10-03-2026

1701CMD303029250117 MD

BIOLOGY

1) Statement I: The son of a carrier woman has a 100 per cent chance of being colour blind
Statement II: A daughter of carrier mother and normal father will be 100 percent colour blind.

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2) Read the following statements and choose the correct set of statements:
(a) Multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made
(b) Dominance is an autonomous feature of a gene
(c) Punnett square is used to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a
genetic cross
(d) Mendel applied statistical analysis and mathematical logic to solve problems in biology
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

(1) (a),(c) and (d) only

(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (a),(b),(c) and (d) only
(4) (a),and (b) only

3) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Variation is the degree by which progeny differ from their parents.
Reason (R): Phenylketoneuria is a mendelian disorder.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R)are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R)are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

4) Mendel, started hybridisation experiments on garden peas in the year ___"A"___ and completed in
the year ___"B"___
Choose the correct word for "A" and "B" blanks :-

"A" "B"

1 1956 1963

2 1856 1863

3 1756 1765
 4 1859 1856
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Morgan used the term __A__ to describe the physical association of genes on a chromosome and
the term __B__ to describe the generation of non-parental gene combinations
Choose the correct word for "A" and "B" blanks :-

"A" "B"

(1) Recombination Linkage

(2) Segregation Independent Assortment

(3) Linkage recombination

(4) Linkage Independent Assortment

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Select the incorrect statement(s) from the options given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
I. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations.
II. Genes far apart on the same chromosomes show very few recombinations.
III. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show 100% recombinations.

(1) Only I and II

(2) Only III and II
(3) Only I and III
(4) All of these

7) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to sickle-cell anaemia ?

The mutant haemoglobin of sickle-cell anaemic individual undergo polymerisation under low
(1)
oxygen tension causing sickeing of RBCs.
Sickle-cell anaemia occur due to the single base substitution (GAG → GUG) at the sixth codon of
(2)
β-globin gene.
(3) Individuals heterozygous for sicke-cell anaemia (HbSHbA ) are resistant towards malaria.
(4) All of the above

8) In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over
shortness (t). If a plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant that is rrtt :-

(1) All the offspring will be tall with red fruit.

(2) 25 % will be tall with red fruit
(3) 50 % will be tall with red fruit
(4) 75 % will be tall with red fruit

9) What can be the blood group of offspring when both parents have AB blood group?

(1) A, B, AB and O
(2) A, B and O
(3) A, B and AB
(4) A and B only

10) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding ZW-ZZ type of sex determination :

(1) It occurs in birds

(2) Female are heterogametic and males are homogametic
(3) 1 : 1 sex ratio is produced in the offsprings
(4) Male are Heterogametic and female are homogametic.

11) One chromosome of a homologous pair carries the gene Y and P. The other chromosome of the
pair carries the genes y and p at corresponding loci. Crossing over result in exchange of
chromosome segments and production of gametes. A recombinant type gametes resulting from this
crossover might contains :

(1) Y and P
(2) y and p
(3) y and P
(4) p and p

12) The map distance between the genes A and B is 3 unit, between B and C is 10 units and between
C and A is 7 unit. The order of the genes in a linkage map constructed on the above data would
perhaps be :-

(1) BAC
(2) BCA
(3) ACB
(4) ABC

13) Which of the following conditions is related to Haemophilia?

(1) A responsible recessive gene present in the autosome chromosome

(2) A responsible dominant gene present in the X-chromosome
(3) A responsible recessive gene present in the Y-chromosome.
(4) A responsible recessive gene present in the X-chromosome
14) Given pedigree show the inheritance of :-

(1) Autosomal recessive

(2) Autosomal Dominant
(3) X-linked recessive
(4) X-linked Dominant

15) Match the following columns.

Column - I Column - II

Autosomal linked
A. 1. Down's syndrome
recessive disorder

Sex-linked recessive
B. 2. Phenylketonuria
disorder

Metabolic error
C. linked to autosomal 3. Color blindness
recessive disorder

Additional 21st
D. 4. Sickle-cell anaemia
chromosome
Codes:
A B C D

(1) 4 1 2 3

(2) 4 3 2 1

(3) 2 1 4 3

(4) 3 4 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F1 generation,
pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were test crossed, the F2 showed pink and white
flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :-

(1) This experiment does not follow the principle of dominance

(2) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance
(3) Ratio of F2 is ¼ (Red) : 2/4 (Pink) : ¼ (White)
(4) Law of segregation is applied in this experiment
17) Assertion (A) :- Mendel’s Law of independent assortment is not true for all genes.
Reason (R) :- Genes present closely on a same chromosome have tendency to show linkage.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

18) Statement-I : All characters show true dominance.

Statement-II : Closely located genes are assorted together.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

19) Statement - I : X-linked recessive trait shows transmission from carrier female to some of the
male progeny.
Statement - II : The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

20) Statement-I: In Morgan's experiment, cross-B showed less recombination than cross-A.
Statement-II: Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri noted that the behaviour of chromosomes was
parallel to the behaviour of genes.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

21) Statement - I : dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has
information for.
Statement - II : a single gene product always produces more than one effect.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

22) Statement - I : The 1/4 : 1/2 : 1/4 ratio of TT : Tt : tt is mathematically condensable to the form
of the binomial expression (ax +by)2
Statement - II : (1/2 T + 1/2 t)2 = (1/2 T + 1/2 t) X (1/2 T + 1/2 t) = 1/4 TT + 1/2 Tt + 1/4 tt
(1) Statement I and II both are correct
(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

23) Statement - I : By the process of meiosis, the alleles of the parental pair separate or segregate
from each other and only one allele is transmitted to a gamete.
Statement - II : When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of
characters is always independent of the other pair of characters.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

24) Statement - I : Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles.
Statement - II : Genes are the units of inheritance.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

25) Statement - I : Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were
similar except for one character with contrasting traits.
Statement - II : Mendel observed that all the F1 progeny plants were dwarf, like one of its parents;
none were tall.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

26) Statement - I : Heredity is the process by which characters are passed on from progeny to
parent.
Statement - II : Humans knew from as early as 80,000 to 1,00,000 B.C. that one of the causes of
variation was hidden in sexual reproduction.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

27) Assertion : Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors

Reason : Law of dominance explains the proportion of 3 : 1 obtained at the F2

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Assertion : The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare.

Reason : Mother of haemophilic female has to be at least carrier and the father should be
haemophilic.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Statement-I : One chromosome pair segregate independently of another pair.

Statement-II : Thalassemia differ from sickle cell anaemia is that former is a qualitative problem
white latter is a quantitative problem.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

30) Statement-I : In honey bee males produce sperm by mitosis and unfertilized egg develops as a
drone.
Statement-II : In grasshopper males have only one X-chromosome besides the autosomes.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

31) Choose the correct option for the mendelian disorders :-

(I) Down Syndrome
(II) Colour blindness
(III) Turner Syndrome
(IV) Cystic fibrosis
(V) Phenyl ketonuria
(VI) Thalassemia

(1) I, II, III, VI

(2) III, IV, V, VI
(3) I, II, IV, V, VI
(4) II, IV, V, VI

32) Read the following statements :-

(A) Mendel studied five characters related to colour in garden pea plant.
(B) One pair of gene always segregates independently of another pair of gene.
(C) Besides the involvement of multiple genes, polygenic inheritance also takes into account the
influence of environment.
(D) Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

33) In dihybrid Mendelian cross how many types of genotypes and phenotypes will be obtain in F2
generation.

(1) 4 and 9 respectively

(2) 16 and 4 respectively
(3) 9 and 4 respectively
(4) 4 and 16 respectively

34) Statement-I : X-body name was given by [Link] to the X-chromosome.

Statement-II : If only one allele of a gene is present in a diploid organism it is called heterozygous.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

35) What results Mendel would have got when he self-pollinated a impure tall F2 garden pea plant ?

(1) All tall plants

(2) All drwarf plants
(3) Tall and dwarf plants in 3 : 1 ratio
(4) Tall and dwarf plants in 1 : 1 ratio

36) Match the following and choose the correct combination from the option given below :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Tt × Tt (i) 1:1

(B) Tt × tt (ii) 3:1

(C) TtRr × TtRr (iii) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

(D) TtRr × ttrr (iv) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
37) In a Mendelian dihybrid cross in garden pea plants, 1024 plants were obtained in F2 generation.
How many plants will show dominant traits for both characters ?

(1) 576
(2) 64
(3) 384
(4) 256

38) If both parents are affected by autosomal recessive disorder then what are the chances of an
affected child after pregnancy?

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 0%
(4) 100%

39) Correctly match column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) Incomplete dominance (i) Skin colour in human

(B) Co-dominance (ii) Phenylketonuria

(C) Pleiotropy (iii) 'AB' blood group

(D) Polygenic inheritance (iv) Flower colour in snapdragon

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

40) Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the substitution of glutamic acid by __(A)__ at the sixth position
of the __(B)__ globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule.

(1) A-Glutamine, B-Beta

(2) A-Valine, B-Alpha
(3) A-Valine, B-Beta
(4) A-Glycine, B-Beta

41) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles.
The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of the zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants can
(2)
be understood from a diagram called Punnett square.
(3) Genotypic ratio at F2 in monohybrid cross is 1 : 2 : 1.
(4) In a Mendelian monohybrid cross in garden pea plants 4 types of phenotype are obtained at F2.
42) Colourblindness is present in -

(1) 0.4 % Female & 10% male

(2) 0.4 % Female & 12% male
(3) 0.4 % Female & 8% male
(4) 0.4 % Female & 0.8% male

43) Sex determination in honey bee is due to -

(1)

(2) ZW – ZZ type
(3) Haploid-Diploid mechanism of sex determination
(4) XX-XY Type

44) Which of the following characteristics represent "inheritance of blood group" in humans?
(a) Co-dominance
(b) Multiple allele
(c) Incomplete dominance
(d) Polygenic inheritance

(1) b, c and d
(2) a and b
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b and c

45)

Dominant Recessive
Character
trait trait

Seed shape
Round Wrinkled

A
Yellow Green

Flower
colour
Violet White

Pod shape B C

Pod colour

Green Yellow
 Flower
D E
position

Stem height

Dwarf
Tall

In given table of seven pairs of contrasting trait, match the column :-

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Seedcoat
(1) Full Constricted Axial Terminal
colour

Cotyledon
(2) Full Constricted Terminal Axial
colour

Seed
(3) Full Constricted Axial Terminal
colour

Seedcoat
(4) Constricted Full Axial Terminal
colour
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) Which one is not included in bioprocess engineering.

(1) to maintain sterile process

(2) cloning of desired microbe or eukaryotic cell in large quantity
(3) manufacturing of biotech product like antibiotic, enzyme, etc.
(4) to alter the chemistry of DNA

47) Recombinant DNA technology is able to over come the limitation of traditional hybridisation
procedure.
(a) Because it not introduce new genetic variation.
(b) Because it introduced only desired gene in target organism.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) a is correct, b is incorrect
(3) a is incorrect, b is correct
(4) Both statement are incorrect

48) Meaning of cloning is.

(1) Creation of recombinant DNA
(2) transformation of alien piece of DNA
(3) multiplication of identical copies of a DNA
(4) More than one options is correct

49) Plasmid vector must have.

(a) Restriction endonuclease
(b) Restriction endonuclease site
(c) Origin of initiation of replication
(d) Selectable marker gene

(1) b and c only

(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) all of these

50) Sticky end of cut DNA will help to join the both cut DNA segments because sticky end help to
form.

(1) Phosphodiester bond

(2) Hydrogen bond
(3) Palindromia site
(4) Recombinant DNA

51) Calculate the number of a restriction site assuming that lane 2

have a ds circular DNA and lane 3 have ds linear DNA respectively.

(1) 5, 5
(2) 5, 4
(3) 4, 5
(4) 4, 4

52) What is use of restriction enzyme in bacteria.

(1) to restrict the growth of bacteriophase

(2) to cut the genomic DNA of host
(3) to make rDNA in bacteria
(4) to add methyl group of DNA

53) Match the column in proper way.

Column-I Column-II
 Large scale
Molecular
(a) (i) production of
scissor
product.

Recombinant
(b) Plasmid (ii)
protein

(c) Bioreacter (iii) PBR322

Heterologous
(d) (iv) [Link]
host
(1) a – iii; b – ii; c – i; d – iv
(2) a – iv; b – iii; c – ii; d – i
(3) a – iv; b – iii; c – i; d – ii
(4) a – i; b – ii; c – iii; d – iv

54) Assertion : Nuclease enzyme are of two type exonuclease and endonuclease.
Reason : Endonuclease always cut at specific point in DNA

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

55) Match Column-I and Column-II and select the right option

Column-I Column-II

I. r-DNA technology A. Vector

II. Cloning vehicles B. Restriction enzyme

III. Molecular scissors C. Electrophoresis

IV. Agarose gel D. Genetic engineering

(1) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
(2) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
(3) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
(4) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C

56) How many of the following are not a part of biotechnology?

Synthesising a gene, formation of somatic hybrid, developing DNA vaccine, energy production,
bioremediation, waste treatment, genetically modified crop, correcting of defective gene, in vitro
fertilization.

(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
57) In Flavr Savr variety of tomato action of which of the following enzyme has been blocked to keep
the fruit remain fresh for long time and retain flavour:

(1) α-amylase
(2) β-amylase
(3) Polygalacturonase
(4) Pectinase

58) Assertion: DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membrane.
Reason: In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be made
“competent” to take up DNA.

(1) Assertion is false and Reason is true

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

59) pBR322 vector is cut by Pst I enzyme and desired gene is ligated in vector at the recognition site of
Pst I and recombinant DNA is formed, which is transferred into the host cell.
Select the correct statement:

(1) Recombinant cells will grow in ampicillin containing medium.

(2) Non-transformant cells will grow in tetracycline containing medium.
(3) Recombinant cells will grow in tetracycline containing medium.
(4) Non-transformant cells will grow in ampicillin containing medium.

60) Which of the following statements is correct with respect to restriction enzyme?

Each restriction endonuclease enzyme recognized a specific palindromic nucleotide Sequences

(1)
in the DNA.
(2) In gel electrophoresis sample of DNA loaded at anode.
In gel electrophoresis, The DNA fragments Separate according to their size through Sieving
(3)
effect provided by agarose gel.
(4) All are correct.

61) Which of the following DNA sequences can be a recognition site of a restriction endonuclease
enzyme?

AAGG
(1)
TTCC
AATTCCGG
(2)
TTAAGGCC
CTCGAG
(3)
GAGCTC
GGTTCG
(4)
CCAAGC

62) Special sequence in the DNA recognised by restriction endonuclease is called

(1) Restriction nucleotide sequence
(2) Palindromic nucleotide sequence
(3) Recognition nucleotide sequence
(4) All of the above

63) In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their

(1) Charge only

(2) Size only
(3) Both charge and size
(4) Sticky ends only

64) Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In RNA interference translation of the mRNA is prevented.
Reason (R): This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA
molecule.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

65) Which one of the following characteristics is generally not preferred for a cloning vector?

(1) An origin of replication

(2) An antibiotic resistance marker gene
(3) Multiple restriction sites for one R.E.
(4) A high copy number

66) Read the following sentences:

(a) Nematode resistant plant developed by novel strategy based on RNA interference (RNAi).
(b) RNAi involves silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary dsRNA.
(c) In RNAi, dsRNA prevents translation in transgenic host.
(d) RNAi is eukaryotic cellular defence mechanism.
Choose for correct statement option:

(1) a, b, c only
(2) b, c, d only
(3) a, b, d only
(4) a, b, c, d

67) Assertion : RNA interference technique is used to kill the nematode Meloidegyne incognita.
Reason : RNA interference involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to complementary ds RNA.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

68) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) GMO (i) Radioactive DNA/RNA molecule

(B) Biopiracy (ii) Agrochemical based

(C)Green revolution (iii) Illegal used of biological resources

(D) probe (iv) Tailor made plant

A B C D

(1) iv iii ii i

(2) iii ii i iv

(3) ii i iv iii

(4) iv i iii ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Statement-I : Inactivation of a particular selectable marker gene due to insertion of foreign
DNA is known as insertional inactivation
Statement-II : Only recombinant bacterial colonies show insertional inactivation.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

70) The following diagram showing restriction sites in [Link] cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of

'X ' and 'Y ' genes.

 The gene 'X ' is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and 'Y ' for protein involved in the
(1)
replication of Plasmid.
The gene 'X ' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and 'Y ' for
(2)
protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
(3) The gene 'X ' is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and 'Y ' for resistance to antibiotics.
(4) Gene 'X ' is responsible for recognition sites and 'Y ' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.

71) Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) C

72) During the process of large-scale production using bioreactors, if optimal growth conditions are
not maintained, then which of the following steps will be affected first ?

(1) Conversion of raw materials into specific products

(2) Mixing of the reactor contents
(3) Oxygen delivery
(4) Withdrawal of small volumes of the culture periodically

73) The presence of more than one recognition site within vector will lead to the

(1) Generation of several fragments

(2) Generation of one fragment
(3) Generation of half fragment
(4) None of the above

74) Which one is not associated with Agrobacterium tumifaciens ?

(1) Ti-Plasmid
(2) T-DNA
(3) Vir-region
(4) pBR-322
75) Fill up the blanks. I. Using ....A.... vectors, Nematode specific genes are introduced into the host
plant. II. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of .....B..... III. The genes .....C....
and .....D.... controls cotton bolloworms.
IV. ....E... has been introduced in Bt corn to protect the same from corn borer.
A to E in above statements can be :-

(1) A-fungal, B-pest resistance, C-cry II Ab, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ac

(2) A-nematode, B-protection against nematodes, C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ab
(3) A-Agrobacterium, B-cellular defense, C-cry II Ab, D-cry I Ac, E-cry I Ab
(4) A-virus, B-protection against viral infection, C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry II Ac

76) Statement-I :- The construction of first r-DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene
encoding antibiotics resistance with a native plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciences.
Statement-II :- Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer accomplished r-DNA in 1972 by isolating the
antibiotic resistance gene by cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid which was responsible for
production of insulin.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

77) Match the following correct option :

(A) α-antitrypsin (i) Molecular diagonosise

(B) Rosie cow (ii) Mice

(C) Polio vaccine (iii) Alpha lactalbumin

(D) P.C.R. (iv) Emphysema

(E) SCID (v) Gene therapy

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(v)
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(3) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(v)

78) Select the correct match :

Insertional Differentiate recombinants

(1) -
inactivation from non recombinants

Recombinant Any protein encoding gene is expressed in

(2) -
protein a homologous host.

A series of process which start from raw

Down stream
(3) - material and to completion of biosynthetic
processing
product
 Introduction of the identified DNA into the
(4) Cloning -
host.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) Match the following columns.

Column I Column II

Polymerase Chain Reaction

A 1 Thermus aquaticus
(PCR)

B Bioreactor 2 Thermococcus litoralis

C Taq polymerase 3 Large scale culture

D Vent polymerase 4 Amplification of gene

(1) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1
(2) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
(3) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
(4) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3

80)
(a) and (b) are

(a) Roots of a typical control plants.

(1) (b) Transgenic plants root 5 days after deliberate infection of nematode but protected through
novel mechanism.
(a) Transgenic plants root 5 days after deliberate infection of nematode but protected through
(2) novel mechanism.
(b) Roots of a typical control plants.
(a) Host plant-generated dsRNA triggers protection against nematode infestation.
(3)
(b) Roots of a typical control plants.
(a) Roots of a typical control plants.
(4)
(b) Host plant-generated dsRNA triggers protection against nematode infestation.

81) Given diagram shows colonies of bacteria. Find out correct statement :
(1) Colony B has recombinant bacteria which shows insertional inactivation
(2) Colony 'A' has recombinanat bacteria having gene of interest
(3) Colony 'B' has non recombinant bacteria having functional Lac-Z gene.
(4) Colony 'A' has non recombinant having non functional Lac-Z gene.

82) The basic procedure involved in the synthesis of recombinant DNA molecule is depicted below.

The mistake in the procedure is :-

(1) Enzyme polymerase is not included

(2) The mammalian DNA is shown double stranded
(3) Only one fragment is inserted
(4) Two different restriction enzymes are used

83) I. Ori also controls the copy numbers of the plasmid.

II. If a foreign DNA ligates at the Bam HI site of tetracycline resistance gene in the vector pBR322, the
recombinant plasmid loses the tetracycline resistance due to insertion of foreign DNA.
Choose regarding the above statements.

(1) I is true, II is false

(2) II is true, I is false
(3) Both are true
(4) Both are false

84) If DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of enzyme β galactosidase, which of the following
will occur in case of non-recombinants:-

(1) Insertional inactivation

(2) Colonies do not produce any colour
(3) Chromogenic substrate gives blue colour
(4) Inactivation of enzyme galactosidase

85) In the following figure of agrose gel electrophoresis which lane show migration of undigested

DNA :
(1) Lane 2 & 3 only
(2) Lane 1 only
(3) Lane 1, 2, 3 only
(4) Lane 4 only

86) This segment of DNA has restriction sites I & II which create restriction fragments a, b and c,
which of the following gel produced by electrophoresis would represent the separation and correct
position of these fragments ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

87) Match column - I with column - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below

Column-I Column-II

(A) Protoplast culture (i) Effort to fix the nonfunctional gene

(B) Bio patent (ii) Gene silencing

(C) Gene therapy (iii) Pomato

(D) RNAi (iv) Right granted by government

(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

88) Read the following statements.

a. In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US Patent and
Trademark office.
b. There are an estimated 50,000 varieties of rice in India alone.
c. First clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine deaminase
deficiency.
d. In1983, Eli Lily Company prepared DNA sequences corresponding to A, B and C chains of human
insulin.
choose incorrect statements ?

(1) a,b,c,d
(2) a,b and c
(3) b and d
(4) None of the above
89) Identify the incorrect palindromic sequence

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

90) Which of the following represents the correct labelling of figure cotton boll.

(1) a → A fully mature cotton ball

(2) b → destroyed by bollworms
(3) a → destroyed by bollworms
(4) b → destroyed by nematode

CHEMISTRY

1) The correct decreasing order of spin only magnetic moment values (BM) of Cu+, Cu2+, Cr2+ and
Cr3+ ions is:

(1) Cr3+ > Cr2+ > Cu+ > Cu2+

(2) Cu+ > Cu2+ > Cr3+ > Cr2+
(3) Cr2+ > Cr3+ > Cu2+ > Cu+
(4) Cu2+ > Cu+ > Cr2+ > Cr3+

2) The first transition series metal' M' has the highest enthalpy of atomisation in its series. One of its
aquated ion (Mn+) exists in green colour. The nature of the oxide formed by the above Mn+ ion is:

(1) basic
(2) neutral
(3) amphoteric
(4) acidic
3) Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: CrO3 is a stronger oxidizing agent than MoO3
Statement-II: Cr(VI) is more stable than Mo(VI) In the light of the above statements.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

4) The metal ions that have the calculated spin-only magnetic moment value of 4.9 B.M. are:
A. Cr2+ B. Fe2+ C. Fe3+
D. Co2+ E. Mn3+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) A, D and E Only

(2) A, B and E Only
(3) A, C and E Only
(4) B and E Only

5) The correct option with order of melting points of the pairs (Mn, Fe), (Tc, Ru) and (Re, Os) is :

(1) Fe < Mn, Ru < Tc and Re < Os

(2) Fe > Mn, Ru < Tc and Os < Re
(3) Mn > Fe, Tc < Ru and Re < Os
(4) Mn < Fe, Tc < Ru and Os < Re

6) The amphoteric oxide among V2O3, V2O4 and V2O5, upon reaction with alkali leads to formation of
an oxide anion. The oxidation state of V in the oxide anion is:

(1) +4
(2) +5
(3) +3
(4) +7

7) Mn+2 + S2O8–2 + H2O →

possible product is.

–
(1) MnO4
–2
(2) SO4
–2
(3) MnO4
(4) Both 1 and 2

8) Match List-I and List-II

 List-I List-II
(Transition (spin only magnetic
metal ion) moment (B.M.))

(A) Ti3+ (I) 3.87

(B) V2+ (II) 0.00

(C) Ni2+ (III) 1.73

(D) Sc3+ (IV) 2.84

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (А) - (Ⅲ), (В) - (I), (C) (IV), (D) - (II)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) – (III)
(3) (А) – (Ш), (В) (I), (C) (II), (D) - (IV)
(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (С) – (III), (D) - (I)

9) Preparation of potassium permanganate from MnO2 involves two step process in which the 1st
step is a reaction with KOH and KNO3 to produce

(1) K3MnO4
(2) K4 [Mn(OH)6]
(3) K2MnO4
(4) KMnO4

10) Which of the following ions is the strongest oxidizing agent? Atomic Number of Ce = 58, Eu =63,
Tb = 65, Lu =71)

(1) Lu3+
(2) Eu2+
(3) Tb4+
(4) Ce3+

11) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A) Bronze (I) Cu, Ni

(B) Brass (II) Fe, Cr, Ni, C

(C) UK silver coin (III) Cu, Zn

(D) Stainless steel (IV) Cu, Sn

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
12) Consider the following reactions

The products [A] and [B], respectively are :

(1) K2Cr(OH)6 and Cr203

(2) К2СrО4 and Cr2O3
(3) K2CrO4 and K2Cr2O7
(4) K2CrO4 and CrO

13) The correct set of ions (aqueous solution) with same colour from the following is:

(1) V2+, Cr3+, Mn3+

(2) Ti4+,V4+, Mn2+
(3) Sc3+ Ti3+, Cr2+
(4) Zn2+V3+ Fe3+

14) Lanthanoid ions with 4f7 configuration are :

(A) Eu2+ (B) Gd3+
(C) Eu3+ (D) Tb3+
(E) Sm2+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B) and (E) only

(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (D) only
(4) (A) and (B) only

15) Give below are two statements:

Statement I: The higher oxidation states are more stable down the group among transition
elements unlike p-block elements.
Statement II: Copper can not liberate hydrogen from dilute acids. In the light of the above
statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement Il are false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

16) The electronic configuration of Cu(II) is 3d9 whereas that of Cu(I) is 3d10. Which of the following
is correct?

(1) Cu(II) is more stable

(2) Cu (II) is less stable
(3) Cu(I) and Cu(II) are equally stable
(4) Stability of Cu(I) and Cu(II) depends on nature of copper salts
17) Iron (III) catalyses the reaction between iodide and persulphate ions, in which
A. Fe3+ oxidises the iodide ion
B. Fe3+ oxidises the persulphate lon
C. Fe2+ reduces the iodide ion
D. Fe2+ reduces the persulphate ion
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) B and C only

(2) A only
(3) A and D only
(4) B only

18) The number of ions from the following that have the ability to liberate hydrogen from a dilute
acid is______.
Ti2+, Cr2+ and V2+

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

19) The metal that shows f1 electronic configuration.

(1) Ce+3
(2) Th+3
(3) Pu+7
(4) All of these

20) The element which shows only even oxidation state other than its elemental form is :

(1) Sc
(2) Ti
(3) Co
(4) Th

21) Choose the correct statements from the following

A. Mn2O7 is an oil at room temperature
B. V2O4 reacts with acid to give VO2+
C. CrO is a basic oxide
D. V2O5 does not react with acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and D only

(2) A, B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) B and C only
22) The metals that are employed in the battery industries are
A. Fe B. Zn C. Ni
D. Cr E. Cd
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C, D and E
(2) A, B, C and D only
(3) B, D and E only
(4) B, C and E only

23) Identify correct statements from below:

A. The chromate ion is square planar.
B. Dichromates are generally prepared from chromates.
C. The green manganate ion is diamagnetic.
D. Dark green coloured K2MnO4 disproportionates in a neutral or acidic medium to give
permanganate.
E. With increasing oxidation number of transition metal, ionic character of the oxides decreases.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, D, E only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) A, D, E only
(4) B, C, D only

24) Which do not form MF4 type compound

(1) Ti
(2) Cr
(3) Mn
(4) Co

25) Which of the following statements are correct about Zn, Cd and Hg?
A. They exhibit high enthalpy of atomization as the d-subshell is full.
B. Zn and Cd do not show variable oxidation state while Hg shows +I and +II.
C. Compounds of Zn, Cd and Hg are paramagnetic in nature.
D. Zn, Cd and Hg are called soft metals.
Choose the most appropriate from the options given below:

(1) C, D only
(2) B, C only
(3) A, D only
(4) B, D only

26) The correct IUPAC name of K2MnO4 is

(1) Potassium tetraoxidomanganate (VI)

(2) Dipotassium tetraoxidomanganate (VII)
(3) otassium tetraoxopermanganate (VI)
(4) Potassium tetraoxidomanganese (VI)

27) KMnO4 decomposes on heating at 513 K to form O2 along with

(1) K2MnO4 & Mn

(2) MnO2 & K2O2
(3) K2MnO4 & MnO2
(4) Mn & KО2

28) The electronic configuration for Neodymium is

[Atomic Number for Neodymium 60]

(1) [Xe] 5f46s2

(2) [Xe] 4f47s2
(3) [Xe] 4f36s24d1
(4) [Xe] 4f46s2

29) The pair of element in which both elements having lowest density difference.

(1) Co, Zn
(2) Sc, Ti
(3) Co, Ni
(4) Cr, Mn

30) Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R
Assertion A: 5f electrons can participate in bonding to a far greater extent than 4f electrons
Reason R: 5f orbitals are not as buried as 4f orbitals
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

31) Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The M³+/M²+ reduction potential for iron is greater than manganese.
(B) The higher oxidation states of first row d-block elements get stabilized by oxide ion.
(C) Aqueous solution of Cr2+ can liberate hydrogen from dilute acid.
(D) Magnetic moment of V2+ is observed between 4.4-5.2 BM.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B), (C) only

(2) (A), (B) only
(3) (A), (B), (D) only
(4) (C), (D) only

32) Which halogen is known to cause the reaction given below

2Cu2+ + 4X– → Cu2X2(s) + X2

(1) All halogens

(2) Only iodine
(3) only Bromine
(4) Only Chlorine

33) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as "Assertion A" and the other is labelled as
"Reason R"
Assertion A: In the complex Ni(CO)4 and Fe(CO)5 the metals have zero oxidation state.
Reason R: Low oxidation states are found when a complex has ligands capable of π-donor character
in addition to the σ-bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below

(1) A is not correct but R is correct

(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

34) Highest oxidation state of Mn is exhibited in Mn2O7. The correct statements about Mn2O7 are
(A) Mn is tetrahedrally surrounded by oxygen atoms.
(B) Mn is octahedrally surrounded by oxygen atoms.
(C) Contains Mn-O-Mn bridge.
(D) Contains Mn-Mn bond.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and C only

(2) A and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) B and D only

35) KMnO4 oxidises I– in acidic and neutral/ faintly alkaline solutions respectively, to

– –
(1) IO3 & IO3
(2) I2 & I2
–
(3) I2 & IO3
–
(4) IO3 & I2

36) Which of the following 3d metal ion will given the lowest enthalpy of hydration (Δhyd H) when
dissolved in water ?

(1) Cr2+
(2) Mn2+
(3) Fe2+
(4) Co2+

37) Which of the following does not represent the correct order of the properties indicated ?

(1) Ni2+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ > Mn2+ (size)

(2) Sc > Ti > Mn > Cr (size)
(3) Mn2+ > Ni2+ < Co2+ <Fe2+ (unpaired electron)
(4) Fe2+ > Co2+ > Ni2+ > Cu2+ (unpaired electron)

38) An alloy of transition metal containing a non transition metal as a constituent is

(1) Brass
(2) Bronze
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) stainless steel

39) Match the columns

Column-I Column-II

a Lanthanide hard as steel. p Lu

Lanthanide with maximum paramagnetic character in

b q Tb
Ln4+ state.

Lanthanide with –2.0 V value of E° for reaction

c r Sm
Ln3+(aq)+3e– →Ln(s).

d Lanthanide whose Ln3+ ion is diamagnetic in nature s Eu

(1) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
(2) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p)
(3) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p)
(4) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p)

40) Which of the following is the use of potassium permanganate?

(1) Bleaching of wool, cotton and silk fibers.

(2) decolourisation of oils.
(3) In analytical chemistry.
(4) All of these.

41) Lanthanoid on reaction with carbon not produce.

(1) LnC2
(2) Ln3C
(3) Ln2C3
(4) Ln3C4
42) Which Pair have same M+3 Ionic Radius

(1) Am & Cm
(2) Bk & Cf
(3) both 1 & 2
(4) Ac & U

43) Maximum I.E2 shown by

(1) Zn
(2) Cr
(3) Cu
(4) Mn

44) Correct order of M+2 ionic radius is

(1) Mn+2 > Fe+2 > Co+2 > Ni+2

(2) Mn+2 = Cr+2
(3) Mn+2 > Cr+2
(4) Both (1) & (2)

45) Which is not a mixed oxide.

(1) Mn3O4
(2) Fe3O4
(3) Mn2O3
(4) Co3O4

46) The correct statements from the following are:

(A) Tℓ3+ is a powerful oxidising agent
(B) Aℓ3+ does not get reduced easily
(C) Both Aℓ3+ and Tℓ3+ are very stable in solution
(D) Tℓ1+ is more stable than Tℓ3+
(E) Aℓ3+ and Tℓ1+ are highly stable
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) A), (B), (D) and (E) only

(2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (E)
(4) (B), (D) and (E) only

47) Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The first ionisation enthalpy of group 14 elements is higher than the corresponding
elements of group 13.
Statement (II): Melting points and boiling points of group 13 elements are in general higher than
group 14 element.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

48) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Nitrogen forms oxides with +1 to +5 oxidation states due to the formation of pπ – pπ
bond with oxygen.
Statement II: Nitrogen does not form halides with +5 oxidation state due to the absence of d-
orbital in it.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are False

49) Given below are the pairs of group 13 elements showing their relation in terms of atomic radius.
(B < Al), (Al < Ga), (Ga < In) and (In<Tl) Identify the elements present in the incorrect pair and in
that pair find out the element (X) that has higher lonic radius (M3+) than the other one. The atomic
number of the element (X) is.

(1) 49
(2) 81
(3) 31
(4) 13

50) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The N-N single bond is weaker and longer than that of P - P single bond.
Statement II: Compounds of group 15 elements in +3 oxidation states readily undergo
disproportionation reactions in acidic medium.

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

51) The nature of oxide (TeO2) and hydride (TeH2) formed by Te, respectively are:

(1) Reducing and basic

(2) Reducing and acidic
(3) Oxidising and acidic
(4) Oxidising and basic

52) The large difference between the melting and boiling point of oxygen and sulphur may be
explained on the basis of

(1) Atomicity
(2) Electron gain enthalpy
(3) Atomic size
(4) Electronegativity

53) The incorrect statement among the following is.

(1) PH3 shows lower proton affinity than NH3

(2) SO2 can act as an oxidizing agent, but not as a reducing agent
(3) NO2 can dimerise easily.
(4) PF3 exists but NF5 does not.

54) The maximum covalency of a non-metallic group 15 element 'E' with weakest E - E bond is.

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

55) Identify the correct statements about p-block elements and their compounds.
(A) Non metals have higher electronegativity than metals.
(B) Non metals have lower ionisation enthalpy than metals.
(C) Compounds formed between highly reactive nonmetals and highly reactive metals are generally
ionic.
(D) The non-metal oxides are generally basic in nature.
(E) The metal oxides are generally acidic or neutral in nature.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B) and (D) only

(2) (B) and (E) only
(3) (D) and (E) only
(4) (A) and (C) only

56) Identify the incorrect statements about group 15 elements:

(A) Dinitrogen is a diatomic gas which acts like an inert gas at room temperature.
(B) The common oxidation states of these elements are -3, +3 and +5.
(C) Nitrogen has unique ability to form pπ–pπ multiple bonds.
(D) The stability of +5 oxidation states increases down the group.
(E) Nitrogen shows a maximum covalency of 6.

(1) (A), (C), (E) only

(2) (D) and (E) only
(3) (A), (B), (D) only
(4) (B), (D), (E) only

57) Evaluate the following statements related to group 14 elements for their correctness.
(A) Covalent radius decreases down the group from C to Pb in irregular manner.
(B) Electronegativity decreases from C to Pb down the group gradually.
(C) Maximum covalance of C is 4 whereas other elements can expand their covalance due to
presence of d orbitals.
(D) Heavier elements do not form pπ–pπ bonds.
(E) Carbon can exhibit negative oxidation states.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) Only

(2) (A) and (B) Only
(3) (C), (D) and (E) Only
(4) (C) and (D) Only

58) The correct statements from the following are:

(A) The decreasing order of atomic radii of group 13 elements is TI > In > Ga > Al > B.
(B) Down the group 13 electronegativity decreases from top to bottom.
(C) Al dissolves in dil. HCl and liberates H2 but conc. HNO3 renders Al passive by forming a
protective oxide layer on the surface.
(D) All elements of group 13 exhibits highly stable +1 oxidation state.
(E) Hybridisation of Al in acidified aqueous solution of AlCl3 is sp3d2.

(1) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only

(2) (C) and (E) only
(3) (A), (C) and (E) only
(4) (A) and (C) only

59) MCl3 + H2O → Y

M = Metal (group 13)
Hybridisation of M in Y is.

(1) sp2
(2) sp3
(3) sp3d
(4) sp3d2

60) Statement (I): SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic while SnO and PbO are amphoteric in nature.
Statement (II): Allotropic forms of carbon is due to property of catenation and pπ–dπ bond
formation

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II Is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

61) Choose the correct statements from the following

A. All group 16 elements form oxides of general formula EO2 and EO3, where E = S, Se, Te and Po.
Both the types of oxides are acidic in nature.
B. TeO2 is an oxidising agent while SO2 is reducing in nature.
C. The reducing property decreases from H2 S to H2 Te down the group.
D. The ozone molecule contains five lone pairs of electrons.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only

(2) C and D only
(3) A and D only
(4) B and C only

62) Statement-I: Noble gases have very high boiling points.

Statement-II: Noble gases liquefied at very low temperature.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

63) Choose the correct statements about the hydrides of group 15 elements.
A. The stability of the hydrides decreases in the order NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3.
B. The reducing ability of the hydride increases in the order NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < ВіH3.
C. Among the hydrides, NH3 is strong reducing agent while BiH3 is mild reducing agent.
D. The basicity of the hydrides increases in the order NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3.
Choose the most appropriate from the options given below:

(1) C and D only

(2) A and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) B and C only

64) Assertion (A): Melting point of Boron (2453 K) is unusually high in group 13 elements.
Reason (R): Solid Boron has very strong crystalline lattice.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) Is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

65) In case of nitrogen, NCl3 is possible but not NCl5 while in case of phosphorous, PCl3 as well as
PCl5 are possible. It is due to.

(1) availability of vacant d orbitals in P but not in N

(2) lower electronegativity of P than N
(3) lower tendency of H-bond formation in P than N
(4) occurrence of P in solid while N in gaseous state at room temperature

66) Stability of group 16 halide order is.

(1) F– > Cl– > Br– > I–

(2) I– > Br– > Cl– > F–
(3) Cl– > F– > Br– > I–
(4) I– > Br– > F– > Cl–

67) Which among the following factors is the most important in making fluorine the strongest
oxidizing halogen?

(1) Electron affinity

(2) Bond dissociation energy
(3) Hydration enthalpy
(4) lonization enthalpy

68) Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But the two elements differ
in :

(1) exhibiting maximum covalency in compound

(2) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides
(3) forming covalent halides
(4) forming polymeric hydrides

69) The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb increases steadily in the sequence:

(1) PbX2 << SnX2 << GeX2 << SiX2

(2) GeX2<< SiX2 << SnX2 << PbX2
(3) SiX2<<GeX2 << PbX2 << SnX2
(4) SiX2 << GeX2 << SnX2 << PbX2

70) Which one of the following reactions of Xenon compounds is not feasible?

(1) XeO3 + 6HF→ XeF6 + 3H2O

(2) XeF6 + RbF → Rb(XeF7)
(3) 2XeF2 + 2H2O → 2Xe + 4HF + O2
(4) 3XeF4 + 6H2O → 2Xe + XeO3 + 12HF + 1.5O2

71) Which among the following is the most reactive?

(1) Br2
(2) I2
(3) ICI
(4) F2

72) In graphite and diamond, the percentage of p-characters of the hybrid orbitals in hybridisation
are respectively:

(1) 33 and 25
(2) 33 and 75
(3) 50 and 75
(4) 67 and 75

73) HNO2 in acidic medium gives.

+ –
(1) H3O , NO3 and NO
+ –
(2) H3O , NO3 and NO2
+ –
(3) CH3O , NO and NO2
+
(4) H3O , NO3 and N2O

74) XeF4 and XeF6 are expected to be.

(1) oxidizing
(2) reducing
(3) unreactive
(4) strongly basic

75) Which of the following does not exist?

2
(1) [SiCl6]
2–
(2) [GeCl6]
2–
(3) [SiF6]
2–
(4) [Sn(OH)6]

76) Hydrolysis of XeF4 gives HF, O2, Xe and 'X'. The structure of ' X' is.

(1) pyramidal
(2) square pyramidal
(3) octahedral
(4) square planar

77) Statement-I : SnF4, PbF4 are ionic in nature.

Statement-II: GeCl2 is more stable than GeCl4

(1) Both Statements I and II are correct.

(2) Both Statements I and II are not correct
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(4) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

78) Statement-I : Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, antimony can form stibine.
Statement-II : As2O3 is amphoteric but As2O5 is acid.

(1) Both statement are correct

(2) Both statement are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

79) Assertion : PbI4 do Not exist

Reason : Pb-I bond initially formed during this Not Release enough energy to unpair 6s e–.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion & Reason are False.

80) Which of the following incorrect statement.

(1) In Graphite C-C Bond length between two layer is 141.5 pm

(2) %P Character in Fullerene = 66.67
(3) Fullerene is Aromatic
(4) Fullerine Contain two type of C-C Bond length

81) Which of the following incorrect statements

(A) Pb do Not React with waters
(B) Sn + 2H2O SnO + 2H2
(C) C + 2X2 CX4
(D) Stability = GeX4 > GeX2
(E) Hydrolysis of CCl4 take place easily

(1) A, B only
(2) B, C only
(3) B, C, E only
(4) C, E only

82) Which of the mineral of phosphorus.

(1) Fluoroapatite
(2) Carnallite
(3) Borax
(4) Chile salt peter

83) Sum of π bond in peroxodisulphoric Acid & pyrosulphuric Acid

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 5

84) Which of the following incorrect match.

(A) Baryta = BaSO4
(B) Zinc blende = ZnS
(C) Copper pyrite = CuFeS
(D) epsom = MgSO4.7H2O
(E) gypsum = CaSO4. ½H2O

(1) E only
(2) A, D only
(3) C, E only
(4) C only

85) Which of the following is incorrect statements.

(A) Stability = I2O4 < Cl2O7
(B) Bi2O5, Sb2O5 are Acidic
(C) Lewis Acidic strength = BCl3 < AlCl3 <GaCl3
(D) Stability = I2O4 > Cl2O > BrO3

(1) A, D only
(2) B, D only
(3) A, B, D only
(4) A, C only

86) Choose incorrect order

(1) B.P. = BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > Ph3
(2) M.P. = O2 < S8 < Se8 < Te > Po
(3) B.P. = O2 < S8 < Se8 < Te < Po
(4) Pka = HF > HCl > HBr > HI

87) Incorrect statement is.

(1) maximum covalency of O = 4

(2) H2O not a reducing Agent
(3) Reducing Reducing SO2 < SeO2 < TeO2
(4) All EF6 (E= group 16) are gaseous

88) Assertion A: Fluorine forms one oxoacid called flouric acid.

Reason R: Fluorine has smallest size amongst all halogens and is highly electronegative.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct

89) Which of the following is incorrect option.

A. ΔHeg (+ve) Ne > Ar = Kr > Xe > Rn > He
B. oxidation state of Xe in 1st compound is +1
C. I.E. O2 < Xe
D. XeF2, XeF4, XeF6 are coloured solid and subline at 298K

(1) C only
(2) C, D only
(3) A, B only
(4) A, B, D only

90) Which of the following correct option.

(1) ClO2 is used in purification of drinking water

(2) I2O4, I2O5, I2O7 insoluble solid and on heating they decompose
(3) He, Ne Found in cleveite
(4) All of these
 ANSWER KEYS

BIOLOGY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 2 2 3 4 4 3 3 4 3 1 4 2 2 3 1 4 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 1 4 3 3 4 3 1 1 4 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 3 3 2 3 4 3 3 2 2 4 1 3 3 1 1 3 2 3 1
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 3 4 2 1 3 4 1 1 1 2 4 1 1 4 3 2 1 1 3 1
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 3 3 4 2 3 3 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 1 2 4 2 4 1 3 3 2 3 1 4 3 1 3 3 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 1 4 4 1 3 4 3 1 1 2 2 1 3 2 1 3 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 3 4 3 1 1 1 3 1 3 1 2 3 4 2 3 2 2 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 3 2 1 1 3 1 4 1 4 4 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 1 3 4 3 3 1 2 4