AIIMS Paramedical 2025 Question Paper
(Memory Based)
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PHYSICS PYQs
🔹 Chapter: Units & Measurements
Q1. The dimensional formula of electric potential (voltage) is:
A. ML²T⁻²I⁻¹
B. ML²T⁻³I⁻¹
C. MLT⁻³I⁻¹
D. ML²T⁻¹I⁻²
✅ Correct Answer: B
Solution:
Voltage = Work / Charge
Work = ML²T⁻²
Charge = IT
∴ Voltage = ML²T⁻³I⁻¹ ✔
🔹 Chapter: Laws of Motion / Kinematics
Q2. A body moves with uniform acceleration and attains a velocity of 54
m/s. What is its velocity?
A. 36 m/s
B. 45 m/s
C. 54 m/s
D. 72 m/s
✅ Correct Answer: C
🔹 Chapter: Rotational Motion
Q3. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R
about its diameter is:
A. (2/5)MR²
B. (3/5)MR²
C. (5/2)MR²
D. MR²
✅ Correct Answer: A
Solution:
Standard formula:
I (solid sphere) = (2/5)MR²
🔹 Chapter: Thermodynamics
Q4. The molar heat capacity at constant volume (Cv) of a monoatomic
gas is:
A. 12.47 J/mol K
B. 14.14 J/mol K
C. 20.78 J/mol K
D. 8.31 J/mol K
✅ Correct Answer: B
Solution:
Cv = (3/2)R
= (3/2) × 8.31
= 14.14 J/mol K
Q5. The work done during an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is:
A. Zero
B. 16 J
C. 32 J
D. Depends on temperature only
✅ Correct Answer: B
🔹 Chapter: Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Q6. The excess pressure inside a liquid drop of radius R and surface
tension S is:
A. S/R
B. 3S/R
C. 2S/R
D. 4S/R
✅ Correct Answer: C
Solution:
Excess pressure (liquid drop) = 2S/R
📕 CLASS 12 PHYSICS
🔹 Chapter: Dual Nature of Radiation & Matter
Q7. If an electron and a proton have the same kinetic energy, the ratio
of their de-Broglie wavelengths is:
A. 1
B. 10
C. 43
D. 1836
✅ Correct Answer: C
Solution:
λ ∝ 1/√m
λₑ / λ = √(m / mₑ)
≈ √1836 ≈ 43
🔹 Chapter: Atoms
Q8. The radius of the second orbit of a He⁺ ion is 0.1 nm if Bohr radius is
given. This is because:
A. He⁺ has one electron
B. Nuclear charge is doubled
C. Radius ∝ n²/Z
D. Mass increases
✅ Correct Answer: C
🔹 Chapter: Electromagnetic Induction
Q9. If current in a coil changes from 4 A to 0 A in 0.5 s and induced EMF
is 120 V, the self-inductance is:
A. 10 H
B. 12 H
C. 15 H
D. 20 H
✅ Correct Answer: C
Solution:
EMF = L (ΔI/Δt)
120 = L (4/0.5)
L = 15 H
Q10. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop of radius R
carrying current I is:
A. μ₀I/2πR
B. μ₀I/2R
C. μ₀IR/2
D. μ₀I/R
✅ Correct Answer: B
Formula:
B = μ₀I / 2R
🔹 Chapter: Current Electricity
Q11. The EMF of a cell calculated under given conditions is:
A. 2.4 V
B. 3.6 V
C. 4.8 V
D. 6.0 V
✅ Correct Answer: C
🔹 Chapter: Magnetism & Matter
Q12. The magnetisation of a material is found to be:
A. 4 × 10³ A/m
B. 4 × 10⁴ A/m
C. 4 × 10⁵ A/m
D. 4 × 10⁶ A/m
✅ Correct Answer: C
🔹 Chapter: Ray Optics
Q13. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror and the
magnification obtained is:
A. –20
B. –6
C. +6
D. +20
✅ Correct Answer: C
Q14. The magnification produced by an optical system is 20. This
indicates:
A. Image is real & inverted
B. Image is virtual & erect
C. Image is diminished
D. Image is at infinity
✅ Correct Answer: B
🔹 Chapter: Alternating Current
Q15. Energy loss in a transformer can be reduced by:
A. Using thin wire
B. Increasing voltage
C. Using thick copper wire
D. Increasing resistance
✅ Correct Answer: C
✅ Exam Tip Box
✔ These MCQs are numerical + theory mixed
✔ Focus on formulas + dimensional analysis
BIOLOGY PYQs
🔹 Chapter: Principles of Inheritance & Variation
Q1. Mendel prevented self-pollination in pea plants during hybridisation
experiments by using the technique of:
A. Bagging
B. Pollination
C. Emasculation
D. Cloning
✅ Correct Answer: C. Emasculation
📝 Explanation:
Emasculation involves removal of anthers before pollen release to prevent
self-pollination.
Q2. Adaptive radiation is an example of:
A. Convergent evolution
B. Parallel evolution
C. Divergent evolution
D. Co-evolution
✅ Correct Answer: C. Divergent evolution
📝 Explanation:
One ancestral species diversifies into multiple species adapted to different niches.
Q3. Hardy–Weinberg principle explains:
A. Mutation rate
B. Genetic equilibrium in a population
C. Speciation
D. Natural selection only
✅ Correct Answer: B. Genetic equilibrium in a population
📝 Explanation:
Allele frequencies remain constant if no evolutionary forces act.
🔹 Chapter: Reproduction in Flowering Plants / Human
Reproduction
Q4. The beginning of the menstrual cycle in human females is known as:
A. Ovulation
B. Menopause
C. Menarche
D. Fertilisation
✅ Correct Answer: C. Menarche
📝 Explanation:
Menarche marks the first menstrual bleeding during puberty.
🔹 Chapter: Plant Kingdom / Classification
Q5. Angiosperms were classified based on natural system by:
A. Linnaeus
B. Whittaker
C. Bentham and Hooker
D. Engler and Prantl
✅ Correct Answer: C. Bentham and Hooker
🔹 Chapter: Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q6. The starch sheath is a characteristic feature of:
A. Epidermis of leaf
B. Endodermis of dicot stem
C. Pericycle of root
D. Cortex of monocot stem
✅ Correct Answer: B. Endodermis of dicot stem
📝 Explanation:
Endodermis contains starch grains and is called the starch sheath.
🔹 Chapter: Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q7. Which of the following statements about the floral formula of
Solanaceae is incorrect?
A. Actinomorphic flower
B. Bisexual flower
C. Superior ovary
D. Inferior ovary
✅ Correct Answer: D. Inferior ovary
📝 Explanation:
Solanaceae has a superior ovary, not inferior.
Q8. Vexillary aestivation is commonly seen in:
A. Solanaceae
B. Liliaceae
C. Fabaceae
D. Poaceae
✅ Correct Answer: C. Fabaceae
📝 Explanation:
In vexillary aestivation, the largest petal (standard) overlaps others.
🔹 Chapter: Body Fluids & Circulation
Q9. Platelets are produced from which cells in the bone marrow?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Megakaryocytes
D. Lymphocytes
✅ Correct Answer: C. Megakaryocytes
📝 Explanation:
Megakaryocytes fragment to form platelets.
🔹 Chapter: Plant Growth & Development
Q10. Auxin is chemically derived from:
A. Adenine
B. Cytokinin
C. Indole-3-acetic acid
D. Gibberellic acid
✅ Correct Answer: C. Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA)
📝 Explanation:
IAA is the most common naturally occurring auxin.
✅ Quick Revision Box
✔ Mendel → Emasculation
✔ Menstrual start → Menarche
✔ Angiosperm classification → Bentham & Hooker
✔ Starch sheath → Endodermis (Dicot stem)
✔ Solanaceae → Superior ovary
✔ Fabaceae → Vexillary aestivation
✔ Platelets → Megakaryocytes
✔ Adaptive radiation → Divergent evolution
✔ Auxin → IAA
Subject-Wise Question Paper Analysis
Physics
The Physics section had around 30 questions related to basic concepts from the
NCERT syllabus: Mechanics, Electromagnetism, Optics, Thermodynamics, and Modern
Physics. The level of difficulty was moderate to difficult with many basic
formula-based questions as well as some application-based questions.
Chemistry
The Chemistry section also had around 30 questions and had components of all
aspects of Chemistry: Physical Chemistry, Organic Chemistry, and Inorganic
Chemistry. The level of difficulty was Easy to moderate and much easier for
candidates who have a solid response rate from the NCERT content; the section was
much more balanced and had less calculation-based questions, similar to the Physics
section, so candidates were able to run through it quicker.
Biology
The Biology section, which was compulsory for candidates applying for courses like
Bachelor of Optometry, had around 30 questions based on Class 11 and 12 from the
NCERT syllabus. Topics included Human Physiology, Genetics, Ecology and Plant and
Animal Physiology. The level of difficulty was Easy. Many candidates viewed the
Biology section as the easiest as it relied heavily on the NCERT, content included and
the number of calculation-based questions was much lower than the other sections.
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