Mannat Nursing Academy, Sector 34 Chandigarh

Name- Negative marking- 1/4

No. Of Questions- 60 Time Duration- 1.5hr

1. If a hybrid expresses a character, it is called _________

(a) Epistasis
(b) Dominant
(c) Co-dominant
(d) Recessive
2. A plant having the genotype AABbCC will produce ______ kinds of gametes

(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
3. Colour blindness is an _________ linked recessive trait

(a) Z chromosome
(b) Y chromosome
(c) X chromosome
(d) None of the above
4. In most species, mitochondrial DNA is passed down from

(a) DNA
(b) Mother and Father
(c) Father
(d) Mother
5. Where are the genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants located?

(a) Chloroplast genome

(b) Mitochondrial genome
(c) Cytosome
(d) None of the above
6. _________ is a type of trait whose phenotype is influenced by more than one gene

(a) Oncogenic Trait

 (b) Monogenic trait
(c) Polygenic trait
(d) None of the above
7. An individual’s collection of genes is called ______

(a) Genotype
(b) Phenotype
(c) Trait
(d) None of the above
8. A man marries a woman and both do not show any apparent traits of inherited
disease. Five sons and two daughters are born, and three of their sons suffer from a
disease. However, none of the daughters is affected. The following mode of
inheritance for the disease is

(a) Sex-linked recessive

(b) Sex-linked dominant
(c) Autosomal dominant
(d) None of the above
9. A trait that “overpowers” and hide another trait is called

(a) Overpowering trait

(b) Complex trait
(c) Recessive trait
(d) Dominant Trait
10. Why is haemophilia a disease that is more commonly seen in males?

a) Both (2) and (3)

b) The disease is Y- linked
c) The disease is X- linked
d) None of the above
11. Which of the following is a recessive trait in pea plants?

a) Dwarf stem height

b) Violet flowers
c) Axial flowers
d) Inflated pods
12. Which of the following is not a pair of contrasting traits studied by Mendel?
a) Green and yellow pods
b) Full and constricted pods
c) Axial and terminal flowers
d) Pink and white flowers
13. What was the type of pea lines used by Mendel?
a) True-breeding
b) False-breeding
c) Not breeding
d) Indefinitely breeding
14. What method is used to produce a true-breeding line?
a) Self-pollination
b) Cross-pollination
c) Artificial pollination
d) Allogamy
15. In Mirabilis jalapa, the number of F2 red flowered plants is a cross of red
flowered X white havered would be-
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
16. Which of the following genes have similar genotypic effect when present
separately but produce different traits after interacting together and give a ratio of 9: 7
in F2 generation?
(a)Complementary genes
(b)Jumping genes
(c) Duplicate genes
(d) House-keeping genes
17. Multiple alleles control the character of
(a) only skin color
(b) only blood groups
(c) blood groups and skin color
(d) sickle-cell

18. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but

carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is
(a) autosomal dominant
(b) autosomal recessive
(c) sex-linked dominant
(d) sex-linked recessive.

19. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the
following triplets codes for valine ?
(a) GGG
(b) A AG
(c) G A A
(d) GUG
20. ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in
(a) platypus
(b) snails
(c) cockroach
(d) peacock
21. What is the probability of production of dwarf offsprings in a cross betweeen two
heterozygous tall pea plants ?
(a) Zero
(b) 50 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 100 %
22. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW – ZZ type of sex
determination ?
(a) It occurs in birds and some reptiles.
(b) Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic.
(c) 1:1 sex ratio is produced in the offsprings.
(d) All of these
23. Haplodiploidy is found in
(a) grasshoppers and cockroaches
(b) birds and reptiles
(c) butterflies and moths
(d) honeybees, ants and wasp.
24. Which three scientists independently rediscovered Mendel’s work ?
(a) Avery, McLeod, McCarty
(b) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
(c) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges
(d) de Vries, Correns and Tschemark
25. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by
(a) Morgan et al
(b) Sutton and Boveri
(c) Hugo deVries
(d) Gregor J. Mendel
26. Genes located very close to one another on same chromosome tend to be
transmitted together and are called as
(a) allelomorphs
(b) identical genes
(c) linked genes
(d) recessive genes
27. Chromosome maps/genetic maps were first prepared by
(a) Sutton and Boveri (1902)
(b) Bateson and Punnett (1906)
(c) Morgan (1910)
(d) Sturtevant (1911)
28. The distance between the genes is measured by
(a) angstrom
(b) map unit
(c) Dobson unit
(d) millimetre
29. Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterised by a karyotype of
(a) XYY
(b) XO
(c) XXX
(d) XXY
30. Conditions of a karyotype 2n±l and 2n + 2 are called
(a) aneuploidy
(b) polyploidy
(c) allopolyploidy
(d) monosomy.
31 The nucleic acid synthesis takes place in
(a) 3’-5’ direction
(b) 5’-3’ direction
(c) Both ways
(d) Any direction
32. What is the nature of the strands of the DNA duplex?
(a) Anti-parallel and complementary
(b) Identical and complementary
(c) Antiparallel and non-complementary
(d) Dissimilar and non-complementary
33. Hershey and Chase’s experiment was based on the principle
(a) Transformation
(b) Translation
(c) Transduction
(d) Transcription
34. AUG stands for
(a) Alanine
(b) Methionine
(c) N-formyl methionine
(d) Glycine
35. The reason behind the anti-parallel strand of DNA is

(a) Hydrogen bond

(b) Ionic bond
(c) Phosphodiester bond
(d) Disulphide bond
36. In a transcription unit, the promoter is located towards
 (a) 5’end of the structural gene
(b) 3’end of the structural gene
(c) 5’end of the template strand
(d) 3’end of the coding strand
37. The primer in DNA replication is
(a) Small ribonucleotide polymer
(b) Helix destabilizing protein
(c) Small deoxyribonucleotide polymer
(d) Enzyme joining nucleotides of new strands
38. Genetic information is transferred from nucleus to cytoplasm through

(a) RNA
(b) Anticodon
(c) DNA
(d) Lysosomes
39. The enzyme involved in transcription
(a) DNA Polymerase I
(b) DNA Polymerase III
(c) RNA Polymerase
(d) DNA Polymerase II
40. Non-sense codons participate in

(a) Releasing t-RNA from polynucleotide chain

(b) Formation of unspecified amino acids
(c) Terminating message of gene-controlled protein synthesis
(d) Conversion of sense DNA into non-sense DNA
41. The proofreading enzyme in DNA replication is

(a) Primase
(b) DNA Polymerase I
(c) Ligase
(d) DNA Polymerase II
42. Select a ribozyme
(a) Peptidyl transferase
(b) Helicase
(c) Ribonuclease-P
 (d) Both (a) and (c)
43. Which step does not occur in translation?

(a) Replication
(b) Termination
(c) Elongation
(d) Initiation
44. elect the incorrectly matched pairs
(a) Purines – Nitrogenous bases cytosine, thymine and uracil
(b) Recombinant DNA – DNA formed by joining the DNA segments from two
different sources
(c) rRNA – RNA found in ribosomes
(d) ATP – The energy-carrying compound in the cell
45. The energy source for the elongation process is

(a) Creatine-PO4
(b) GTP
(c) ATP
(d) All of the above
46. The anticodon of initiation codon for protein synthesis is

(a) UUU
(b) AUG
(c) UAC
(d) CAU
47. In lac-operon, which protein is not regulated by the repressor?

(a) Galactosidase
(b) Lactose Permease
(c) Tryptophan
(d) Transacetylase
48. Which enzyme is not produced during lactose catabolism by [Link]?

(a) -galactosidase
(b) Lactose Permease
(c) Thiogalactoside transacetylase
(d) Lactose dehydrogenase
𝜷
49. The eukaryotic replication of DNA is

(a) Bidirectional with many origins

(b) Unidirectional with many origins
(c) Bidirectional with a single origin
(d) Unidirectional with a single origin
50. The amino acid coded by 3 codons is

(a) Proline
(b) Isoleucine
(c) Tryptophan
(d) Serine
51. Spliceosomes are absent in the cells of

(a) Plants
(b) Animals
(c) Bacteria
(d) Fungi
52. A molecule that acts as a genetic material must fulfil the following traits, except

(a) It should be structurally and chemically unstable

(b) It should have the ability to generate its replica
(c) It should facilitate slow changes necessary for evolution.
(d) It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian characters.
53. What will the amount of guanine in a DNA if the total amount of adenine and
thiamine in the DNA is 45%?

(a) 45%
(b) 65%
(c) 27.5%
(d) 22.3%
54. The primary control of gene expression takes place at the level of

(a) Translation
(b) Replication
(c) Transcription
(d) None
55. The gene sequence that codes for proteins are
 (a) Exons
(b) Introns
(c) Intervening sequences
(d) Control regions
56. The process of RNA splicing shows the dominance of

(a) RNA world

(b) DNA world
(c) Microbial world
(d) Protein world
57. In eukaryotes, RNA II facilitates transcription of

(a) rRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) hnRNA
(d) tRNA
58. Human Genome Project led to the development of

(a) Biotechnology
(b) Bioinformatics
(c) Biosystematics
(d) Bioengineering
59. Which non-radioactive isotope was used by Messelson and Stahl in their
experiment?
(a) P32
(b) S35
(c) N15
(d) None
60. Histones are

(a) Positively charged and basic amino acids

(b) Positively charged and acidic proteins
(c) Negatively charged and basic proteins
(d) Absent in bacteria