​
(c) Convergent evolution​
(d) Stabilizing selection

Q3. Which of the following statements about analogy is CORRECT?​

(a) It indicates common ancestry.​
(b) It refers to anatomically similar structures performing different functions.​
(c) It is the similar habitat that has resulted in selection of similar adaptive features in different
groups of organisms towards the same function.​
(d) The thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are examples of analogy.

Q4. Select the option that correctly identifies the type of evolution:​
I. Wings of butterfly and of birds.​
II. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins.​
III. Eye of Octopus and of Mammals.​
IV. Sweet potato (root) and potato (stem).

These are all examples of:​

(a) Homologous organs and Divergent evolution​
(b) Analogous organs and Divergent evolution​
(c) Homologous organs and Convergent evolution​
(d) Analogous organs and Convergent evolution

Q5. Biochemical similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among
diverse organi[Link]
(a) Give clues to common ancestry.​
(b) Point to convergent evolution only.​
(c) Are not related to evolution.​
(d) Suggest that man has created these similarities.

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Q6. In the case of Industrial Melanism in England, what was observed in the collection of
moths made in the 1850s (before industrialisation)?​
(a) There were more dark-winged or melanised moths on trees.​
(b) There were more white-winged moths on trees.​
(c) The population of both moths was exactly equal.​
(d) There were no moths found in the area.

Q7. Assertion (A): Man has bred selected plants and animals for agriculture and sport.​
Reason (R): This proves that nature could not have done the same over millions of years.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 115)​

Q1 – (b) : Reason – NCERT states: "Thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita
represent homology."​
Q2 – (c) : Reason – "Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution."​
Q3 – (c) : Reason – Option (a) is wrong (Homology indicates common ancestry). Option (b) is
wrong (Analogy is anatomically dissimilar). Option (c) is the correct definition of the cause of
analogy (Convergent evolution).​
Q4 – (d) : Reason – All examples listed (Wings, Flippers, Eyes, Potato/Sweet Potato) are
explicitly listed in NCERT as examples of Analogy/Convergent evolution.​
Q5 – (a) : Reason – "These biochemical similarities point to the same shared ancestry."​
Q6 – (b) : Reason – Before industrialisation (1850s), "it was observed that there were more
white-winged moths on trees."​
Q7 – (c) : Reason – The assertion is true (Artificial selection). The reason is false; the text
argues "could not nature have done the same over millions of years?" implying nature can and
did.

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NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 116

Q1. Read the following statements regarding the observation of moths in England:​
I. In the pre-industrialization period, thick growth of almost white-coloured lichen covered the
trees.​
II. In the post-industrialization period, tree trunks became dark due to industrial smoke and
soots.​
III. Predators spot a moth against a contrasting background.​
IV. In rural areas where industrialisation did not occur, the count of melanic moths was high.

Which of the statements given above are CORRECT?​

(a) I, II and III only​
(b) II, III and IV only​
(c) I, III and IV only​
(d) I, II, III and IV

Q2. Regarding the survival of moths in England, NCERT emphasizes which crucial fact
about the population variants?​
(a) The white-winged variant was completely wiped out in polluted areas.​
(b) The dark-winged variant was completely wiped out in rural areas.​
(c) No variant is completely wiped out.​
(d) The variants interbred to form a grey intermediate species.

Q3. Assertion (A): Lichens can be used as industrial pollution indicators.​

Reason (R): They will not grow in areas that are polluted.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q4. The appearance of antibiotic-resistant microbes or pesticide-resistant plants is an

example of evolution by:​
(a) Natural selection in a geological time scale.​
(b) Anthropogenic action.​
(c) Spontaneous generation.​
(d) Adaptive radiation.

Q5. According to the text, the selection of resistant varieties due to excess use of
herbicides or pesticides occurs in a time scale of:​

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(a) Centuries.​
(b) Millions of years.​
(c) Months or years.​
(d) Thousands of years.

Q6. Which of the following statements strictly defines the nature of the evolutionary
process according to NCERT?​
(a) It is a directed process in the sense of determinism.​
(b) It is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in the
organisms.​
(c) It is a deterministic process based on the needs of the organism.​
(d) It is a pre-determined process driven solely by environmental changes.

Q7. During his journey to Galapagos Islands, Darwin observed an amazing diversity of
creatures, of particular interest were:​
(a) Small black birds later called Darwin’s Finches.​
(b) Large reptiles later called Darwin’s Tortoises.​
(c) Marine iguanas with unique feeding habits.​
(d) Giant cacti adapted to arid conditions.

Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 116)​

Q1 – (a) : Reason – Statement IV is incorrect because NCERT states: "in rural areas, the count
of melanic moths was low."​
Q2 – (c) : Reason – NCERT explicitly states: "Remember that no variant is completely wiped
out."​
Q3 – (a) : Reason – The text connects the two directly: Lichens don't grow in polluted areas,
hence they indicate pollution.​
Q4 – (b) : Reason – NCERT states: "These are examples of evolution by anthropogenic
action."​
Q5 – (c) : Reason – NCERT states: "appearing in a time scale of months or years and not
centuries."​
Q6 – (b) : Reason – Verbatim NCERT: "It is a stochastic process based on chance events in
nature and chance mutation in the organisms."​
Q7 – (a) : Reason – NCERT states: "Of particular interest, small black birds later called
Darwin’s Finches amazed him."

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NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 117

Q1. Regarding Darwin’s Finches, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?​

(a) Darwin conjectured that all varieties evolved on the island itself.​
(b) From the original insectivorous features, many other forms with altered beaks arose.​
(c) They evolved to become insectivorous and vegetarian finches.​
(d) They represent one of the best examples of adaptive radiation.

Q2. Which of the following strictly defines "Adaptive Radiation" as per NCERT?​
(a) The process of evolution where different species merge into one in a given geographical
area.​
(b) The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a
point and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats).​
(c) The process where a single species migrates to multiple continents and remains
unchanged.​
(d) The sudden appearance of large mutations leading to new species in the same habitat.

Q3. In the context of Australian marsupials, adaptive radiation occurred:​

(a) Across multiple continents simultaneously.​
(b) Within the Australian island continent only.​
(c) By migration from Asia to Australia.​
(d) Starting from multiple different ancestral stocks.

Q4. Consider the following statements about Australian marsupials:​

I. A number of marsupials, each different from the other, evolved from an ancestral stock.​
II. This evolution occurred within the Australian island continent.​
III. This is an example of adaptive radiation.

Which of the statements are TRUE?​

(a) I and II only​
(b) II and III only​
(c) I and III only​
(d) I, II and III

Q5. When more than one adaptive radiation appears to have occurred in an isolated
geographical area (representing different habitats), one can call this:​
(a) Divergent evolution.​
(b) Convergent evolution.​

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(c) Saltation.​
(d) Anthropogenic evolution.

Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 117)​

Q1 – (b) : Reason – NCERT states: "From the original seed-eating features..." (Not
insectivorous).​
Q2 – (b) : Reason – Verbatim definition from NCERT Page 117, paragraph 1.​
Q3 – (b) : Reason – NCERT states: "all within the Australian island continent."​
Q4 – (d) : Reason – All three statements are directly derived from the description of
Australian marsupials in the text.​
Q5 – (b) : Reason – NCERT states: "one can call this convergent evolution." (Note: This
sentence starts on 117 and ends on 118, but the concept is introduced here).

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NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 118

Q1. Placental mammals in Australia exhibit adaptive radiation in evolving into varieties of
mammals each of which appears to be 'similar' to a corresponding:​
(a) Reptile.​
(b) Bird.​
(c) Marsupial.​
(d) Amphibian.

Q2. Match the Placental mammal with its corresponding Australian Marsupial (based on
similarity):

Placental Mammal Australian Marsupial

A. Wolf 1. Tasmanian wolf

B. Mouse 2. Marsupial mouse

C. Anteater 3. Numbat (anteater)

D. Lemur 4. Spotted cuscus

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4​
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3​
(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4​
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Q3. Biological evolution by natural selection in a true sense would have started when:​
(a) The universe was formed.​
(b) Cellular forms of life with differences in metabolic capability originated on earth.​
(c) Non-cellular giant molecules like RNA formed.​
(d) Humans appeared on earth.

Q4. According to the text, the rate of appearance of new forms is linked to:​
(a) The size of the organism.​
(b) The complexity of the organism.​
(c) The life cycle or the life span.​
(d) The geographical area.

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Q5. Assertion (A): For the same degree of evolution to happen in a fish or fowl would take
millions of years as compared to days in microbes.​
Reason (R): The life spans of fish or fowl are in years, whereas microbes divide fast and
multiply into millions within hours.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q6. Identify the two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of Evolution mentioned in the text:​
(a) Mutation and Natural Selection.​
(b) Branching descent and Natural selection.​
(c) Use and disuse of organs and Inheritance of acquired characters.​
(d) Genetic drift and Gene migration.

Q7. Regarding Lamarck’s theory, which of the following is CORRECT?​

(a) It was based on natural selection.​
(b) It stated that evolution is driven by use and disuse of organs.​
(c) It gave the example of finches changing their beaks.​
(d) It is currently believed to be the correct conjecture by scientists.

Q8. "Fitness" according to the text is based on characteristics which are:​

(a) Acquired during the life of the organism.​
(b) Inherited.​
(c) Result of physical training.​
(d) Purely accidental and non-heritable.

Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 118)​

Q1 – (c) : Reason – NCERT states: "...similar to a corresponding marsupial".​
Q2 – (a) : Reason – Based on Figure 6.7 and text references to Placental wolf and Tasmanian
wolf.​
Q3 – (b) : Reason – NCERT states: "would have started when cellular forms of life with
differences in metabolic capability originated on earth."​
Q4 – (c) : Reason – NCERT states: "The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life
cycle or the life span."​
Q5 – (a) : Reason – The text connects the rate of evolution (A) directly to the life
span/division rate (R).​
Q6 – (b) : Reason – Verbatim NCERT: "Branching descent and natural selection are the two
key concepts of Darwinian Theory of Evolution."​
Q7 – (b) : Reason – Lamarck said evolution "driven by use and disuse of organs." (Option d is

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wrong as "Nobody believes this conjecture any more").​
Q8 – (b) : Reason – NCERT states: "fitness is based on characteristics which are inherited."

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NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 119

Q1. When we describe the story of life on earth, we treat evolution as:​
(a) A process.​
(b) A consequence of a process called natural selection.​
(c) The end result of unknown processes.​
(d) A distinct event similar to the Big Bang.

Q2. Darwin’s assertion about natural selection includes all the following concepts EXCEPT:​
(a) Variations are heritable.​
(b) Variations make resource utilisation better for few.​
(c) Evolution is caused by sudden large mutations (saltation).​
(d) Survivors will leave more progeny.

Q3. Who brought forth the idea of mutations working on evening primrose?​
(a) Charles Darwin​
(b) Thomas Malthus​
(c) Hugo deVries​
(d) Alfred Wallace

Q4. Match the features of variation/mutation according to Darwin and deVries:

Feature Darwin's View deVries' View

A. Direction 1. Directional 2. Directionless

B. Size 3. Small 4. Large

C. Speed 5. Gradual 6. Saltation (Single step)

(a) Darwin: 2, 4, 6; deVries: 1, 3, 5​
(b) Darwin: 1, 3, 5; deVries: 2, 4, 6​
(c) Darwin: 1, 4, 5; deVries: 2, 3, 6​
(d) Darwin: 2, 3, 5; deVries: 1, 4, 6

Q5. Assertion (A): The world we see, inanimate and animate, is only the success stories of
evolution.​
Reason (R): When we describe the story of this world we describe evolution as a process.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​

20
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q6. According to the text, Thomas Malthus' work on populations influenced:​

(a) Hugo deVries.​
(b) Charles Darwin.​
(c) Lamarck.​
(d) Mendel.

Q7. Evolution for deVries was caused by _______ and hence called it _______.​
(a) Minor variations; Gradualism.​
(b) Mutation; Saltation.​
(c) Natural selection; Adaptation.​
(d) Recombination; Drift.

Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 119)​

Q1 – (b) : Reason – NCERT states: "when we describe the story of life on earth, we treat
evolution as a consequence of a process called natural selection." (Note: Describing story of
this world = process).​
Q2 – (c) : Reason – Saltation is deVries' concept. Darwin believed in minor, gradual variations.​
Q3 – (c) : Reason – "Hugo deVries based on his work on evening primrose brought forth the
idea of mutations".​
Q4 – (b) : Reason – Darwin: Small, directional, gradual. deVries: Large, random/directionless,
saltation.​
Q5 – (b) : Reason – Both statements are true textually, but R does not explain why the world
is "success stories".​
Q6 – (b) : Reason – "It is possible that the work of Thomas Malthus on populations influenced
Darwin."​
Q7 – (b) : Reason – "believed mutation caused speciation and hence called it saltation".

21
NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 120

Q1. According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, the gene pool remains:​

(a) Variable depending on environmental conditions.​
(b) Constant from generation to generation.​
(c) Increasing in size every generation.​
(d) Decreasing due to natural selection.

Q2. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the sum total of all the allelic frequencies is:​
(a) 0​
(b) 1​
(c) 100​
(d) Variable

Q3. If 'p' and 'q' represent the frequency of allele A and allele a respectively, what does
'2pq' represent?​
(a) Frequency of homozygous dominant individuals.​
(b) Frequency of homozygous recessive individuals.​
(c) Frequency of heterozygous individuals.​
(d) Frequency of the gametes.

Q4. The algebraic equation representing the Hardy-Weinberg principle is:​

(a) (p+q)2=p2+q2=1​
(b) (p+q)2=p2+2pq+q2=1​
(c) (p+q)3=p3+q3=1​
(d) p+q+2pq=1

Q5. When the measured frequency differs from expected values, the difference (direction)
indicates:​
(a) The extent of evolutionary change.​
(b) The absence of genetic equilibrium.​
(c) The stability of the population.​
(d) Both (a) and (b).

Q6. Which of the following is NOT one of the five factors known to affect Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium?​
(a) Gene migration or gene flow​
(b) Genetic drift​

22
(c) Genetic recombination​
(d) Somatic variation

Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 120)​

Q1 – (b) : Reason – "The gene pool (total genes and their alleles in a population) remains a
constant."​
Q2 – (b) : Reason – "Sum total of all the allelic frequencies is 1."​
Q3 – (c) : Reason – In the binomial expansion, 2pq represents the frequency of Aa
(heterozygous).​
Q4 – (b) : Reason – Standard binomial expansion formula given in text.​
Q5 – (d) : Reason – Text says difference indicates "extent of evolutionary change" and
"Disturbance in genetic equilibrium... resulting in evolution."​
Q6 – (d) : Reason – The five factors are: Gene migration/flow, Genetic drift, Mutation, Genetic
recombination, Natural selection. Somatic variation is not listed.

23
NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 121

Q1. When migration of a section of population to another place occurs, gene frequencies
change:​
(a) Only in the original population.​
(b) Only in the new population.​
(c) In the original as well as in the new population.​
(d) In neither population.

Q2. Gene flow is defined as:​

(a) A single instance of gene migration.​
(b) Gene migration happening multiple times.​
(c) Change in allele frequency by chance.​
(d) Creation of a new species by mutation.

Q3. If the change in allele frequency occurs by chance, it is called:​

(a) Gene flow.​
(b) Natural selection.​
(c) Genetic drift.​
(d) Founder effect.

Q4. The "Founder effect" occurs when:​

(a) The original drifted population becomes founders and the effect is called founder effect.​
(b) Migration stops completely.​
(c) Mutation creates a dominant allele.​
(d) Natural selection stabilizes the population.

Q5. Match the operation of Natural Selection with its correct description (based on Figure
6.8):

Type of Selection Description

A. Stabilisation 1. More individuals acquire value other than

the mean character value.

B. Directional change 2. More individuals acquire mean character

value.

24
 C. Disruption 3. More individuals acquire peripheral
character value at both ends of the
distribution curve.
(a) A-2, B-1, C-3​
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3​
(c) A-2, B-3, C-1​
(d) A-3, B-1, C-2

Q6. About 2000 million years ago (mya), the first ________ appeared on earth.​
(a) Non-cellular aggregates.​
(b) Cellular forms of life.​
(c) Invertebrates.​
(d) Jawless fish.

Q7. Some of the first cells had the ability to release O₂. The text compares this reaction to:​
(a) Respiration in mitochondria.​
(b) The light reaction in photosynthesis.​
(c) Fermentation in yeast.​
(d) Nitrogen fixation in bacteria.

Combined Answer Key with Reasons (Page 121)​

Q1 – (c) : Reason – "gene frequencies change in the original as well as in the new
population."​
Q2 – (b) : Reason – "There would be a gene flow if this gene migration, happens multiple
times."​
Q3 – (c) : Reason – "If the same change occurs by chance, it is called genetic drift."​
Q4 – (a) : Reason – "The original drifted population becomes founders and the effect is
called founder effect."​
Q5 – (a) : Reason – Direct definitions from the text for Stabilisation, Directional, and
Disruption.​
Q6 – (b) : Reason – "About 2000 million years ago (mya) the first cellular forms of life
appeared on earth."​
Q7 – (b) : Reason – "The reaction could have been similar to the light reaction in
photosynthesis where water is split..."

25
NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 122

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the early evolution of life forms:​
I. Slowly single-celled organisms became multi-cellular life forms.​
II. By the time of 500 mya, invertebrates were formed and active.​
III. Jawless fish probably evolved around 350 mya.​
IV. Sea weeds and few plants existed probably around 320 mya.

Which of the above statements are CORRECT according to the text?​

(a) I and II only​
(b) I, III and IV only​
(c) II and III only​
(d) I, II, III and IV

Q2. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the first organisms to
invade land?​
(a) The first organisms that invaded land were plants.​
(b) Plants were widespread on land when animals invaded land.​
(c) Fish with stout and strong fins could move on land and go back to water about 350 mya.​
(d) The first animals to invade land were invertebrates formed around 320 mya.

Q3. Assertion (A): In 1938, a fish caught in South Africa happened to be a Coelacanth which
was thought to be extinct.​
Reason (R): These animals called lobefins evolved into the first amphibians that lived on both
land and water.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q4. Read the following statements about the evolution of fish and amphibians:​
I. Fish with stout and strong fins could move on land and go back to water.​
II. Lobefins evolved into the first amphibians that lived on both land and water.​
III. There are no specimens of these first amphibians left with us.​
IV. Ancestors of modern day frogs and salamanders evolved from Coelacanth directly.

How many of the above statements are TRUE?​

(a) One​
(b) Two​
(c) Three​
(d) Four

26
Q5. Match the following events with their approximate time periods as per NCERT:

Event Time Period

A. Invertebrates formed and active 1. 350 mya

B. Sea weeds and few plants existed 2. 500 mya

C. Jawless fish evolved 3. 320 mya

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3​
(b) A-2, B-3, C-1​
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3​
(d) A-3, B-2, C-1

Q6. Select the INCORRECT statement regarding the 'lobefins':​

(a) They evolved into the first amphibians.​
(b) They were thought to be extinct until 1938.​
(c) They are ancestors of modern day frogs and salamanders.​
(d) They evolved into the first reptiles that laid thick-shelled eggs.

Q7. According to the text, the sequence of plant evolution depicted in the sketch (Figure
6.9 context) involves:​
(a) Chlorophyte ancestors evolving directly into Ferns.​
(b) Tracheophyte ancestors evolving into Rhynia-type plants.​
(c) Zosterophyllum evolving into Arborescent lycopods.​
(d) Psilophyton evolving into all Seed ferns.

(Note: Although Figure 6.9 is a diagram, the text references the sketch of evolution of plant
forms. However, strictly adhering to the "text-only" rule for this page's narrative section, I will
focus on the textual narrative provided in the columns. If strictly text-bound:)

Q7 (Text-Strict). Regarding the movement of fish on land:​

(a) Fish with weak fins moved on land about 500 mya.​
(b) Fish with stout and strong fins moved on land about 350 mya.​
(c) Jawless fish moved on land about 320 mya.​
(d) Lobefins moved on land and evolved into reptiles directly.

Combined Answer Key with Reasons​

Q1 – (d) : Reason – All dates and events match the specific lines in NCERT Page 122
(Invertebrates 500 mya, Jawless fish 350 mya, Sea weeds 320 mya).​
Q2 – (d) : Reason – NCERT states "invertebrates were formed and active" by 500 mya, not

27
320 mya. The first organisms to invade land were plants.​
Q3 – (b) : Reason – Both statements are textually correct NCERT lines, but the Coelacanth
discovery (A) is not "explained" by the fact they evolved into amphibians (R); they are
sequential facts.​
Q4 – (c) : Reason – Statements I, II, and III are exact NCERT lines. Statement IV is incorrect
because lobefins (not Coelacanth directly in the present tense, though Coelacanth is a
lobefin) are the ancestors; more specifically, the text says "These animals called lobefins
evolved into...". However, Statement IV implies a direct lineage from the specific 1938 fish
caught, whereas the text says "These animals called lobefins...". More importantly, statement
IV is a distortion; statement III "There are no specimens of these left with us" refers to the first
amphibians. Thus I, II, III are true.​
Q5 – (b) : Reason – Invertebrates (500 mya), Sea weeds (320 mya), Jawless fish (350 mya).​
Q6 – (d) : Reason – Lobefins evolved into the first amphibians, not reptiles. Reptiles evolved
from amphibians (mentioned on next page, but "lobefins to reptiles" is false here).​
Q7 (Text-Strict) – (b) : Reason – NCERT states "Fish with stout and strong fins could move on
land... This was about 350 mya."

28
NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 123

Q1. Assertion (A): Reptiles lay thick-shelled eggs which do not dry up in sun.​
Reason (R): Amphibians lay eggs which are unlike those of reptiles and are prone to drying
up.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q2. Which of the following statements regarding the evolution of reptiles is INCORRECT?​
(a) In the next 200 million years or so, reptiles of different shapes and sizes dominated on
earth.​
(b) Giant ferns (pteridophytes) were present but they all fell to form coal deposits slowly.​
(c) Some land reptiles went back into water to evolve into fish-like reptiles probably 200 mya.​
(d) The land reptiles were, of course, the dinosaurs, and the biggest of them was Triceratops.

Q3. Identify the Correct statement regarding Tyrannosaurus rex:​

(a) It was about 20 feet in length and had huge fearsome dagger like teeth.​
(b) It was about 20 feet in height and had small sharp teeth.​
(c) It was about 20 feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger like teeth.​
(d) It was about 20 meters in height and had huge fearsome dagger like teeth.

Q4. Regarding the disappearance of dinosaurs, NCERT suggests:​

I. About 65 mya, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth.​
II. We do not know the true reason.​
III. Some say climatic changes killed them.​
IV. Some say most of them evolved into birds.

(a) I and II only​

(b) I, II and III only​
(c) I, III and IV only​
(d) I, II, III and IV

Q5. Consider the following sequence of evolution described in the text:​

(a) Amphibians -> Reptiles -> Fish-like reptiles (e.g. Ichthyosaurs).​
(b) Reptiles -> Amphibians -> Mammals.​
(c) Lobefins -> Reptiles -> Amphibians.​
(d) Ichthyosaurs -> Land Reptiles -> Amphibians.

29
Q6. Which statement describes the first mammals?​
(a) They were like shrews and their fossils are small sized.​
(b) They were large sized and laid eggs.​
(c) They were like squirrels and lived in trees.​
(d) They appeared before the extinction of dinosaurs and were large carnivores.

(Note: "First mammals" text starts on Page 124 in some editions, but in this PDF it starts on
Page 124. Wait, let me check the PDF split. The text "The first mammals were like shrews" is
on Page 124. Page 123 ends at "Figure 6.10 Representative evolutionary history...". I must
strictly stop at Page 123 content for this set.)​
Correction: Q6 belongs to Page 124. I will remove it and replace it with a Page 123 specific
question.

Q6 (Revised). Which of the following modern day descendants are mentioned in the text as
descendants of the reptiles?​
(a) Turtles, tortoises and crocodiles.​
(b) Frogs, salamanders and turtles.​
(c) Crocodiles, birds and mammals.​
(d) Turtles, snakes and tuataras.

Combined Answer Key with Reasons​

Q1 – (b) : Reason – Both are true facts mentioned in NCERT ("unlike those of amphibians"),
but R is a comparative description, not the biological mechanism (explanation) of why reptile
eggs are thick-shelled (adaptation to land). However, in NCERT strict logic, the text links them:
"They lay thick-shelled eggs which do not dry up in sun unlike those of amphibians."​
Q2 – (d) : Reason – NCERT states "The biggest of them, i.e., Tyrannosaurus rex".​
Q3 – (c) : Reason – NCERT specifies "20 feet in height" and "huge fearsome dagger like
teeth".​
Q4 – (d) : Reason – All four points are explicitly listed in NCERT: "We do not know the true
reason. Some say climatic changes... Some say most of them evolved into birds."​
Q5 – (a) : Reason – Text says "Amphibians evolved into reptiles" and "Some of these land
reptiles went back into water to evolve into fish like reptiles...".​
Q6 – (a) : Reason – NCERT text: "Again we only see their modern day descendents, the
turtles, tortoises and crocodiles."

30
NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 124

Q1. Select the INCORRECT statement regarding the first mammals:​

(a) The first mammals were like shrews.​
(b) Their fossils are small sized.​
(c) Mammals were viviparous and protected their unborn young inside the mother’s body.​
(d) Mammals were less intelligent in sensing and avoiding danger than reptiles.

Q2. Assertion (A): Due to continental drift, pouched mammals of Australia survived.​
Reason (R): There was a lack of competition from any other mammal.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q3. Match the Primate with its characteristic (15 mya):

Primate Characteristic

A. Dryopithecus 1. More man-like

B. Ramapithecus 2. More ape-like

3. Walked like gorillas and chimpanzees

(a) A-1, B-2, Both-3​
(b) A-2, B-1, Both-3​
(c) A-1, B-2, A-3​
(d) A-2, B-1, B-3

Q4. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Australopithecines?​

(a) They lived in West African grasslands about 2 mya.​
(b) They hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate meat.​
(c) They hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit.​
(d) They were taller than 4 feet and walked upright.

Q5. Consider the following features:​

I. Brain capacity 650-800cc​
II. Probably did not eat meat​
III. First human-like being the hominid​

31
The above features belong to:​
(a) Homo erectus​
(b) Homo habilis​
(c) Australopithecus​
(d) Ramapithecus

Q6. Regarding the fauna of South America and Continental Drift:​

(a) South America had mammals resembling horse, hippopotamus, bear, rabbit, etc.​
(b) When South America joined North America, these animals overrode the North American
fauna.​
(c) Continental drift led to the extinction of all pouched mammals in Australia.​
(d) Mammals in South America were oviparous.

Q7. Identify the correct sequence of brain capacity/evolution:​

(a) Homo habilis (900cc) -> Homo erectus (650-800cc).​
(b) Homo habilis (650-800cc) -> Homo erectus (900cc).​
(c) Australopithecus (900cc) -> Homo habilis (650-800cc).​
(d) Ramapithecus -> Homo erectus (800cc) -> Homo habilis (900cc).

Combined Answer Key with Reasons​

Q1 – (d) : Reason – NCERT says "Mammals were more intelligent in sensing and avoiding
danger at least."​
Q2 – (a) : Reason – The text explicitly links the survival to the reason: "survived because of
lack of competition from any other mammal."​
Q3 – (b) : Reason – Dryopithecus was more ape-like, Ramapithecus was more man-like. Both
"walked like gorillas and chimpanzees".​
Q4 – (c) : Reason – NCERT says they "hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit"
and lived in "East African grasslands" (not West). Text says "probably not taller than 4 feet".​
Q5 – (b) : Reason – All features match Homo habilis text.​
Q6 – (a) : Reason – NCERT lists "mammals resembling horse, hippopotamus, bear, rabbit,
etc." in South America. Option (b) is wrong because SA animals were "overridden by North
American fauna", not vice versa.​
Q7 – (b) : Reason – Homo habilis (650-800cc) -> Homo erectus (900cc).

32
NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 125

Q1. Assertion (A): The Neanderthal man buried their dead.​

Reason (R): They had a brain size of 1400cc and lived in near east and central Asia.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q2. Which of the following pairs is CORRECTLY matched regarding Human Evolution?​
(a) Homo erectus – Ate meat – 1.5 mya​
(b) Neanderthal man – Africa – 100,000-40,000 years ago​
(c) Homo sapiens – Arose in Central Asia – 75,000-10,000 years ago​
(d) Pre-historic cave art – 10,000 years ago

Q3. Fill in the blanks according to NCERT:​

"During ice age between ______ years ago modern Homo sapiens arose."​
(a) 1,00,000 - 40,000​
(b) 75,000 - 10,000​
(c) 50,000 - 10,000​
(d) 18,000 - 10,000

Q4. Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding human history:​

(a) Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago.​
(b) One such cave painting can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of
Madhya Pradesh.​
(c) Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started.​
(d) Homo sapiens arose in East Asia and moved across continents and developed into
distinct races.

Q5. Regarding Homo erectus, select the correct combination:​

I. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891.​
II. Brain capacity around 900cc.​
III. They probably did not eat meat.​
(a) I and II only​
(b) I and III only​
(c) II and III only​
(d) I, II and III

33
Combined Answer Key with Reasons​
Q1 – (b) : Reason – Both are facts stated in the same paragraph about Neanderthals, but
brain size/location is not the direct explanation for the cultural practice of burying the dead in
the text.​
Q2 – (a) : Reason – Homo erectus (ate meat, 1.5 mya) is correct. Neanderthal lived in "near
east and central Asia", not Africa. Homo sapiens arose in Africa, not Central Asia. Cave art was
18,000 years ago.​
Q3 – (b) : Reason – Exact NCERT line: "During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago
modern Homo sapiens arose."​
Q4 – (d) : Reason – NCERT says "Homo sapiens arose in Africa", not East Asia.​
Q5 – (a) : Reason – Statement III is incorrect; NCERT says "Homo erectus probably ate meat."
(Contrast with Homo habilis who did not).

34
NCERT PAGE NUMBER: 126

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the origin and evolution of life as per the
Summary:​
I. The origin of life on earth can be understood only against the background of origin of the
universe, especially earth.​
II. Most scientists believe that the formation of the first cellular forms of life preceded
chemical evolution.​
III. The subsequent events regarding the first form of life are a conjectured story based on
Darwinian ideas of organic evolution by natural selection.

Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?​

(a) I only​
(b) I and III only​
(c) II and III only​
(d) I, II and III

Q2. According to the Summary, which of the following phenomena may accentuate
variations leading to the appearance of new species?​
(a) Habitat fragmentation and genetic equilibrium​
(b) Habitat fragmentation and genetic drift​
(c) Random mating and genetic drift​
(d) Stabilising selection and gene flow

Q3. Fill in the blanks with the correct words used in the NCERT Summary:​
"Homology is accounted for by the idea of ______."​
(a) Convergent evolution​
(b) Natural selection​
(c) Branching descent​
(d) Adaptive radiation

Q4. Assertion (A): Diversity of life forms on earth has been changing over millions of years.​
Reason (R): It is generally believed that variations in a population result in variable fitness.​
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A​
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A​
(c) A is true but R is false​
(d) A is false but R is true

Q5. Which of the following fields are explicitly mentioned in the Summary as providing
evidence for evolution?​
(a) Comparative anatomy, fossils, and comparative biochemistry​
(b) Comparative anatomy, embryology, and fossils​

35
(c) Fossils, cell biology, and genetics​
(d) Comparative biochemistry, ecology, and biogeography

Q6. Select the INCORRECT statement regarding the story of human evolution as described
in the Summary:​
(a) The story of evolution of modern man is most interesting.​
(b) It appears to parallel the evolution of human brain and language.​
(c) It appears to parallel the evolution of human skull and bipedalism.​
(d) It is one among the stories of evolution of individual species.

Q7. According to the NCERT Summary, the story of what happened to the first form of life
is described as:​
(a) A proven fact based on fossil evidence.​
(b) A conjectured story based on Darwinian ideas.​
(c) A religious concept of special creation.​
(d) A result of anthropogenic actions.

Q8. Read the following statements:​

Statement A: Chemical evolution refers to the formation of biomolecules.​
Statement B: Chemical evolution preceded the appearance of the first cellular forms of life.​
(a) Both statements are correct according to the Summary.​
(b) Both statements are incorrect.​
(c) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.​
(d) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.

Combined Answer Key with Reasons​

Q1 – (b) : Reason – Statement II is incorrect because the summary states "formation of
biomolecules preceded the appearance of the first cellular forms of life" (Chemical evolution
came first).​
Q2 – (b) : Reason – The summary explicitly states: "Other phenomena like habitat
fragmentation and genetic drift may accentuate these variations..."​
Q3 – (c) : Reason – Direct quote: "Homology is accounted for by the idea of branching
descent."​
Q4 – (b) : Reason – Both statements are true textually. The changing diversity (A) is a fact,
and variations resulting in fitness (R) is a mechanism/belief stated separately. While related,
the summary presents them as distinct points in the narrative flow without an explicit
"because" connector linking these exact two sentences as cause-effect.​
Q5 – (a) : Reason – The summary lists: "Study of comparative anatomy, fossils and
comparative biochemistry provides evidence for evolution."​
Q6 – (c) : Reason – The text states it "appears to parallel evolution of human brain and
language." It does not mention "skull and bipedalism" in this specific summary sentence.​
Q7 – (b) : Reason – Text says: "The subsequent events as to what happened to the first form

36
of life is a conjectured story based on Darwinian ideas..."​
Q8 – (a) : Reason – The summary says: "formation of biomolecules preceded the appearance
of the first cellular forms of life" and implies chemical evolution is the formation of
biomolecules.

37