Part Test - 03 1

HINT & SOLUTION (Part Test - 08)

𝑞1
⇒ = 𝑞2
Physics 2 (𝑖)
⇒ 𝑞1 = 2𝑞2
1. (1) But we know that, charge is conserved
Consider an electric dipole consisting of two 𝑞1 + 𝑞2 = 3𝑞 + 6𝑞
point charges -q and +q separated by a small or 𝑞1 + 𝑞2 = 9𝑞(ii)
distance 𝐴𝐵 = 2𝑎 with centre at 𝑂, On putting the value of 𝑞1 Eq. (ii)
2𝑞2 + 𝑞2 = 9𝑞
⇒ 3𝑞2 = 9𝑞
𝑞2 = 3𝑞
Now, from Eq. (i)
𝑞1 = 2 × 3𝑞
⇒ 𝑞1 = 6𝑞
Hence, 𝑞1 = 6𝑞, 𝑞2 = 3𝑞
5. (4)
2𝐵𝑣𝐿
Induced emf 𝑒 = 𝐵𝑣𝑙 ⇒ 𝑒 = 𝐵𝑣(2𝑅) =
𝜋
6. (3)
Peak value = 220√2 = 311 V
7. (4)
8. (3)
(c)
As shown in figure, on equatorial line, the 𝜋
𝐼𝐿 lags behind 𝐼𝑅 by a phase of 2 , while 𝐼𝐶
resultant electric field 𝑬 of 𝑬1 and 𝑬2 is parallel
𝜋
to the axis of the dipole but opposite to the leads by a phase of 2
direction of the dipole moment 𝐩 as it is 9. (2)
directed from negative charge to positive Given the peak magnetic field 𝐵0 = 20nT =
charge. 20 × 10−9 T, we substitute the values into the
2. (4) formula:
Net work done = final PE - initial PE 𝐸0 = (3 × 108 m/s) × (20 × 10−9 T)
𝑄𝑞 𝑄𝑞
= − = Zero. 𝐸0 = 60 × 10−1 V/m
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑙 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑙
𝐸0 = 6 V/m
3. (3)
10. (4)
Magnetic field induction at a point due to a
Since 𝐸1 (10 V) > 𝐸2 (4 V)
long current carrying wire is related with
1 So current in the circuit will be clockwise
distance 𝑟 by relation 𝐵 ∝ .
𝑟
4. (2)
Let 𝑞1 and 𝑞2 be the charge after switch 𝑆 has
been closed.

Applying Kirchhoff's voltage law

−1 × 𝑖 + 10 − 4 − 2 × 𝑖 − 3𝑖 = 0 ⇒ 𝑖 = 1𝐴(𝑎
to 𝑏 via 𝑒)
𝑉 10−4
∴ Current = = = 1.0 ampere
𝑅 6
11. (3)
𝑛𝑠 10
𝐸𝑠 = 𝐸𝑝 = × 240 = 12 V
𝑛𝑝 200
12. (3)
2 Part Test - 03

Due to conductivity, conduction current is As, 𝑎 𝜇𝑔

× 𝑔 𝜇𝑤 × 𝑤 𝜇𝑎 = 1
present and due to variation of electric field, 1 𝑎 𝜇𝑔
∴ = 𝑎 𝜇𝑤 = 𝑎 𝜇𝑔 × 𝑔 𝜇𝑤 =
displacement current is also present. 𝑤 𝜇𝑎 𝑤 𝜇𝑔
13. (3) □ Refractive index of water with respect to air,
Here, 𝑟 = 40 cm = 0.4 m, 3/2 4
𝜃 = 0∘ 𝑎 𝜇𝑤 = =
( an axial line ) 9/8 3
𝑉 = 2.4 × 10−5 J/A − m, 𝑀 =? 19. (4)
𝜇0 𝑀cos 𝜃
As, 𝑉 = There are 10 electrons and 10 protons in a
4𝜋 𝑟2
𝑀×1 neutral water molecule.
⇒ 2.4 × 10−5 = 10−7
(0.4)2 So it's dipole moment is 𝑝 = 𝑞(2𝑙) = 10𝑒(2𝑙)
or 𝑀 = 38.4 A − m2 Hence length of the dipole i.e. distance
14. (2) between centres of positive and negative
One may think that the image will now show charges is
only half of the object, but according to the 𝑝 6.4 × 10−30
2𝑙 = = = 4 × 10−12 m
laws of reflection to be true for all points of the 10𝑒 10 × 1.6 × 10−19
remaining part of the mirror, the image will be = 4pm
that of the whole object. However, as the area 20. (3)
of the reflecting surface has been reduced, the For Fraunhofer diffraction:
intensity of the image will be low (in this case • The incident wavefront on the slit should be
half). plane.
15. (3) • The diffracted wavefronts are focused on the
𝜇0 𝑖 screen using a lens (or effectively, screen at
As, 𝐁 = [sin 𝜃1 + sin 𝜃2 ]
4𝜋𝑎
infinity).
Here, 𝜃1 = −30∘ , 𝜃2 = 60∘
Thus, the wavefront incident on the slit is
1 √3
sin 𝜃1 = − and sin 𝜃2 = plane.
2 2
21. (2)
Putting these values, we get
𝜇0 𝑖 In Young's double slit experiment, if waves
𝐁= [−1/2 + √3/2] from two slits have equal amplitude, the
4𝜋𝑎
16. (4) intensity at a point is given by:
Prism formula for deviation, 𝛿 = 𝑖 + 𝑒 − 𝐴 𝜙
𝐼 = 𝐼max cos 2 ( )
where 𝛿 = angle of deviation, 𝑖 = angle of 2
Path difference = 𝜆 ⇒ phase difference 𝜙 =
incidence, 𝑒 = angle of emergence, 𝐴 = angle
2𝜋.
of prism.
Then:
Given: 𝑖 = 45∘ , 𝐴 = 60∘ , 𝛿 = 55∘
2𝜋
Therefore, 𝐼 = 𝐼max cos 2 ( ) = 𝐼max cos 2 (𝜋) = 𝐼max × 1
2
55∘ = 45∘ + 𝑒 − 60∘
So 𝐼0 = 𝐼max .
55∘ = 𝑒 − 15∘
2𝜋 𝜆 2𝜋
𝑒 = 70∘ Phase difference 𝜙 ′ = × = .
𝜆 3 3
17. (1)
Then:
(a)
𝜙′ 𝜋
Let the resistance of each heater wire is 𝑅. 𝐼 ′ = 𝐼max cos 2 ( ) = 𝐼max cos 2 ( )
2 3
When two wires are connected in series, the
𝜋 1
heat developed is cos ( ) =
3 2
𝑉 2𝑡 𝜋 1
𝐻1 = (𝑖) cos 2 ( ) =
2𝑅 3 4
When two heater wires are connected in So:
parallel, the heat developed is 1 𝐼0
𝐼 ′ = 𝐼max × =
𝑉 2 𝑡 2𝑉 2 𝑡 4 4
𝐻2 = = (𝑖𝑖)
𝑅/2 𝑅 22. (3)
Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get Given, 𝑓 = +12 cm, 𝑅1 = +10 cm, 𝑅2 =
𝐻1 1 −15 cm.
= or 𝐻1 : 𝐻2 = 1: 4
𝐻2 4 Refractive index of air is taken as unity.
18. (2) From the Lens maker's formula, we have
Given, 𝑤 𝜇𝑔 = 9/8 and 𝑎 𝜇𝑔 = 3/2
Part Test - 03 3

1 1 1
= (𝜇 − 1) ( − )
𝑓 𝑅1 𝑅2
Putting the values in above expression, we get
1 1 1
= (𝜇 − 1) ( − )
12 10 −15
1 1 1
⇒ = (𝜇 − 1) ( + )
12 10 15
3+2 (𝜇 − 1)
= (𝜇 − 1) ( )=
30 6
6 1 3
⇒ = 𝜇 − 1 ⇒ 𝜇 = + 1 = = 1.5
12 2 2
23. (1)
ℎ𝑐 The potential on surface of inner shell is
𝐸photon = 𝑘𝑄 𝑘(−𝑄) 𝑘𝑄
𝜆
𝑉𝐴 = + + (𝑖)
Use ℎ = 6.63 × 10−34 J ⋅ s, 𝑐 = 3 × 108 m/s. 𝑎 𝑏 𝑏
6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 Potential on surface of outer shell is
𝐸photon = 𝑘𝑄 𝑘(−𝑄) 𝑘𝑄
6 × 10−7 𝑉𝐵 = + + (𝑖𝑖)
1.989 × 10−25 𝑏 𝑏 𝑏
= = 3.315 × 10−19 J Then, potential difference is
6 × 10−7
Power incident on area 𝐴 = 𝐼 × 𝐴 = 100 × 1 1
Δ𝑉𝐴𝐵 = 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑘𝑄 ( − )
10−4 = 0.01 W 𝑎 𝑏
ln 1 second, energy 𝐸total = 0.01 J. Given, Δ𝑉𝐴𝐵 = 𝑉
1 1
𝐸total 0.01 So, 𝑘𝑄 ( − ) = 𝑉
𝑁= = ≈ 3.017 × 1016 𝑎 𝑏
𝐸photon 3.315 × 10−19 Finally after giving charge ( −4𝑄 ) to outer
So 𝑁 ≈ 3 × 1016 . shell, potential difference will be
24. (4) Δ𝑉𝐴𝐵 = 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵
Left side mass number: 27 + 4 = 31 𝑘𝑄 𝑘(−4𝑄) 𝑘𝑄 𝑘(−4𝑄)
=( + )−( + )
Right side mass number: 30 + 𝐴𝑋 𝑎 𝑏 𝑏 𝑏
So: 1 1
= 𝑘𝑄 ( − ) = 𝑉
30 + 𝐴𝑋 = 31 ⇒ 𝐴𝑋 = 1 𝑎 𝑏
[from Eq. (iii)]
Left side atomic number: 13 + 2 = 15
Hence, we obtain that potential difference
Right side atomic number: 15 + 𝑍𝑋
does not depend on the charge of outer
So:
sphere and so it remains same.
15 + 𝑍𝑋 = 15 ⇒ 𝑍𝑋 = 0
28. (1)
Particle with mass number 1 and atomic
In Young's double slit experiment, when a thin
number 0 is neutron: 10 𝑛.
transparent plate of thickness 𝑡 and refractive
25. (3)
index 𝜇 is introduced in front of one slit, the
Given, 𝑖𝑔 = 𝑖, 𝐺 = 𝑅0
central fringe shifts to the position originally
𝐼 = 𝑛𝑖 + 𝑖 = (𝑛 + 1)𝑖
occupied by the 𝑛 th bright fringe. This
𝑖𝑔 𝐺 𝑖𝑅0 𝑅0
∴ 𝑆 = = = happens because the plate introduces an
𝐼 − 𝑖𝑔 (𝑛 + 1)𝑖 − 𝑖 𝑛
additional path difference (𝜇 − 1)𝑡 in the path
26. (1)
of light through that slit.
In the photoelectric effect, emission is nearly
The shift corresponds to: (𝜇 − 1)𝑡 = 𝑛𝜆, where
instantaneous (within 10−9 s ). In photoelectric
𝑛 is the order of the fringe that now occupies
emission, a photon gives its entire energy to
the central position. Here the central fringe
one electron
shifts to the position of the 4th bright fringe ⇒
The absence of time-lag is due to the fact that
𝑛 = 4.
energy is transferred in a single quantum
𝜇 = 1.5, 𝜆 = 6000Å = 6000 × 10−10 m
event (photon-electron interaction), not
= 6 × 10−7 m
gradually.
(𝜇 − 1)𝑡 = 4𝜆
So the reason correctly explains the assertion.
(1.5 − 1)𝑡 = 4 × 6 × 10−7
27. (4)
0.5𝑡 = 24 × 10−7
Sol. (d) Initially when uncharged shell −7
24 × 10
encloses charge 𝑄, charge distribution due to 𝑡= = 48 × 10−7 = 4.8 × 10−6 m
0.5
induction will be as shown 29. (2)
4 Part Test - 03

Torque, 𝜏 = 𝐵𝐼𝑁𝐴sin 𝜃 At face 𝐵𝐶𝐺𝐹, 𝑥 = 3

Here, 𝜃 = 90∘ 𝜙2 = 𝐄 ⋅ 𝐀2 = (4𝑥𝐢ˆ − (𝑦 2 + 1)𝐣ˆ) ⋅ 4𝐢ˆ = 16𝑥
⇒ sin 𝜃 = 1, 𝜏 = 1.5 N − m So, 𝜙2 = 16 × 3 = 48 units
𝐴 = 3 × 10−4 m2 , 𝑁 = 500 and 𝑖 = 0.5 A ∴ 𝜙1 − 𝜙2 = 0 − 48 = −48 N − m2 C −1
𝜏 1.5 33. (3)
So, 𝐵 = = = 20 T
𝑖𝑁𝐴 0.5×500×3×10−4
The given logic gate circuit can be drawn as
30. (2)
shown below
For photon:
ℎ𝑐 Here,
𝐸𝑝 =
𝜆
For electron (non-relativistic if needed), de
Broglie relation:
ℎ ℎ
𝜆= ⇒ 𝑝𝑒 =
𝑝𝑒 𝜆
ℎ𝑐
𝐸𝑝 Using de-Morgan's theorem, i.e.
= 𝜆 =𝑐
𝑝𝑒 ℎ 𝑥 ⋅ 𝑦 = 𝑥‾ + 𝑦‾
𝜆
31. (3) ∴ 𝑌 = 𝐴‾ + 𝐵‾ = 𝐴 + 𝐵 [∵ 𝑥‾ = 𝑥]
Let 𝐼0 be the intensity of polarised light after This represents the boolean expression for
passing through the first polariser 𝑃1 . Then the OR gate.
intensity of light after passing through second 34. (4)
polariser 𝑃2 will be In sample 𝑋, no impurity energy level is seen,
𝐼 = 𝐼0 cos 2 𝜃 so it is undoped. In sample 𝑌, impurity energy
where, 𝜃 is the angle between pass axes of 𝑃1 level lies below the conduction band, so it is
and 𝑃2 . Since, 𝑃1 and 𝑃3 are crossed the angle doped with fifth group impurity. In sample 𝑍,
between the pass axes of 𝑃2 and 𝑃3 will be impurity energy level lies above the valence
𝜋 band, so it is doped with third group impurity.
( − 𝜃). Hence, the intensity of light emerging
2 35. (1)
from 𝑃2 will be • Original Square Loop: Side 𝑠, Area 𝑨𝑠𝑞 = 𝑠 2 ,
𝜋
𝐼 = 𝐼0 cos 2 𝜃cos 2 ( − 𝜃) Perimeter 𝑷 = 4𝑠. Magnetic moment 𝑚 = 𝐼𝑠 2 .
2
𝐼0 • Rectangular Loop: Sides 𝑎, 𝑏, Area 𝐴rect = 𝑎𝑏.
𝐼 = 𝐼0 cos 𝜃sin 𝜃 = ( ) sin2 2𝜃
2 2
• Assuming constant perimeter: If the wire
4
Intensity of transmitted light is maximum, length is conserved (4𝑠 = 2𝑎 + 2𝑏), the
when sin2 2𝜃 = 1 magnetic moment is 𝑚′ = 𝐼𝑎𝑏.
𝜋 𝑎+𝑏
⇒ sin 2𝜃 = 1 = sin • Relationship to : Since 𝑚 = 𝐼𝑠 2 , and 𝑠 =
2 2
𝜋 𝜋 in the case of a rectangular loop with the same
⇒ 2𝜃 = ⇒ 𝜃 =
2 4 𝑎+𝑏 2 4𝑎𝑏
perimeter, 𝑚′ = 𝐼𝑎𝑏 = 𝐼 ( ) =
32. (4) 2 (𝑎+𝑏)2
4𝑎𝑏
𝑚 . The maximum possible 𝑚′ is 𝑚
(𝑎+𝑏)2
(when = 𝑏 ).
Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic
dipole moment of the rectangular loop is 𝑰𝒂𝒃
(in A − m2 ).
36. (2)
Energy of H -atom is 𝐸 = −13.6𝑍 2 /𝑛2
for H -atom 𝑍 = 1 and for ground state, 𝑛 = 1.
12
⇒ 𝐸 = −13.6 × 2 = −13.6eV
1
Now for carbon atom (single ionised), 𝑍 = 6
Area vector of face 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷, 𝐀1 = 2 × 3𝐤 ˆ = 6𝐤
ˆ 𝑍2
𝐸 = −13.6 2 = −13.6 (given)
Area vector of face 𝐵𝐶𝐺𝐹, 𝐀2 = 2 × 2𝐢ˆ = 4𝐢ˆ 𝑛
So, flux through face 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷, ⇒ 𝑛 2 = 62 ⇒ 𝑛 = 6
ˆ =0 37. (1)
𝜙1 = 𝐄 ⋅ 𝐀1 = (4𝑥𝐢ˆ − (𝑦 2 + 1)𝐣ˆ) ⋅ 6𝐤
Flux through face BCGF,
Part Test - 03 5

For heavy nuclei (large ), the number of = 𝐴𝐴‾ + 𝐴𝐵‾ + 𝐵𝐴‾ + 𝐵𝐵‾
neutrons 𝑁 is greater than protons 𝑃 to reduce = 𝑂 + 𝐴𝐵‾ + 𝐵𝐴‾ + 0 = 𝐴𝐵‾ + 𝐴‾𝐵
electrostatic repulsion. which give XOR gate．
But even with 𝑁/𝑃 > 1, beyond a certain size, 41. (4)
no combination of 𝑁 and 𝑃 makes the nucleus According to Lenz＇s law，electromagnetic
stable. induction takes place in the aluminium plate
Why are heavy nuclei unstable? due to which eddy current is developed which
The strong nuclear force is short-range (acts oppose the motion or vibrations of coil．
only between neighbouring nucleons). This causes loss in energy which results in
Electrostatic repulsion between protons is damping of oscillatory motion of the coil．
long-range and acts throughout the nucleus.
42. (3)
As the nucleus gets larger, the repulsive
Coulomb energy grows faster than the Sol. (c) We know that, net change in energy of
attractive nuclear binding energy. Thus, a photon in a transition with wavelength 𝜆 is
beyond a certain size, electrostatic repulsion Δ𝐸 = ℎ𝑐/𝜆.
dominates, making the nucleus unstable for Here, ℎ𝑐 = 12500eV − Å and 𝜆 = 980Å
any 𝑁/𝑃 ratio. ∴ Δ𝐸 = 12500/980 = 12.76eV ⇒ 𝐸𝑛 − 𝐸1
(1) = 12.76eV
Since, the energy associated with an electron
Two resistances of each side of triangle are
in 𝑛th Bohr's orbit is given as
connected in parallel. Therefore, the effective
−13.6
resistance of each arm of the triangle would 𝐸𝑛 = eV (𝑖)
𝑟×𝑟 𝑟 𝑛2
be = = . ⇒ 𝐸𝑛 = 𝐸1 + 12.76eV (𝑖𝑖)
𝑟+𝑟 2
The two arms 𝐴𝐵 and 𝐴𝐶 are in series and −13.6
= + 12.76 = −0.84 (𝑖𝑖)
they together are in parallel with third one. (1)2
∴ 𝑅′ = (𝑟/2) + (𝑟/2) = 𝑟 Putting this value in Eq. (i)
Total resistance, −13.6
⇒ 𝑛2 = = 16 ⇒ 𝑛 = 4
1 1 2 3 −0.84
= + = th
and radius of 𝑛 orbit, 𝑟𝑛 = 𝑛2 a 0 ⇒ 𝑟𝑛 = 16a 0
𝑅 𝑟 𝑟 𝑟
𝑟 43. (3)
⇒𝑅 =
3 First focal point = focal point on the object
38. (4)
side.
1 1
As, 𝜈 = 𝑅𝐶 [ 2 − ], we get ⇒ |𝑢| = 𝑥 + 𝑓.
𝑛𝑓 𝑛𝑖2
Thus object distance 𝑢 = −(𝑥 + 𝑓) (real object
1 1
𝑣1 = 𝑅𝐶 ( − ) = 𝑅𝐶 in front).
1 ∞
1 1 3 1 1 1
𝑣2 = 𝑅𝐶 ( − ) = 𝑅𝐶 = −
1 4 4 𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
and 𝑣3 = 𝑅𝐶 ( − ) = 𝑅𝐶 = + = − ( since 𝑢 = −(𝑥 + 𝑓))
4 ∞ 4 𝑣 𝑓 𝑢 𝑓 𝑥+𝑓
𝑅𝐶
Clearly, 𝑣1 − 𝑣2 = = 𝑣3 , i.e. 𝑣1 − 𝑣2 = 𝑣3 So:
4
1 (𝑥 + 𝑓) − 𝑓 𝑥
39. (3) = =
𝑣 𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑓) 𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑓)
(c)
1
𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑓)
By using 𝑒 = 𝐵𝑙 2 𝜔 𝑣=
2 𝑥
For part 𝐴𝑂; 𝑒𝑂𝐴 = 𝑒𝑂 − 𝑒𝐴 = 𝐵𝑙 2 𝜔
1 𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑓)
2 𝑣 𝑥 𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑓) 𝑓
1 𝑚=− =− = =
For part 𝑂𝐶; 𝑒𝑂𝐶 = 𝑒𝑂 − 𝑒𝐶 = 𝐵(3𝑙)2 𝜔 𝑢 −(𝑥 + 𝑓) 𝑥(𝑥 + 𝑓) 𝑥
2
∴ 𝑒𝐴 − 𝑒𝐶 = 4𝐵𝑙 2 𝜔 44. (1)

40. (2) 45. (1)

Output of 𝐺1 = (𝐴 + 𝐵)
Output of 𝐺2 = 𝐴 ⋅ 𝐵
Output of 𝐺3 = (𝐴 + 𝐵) ⋅ 𝐴 ⋅ 𝐵 = (𝐴 + 𝐵)(𝐴‾ +
𝐵‾ )
6 Part Test - 03

= 273.15 K − 4.085 K = 269.07 K

52. (2)
A( g) ⟶ B( g) + C( g)
At t = 0 Pi
At t time Pi − x
Now, Pt = (Pi − x) + x + x
= Pi + x
800
→ 𝑅= ∩ 𝑣 = 4𝑣. x = Pt − Pi
3
4×3 12 3 PA = (Pi − x) on substituting the value of x
∴ 𝑖= = = A. PA = Pi − (Pt − Pi ) = 2Pi − Pt
800 800 200 2.303 Pi
200 3 ∴ K= log
𝑣= × = 1𝑣. t 2Pi −Pt
3 200 53. (3)
Extensive properties are the properties which
Chemistry depend upon the quantity of the matter
46. (2) contained in the system e.g mass, volume,
At cathode: Na+ + e− → Na Gibbs free energy etc. Intensive properties are
Na + Hg → Na − Hg the properties which depend only upon the
47. (2) nature of the substance and are independent
1 of the amount of the substance present in the
Xurea = = 0.1
10
9 system. e.g- heat, boiling point, emf of cell.
X H2 O = = 0.9
10 54. (2)
P0 −PS
= Xurea For the reaction A + B → C + D the variation of
P0
40−PS the concentration of the product is given by the
= 0.1
40 curve Y.
S
P = 36mmHg Initially the product concentration is 0 , then it
48. (4) gradually rises and reaches a maximum value.
Addition of solute will decrease the vapour After it remain constant.
pressure as some of the sites of the surface This behaviour is represented by the curve Y.
will be occupied by the solute particles. 55. (3)
Whereas, the addition of solvent will result in Pb ⟶ Pb2+ + 2e− (oxidation)
dilution, ultimately increasing the surface area Cu2++2e− ⟶Pb2+ +Cu
→
of the liquid surface. Thus, increasing the Pb+Cu2+ ⟶Cu (Reduction)
0 0 0
vapour pressure. Ecell = Ered − Eoxi
49. (1) = 0.518 − (−0.127) = 0.645 V
Isotonic solution have C1 = C2 56. (1)
8.6 5 × 1000 Rate law is always written according to the
=
60 × 1 M. wt × 100 slowest step and thus the exponents for
5 × 10 × 60 concentrations do not necessarily match the
M. wt = = 348.83gm/mol
8.6 stiochiometric coefficients.
50. (3) 57. (4)
normal molecular mass
Van't Hoff factor = Epoxide form primary alcohol when react with
observed molecular mass
51. (3) Grignard reagent.
ΔTf = K f m
Δ Tf1 m1
=
Δ Tf2 m2

For cane sugar

ΔTf1 = 273.15 K − 271 K = 2.15 K
m1 = 342 g/mol
for glucose solution
ΔTf2 = ?
m2 = 180 g/mol
342 × 2.15
ΔTf2 = = 4.085 K
180
So, freezing point of glucose solution
58. (2)
Part Test - 03 7

According to Arrhenius equation, k = Ae−Ea/RT 𝜇 = √1(1 + 2)𝐵𝑀 = √3𝐵𝑀

When Ea = 0, k = A. (I) [Cu(CN)4 ]3− 𝜇 = 0 (Diamagnetic)
59. (2) (II) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+ 𝜇 = 0 (Diamagnetic)
In [Cu(CN)4 ]3− , Cu is in +1 oxidation state (III) [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2+ 𝜇 = √8BM (Paramagnetic)
10 1
29 Cu: [Ar]3 d 4 s
+ 10 0
(IV) [Fe(CN)6 ]3− 𝜇 = √3BM (Paramagnetic)
Cu : [Ar]3 d 4 s
60. (4)
3 d10

So, unpaired electron in [Cu(CN)4 ]3− is 0 .

61. (1)
The magnetic moment ⃗ = √n(n + 2) =
u ΔTf 0.73
√0(0 + 2)𝜇 = 0. ΔTf = K f ⋅ m ⇒ K f = =
m 0.1435
In [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+ , Co is in +3 oxidation state. = 5.087Km−1
7 2 62. (1)
27 Co: [Ar]3 d 4 s
3+ 6 0
Co : [Ar]3 d 4 s

After pairing

63. (3)
The specific conductivity decreases while
equivalent and molar conductivities increase
Co3+ with NH3 ligand form inner sphere
with dilution.
complex.
64. (1)
So, paring of electron take place due to which
At cathode : Cu2+ (aq) + 2e− → Cu(s)
it has 0 unpaired electrons and magnetic
(Reduction)
moment 𝜇 = 0.
At anode : Cu(s) → Cu2+ (aq) + 2e− (Oxidation)
In [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2+ , Ni is in +2 oxidation state.
8 2
65. (1)
28 Ni: [Ar]3 d 4 s The order of a reaction can have fractional
Ni2+ ; [Ar]3 d8 4 s 0 value. The order of a reaction can not be
written from balanced equation of a reaction
because its value changes with pressure,
temperature, and concentration. It can only be
In presence of NH3 , electron do not pair up. determined experimentally.
So, unpaired electron in [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2+ is 2 . 66. (2)
0 0 0
Then magnetic moment 𝜇 = √2(2 + 2) = Ecell = Ecathode − Eanode
0
Ecell = −0.41 − (−0.76) = 0.35 V
√8BM
67. (3).
In [Fe(CN)6 ]3− , Fe is in +3 oxidation state
6 2 List-I List-II
26 Fe: [Ar]3 d 4 s
3+ 5 0 (A) XeF4 (II) Square planar
Fe : [Ar]3 d 4 s
(B) XeF6 (I) Distorted octahedral
(C) XeO3 (III) Pyramidal
(D) XeO4 (IV) Tetrahedral
68. (1)
Due to presence of strong field ligand CN
For a reaction, t1/2 ∝ (a)1−n = K(a)1−n
pairing take place.
or log 𝑡1/2 = (1 − 𝑛)log(𝑎) + log 𝐾
𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑐
slope = 𝑚 = 1 − 𝑛
Number of unpaired electrons become 1 i.e. ∴ 1 − 𝑛 = tan 45∘ = 1
∴ 𝑛 = 0[ order ]
n = 1.
Now, for a zero-order reaction,
So, magnetic moment 𝜇 = √𝑛(𝑛 + 2)
8 Part Test - 03

[A]0 2KMnO4 + 16HCl

𝑡1/2 =
2K → 2KCl + 2MnCl2 + 5H2 O
where, K is the rate constant. + 8Cl2
[A]0 Mn is reduced from +7 to +2 and Cl2 is
⇒K=
2t1/2 produced.
From the graph we have: 76. (4)
log 𝑡1/2 = log[A]0 Sulphur dioxide ( SO2 ) is a colorless,
⇒ 𝑡1/2 = [𝐴]0 (Taking antilog on both sides) nonflammable gas with a pungent odour that
[A]0 1 is detectable by the human nose. It also
So, from eqn. above, K = =
2[ A]0 2
dissolves in water to form Sulphurous acid, i.e.
69. (2)
SO2 + H2 O → H2 SO3 Bleaching by sulphur
Due to larger atomic size P is unable to form
dioxide is temporary as atmospheric oxygen
pi bond and so it is tetra-atomic in which each
re-oxides the bleached matter after some
P atom is linked with 3 other P atoms by 3
time.
sigma bonds.
77. (3)
70. (2)
More acidic H will be eliminated and Hoffmann
In presence of Non-polar Solvent ( CS2 ), the
elimination take place.
ionization of phenol is suppressed.
78. (4)
DMSO is a polar aprotic solvent.
79. (2)
Isopropyl isocyanide

Whereas, in presence of water (polar solvent),

80. (3)
the ionization of phenol is enhanced, hence it
undergoes poly substitution.

1-Bromo-2,2 Dimethylpropane
81. (4)
71. (3) Metal-carbon 𝜎 bond is formed by the
CHCl3 sample contains phosgene ( COCl2 ), it donation of lone pair of electrons of carbonyl
will give a white ppt when treated with AgNO3 carbon into vacant d-orbital of metal. Metal-
solution in cold. After boiling AgNO3 solution carbon bond in metal carbonyls possesses
with alcoholic KOH will always give white ppt both 𝜎 and 𝜋 character. Metal-carbon 𝜋 bond
with CHCl3 , whether it contains COCl2 or not. is formed by the donation of lone pair of
72. (1) electrons from filled d-orbital of metal to
In 3𝑠 2 3𝑝6 3𝑑 5 4𝑠1 , the last electron is entering vacant 𝜋 ∗ orbital of carbonyl.
in 𝑑 orbital making it a transition element.
73. (2)
List-I List-II
(A) Oleum (III) H2 S2 O7
(B) Caro's acid (II) H2 SO5
(C) Marshall's acid (I) H2 S2 O8
82. (2)
74. (1)
Wilkinson's Catalyst [Rh(Ph3 P)3 ]Cl is used for
Non-metallic character ∝ Acidic strength ( P <
hydrogenation of alkenes. The rhodium is able
S < Cl )
to form a 6-coordinate complex, allowing it to
75. (3)
selectively reduce alkenes. The Wilkinson's
catalyst is not able to reduce carbon-oxygen
double bonds or double bonds, and it
Part Test - 03 9

selectively reduces the least hindered double Biology

bond.
83. (1)
91. (4)
In the compounds [Co(NH3 )5 (ONO)]Cl2, the
Estrogen is the primary hormone responsible
oxidation state of cobalt is +3 and here 5NH3
for the development of female secondary
ligand and NO2 ligand are attached to the
sexual characteristics.
central atom. The linkage isomer of the above
92. (1)
complex is [Co(NH3 )5 (ONO)]Cl2 so, its name
For normal fertility, at least 60% of sperms
is pentaamminenitrito-O-cobalt(III) chloride
must have normal shape and size, and at least
84. (2)
40% must show vigorous motility.
𝜋 acid ligand are CO, CN − , NO+ .
93. (1)
85. (1)
First polar bodies are formed at the completion
[Ni(CO)4 ]
of meiosis-I; Sertoli cells secrete inhibin;
Ni = [Ar]3 d8 4 s 2
Interstitial cells are located between
seminiferous tubules; and Spermatids are
haploid cells formed during spermatogenesis.
94. (4)
Nirodh is a male contraceptive (condom),
while Cu-T, LNG-20, and Saheli are used by
86. (1)
females.
The correct order for the spectrochemical
95. (2)
series of ligands is Cl− < NO− −
2 < CN < CO.
Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer constructed
This order is based on the increasing field
the first recombinant DNA in 1972.
strength and is determined from experimental
96. (1)
measurements.
While statements about Bt toxin,
87. (4)
Agrobacterium, and insulin are correct, the
Fe+2 = [Ar]3 d6
− claim that scientists learnt about plant
Ligand = CN (Strong)
regeneration from explants in the 1960s is
incorrect (this milestone occurred earlier).
97. (4)
The technique of transferring embryos with
88. (2)
more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus is
Trans effect = CN − > CH3− > OH − > H2 O
known as IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer).
89. (2)
98. (1)
Claisen rearrangement is an organic chemical
Australopithecines are considered the
reaction that offers a powerful method of the
connecting link between man and apes; they
formation of carbon-carbon bonds. The
used stone weapons but primarily ate fruits.
reactant of this reaction - allyl vinyl ether, is
99. (4)
converted into a gamma, delta-unsaturated
Hashish is an extract obtained from the plant
carbonyl compound when subjected to heat or
Cannabis sativa.
a Lewis acid.
100. (2)
Amoebiosis is a disease caused by a
protozoan parasite.
101. (2)
90. (4) There are approximately 200,000 varieties of
Primary alcohols can also be oxidised to their rice found in India alone.
corresponding aldehydes using pyridinium 102. (4)
chlorochromate (PCC) Progesterone can be used to postpone
menstrual bleeding as it helps maintain the
endometrial lining.
103. (3)
Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when an Rh-
negative mother has an Rh-positive child
10 Part Test - 03

(such as A+, B+, or O+); the mother's 117. (3)

antibodies attack the fetal red blood cells. Following ovulation, the Graafian follicle
104. (4) transforms into the corpus luteum, which
Ferns, conifers, and gnetales evolved from serves as a temporary endocrine gland.
Psilophyton, but Bryophytes did not. 118. (3)
105. (4) Hugo de Vries formulated his mutation theory
Among the listed options, implanted while conducting research on the evening
contraceptives have the highest success rate primrose, Oenothera lamarckiana.
in preventing pregnancy. 119. (2)
106. (4) There is typically a time-lag of 5-10 years
Once foreign DNA is inserted into a bacterial between initial HIV infection and the onset of
plasmid, the resulting molecule is described AIDS symptoms.
as recombinant. 120. (3)
107. (1) Ringworm is a widespread fungal infection
Both statements are correct: restriction affecting humans.
enzymes are sourced from prokaryotes, and 121. (4)
Hind II was the first such enzyme discovered. Oral pills prevent conception by inhibiting
108. (4) ovulation and implantation and by altering
This statement is incorrect because the cervical mucus quality to block sperm.
primary oocyte completes its first meiotic 122. (4)
division within a tertiary follicle, not a PCR requires three essential components: a
secondary one. DNA template, primers, and Taq polymerase.
109. (4) 123. (2)
Wombat and koala are both marsupials and Natural killer cells are a cellular barrier;
represent divergent evolution; the other pairs similarly, tears (containing lysozyme) function
listed are examples of convergent evolution as a physiological barrier.
between placental and marsupial mammals. 124. (2)
110. (3) The matches are: Lippes loop (Non-
The protein content in the milk of the medicated), Multiload-375 (Copper-
transgenic cow 'Rosie' was 2.4 gm/L, not 4-5 releasing), Progestasert/LNG-20 (Hormone-
gm/L. releasing), and Saheli (Non-steroidal pill).
111. (3) 125. (3)
The assertion is true as transgenic animals In the GIFT procedure, an ovum (gamete) is
are made more sensitive to toxins, but the transferred into the fallopian tube, not a
reason is false because testing in non- zygote.
transgenic animals actually takes more time. 126. (4)
112. (3) High levels of estrogen and progesterone
Louis Pasteur famously demonstrated through during pregnancy act as GnRH inhibitors,
experiments that life only arises from pre- which prevents the secretion of LH and FSH.
existing life. 127. (3)
113. (2) Statement 'b' (vaccine memory) and 'c'
B-lymphocytes are the specific cells (allergy chemicals) are correct; 'a' is wrong
responsible for the production of antibodies. because colostrum has IgA, and 'd' is wrong
114. (2) because arthritis affects joints.
The specific DNA recognition sequence for the 128. (4)
restriction enzyme EcoR1 is 5' GAATTC 3'. Both Dengue and Chikungunya are spread
115. (3) through the bite of an infected female Aedes
Digesting a 6 kb circular DNA with two sites 2 mosquito.
kb apart yields two fragments (2 kb and 4 kb), 129. (4)
which matches the bands shown in Lane III. Only statement I is correct (interferons); innate
116. (2) immunity is non-specific (II is wrong) and
The use of microbial metabolism to eliminate monocytes/neutrophils are part of innate
environmental pollutants is called immunity (III is wrong).
bioremediation. 130. (3)
Part Test - 03 11

Cell Mediated Immunity is driven by T-cells Pure homozygous for both traits (AaBb ×
matured in the thymus (a) and is the cause of AaBb)
graft rejection (c). Possible homozygous combinations:
131. (4) AABB, AAbb, aaBB, aabb = 4
Only one statement (a) is fully correct; UV/X- Probability = 4/16
rays are physical carcinogens (b), cancer is 140. (4)
non-infectious (c), and chemotherapy targets Blood group not possible (AB × AB)
all proliferating cells (d). Gametes: A, B × A, B
132. (3) Possible: AA, AB, BB
Statements a, b, and d are correct regarding Phenotypes: A, AB, B
vector-borne diseases, safer vaccines, and O not possible
the skin as a physical barrier. 141. (4)
133. (3) Big and wrinkled tongue
MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is the Klinefelter syndrome shows all except
technique that utilizes strong magnetic fields Features:
and non-ionizing radiation to find cancerous 47, XXY
tissue. Gynecomastia
134. (3) Masculine appearance
The genetic material of HIV consists of two 142. (3)
strands of single-stranded (ss) RNA. 25%
135. (3) Haemophilia carrier woman × normal man
Wrong statement w.r.t. flowering plants Genotype:
Explanation: XᴴXʰ × XᴴY
MMC forms in micropylar region of nucellus, Possible:
not chalazal region. XᴴXᴴ (normal girl)
Other statements are correct (NCERT: Sexual XᴴXʰ (carrier girl)
Reproduction in Flowering Plants). XᴴY (normal boy)
136. (3) XʰY (haemophilic boy)
Incorrect statements for population with = 1/4 = 25%
unlimited resources 143. (1)
Explanation: RNA polymerase I
Unlimited resources → Exponential growth (J- 28S rRNA synthesized by
shaped curve) 144. (4)
(a) Correct – J-shaped curve. Wildlife sanctuaries
(b) Correct – No equilibrium with carrying Odd one (ex-situ conservation)
capacity. Ex-situ = outside natural habitat
(c) Logistic equation → wrong. Seed bank
(d) Lag → acceleration → deceleration → Zoo
asymptote → logistic growth. Safari park
137. (3) Sanctuary = in-situ
Co-evolution 145. (3)
Cause of biodiversity loss (except) Lac y gene
Major causes = “Evil Quartet”: Permease enzyme
Habitat loss lac operon genes:
Over-exploitation lacZ → β-galactosidase
Alien species invasion lacY → permease
Co-extinction lacA → transacetylase
138. (3) 146. (2)
UAC Autosomal trisomy of chromosome 21
Anticodon of methionine Down syndrome
Codon = AUG 147. (3)
Anticodon = UAC Population is mature or stable
139. (1) Bell-shaped age pyramid
4/16 148. (4)
12 Part Test - 03

Only b and c Both statements correct

Not true for sewage treatment GFC and DFC
(a) Correct – Primary treatment removes Grazing food chain → aquatic systems
debris dominant
(b) Incorrect – Flocs form in aeration tank, not Detritus food chain → begins with dead matter
anaerobic digester 160. (1)
(c) Incorrect – BOD decreases, not increases Species–area relationship
(d) Correct – Activated sludge returned Species richness increases with area.
149. (3) 161. (1)
Match the following BOD measures all except
Column I Column II BOD measures oxygen consumption, not CO₂
Coleorrhiza sheath enclosing radicle uptake.
Plumule forms shoot 162. (4)
Endosperm nourishment In flowering plants
Perisperm persistent nucellus Ovary wall → pericarp
A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii 163. (2)
150. (3) Tapetum
Balanus living with Chthamalus Microsporangium layer with dense cytoplasm
Not commensalism Tapetal cells often binucleate/multinucleate.
This is competition. 164. (3) Mucilaginous covering
151. (3) Pollen protection in water pollination
No codon has dual functions 165. (4)
Not true about genetic code Wrinkled yellow seeds
Exception: AUG Wrinkled = rr
Start codon Yellow = Y_
Codes methionine Probability = 3/16
152. () 166. (4)
X-linked dominant pedigree Microsatellite DNA – 11–60 bp
(Diagram not provided — but typically answer Wrong match
corresponds to pattern where affected father Microsatellite repeats = 1–6 bp.
passes trait to all daughters but not sons.) 167. (3)
153. (2) Phenylketonuria
18.75% Example of pleiotropy
Round green seeds (F₂) Single gene affects multiple traits.
Round = dominant (R) 168. (3)
Green = recessive (yy) Biodiversity hotspots
Probability = 3/16 = 18.75% Odd one (ex-situ conservation)
154. (3) Hotspots = in-situ concept.
tRNA 169. (4)
RNA polymerase III transcribes Incorrect ploidy match
155. (3) Female gametophyte = n, not 2n.
Birds 170. (2)
Maximum species in Amazon rainforest Xenogamy
156. (1) Pollination between different plants
Pollination in cucumber 171. (4)
Cucumber = unisexual flowers Odd statement for DNA structure
157. (4) Sugar–base bond = N-glycosidic bond, not
DNA strands are antiparallel phosphoester.
Correct statement 172. (3)
158. (4) Incorrect statement about replication
Ex-situ conservation strategy Template 3'→5' produces continuous (leading
Not true for hotspots strand).
Hotspots are regions, not strategies. 173. (1)
159. (4) Repressor protein
Part Test - 03 13

Mutation in regulatory gene (lacI) Rate of production during photosynthesis

lacI gene → repressor. 178. (2)
174. (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
Totipotency Major cause of extinction
Ability to form whole plant from cell 179. (4)
175. (2) Incorrect match
Vitamin B12 Rabbit = primary consumer, not tertiary.
LAB improves milk by increasing 180. (4)
176. (2) Banana
Barnacles on whale Thalamus contributes to fruit except
Example of commensalism Apple, strawberry, cashew = false fruits
177. (1) (thalamus involved).
Gross Primary Productivity