08-03-2026

9610ZMD800401250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) If a rubber ball is taken at the depth of 200 m in a pool, its volume decreases by 0.1%. If the
density of the water is 1 × 103 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2, then the bulk modulus of elasticity in N/m2 will
be :-

(1) 108
(2) 2 × 108
(3) 109
(4) 2 × 109

2) The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross-section of 8 cm2, one end of which has 40 fine
holes each of area 10–8 m2. If the liquid flows inside the tube with a speed of 0.15 m min–1, the speed
with which the liquid is ejected through the holes is

(1) 50 ms–1
(2) 5 ms–1
(3) 0.65 ms–1
(4) 0.5 ms–1

3) Two point masses having mass M and 4M are placed at distance r. The gravitational potential at a
point, where gravitational field intensity is zero :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two completely different planets X and Y are each composed of the same material. The planet Y
has radius twice as large as that of X. The ratio of the gravitational acceleration gy at the surface of Y
to the gravitational acceleration gx at the surface of X is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2

(4)
5)

A particle is moving along a straight line such that its velocity v varies with time t as v = 3t² - 6t. The
displacement of the particle between the time interval t = 0 to t = 3 seconds is :-

(1) 9 m
(2) 0 m
(3) 27 m
(4) 18 m

6) A projectile is thrown from the ground with an initial velocity u = (3î + 4ĵ) m/s. The equation of its
trajectory is :- (Take g = 10 m/s²)

(1) y = (4/3)x - (5/9)x²

(2) y = (3/4)x - (5/9)x²
(3) y = (4/3)x - 5x²
(4) y = 4x - 5x²

7) A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface with coefficients of friction μs = 0.5
and μk = 0.4. If a horizontal force of 6 N is applied to the block, the acceleration of the block is :-
(Take g = 10 m/s²)

(1) 1 m/s²
(2) 3 m/s²
(3) 0.5 m/s²
(4) Zero

8) Two blocks of masses 4 kg and 2 kg are connected by a light string passing over a smooth pulley.
The 4 kg block is on a smooth horizontal table and the 2 kg block hangs vertically. The tension in the
string is :- (Take g = 10 m/s²)

(1) 20/3 N
(2) 40/3 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 20 N

9) If the number of divisions on the circular scale is 100 and number of full rotations given to screw
is 8 and distance moved by the screw is 4mm, then what will be least count of the screw gauge ?

(1) 0.005 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.5 mm
(4) 5 mm

10) Statement-I : A given physical relation may not be correct, even when the dimensions of each
and every term on its either side are the same.
Statement-II : Physical quantities, entirely different in nature, may possess the same dimensional
formula.

(1) Both statements are false.

(2) Both statements are true.
(3) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
(4) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.

11) Maximum amplitude of SHM so block A will not slip on block B, k = 100 N/m

(1) 2 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 8 cm

12) A particle executes SHM on a straight line path. The amplitude of oscillation is 2 cm. When the
displacement of the particle from the mean position is 1 cm, the numerical value of magnitude of
acceleration is equal to the numerical value of magnitude of velocity. The frequency of SHM (in
second–1) is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A wave equation which gives the displacement along the direction is given by y = 0.001 sin (100
t + x) where, x and y are in metre and t in second. This equation represents a wave :

(1) travelling with a velocity of 100 m/s in the negative x-direction

(2) travelling with a velocity of 50/π m/s in the positive x-direction.
(3) of wavelength 1 m

(4)
of frequency

14) Two tuning forks P and Q when set vibrating, give 4 beats per second. If a prong of the fork P is
filed, the beats are reduced to 2 per second. Which is frequency of P, it that of Q is 250 Hz.?

(1) 246 Hz
(2) 250 Hz
(3) 254 Hz
(4) 242 Hz

15) A particle moves in a circle of radius such that its speed varies with time as v = kt2. The angle
between the net acceleration and the velocity vector at time t is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0°

16) The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod of mass M and length L about an axis passing
through its center and perpendicular to its length is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The moment of inertia of a disc about its diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an axis
through its center and perpendicular to its plane is:

(1) I/2
(2) 2I
(3) I
(4) 4I

18) A block of mass 2kg having 64 J kinetic energy initially moves on rough (µ = 0.8) horizontal

surface, what will be distance covered by block before it stops?

(1) 8 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 10 m

19) Two particles of masses 4kg and 2kg are moving with velocities 20m/sec and 5 m/sec
respectively in the same direction. If after collision velocity of 4 kg becomes 12m/sec in the same
direction then find velocity of 2kg ?

(1) 20m/s
(2) 21 m/s
(3) 22 m/s
(4) 19 m/s

20) Heat is associated with

(1) kinetic energy of random motion of molecules.

(2) kinetic energy of orderly motion of molecules.
(3) total kinetic energy of random and orderly motion of molecules.
(4) kinetic energy of random motion in some cases and kinetic energy of orderly motion in other.

21) A thermodynamic process of one mole ideal monoatomic gas is shown in figure. The efficiency of

cyclic process ABCA will be :-

(1) 25%
(2) 12.5%
(3) 50%

(4)

22) A gas has molar heat capacity C = 4.5 R in the process PT = constant. The number of degrees of
freedom of molecules in the gas is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 5

23) In given figure, assuming the diodes to be ideal,

(1) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased and hence current flows from A to B
(2) D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows from B to A.
(3) D1 and D2 are both forward biased and hence current flows from A to B.
(4) D1 and D2 are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from A to B and vice versa.

24) Draw the output wave form across the resistor:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) When the wavelength of radiation falling on a metal is changed from 500 nm to 200 nm, the
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons becomes three times larger. The work function of the
metal is close to : -

(1) 0.52 eV
(2) 1.02 eV
(3) 0.61 eV
(4) 0.81 eV

26) The mass defect in a particular nuclear reaction is 0.3 grams. The amount of energy liberated in
kilowatt hours is :-

(1) 1.5 × 106

(2) 2.5 × 106
(3) 3 × 106
(4) 7.5 × 106

27) The power factor of an ac circuit is 0.5. What will be the phase difference between the voltage
and current in this circuit?

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 37°
(4) 60°

28) V = 200sin and calculate power

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) In an EM wave propagating toward X-direction magnetic field oscillates at a frequency of 3 ×

1010 Hz toward Y-direction and has an amplitude of 10–6 T. The expression for electric field will be :-

10
(1) Ez = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m

(2)
E = 300 sin 2π(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
10
(3) Ey = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m
10
(4) Ey = 300 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m

30) ∈0 and µ0 are the electric permittivity and magnetic permeability of free space respectively. If the
corresponding quantities of a medium are 2∈0 and 2.5µ0 respectively, the refractive index of the
medium will nearly be :

(1)
(2)
(3) 3
(4) 2

31) Equivalent resistance across AB:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) If a 24 V source is connected across AB of the network shown below, then source current will
be………
[Consider R = 9 Ω]
(1) 4 A
(2) 1 A
(3) 1.5 A
(4) 3 A

33) Match the Column:

Column-I Column-II

If distance between Potential difference

(A) plates of capacitor (P) across plate is
(isolated) decrease decreased

If dielectric is inserted
between plates of capacitance of
(B) capacitor whose (Q) the capacitor will
plates are connected increase
with battery

If area of plates Energy of

(C) of (isolated) (R) capacitor will
capacitor is increased increase

If distance between
plates of capacitor
Force between
is decreased when
(D) (S) the plates
plate of capacitor
will decrease
are connected with
battery
(1) (A) → P,R (B) → Q, (C) → Q,S, (D) → Q,P
(2) (A) → P,R (B) → P, (C) → R,S (D) → Q,S
(3) (A) → P,Q (B) → Q,R (C) → P,Q,S (D) → R,Q
(4) (A) → P, (B) → R,S (C) → Q, (D) → R,P

34) Charges are placed on the vértices of a square as shown. Let be the electric field and V the
potential at the centre. If the charges on A and B are interchanged with those on D and C
respectively, then –

(1) remains unchanged, V changes

(2) Both and V changes
(3) and V remains unchanged
(4) changes, V remains unchanged
35) The effective capacitance between A and B of an infinite chain of capacitors joined as shown in

the figure

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 mF

36) Three concentric spherical metallic shells A, B and C of radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have surface
charge densities σ, – σ and σ respectively. If the shells A and C are at a + c = b same potential, then
the correct relation between a, b and c is -Three concentric spherical metallic shells A, B and C of
radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have surface charge densities s, – s and s respectively. If the shells A
and C are at same potential, then the correct relation between a, b and c is -

(1) a + c = b
(2) b + c = a
(3) a – b = c
(4) a + b = c

37) An electric charge 10–3 mC is placed at origin (0, 0). Two points A and B are situated at

and (2, 0) respectively. The potential difference between the points A and B will be

(1) 9 volts
(2) zero
(3) 2 volts
(4) 4.5 volts

38) The minimum magnifying power of a compound microscope is M. If the focal length of its eye
lens is halved, then minimum magnifying power will become

(1)

(2)

(3) 2M
(4) 4M

39) A small telescope has objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5 cm.
What is the maximum magnifying power of the telescope?
(1) 28
(2) 32
(3) 39.3
(4) 33.6

40) The width of fringe is 2 mm on the screen in a double slits experiment for the light of wavelength
of 400 nm. The width of the fringe for the light of wavelength 600 nm will be:

(1) 4 mm
(2) 1.33 mm
(3) 3 mm
(4) 2 mm

41) Two particles Y and Z emitted by a radioactive source at P made tracks in a chamber as
illustrated in the figure. A magnetic field acts downward into the paper. Careful measurements
showed that both tracks were circular, the radius of Y track being half that of the Z track. Which one
of the following statements is certainly true?

(1) Both particles Y and Z carried a positive charge

(2) The mass of particle Z was one-half that of particle Y
(3) The mass of particle Z was twice that of particle Y
(4) The charge of particle Z was twice that of particle Y

42) A parabolic section of wire OA is located in the x-y plane and carries current I = 12 A. A uniform
magnetic field B = 4.0 T making an angle 60° with x-axis exists in x-y plane. Calculate the magnetic
force on the wire OA. Co-ordinates of A are (0.25m, 1m).

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

43) Two very long, straight wires carrying, currents as shown in figure. Find all locations where the
net magnetic field is zero.

(1)
(2) y = x
(3) y = –x
(4) y = –(x/2)

44) The current i in an induction coil varies with time t according to the graph shown in figure.

Which of the following graphs shows the induced emf (E) in the coil with time?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) Figure shows two bulbs B1 and B2 resistor R and inductor L, when the switch S is opened

(1) Both B1 and B2 die out promptly

(2) Both B1 and B2 die out with some delay
(3) B2 dies out promptly, but B1 with some delay
(4) B1 dies out promptly, but B2 with some delay

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following property decreases on moving down a group ?

(1) Acidic nature of H – X (X–hologen)

(2) Basic nature of M2O3 (M = III A element)
(3) Acidic nature of H–O–X (X–Halogen)
(4) Basic nature of MH (M–IA metal)

2) Correct order of 2nd IP is :-

(1) C > N > O > F

(2) N > O > F > C
(3) O > N > F > C
(4) O > F > N > C

3) The increasing order of electron affinity of the electronic configurations of element is :-

(I) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
(II) 1s2 2s2 2p3
(III) 1s2 2s2 2p5
(IV) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1

(1) II < IV < III < I

(2) I < II < III < IV
(3) I < III < II < IV
(4) IV < III < II < I

4) Which order of melting point is correct :-

(1) Si < KCl < CH3OH < C2H6

(2) CH3OH < C2H6 < Si < KCl
(3) KCl < Si < C2H6 < CH3OH
(4) C2H6 < CH3OH < KCl < Si

5) Select incorrect order :-

– – +
(1) NO3 > NO2 > NO2 (N – O bond length)
(2) HI > HF > HBr > HCl (order of melting point)
(3) CH4 < CH3Cl < CH2Cl2 < CHCl3 (order of dipole moment)
(4) SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 (order of boiling point)

6) Which of the following molecular orbital has lowest energy for B2 molecule?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) Which is the following pair of species have identical shapes ?

+ –
(1) NO2 and NO2
(2) PCl5 and BrF5
2– –
(3) CO3 and NO3
(4) TeCl4 and XeO4

8) Which of the following complex ions violates the EAN rule ?

(1) [Fe(CO)5]
3+
(2) [Cr(NH3)6]
 4–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
3+
(4) [Co(NH3)6]

9) The type of isomerism present in pentaamminenitrochromium (III) perchlorate is :-

(1) Optical
(2) Linkage
(3) Hydrate
(4) Geometrical

10) In [Ni(NH3)4]SO4, the E.A.N. of Ni is :-

(1) 34
(2) 35
(3) 36
(4) 37

11) The compound H2N—Hg—O—Hg—I is formed by the action of :-

(1) NH3 and HgO in the presence of iodine

(2) NI3, HgO and H2O
(3) NH3 + K2HgI4
(4) KI + NH3 + Hg

12) Dimethylglyoxime is used for the test of ……. in alkaline medium.

(1) Cobalt
(2) Zinc
(3) Manganese
(4) Nickel

13) The major components in "Gun Metal" are:-

(1) Cu, Zn, Ni

(2) Cu, Sn, Zn
(3) Cu, Ni, Mg
(4) Al, Cu, Mg, Mn

14) Which form interstitial compounds ?

(1) Fe
(2) Ni
(3) Co
(4) All of these

15) Which of the following group of transition metals is called coinage metals :-
(1) Cu, Ag, Au
(2) Ru, Rh, Pd
(3) Fe, Co, Ni
(4) Os, Ir, Pt

16) ; (A) and (B) are :

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Metamers
(4) Functional isomers

17) are-

(1) Conformations
(2) Position isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) not conformations

18)

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diasteromers
(3) Identical
(4) Geometrical isomers

19) Which of the following is aromatic ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) All of these

20) Which of the following compound is strongest base :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which is most acidic?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Correct statement regarding to SN2 reaction is/are-

(A) The reaction is favoured by weak nucleophile.
(B) The reaction is favoured by polar aprotic solvent.
(C) The reaction is accompained by racemization.
(D) It is one step reaction.
(E) Intermediate formed during reaction is carbanion.

(1) A, B, D only
(2) A, C, E only
(3) B, D only
(4) A, C only

25) In the given reaction

CH3–CH=CH–CH2–OH Product
Product is :

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH
(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO
(3) CH3–CH=CH–CHO
(4) CH3–CH=CH–COOH

26) Major product of the given reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

27) (A); Product (A) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In a set of reaction m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29)
P should be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) A mixture of (1) and (3)

30) Statement I: Silica gel and alumina are used as adsorbent for adsorption chromatography.
Statement II: Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) Both statements I and II are true
(4) Both statements I and II are false

31) If and are 108 and 36 torr respectively. What will be the mole fraction of A in vapour
phase if B has mole fraction of 0.5 in solution.

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.60
(4) 0.35

32) The rate constant of a reaction depends on :-

(1) temperature
(2) mass
(3) weight
(4) time

33) The charge required for reducing 1 mole of to Mn+2.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) The product of electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution are :-

(1) Na at cathode and Cl2 at anode

(2) H2 at cathode and Cl2 at anode
(3) H2 at cathode and O2 at anode
(4) Na at anode and Cl2 at cathode

35) The half life period of a first order reaction is 55 days. How much time it will take to go upto
99.9% completion :-

(1) 550 days

(2) 350 days
(3) 275 days
(4) 175 days

36) In the reaction, A + 2B → 6C + 2D, if the initial rate – is 2.6 × 10–2, what will be the value of
 at t = 0 ?

(1) 0.8 × 10–2 M sec–1

(2) 2.5 × 10–2 M sec–1
(3) 5.2 × 10–2 M sec–1
(4) 7.5 × 10–2 M sec–1

37) Which of the following represents a disproportionation reaction ?

(a) Cl2 + 2 OH¯ → ClO¯ + Cl¯ + H2O
(b) Cu2O + H+ → Cu + Cu2+ + OH¯

(1) only a, b
(2) only a
(3) only c
(4) a, b, c

38) At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant (Kp) for the decomposition reaction, N2O4
⇌ 2NO2 is expressed by Kp = 4x2P/(1–x2) where P is pressure, x is degree of dissociation. Which of the
following statement is true ?

(1) Kp increases with increase of P

(2) Kp increases with increase of x
(3) Kp increases with decrease of x
(4) Kp remain constant with change in P or x

39) An exothermic reaction is represented by graph :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

40) 16 g of CH4(g) and 64 g of O2(g) present in 5 Litre vessel then active mass of CH4(g) will be:-

(1) 0.3 M
(2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.4 M
(4) 0.5 M

41) Which of the following mixture (aqueous) will act as buffer solution ?

(1) 0.1 mole CH3COOH + 0.1 mole HCOOH

(2) 0.1 mole HCOOH + 0.2 mole HCOONa
(3) 0.1 mole NaOH + 0.1 mole NaCl
(4) 0.1 mole NH4OH + 0.2 mole C6H5–NH2

42) Consider the following salts. Which one(s) when dissolved in water will produce an acidic
solution :-
(A) NH4Cl (B) NaCl (C) NaCN (D) KNO3

(1) B and C
(2) Only A
(3) Only C
(4) B and D

43) At 25°C, a 0.01 mole sample of gas is compressed from 4.0 L to 1.0 L at constant temperature.
What is the work done for this process if the external pressure is 4.0 atm ?

(1) 1.6 × 103 J

(2) 8.0 × 102 J
(3) 4.0 × 102 J
(4) 1.2 × 103 J

44) For a reaction, Ag2O(s) → 2Ag(s) + O2(g), the value of ΔH = 132.6 kJ, ΔS = 66 JK–1 mol–1. The
free energy change for the reaction will be zero at which temperature :-

(1) 200 K
(2) 2009 K
(3) 2023 K
(4) 2029 K

45) In which of the following electron distributions in ground state, only the Hund's rule is violated ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) The following diagram showing restriction sites in [Link] cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of

'X ' and 'Y ' genes.

The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and 'Y' for protein involved in the
(1)
replication of Plasmid.
The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and 'Y ' for
(2)
protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
(3) The gene 'X' is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics.
(4) Gene 'X ' is responsible for recognition sites and 'Y ' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.

2) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

(1) N2
(2) 2n
(3) 2n + 1
(4) 2N2
3)
In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the
following strategies will be chosen to recombinant colonies?

(1) Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate.

(2) Blue color colonies will be selected.
(3) White color colonies will be selected.
(4) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.

4) Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?

(1) Molecular diagnosis

(2) Gene amplification
(3) Purification of isolated protein
(4) Detection of gene mutation

5)

Match List -I with List - II.

List-I List-II

(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency

(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato

(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones

(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i
(2) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
(3) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
(4) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

6) Transposons can be used during which one of the following ?

(1) Gene silencing

(2) Autoradiography
(3) Gene sequencing
(4) Polymerase Chain Reaction
7) Adventitious roots may arise from:

(1) Radicle only

(2) Stem or leaves
(3) Plumule only
(4) Cotyledons only

8) Which part attaches leaf to the stem?

(1) Lamina
(2) Petiole
(3) Leaf base
(4) Midrib

9) Growth of main axis in cymose inflorescence is:

(1) Unlimited
(2) Indeterminate
(3) Limited
(4) Secondary

10) Lateral roots originate from:

(1) Endodermis
(2) Cortex
(3) Pericycle
(4) Epidermis

11) Compared to dicot stem, monocot stem hypodermis is:

(1) Parenchymatous
(2) Collenchymatous
(3) Sclerenchymatous
(4) Chlorenchymatous

12) For synthesis of one glucose molecule during calvin cycle total requirement is:

(1) 6 ATP & 6 NADPH

(2) 12 ATP & 12 NADPH
(3) 18 ATP & 12 NADPH
(4) 12 ATP & 18 NADPH

13) Primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is :

(1) RuBP
(2) PEP
(3) PGA
(4) PGAL

14) If light is optimum but CO2 is low, rate will be limited by:

(1) Light
(2) Temperature
(3) CO2
(4) Chlorophyll

15) During glycolysis, substrate-level phosphorylation occurs at:

1. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate → 3-PGA
2. PEP → Pyruvate
3. Glucose → G6P
4. F6P → F1,6BP

(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 1, 2 and 4

16) Per molecule of acetyl CoA entering Krebs cycle, the following are produced:
1. 3 NADH
2. 1 FADH2
3. 1 ATP (GTP equivalent)
4. 2 CO2

(1) 1, 2 and 3 only

(2) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(3) 2 and 4 only
(4) 1 and 4 only

17) Chemiosmotic hypothesis explains:

(1) Substrate-level phosphorylation

(2) Coupling of proton gradient to ATP synthesis
(3) CO2 release
(4) Pyruvate oxidation

18) Net ATP formed directly (substrate-level phosphorylation) per glucose during glycolysis is :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

19) Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to boost the production of tea-leaves. This is
because -

(1) Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated

(2) Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages
(3) Effect of auxins is removed and growth of lateral buds is enhanced.
(4) Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves.

20) What is the estimated range of the number of species that are known and described on Earth?

(1) 1.2-1.3 million

(2) 1.7-1.8 million
(3) 2.5-3.0 million
(4) 5.0-5.5 million

21) Which of the following was not one of the main criteria used by R.H. Whittaker for his Five
Kingdom Classification?

(1) Cell structure

(2) Body organisation
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Specific type of genetic material (DNA vs RNA)

22) Consider the following statements about Euglenoids:

I. Majority of them are fresh water organisms found in running water.
II. Instead of a cell wall, they have a protein-rich layer called a pellicle which makes their body
flexible.
III. They possess two flagella, a short and a long one.
IV. Their pigments are completely different from those present in higher plants.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) II and III only

(2) I, II, and III only
(3) II, III, and IV only
(4) I and IV only

23) Match the specific Ascomycetes fungi in Column I with their distinct feature or use in Column II:

Column I Column II

(a) Saccharomyces (Yeast) (i) Edible fungi considered delicacies

(b) Neurospora (ii) Unicellular sac-fungus

Extensively used in biochemical and

(c) Penicillium (iii)
genetic work

Multicellular fungus known as a

(d) Morels and truffles (iv)
source of antibiotics
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

24) Identify the incorrect statement regarding the size and form of Algae:

(1) The form and size of algae are highly variable.

(2) Volvox is an example of colonial form of algae.
(3) Ulothrix and Spirogyra are examples of filamentous forms of algae.
(4) Kelps are microscopic marine algae that float passively in water currents.

25) Assertion (A): The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow
geographical regions.
Reason (R): The gametophytes of pteridophytes require cool, damp, shady places to grow and
absolutely need water for fertilization

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

26) Compare Liverworts and Mosses and identify the correct statements:
I. In liverworts, the plant body is thalloid and dorsiventral, whereas in mosses, the leafy stage
consists of upright, slender axes.
II. Asexual reproduction in liverworts can occur via gemmae, which are green, multicellular, asexual
buds.
III. In mosses, vegetative reproduction is by fragmentation and budding in the primary protonema.
IV. The sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate than that in liverworts.

(1) I, II, and IV

(2) I, II, and III
(3) II, III, and IV
(4) I and IV only

27) Assertion (A) :- The life cycle of endoparasite is more complex.

Reason (R) :- Many parasites have evolved to be host specific.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

28) In the following statement choose wrong one -

(a) Wasp laying egg in a fig fruit is an example of mutual relationship.
(b) Mycorrhiza is an example of ectoparasitism.
(c) Physiological ecology is ecology at organism level.
(d) Compititive exclusion principle was given by connell.
(1) a & c
(2) a, c, d
(3) b and d
(4) b, c and d

29) For the given population growth curve which statement is correct :-

(1) Curve 'a' does not show saturation because rate of population growth is very low.

(2)
Curve 'b' population growth rate is represented by = rN.
(3) 'K' is carrying capacity and its value is equal for all organisms.
(4) Curve 'b' represents logistic growth rate in a population.

30) Standing crop refers to :-

(1) All the living forms in a area

(2) All the crop plants in a area
(3) All the photosynthetic living forms in an area
(4) Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time

31)

Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other a labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A sparrow is a primary consumer when it eats seeds, fruits, peas, and a secondary
consumer when it eats insects and worms.
Reason (R): A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the
same time.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

32) Which of the following is not a favourable factor for increasing the rate of decomposition ?

(1) Oxygen richness of soil.

(2) Detritus rich in lignin
(3) Warm environment
(4) High soil moisture

33) Tropical areas are having greatest biodiversity because :-

(1) More solar energy is available in tropics

(2) They have less seasonal changes
(3) They had a long undisturbed evolutionary time
(4) All of these

34)

Conservation of Biodiversity for pollination of plants, comes under :-

(1) Narrowly utilitarian

(2) Broadly utilitarian
(3) Ethical
(4) All of the above

35) In a test cross of a heterozygous tall plant (Tt × tt), out of 600 progeny, how many are expected
to be tall?

(1) 150
(2) 300
(3) 450
(4) 600

36) A cross between IAi × IBi produces how many different blood group phenotypes?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

37) Find the incorrect statement regarding mutation.

(1) Mutation is a sudden heritable change in genetic material.

(2) Mutation can be induced by mutagens
(3) Mutation always results in harmful phenotype
(4) Mutation may occur in somatic or germ cells

38) Distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm.

What is the length of a DNA segment having 500 base pairs?

(1) 170 nm
(2) 34 nm
(3) 68 nm
(4) 340 nm

39) Assertion (A): Genetic code is degenerate.

Reason (R): More than one codon can code for the same amino acid

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

40) Identify the correct statements

1. Translation occurs on ribosomes
2. tRNA has anticodon loop.
3. Start codon is AUG.
4. All codons code for amino acids.

(1) 1 and 2 only

(2) 1, 2 and 3 only
(3) 2, 3 and 4 only
(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

41) If 2000 nucleotides are present in one strand of a B-DNA, how many nucleotides will be required
to replicate both strands completely?

(1) 2000
(2) 4000
(3) 1000
(4) 6000

42) Choose the correct statement with respect to Morula.

The blastomeres are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and an inner group of cells
(1)
attached to trophoblast called the inner cell mass.
(2) It consist of 32 to 64 blastomeres.
(3) The morula becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus.
(4) Morula is a solid ball like structure with 8-16 blastomeres

43) Statement I : The average duration of human pregnancy is about 9 months which is called the
gestation period.
Statement II : The signals for parturition originate from the placenta which releases oxytocin and
induce mild uterine contractions.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

44) A - exhibits strong contraction during delivery of the baby.

B - cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.
Identify A and B respectively –

(1) Perimetrium and myometrium

(2) Endometrium and perimetrium
(3) Myometrium and endometrium
(4) Endometrium and myometrium

45) Choose the correct sequence w.r.t transport of sperm in male reproductive system–
a. Rete testes
b. Epididymis
c. Vas deferens
d. Vasa efferentia
e. Seminiferous tubule

(1) e → d → b → a → c
(2) a → e → d → b → c
(3) e → d→ a → b → c
(4) e → a → d → b → c

46) After fertilization through ICSI, the embryo is cultured in a controlled laboratory environment
for a few days. Once it reaches an appropriate developmental stage, it is transferred into the uterus
of the female for implantation and further development. This technique significantly increases
fertilization rates in couples facing severe male infertility.
The primary advantage of ICSI is that it:

(1) Increases sperm production in males

(2) Eliminates the need for ovulation in females
(3) Bypasses natural sperm penetration barriers to achieve fertilization
(4) Guarantees 100% successful pregnancy

47) How many STD’s are curable?

A. Trichomoniasis
B. Genital herpes
C. Hepatitis-B
D. Chlamydiasis
E. Genital warts

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

48) Read the following statements and choose the correct ones –
i. The bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are
produced.
ii. The spleen is a large bean shaped organ. It mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes.
iii. Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition by virtue of which contact with other cells
inhibits their uncontrolled growth.
iv. Ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays and non-ionizing radiations like UV cause DNA
damage leads to neoplastic transformation.

(1) i and iii

(2) ii, iii and iv
(3) Only i
(4) All are correct

49) Rhinoviruses mainly infect the ______.

(1) Lungs
(2) Liver
(3) Nose and respiratory passage
(4) Heart

50) The life cycle of Plasmodium is said to be digenetic because:

(1) It has two stages in RBCs.

(2) It requires two different hosts to complete its life cycle.
(3) It multiplies twice in humans.
(4) It spreads in two seasons.

51) Assertion (A): Vaccination provides long-term protection against diseases.

Reason (R): Vaccines generate memory B and T cells that respond rapidly upon re-exposure to the
pathogen.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

52) Which of the following is an example of anthropogenic evolution?

(1) Formation of mountains

(2) Development of antibiotic resistance
(3) Seasonal migration
(4) Earthquake

53) The variation in beak shapes of Darwin’s finches was mainly related to differences in:

(1) Nesting habits

(2) Climate
(3) Food sources
(4) Body shape and size

54) Consider the following statements about Homo erectus:

A. Fossils were discovered in Java in 1891.
B. It lived about 1.5 mya.
C. Brain capacity was about 900 cc.
D. It had a smaller brain than Homo habilis.

(1) Only A, B and C are correct

(2) Only B and D are correct
(3) Only A and D are correct
(4) All are correct

55) Assertion (A): High Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) indicates high water pollution.
Reason (R): Microbes consume a lot of oxygen while degrading organic matter in polluted water.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

56) Assertion :- Pollen grains of angiosperms represents the male gametophyte of angiosperms.
Reason :- Pollen grains are haploid and each forms two male gametes upon maturity.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

57) Identify the structures maked A to F in the given diagram :-

A = Asymmetric nucleus; B = nucleus; C = generative cell, D = vegetative cell; E = pollen; F =

(1)
pollen tetrad
A = pollen tetrad; B = pollen; C = generative cell, D = vegetative cell ; E = Asymmetric spindle;
(2)
F = nucleus
A = pollen tetrad; B = vacuole; C = nucleus; D = asymmetric spindle; E = vegetative cell; F =
(3)
generative cell
A = vacoule; B = pollen tetrad; C = nucleus; D = vegetative cell; E = asymmetric spindle; F =
(4)
generative cell

58) Assertion :- Fruit is formed only in angiosperms.

Reason :- After fertilization ovary is converted in to fruit and ovary is found only in angiosperms.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

59) Consider the following statements regarding muscle contraction:

A. The functional unit of a myofibril is the sarcomere.
B. During contraction, the A-band shortens.
C. Calcium ions bind to troponin to initiate contraction.
D. ATP is required for the detachment of myosin head from actin.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) A, C and D only

(2) A and B only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, B, C and D

60) Match the bones in Column I with their correct number in an adult human.

Column I Column II
A. Skull bones 1. 30
B. Ribs 2. 26
C. Sternum 3. 22
D. Vertebral column (vertebrae) 4. 1
E. Forelimb bones (one limb) 5. 12 pairs
(1) A-4, B-5, C-3, D-2, E-1
(2) A-2, B-3, C-5, D-4, E-1
(3) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-5, E-1
(4) A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2, E-1

61) Match the type of joint with its example:

Column I Column II
A. Ball and socket joint 1. Elbow
B. Hinge joint 2. Skull sutures
C. Pivot joint 3. Shoulder
D. Fixed joint 4. Atlas and axis
(1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(3) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

62) Consider the following statements:

A. Resting membrane potential is maintained by the sodium-potassium pump.
B. During depolarization, sodium ions enter the neuron.
C. Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters.
D. Myelinated fibres conduct impulses faster.
E. Action potential follows the all-or-none law.
Find the correct answer from the options given below -

(1) A, B, C, D and E
(2) A, C and D only
(3) B, C and E only
(4) A, B and C only

63) Match the brain parts with their functions:

Column I Column II
A. Thalamus 1. Controls balance
B. Hypothalamus 2. Relay station for sensory impulses
C. Cerebellum 3. Regulates hunger and temperature
D. Medulla oblongata 4. Controls heartbeat and breathing
E. Pons 5. Regulates respiration
F. Midbrain 6. Controls visual and auditory reflexes
(1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4, E-5, F-6
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, E-5, F-6
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-6, F-5
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-4, F-6

64) Assertion (A): Axon carries impulses away from the cell body.
Reason (R): Nissl granules are present in the axon.

(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

65) Match the columns -

Column I (Gland) Column II (Hormone) Column III (Function)

A. Thyroid 1. Insulin a. Lowers blood glucose
B. Pancreas 2. Thyroxine b. Regulates metabolism
C. Adrenal 3. Adrenaline c. Fight or flight response
(1) A-2-b, B-1-a, C-3-c
(2) A-1-a, B-2-b, C-3-c
(3) A-2-a, B-1-c, C-3-b
(4) A-3-c, B-1-b, C-2-a

66) Statement A: Diabetes mellitus is caused due to insulin deficiency.

Statement B: Diabetes insipidus is caused due to ADH deficiency.

(1) Both A and B are correct.

(2) Both are incorrect.
(3) A correct, B incorrect.
(4) A incorrect, B correct.

67) Which of the following are correct statements ?

A. Vital capacity includes inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes.
B. Oxygen is mainly transported as oxyhaemoglobin.
C. Carbon dioxide is mainly transported as bicarbonate ions.
D. Gas exchange occurs by active transport.

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, B, C and D

68) The respiratory rhythm centre is located in the:

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Thalamus

69) Choose the correct statements -

A. Cardiac cycle lasts about 0.8 seconds.
B. Atrial systole occurs before ventricular systole.
C. Semilunar valves open during ventricular systole.
D. First heart sound is due to closure of AV valves.
E. Ventricular diastole follows ventricular systole.

(1) A, B, C, D and E
(2) A, C and D only
(3) B, C, D and E only
(4) A, B and C only

70) Which of the following is correctly matched?

(1) RBC – Blood clotting

(2) WBC – Oxygen transport
(3) Platelets – Blood clotting
(4) RBC – Defence

71) Arachidonic acid is a polyunsaturated fatty acid. How many double bonds and carbon atoms does
it contain (including the carboxyl carbon)?

(1) 16 carbons and 0 double bonds

(2) 20 carbons and 0 double bonds
(3) 18 carbons and 2 double bonds
(4) 20 carbons and 4 double bonds

72) Which of the following describes the 'Turnover Number' of an enzyme?

The number of substrate molecules converted to product per unit time by a single enzyme
(1)
molecule.
(2) The time it takes for an enzyme to denature at high temperatures
(3) The pH at which the enzyme shows 50% of its maximum activity.
(4) The amount of energy required to reach the transition state

73) In the chemical structure of a nucleotide, the phosphate group is attached to the _____ carbon of
the sugar, while the nitrogenous base is attached to the _____ carbon.

(1) 3′; 1′
(2) 2′; 3′
(3) 5′; 1′
(4) 1′; 5′

74) What happens to the 'Nucleolus' and 'Nuclear Envelope' during the final stage of Prophase
(Diakinesis)?

(1) The nuclear envelope thickens to prevent chromosome loss.

(2) They reform to protect the newly swapped genetic material.
(3) They disappear completely to allow for spindle attachment.
(4) They become more prominent to facilitate ribosomal assembly.

75) During the G2​ phase of the cell cycle, the cell is primarily involved in:

(1) Reducing the chromosome number from diploid to haploid

(2) The replication of nuclear DNA.
(3) Synthesizing proteins required for mitosis, such as tubulin
(4) Dividing the cytoplasm into two daughter cells.

76) In a cell with 2n=4, how many 'chromatids' are present in the cell during Anaphase II of
Meiosis?

(1) 4
(2) 16
(3) 2
(4) 8

77) Which of the following describes the most significant difference between the Metaphase of
Mitosis and Metaphase I of Meiosis?

(1) Spindle fibers are composed of tubulin in Mitosis but actin in Meiosis
In Mitosis, each chromosome is attached to spindle fibers from both poles; in Meiosis I, each
(2)
homologous chromosome is attached to only one pole.
(3) In Mitosis, chromosomes align in pairs; in Meiosis I, they align individually.
(4) DNA replication occurs before Mitotic metaphase but not before Meiotic metaphase I.

78) Which of the following movements in the 'Fluid Mosaic Model' is energetically the most
unfavorable and occurs the least frequently without the assistance of specific enzymes?

(1) Lateral diffusion of lipids

(2) Transverse 'flip-flop' of lipids
(3) Lateral diffusion of integral proteins
(4) Rotational movement of proteins

79) Which of the following features of 'Mitochondria' best supports the endosymbiotic theory of their
origin?

(1) The ability to produce ATP via aerobic respiration

(2) The folded nature of the inner membrane called cristae
(3) Presence of a single circular DNA and 70S ribosomes
(4) Presence of a double-layered membrane

80) The 'Nucleoplasm' contains a non-membrane bound structure called the nucleolus. What is its
primary function?

(1) Synthesis of messenger RNA (mRNA)

(2) Active synthesis of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
(3) Storage of calcium ions for signaling
(4) Replication of nuclear DNA

81) Which of the following is NOT part of the 'Endomembrane System'?

(1) Vacuoles
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(4) Peroxisomes

82) Which symmetry is seen in adult echinoderms?

(1) Bilateral
(2) Radial
(3) Asymmetry
(4) Spherical

83) Statement I: Sponges possess canal system.

Statement II: Sponges show tissue organisation.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

84) Which vertebrate class has pneumatic bones?

(1) Amphibia
(2) Reptilia
(3) Aves
(4) Mammalia

85) Assertion (A): Vasa recta helps maintain osmotic gradient.

Reason (R): It prevents washing out of medullary solutes.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

86) Flame cells are chiefly found in:

(1) Annelida
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Mollusca

87) Choose incorrect statement regarding transitional epithelium:

(1) Transitional epithelium stretches

(2) Found in urinary bladder
(3) Allows secretion
(4) Allows distension

88) Statement I: Blood is connective tissue. Statement II: Blood has fibres.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

89) Buccopharyngeal respiration occurs through:

(1) Skin
(2) Lungs
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) Gills
90) Choose incorrect character regarding cockroaches.

(1) Compound eyes

(2) Ommatidia
(3) Closed circulatory system
(4) Tracheal respiration
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 1 3 2 1 4 2 1 2 3 3 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 2 1 3 4 4 2 2 1 3 2 3 4 2 4 2 3 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 3 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 1 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 3 4 2 4 1 1 2 2 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 3 3 1 2 3 1 3 2 1 4 2 1 3 4 4 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 4 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 2 1 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 1 4 1 1 1 3 4 4 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 1 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 3 3 4 3 3 4 3 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 3 1 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 3 1 1 1 2 1 3 4 1 3 3 3 1 2 2 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 3 3 1 2 3 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining :
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
(1) Asking About:
The problem asks to find the bulk modulus of elasticity of a rubber ball subjected to pressure
at a depth of 200 m.
(2) Concept:
Bulk modulus of elasticity (B)

(3) Formula:

A. The change in pressure P at a depth h is given by:

A. The relative change in volume is given as 0.1%, or 0.001.

(4) Calculation / Explanation:

A. Given:

A. Calculate the change in pressure

A. Now, using the bulk modulus formula:

(5) Final Answer:

The bulk modulus of elasticity is
Correct Option: (4)
Final Answer : (4)

2) Explaining : Find the speed with which the liquid is ejected through the holes
Concept : This question is based on equation of continuity
Solution :
a1v1 = a2v2

8 × 10–4 × = 40 × 10–8 v2
v2 = 5 m/s
Final Answer : (2)
3) Explaining : Find the gravitational potential at a point, where gravitational field intensity is
zero
Concept : This question is based on gravitational potential
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

4) Explain the question : Two planets X and Y are made of the same material (same density).
Planet Y has a radius twice that of planet X. We need to find the ratio of their surface gravities

.
Concept : This question is based on for planets of uniform density, the gravitational field at
the surface (surface gravity) is directly proportional to the radius R:
g∝R
Solution :
Mass of a planet :

Gravitational field at the surface:

g=
Thus,
g∝R
Since RY = 2Rx:

Final answer : option (3)

5) Explanation: Calculate displacement by integrating the velocity function over the given
time interval.
Concept: Based on Application Of Calculus For General Motion.
Solution: Displacement s = ∫ v dt from 0 to 3
s = ∫ (3t² - 6t) dt = [t³ - 3t²] from 0 to 3
s = (3³ - 3(3)²) - (0³ - 3(0)²)
s = (27 - 27) - 0 = 0 m
Final Answer: (2)

6) Explanation: Derive the trajectory equation using horizontal and vertical velocity
components.
Concept: Based on Equation Of Trajectory In Ground To Ground Projectile.
Solution: ux = 3, uy = 4
x = ux · t ⇒ t = x/3
y = uy · t - (1/2)gt²
y = 4(x/3) - 5(x/3)²
y = (4/3)x - (5/9)x²
Final Answer: (1)

7) Explanation: Determine if the applied force exceeds the static friction threshold to produce
motion.
Concept: Based on Friction And Its Types.
Solution: Limiting friction fL = μs · m · g
fL = 0.5 × 2 × 10 = 10 N
Applied force F = 6 N
Since F < fL, the block remains at rest.
Acceleration a = 0
Final Answer: (4)

8) Explanation: Solve for tension by finding the system's acceleration.

Concept: Based on Motion of Bodies Connected with Pulley Systems Without Spring.
Solution: Acceleration a = (Net Pulling Force) / (Total Mass)
a = (2 × 10) / (4 + 2) = 20/6 = 10/3 m/s²
For the 4 kg block: T = m · a
T = 4 × (10/3) = 40/3 N
Final Answer: (2)

9) Explaining : Find least count of screw gauge

Concept : Screw gauge
Solution :
8 rotation of circular scale = 4 mm on main scale

1 rotation = ⇒ mm
100 parts on circular scale = 0.5 mm = Pitch
1 part on circular scale = 0.005 mm = L.C. of screw gauge
Final Answer : (1)

10) Explaining : Find correct option based on given statements.

Concept : Dimensional of physical quantities
Solution :
Both statements are true.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
Final Answer : (2)

11) Explaining : Find maximum amplitude of SHM

Concept : Spring block system
Solution :
Let Maximum amplitude of SHM so block A will not skip on B is x0, k = 100 N/m
the,

Final Answer : (3)

12) Explaining : Find frequency of SHM

Concept : Kinematics of SHM
Solution :

A = 2cm ⇒ x = 1cm =
⇒ ⇒ a = ω2 · 1

⇒
Final Answer : (3)

13) Explaining : Find correct option for given situation

Concept : Equation of progressive wave
Solution :
The standard equation of a wave travelling with amplitude α in the negative x-direction with
angular velocity ω is given by
y = αsin(ωt + kx) ...(i)
where, k is a wave number.
We compare the given equation with the given equation
α = 0.001 ⇒ ω = 100 and k = 1

Velocity,

wavelength,

Frequency,
Final Answer : (1)

14) Explaining : Find frequency of P

Concept : Beat phenomenon
Solution :
fP – fQ = ±4
If prong of the fork P is filled, fp
Therefore fP – fQ = –4 (as difference decrease)
fQ = 250 Hz
fP = 250 – 4 = 246 Hz
Final Answer : (1)

15) Question Explanation: Calculate the orientation of the resultant acceleration vector in
non-uniform circular motion.
Concept Involved: The angle ϕ is given by .
Solution:
 and thus tan ϕ =
Final Answer: (2)

16) Question Explanation: Determine the standard rotational inertia for a rod about its
centroidal axis.
Concept Involved: Integration for continuous mass distribution or standard formula usage.
Solution: Standard formula for a central perpendicular axis of a rod is
Final Answer: (2)

17) Question Explanation: Relate inertia about a planar axis to a perpendicular axis using
the perpendicular axis theorem.
Concept Involved: Iz = Ix + Iy ; for a symmetric disc, Ix = Iy = Idiameter.
Solution: Iz = I + I=2I.
Final Answer: (2)

18)

Question Explanation :
The problem asks to find the distance covered by the block before it stops when a block of
mass 2 kg having 64 J kinetic energy initially and moves on rough (μ = 0.8) horizontal surface.
Concept: This question is based on work energy Theorem.
Solution:
Using work energy theorem
–µmgx = 0 – 64

x=

Final Answer: The correct option is (2)

19) Explaining : Find velocity of particle 2 kg

Concept : This question is based on conservation of linear momentum
Solution :
It is based on momentum conservation

pi = pf
4 × 20 + 2 × 5 = 4 × 12 + 2v2
80 + 10 = (48) + 2v2
v2 = 21 m/s
Final Answer : (2)

20) Question Explanation:

The question asks about the physical nature of heat at molecular level.

Concept:
 This question is based on Kinetic theory of matter.

Solution:
When a body is heated its temperature rises. In liquids and gases vibration of molecules about
their mean position increases, hence kinetic energy associated with the random motion of
molecules increases. So, thermal energy or heat associated with the random
and translation motions of molecules increases.

Final answer: The Correct option is (1).

21) Explain Question:

To determine the efficiency of cycle process ABCA.

Concept:

Efficiency of a heat energy .

Solution:

0 0
W= (P ) (V )

QAB = nCvΔT =
0 0 0 0
(2P V – P V ) = = +ve

QBC = nCpΔT =
0 0 0 0 0 0
[4P V – 2P V ] = 5P V = +ve
QCA = – ve

0 0
Qabsorbed = QAB + QBC = PV

η=

Final Answer: Option (4)

22)

Explain Question:
The molar heat capacity of a glass of a gas is given for a process in which the product of
pressure and temperature remains constant.
Using the thermodynamic relation for this process, the degrees of freedom of gas molecules
are to be determined.

Concept:
Relation between heat capacity and degrees of freedom.

Solution:
given:

PT = C , PV = nRT
T ∝ PV
P(PV) = C
P2V = C
PV1/2 = C

∴x=

C = CV +

4.5 R =

2.5 R =
f=5

Final answer: Option (4)

23) Question Explanation: The question asks to determine the biasing of the two ideal
diodes, D1 and D2, in the given circuit and the resulting direction of current flow.
Concept Involved: Forward and reverse biasing of a P-N junction diode. A diode is forward-
biased when its P-side (anode) is at a higher potential than its N-side (cathode). It is reverse-
biased when its P-side is at a lower potential than its N-side.
Solution:
For D2, VP > Vn
For D1, VP < Vn
Final Answer: (2)

24) Explanation Output waveform across resistor when diode conducts on positive half and
blocks on negative half; diode drop ~1 V.
Concept Half-wave rectification: on positive half diode forward → output ≈ +1 V; on negative
half diode reverse → output 0 V.
Solution
for –ve half cycle diode is RB hence o/p across resistance is zero (0 volt)
+ve half cycle diode is FB hence o/p across resistance is +1v
Final Answer (Option 1).

25) Problem Explanation: When the wavelength of light falling on a metal changes from 500
nm to 200 nm, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons becomes three times larger.
The problem asks for the work function of the metal.
Concept Used: This problem applies Einstein's photoelectric equation for two different
wavelengths to set up a system of equations and solve for the unknown work function.
Formulas Used:

• Einstein's Photoelectric Equation:

• Using the conversion: hc ≈ 1240 eV·nm or 12400 eV·Å
Calculation:

• For the first wavelength, λ1 = 500 nm :

• For the second wavelength, λ2 = 200 nm :

• Given that K'max = 3Kmax, we can substitute:

•

• Substituting hc = 1240 eV·nm : .

Final Answer: The work function of the metal is approximately 0.61 eV. The correct option is
(3).

26) Problem Explanation: The mass defect in a nuclear reaction is 0.3 grams. The problem
asks for the amount of energy liberated in kilowatt-hours (kWh).
Concept Used: This problem is a direct application of Einstein's mass-energy equivalence
principle, E = Δmc2, and the conversion of energy units from joules to kilowatt-hours.
Formulas Used:
• Energy liberated: E = Δmc2
• Conversion factor: 1 kWh = 3.6×106 J
Calculation:

• Mass defect Δm = 0.3 g = kg = 3×10–4 kg.

• Speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s.
• Energy in Joules: E = ((3×10–4) kg) × (3 × 108 m/s)2 = (3 × 10–4) × (9 × 1016) = 2.7 × 1013 J.

• Energy in kWh: E(kWh) = = 0.75 × 107 = 7.5 × 106 kWh.

Final Answer: The amount of energy liberated is 7.5 × 105 kWh. The correct option is (4).

27) Explaining : The power factor of an ac circuit is 0.5. What will be the phase difference
between the voltage and current in this circuit?
Concept : This question is based on phase difference, ϕ = cos–1(0.5).
Solution : As power factor, cosϕ = 0.5, ϕ = 60°.
Final Answer : (4)

28) Explaining : V = 200sin and calculate power

Concept : This question is based on P = Vrms Irms cosϕ.

Solution :
p = Vrms Irms cos30°

Final Answer : (2)

29) Explaining : We have to find equation of EMW with given parameters.

Concept : This question is based on .
Solution : f = 3 × 1010 Hz B0 = 10–6T
E0 = cB0 = 3 × 108 × 10–6 = 300 V/m

E = E0sin (kx – ωt)

Final Answer : (2)

30) Explaining : ∈0 and µ0 are the electric permittivity and magnetic permeability of free
space respectively. If the corresponding quantities of a medium are 2∈0 and 2.5µ0 respectively,
the refractive index of the medium will nearly be :
Concept : This question is based on .
Solution : ∈r = 2
µr = 2.5

=
Final Answer : (1)

31) Explaining :
1. Identify Symmetry: The circuit consists of multiple identical resistors ฀. By analyzing the
symmetry between points A and B, the internal structure can be simplified.
2. Circuit Simplification: The solution indicates that if a resistor ฀ is connected across AB,
the total equivalent resistance becomes 7฀/12.
3. Parallel Calculation: We solve for the internal equivalent resistance ฀′ such that its
parallel combination with an external ฀ yields 7฀/12.
Concept : This question is based on this problem involves calculating the Equivalent
Resistance of a complex resistive network using principles of Wheatstone Bridge
symmetry. In a balanced or symmetric bridge, certain branches can be treated as open
circuits, simplifying the network into series and parallel combinations.
Solution : If a resistance R is connected across AB, the equivalent will be 7R/12.

⇒ R' || R =
Final Answer : (3)
32) Explaining :
1. Symmetry Analysis: Based on the bridge symmetry, the two middle vertical resistors are
removed because no current flows through them.
2. Simplified Path: Removing these middle resistors results in three parallel branches: a top
branch (2฀), a middle branch (2฀), and a bottom branch (2฀).
3. Equivalent Resistance: The parallel combination of three 2฀ resistors is 2฀/3. Adding the
two series resistors ฀ at the ends gives
฀ₑₚ = ฀ + 2฀/3 + ฀ = 8฀/3.
4. Ohm's Law: Use ฀ = ฀ / ฀ₑₚ with ฀ = 24 ฀ and ฀ = 9 Ω.
Concept : This question is based on this question requires finding the Source Current in a
resistive circuit using Symmetry. When a circuit is symmetric, central resistors that do not
carry current can be removed to simplify the network.
Solution : From symmetry we can remove two middle resistance.
New circuit is

So, current will be 1A

Final Answer : (2)

33) Explaining :
• (A) Distance (฀) decreases, Isolated (฀ constant): Capacitance ฀ increases. Since ฀ =
฀/฀, ฀ decreases. Energy ฀ = ฀²/(2฀) decreases.
• (B) Dielectric inserted, Battery connected (฀ constant): ฀ increases. Energy ฀ = ½฀฀²
increases. Force ฀ increases.
• (C) Area (฀) increases, Isolated (฀ constant): ฀ increases. ฀ = ฀/฀ decreases. ฀ = ฀²/(2฀)
decreases. Force ฀ decreases.
• (D) Distance (฀) decreases, Battery connected (฀ constant): ฀ increases. ฀ = ½฀฀²
increases. ฀ = ฀฀ increases, so ฀ = ฀²/(2฀ε₀) increases.
Concept : This question is based on this is a Matching Type question regarding the behavior
of a Parallel Plate Capacitor under two conditions: an Isolated Capacitor (Charge ฀ is
constant) and a Capacitor connected to a Battery (Potential ฀ is constant).
Solution : (A) For an isolated capacitor
Q = constant
∴ If distance between plate decrease, then capacitance will increase.
Q = CV

∴ [∴ as C increases V decreases]

Energy = [as C increase energy decreases]

Force F = [as Q = constant, F = constant]

(B) As battery is connected V = constant
as slab is inserted C increases

Energy U = [∴ as C increases U increases]

[∴ as U increases F also increases]

(C) If area of plates of capacitor increases C increases.
as capacitor is isolated
Q = constant

[∴ as C increases V decreases]

[∴ as C increases U decreases]

[∴ as U decreases F decreases]
(D) Capacitor is connected with battery
V = constant
as d decreases C increases

[∴ as C increases U increases]

Q = CV [∴ as C increases Q increases ∴ F increases]

Final Answer : (3)

34) Explanation
1. Potential (V): Potential is a scalar. Since the magnitudes and signs of the charges do not
change, the sum at the center remains the same.
2. Electric Field (E): Field is a vector. Interchanging the positions of positive and negative
charges changes the direction of the net field vector.
Concept
This examines how Electric Field (E) and Potential (V) at the center of a square change
when vertex charges are interchanged.
Solution
ER = 2 (2E) cos 45 = 2
After interchanging

ER = 2
Hence Electric field will change.
Final Answer(4)

35) Explaining :
1. Set up the Equation: Let the equivalent capacitance be ฀ₑₚ.
2. Add one unit: The circuit can be viewed as one capacitor ฀ in series with the parallel
combination of another ฀ and the rest of the infinite chain ฀ₑₚ.
3. Solve Quadratic: This leads to a quadratic equation ฀ₑₚ² + ฀฀ₑₚ − ฀² = 0.
Concept : This question is based on this problem involves an Infinite Chain of Capacitors.
In such circuits, adding or removing one repeating unit does not change the total equivalent
capacitance ฀ₑₚ.
Solution :

= Ceq ⇒ C2 + CCeq = 2CCeq + Ceq2

Ceq2 +CCeq – C2 = 0

⇒ Ceq =

.
Final Answer : (2)

36) Explaining :
1. Potential of Shell A (฀ₐ): Sum of potentials from shells A, B, and C at radius ฀.
2. Potential of Shell C (฀_c): Sum of potentials from shells A, B, and C at radius ฀.
3. Equate: Since ฀ₐ = ฀_c, we solve for the relation between ฀, ฀, and ฀.
Concept : This question is based on this problem deals with the Electrostatic Potential of
concentric metallic shells. The potential at any point is the sum of potentials contributed by
each shell.
Solution :

Potential of shell A is,

Potential of shell C is,

As VA = VC

or a – b = or a + b = c.
Final Answer : (4)

37) Explaining :
1. Calculate Distances: Find the distance ฀ from the origin (0,0) to point A (√2, √2) and
distance ฀′ to point B (2, 0).
2. Compare Potentials: If ฀ = ฀′, then ฀ₐ = ฀_b, resulting in zero potential difference.
Concept : This question is based on the Potential Difference between two points near a
point charge depends on their respective distances from the charge. Potential ฀ = ฀฀/฀.
Solution :
∴ VA – VB = 0.
Final Answer : (2)

38) EXPLANATION : The magnifying power of a compound microscope in its minimum

(normal adjustment) setting is when the final image is formed at infinity. The formula for the

0
minimum magnifying power (M) is given by: where m is the
magnification of the objective lens, me is the magnification of the eye lens (simple microscope),
L is the length of the tube, f0 is the focal length of the objective, fe is the focal length of the eye
lens, and D is the least distance of distinct vision.
CONCEPT : The minimum magnifying power of a compound microscope (M) is inversely

proportional to the focal length of the eye lens (fe) for fixed objective and tube length: .
Halving the focal length of the eye lens doubles the overall minimum magnifying power.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

39) EXPLANATION : The maximum magnifying power (Mmax) of a telescope is achieved

when the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision (D), which is typically
25 cm.
CONCEPT : The maximum magnifying power of an astronomical telescope (Mmax) is
achieved for the strained eye (final image at D) and is given by the formula

0
, where f and fe are the focal lengths of the objective and eye-piece,
respectively, and D is the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm).
Solution :

=
= 33.6
Final Answer : (4)

40) Explanation: The fringe width (β1) in a YDSE is 2 mm for a wavelength (λ1) of 400 nm. The
question asks for the new fringe width (β2) for a wavelength (λ2) of 600 nm.

Concept: The fringe width formula is . Since D and d are constant, the fringe width
β is directly proportional to the wavelength λ (β ∝ λ).
Solution:

Fringe width

Final Answer: (3)

41) Explaining : To choose the correct statement regarding charge particles.

Concept : This question is based on motion in magnetic field.
Solution : It is clear from right palm rule that the charges are positively charged

As
The radius of path is not the only function of either m or q. for (2), (3) and (4) we cannot make
clear make clear statement, but statement (1) is certainly true.
Final Answer : (1)

42) Explaining : To find forced on wire OA

Concept : This question is based on magnetic force on wire.
Solution : Magnetic field is uniform, apply
where and
Final Answer : (1)

43) Explaining : To find the locations of points where net magnetic field is zero.
Concept : This question is based on magnetic field due to wire

Solution : Along the dashed line, and are in opposite

directions.
If the line has slope –1.00, then r1 = r2 and B1 = B2.
So, Btot = 0
Final Answer : (3)

44) Explaining : To choose the correct graph for EMF induced v/s time.
Concept : This question is based on induced parameter.
 Solution : E =
or induced emf ∝ – slope of i-t graph.
Final Answer : (3)

45) Explaining : To comment on the brightness of bulbs.

Concept : This question is based on RL circuit.
Solution : When Switch is open, battery is disconnected.
So, it become discharging circuit. Current through both bulbs will be same.
Final Answer : (2)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Question Explanation:
Which of the following property decreases on moving down a group?
Concept (one line):
Acidic nature of hypohalous acids (HOX) decreases down the halogen group due to decreasing
electronegativity of X , making the O-X bond less polar and acid weaker.

Solution:

A. Acidic nature of HOX(HOCl > HOBr >HOI)→ decreases down the group ( pKa increases:
7.5>8.6> 10.6)
B. Option 1: Acidic nature of HX increases down group ( HF<HCl<HBr<HI )
C. Option 2 & 4: Basic nature increases down group.

Final Answer: (3)

47) Question Explanation: Determine the relative energy required to remove the second
electron from C,N,O, and F atoms.
Concept: The 2nd IP depends on the electronic stability of the monovalent cation (M+); half-
filled subshells provide extra stability, requiring more energy to remove an electron.
Solution:

Cation (M)
Element Stability & Reason Resulting 2nd IP
Configuration
Highest stability due to half-filled p-
Oxygen (0) [He] 2s22p3 Highest IP
subshell.
High nuclear charge, but less stable
Fluorine (F) [He] 2s22p4 Very High IP
than half-filled 0.
Nitrogen (N) [He] 2s22p2 Moderate nuclear charge. Moderate IP
Lowest nuclear charge among the
Carbon (C) [He] 2s22p2 Lowest IP
group.
Final Answer: Option (4).

48)
 Question Explanation : Arrange the given electronic configurations in increasing order of
their electron affinity (EA).
Concept: Trends in Electron Affinity and subshell stability ( vs ).
Solution: First, identify the elements: (I) is , (II) is , (III) is
, and (IV) is .

A. Nitrogen (II) has the lowest EA because its half-filled subshell is exceptionally stable,
resisting the addition of an electron.
B. Aluminum (IV) is a group 13 metal; while its EA is positive, it is significantly lower than that of
halogens.
C. Halogens (group 17) have the highest EA. Between F (III) and Cl (I), Chlorine has a higher EA
because the small size of the Fluorine atom leads to high inter-electronic repulsion in its
compact 2p subshell, making electron addition less favorable than in Chlorine's larger
3p subshell.
Thus, the increasing order is: II (N) .

Final Answer: Option (1)

49)

Explaining : Melting point

Concept : This question is based on melting point.
Solution :
C2H6 < CH3OH < KCl < Si
molecular Molecular Ionic Covalent
(vander (H-bond) networkwaal's bond)
Final Answer : (4)

50)

Explaining : Multiple concepts.

Concept : This question is based on multiple concepts.
Solution :
The correct order of dipole moment is :
CH4 < CHCl3 < CH2Cl2 < CH3Cl
Final Answer : (3)

51)

Explaining : Orbital diagram of B2.

Concept : This question is based on molecular orbital theory.
Solution : Due to s-p mixing, has greater energy than .
Final Answer : (3)

52)

Explaining : VSEPR Theory.

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR Theory.
Solution :
Final Answer : (3)

53)

Explaining : EAN rule.

Concept : This question is based on EAN rule.
Solution :
In [Cr(NH3)6]3+
EAN of Cr = 24 – 3 + 12 = 33
Final Answer : (2)

54)

Explaining : Isomerism.
Concept : This question is based on isomerism.
Solution :
Pentaamminenitrochromium(III) perchlorate is:-
[Cr(NH3)5NO2] (ClO4)2
It can show linkage isomerism.
Final Answer : (2)

55)

Explaining : EAN Rule.

Concept : This question is based on EAN Rule.
Solution :
EAN = At. No. – O.S + 2 C.N.
[Ni(NH3)4]SO4
EAN = 28 – 2 + 2(4)
= 26 + 8 = 34
Final Answer : (1)

56)

Explaining : Nesseler's reagent.

Concept : This question is based on Nesseler's reagent.
Solution : NH3 + K2HgI4
Final Answer : (3)
57)

Explaining : Application of coordination chemistry.

Concept : This question is based on application of coordination chemistry.
Solution :

Ni+2 + 2DMG
Final Answer : (4)

58)

Explaining : Alloys.
Concept : This question is based on Alloys.
Solution :
The major components in "Gun metal" are
Cu + Sn + Zn
Final Answer : (2)

59)

Explaining : Interstitial compounds.

Concept : This question is based on interstitial compounds.
Solution : d-block elements can form interstitial compounds.
Final Answer : (4)

60)

Explaining : Properties of transition elements.

Concept : This question is based on properties of transition elements.
Solution :
Cu, Ag, Au, Are coinage metals
Option (1) is correct.
Final Answer : (1)

61)

Explaining : (A) and (B) are :

Concept : This question is based on Chain isomers
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

62)
Explaining : Relation between compound.
Concept : This question is based on position isomers.
Solution :

Both are position isomers.

Final Answer : (2)

63)

Explaining : Relation between both compound.

Concept : This question is based on chiral centre and mirror image.
Solution : Not mirror image
∴ Diasteromers
Final Answer : (2)

64)

Explaining : Identify aromatic compound

Concept : This question is based on huckle rule of aromaticity
Solution : Cyclic, Planar, delocalisation of πe–, (4n+2)πe– follow Huckle rule.
Final Answer : (4)

65)

Explaining : Strongest base is.

Concept : This question is based on basic nature.

Solution : is strongest base because N has localised lone pair due to

which it can donate its lone pair easily.
Final Answer : (2)

66)

Explaining : Most acidic means maximum tendency to donate H⊕.

Concept : This question is based on –I and – M group increases acidic strength and + I, + M
group decreases acidic strength.
Solution :
–M at ortho (1) and para (3) of – NO2 increases acidic strength. (2) have – I of – NO2 at meta
which is less effect than – M so (1) and (3) are more acidic than (2) and (4). In Ist due to H-
bonding if does not give proton easily so it will be less acidic than (3), so (3) will be most
acidic.
Final Answer : (3)
67)

Explaining : Final product is

Concept : This question is based on Rosenmund reduction
Solution :
In presence of BaSO4, there is partial hydrogenation (≡ to =) and syn-addition takes place, so
cis-alkene is obtained.
Final Answer : (1)

68)

Explaining : Final product is

Concept : This question is based on peroxide effect
Solution :

So peroxide product will be opposite to EAR

Final Answer : (2)

69) Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on SN2 mechanism.
Solution :
Factors affecting SN2 reaction.
* Reaction is favoured in polar aprotic solvent.
* Good nucleophile
* 1-Step mechanism
Final Answer : (3)

70) Explaining : Find out final product

Concept : This question is based on Mild O.A. → convert OH into aldehyde

Solution : CH3–CH=CH–CH2–OH CH3–CH=CH-CHO

Final Answer : (3)

71) Explaining : Identify product.

Concept : This question is based on Reduction of aldehyde.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

72)

Explaining : Identify product (A)

Concept : This question is based on aldol condensation.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

73)

Explaining : Final product in sequence.

Concept : This question is based on Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

74)

Explaining : Find out final product

Concept : This question is based on Diazonium salt formation then used NaBH4/Δ

Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

75)

Explaining : Adsorption chromatography

Concept : This question is based on Adsorption chromatography
Solution : Adsorption chromatography is based upon differential adsorption of various
components of mixture on a suitable adsorbent such as silica gel or alumina.
Final Answer : (3)

76) Explaining : If and are 108 and 36 torr respectively. What will be the mole fraction
of A in vapour phase if B has mole fraction of 0.5 in solution.
Concept : This question is based on Vapour pressure, Raoult's law for liq-liq solution.
Solution :

YA = × 108
⇒ YA (54 + 18) = 54
⇒ YA = 0.75
Final Answer : (2)

77) Explaining : The rate constant of a reaction depends on :-

Concept : This question is based on Experimental table based rate law problem.
Solution : The rate constant of a reaction depends on temperature.
Final Answer : (1)

78) Explaining : The charge required for reducing 1 mole of to Mn+2.

Concept : This question is based on required charge.
Solution :

Nf = 1 mole of to Mn+2
N=5
∴ 5F = 5 × 96500 C = 4.825 × 105 C are required
Final Answer : (4)

79) Explaining : The product of electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution are :-

Concept : This question is based on Theory of electrolytic cell, Qualitative aspects of
electrolysis.
Solution : NaCl(aq) → Na+(aq) + Cl–(aq)
H2O( ) ⇌ H+(aq) + OH–(aq)
At cathode
H+ + e– → H
H + H → H2
At anode
Cl– – 1e– → Cl
Cl + Cl → Cl2
Final Answer : (2)

80) Explaining : The half life period of a first order reaction is 55 days. How much time it will
take to go upto 99.9% completion :-
Concept : This question is based on First order reaction
Solution : For 1st order r × n t99.9 equals 10 times of t/2
t99.9% = 10 × t/2
= 10 × 55
Final Answer : (1)

81) Explaining : Find R.O.D. of B

Concept : This question is based on R.O.F., R.O.D. & rate of reaction in form of stoichiometry
Solution : A + 2B → 6C + 2D

Given – = 2.6 × 10–2 ms–1

∴– = = 2 × 2.6 × 10–2

=
Final Answer : (3)

82) Explaining : -Which of the following represents a disproportionation reaction ?

(a) Cl2 + 2 OH¯ → ClO¯ + Cl¯ + H2O
(b) Cu2O + H+ → Cu + Cu2+ + OH¯

Concept : This question is based on types of redox reaction.

Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

83) Explaining : At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant (Kp) for the decomposition
reaction, N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2 is expressed by Kp = 4x2P/(1–x2) where P is pressure, x is degree of
dissociation. Which of the following statement is true ?
Concept : This question is based on problems involving D.O.D. (a) and KP.
Solution : Kp depend only on temperature.
Final Answer : (4)

84) Explaining : Find correct graph.

Concept : This question is based on introduction, Types of chemical reaction.
Solution : ⇒ exothermic
Final Answer : (3)

85) Explaining : 16 g of CH4(g) and 64 g of O2(g) present in 5 Litre vessel then active mass of
CH4(g) will be:-
Concept : This question is based on active mass, Law of mass action or chemical equilibrium
& Equilibrium constant.

Solution : [CH4] = = = 0.2 M

 Final Answer : (2)

86) Explaining : Which of the following mixture (aqueous) will act as buffer solution ?
Concept : This question is based on [H+] and pH of Acidic buffer solution.
Solution :
HCOOH + HCOONa
(WA) (WASB)
Final Answer : (2)

87) Explaining : Consider the following salts. Which one(s) when dissolved in water will
produce an acidic solution :-
Concept : This question is based on Hydrolysis of S.A. and W.B. salt.
Solution :
NH4Cl → SAWB
NaCl → SASB
NaCN → SBWA
KNO3 → SASB
Final Answer : (2)

88) Explaining : Find work done

Concept : This question is based on theory of internal energy, Heat & work in irreversible
process (Including free expension).
Solution :
W = –Pext. ΔV
W = – 4 [1 – 4] = 12 L-atm ⇒ 12 × 101.1 = 1.2 × 103
Final Answer : (4)

89) Explaining : Find equilibrium temperature.

Concept : This question is based on Gibb's energy, useful work and ΔG = ΔH – TΔS based
problems.
Solution :
ΔG = 0

Final Answer : (2)

90)

Explaining : In which of the following electron distributions in ground state, only the Hund's
rule is violated ?
Concept : This question is based on Hund's maximum multiplicity principle, Pauli's exclusion
principle
Solution : According to Hund's rule all degenerated orbitals should have 1 e– of same spin
before pairing.
Final Answer : (1)

BIOLOGY
 91) Solution : X → Ori sequence - Responsible for initiation of DNA replication and
controlling copy no. of linked DNA.
Y → Rop sequence - Protein involved in the replication of plasmid.
Final Answer : (2)

92) Solution : No. of DNA molecular = 2n

n = no. of PCR cycles.
Final Answer : (2)

93) Solution : White color colonies will be selected as insertional inactivation of β

galactosidase gene is done.
Final Answer : (3)

94) Solution : PCR amplifies nucleic acid not proteins.

Final Answer : (3)

95) Solution : a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii

List-I List-II

(a) Protoplast fusion (ii) Pomato

(b) Plant tissue culture (i) Totipotency

(c) Meristem culture (iv) Virus free plants

(d) Micropropagation (iii) Somaclones

Final Answer : (2)

96) Transposons, also known as jumping genes, are segments of DNA that can move from one
location to another within a genome. They are often used in gene silencing and other genetic
manipulation techniques. Transposons can be used to insert or disrupt genes in specific
locations, which is useful in studying gene function and regulating gene expression.

97) Explanation: Adventitious roots originate from organs other than radicle.
Final Answer : (2)

98) Explanation: Leaf base is the part by which leaf is attached to the stem.
Final Answer: (3)

99) Explanation: Main axis ends in a flower → determinate growth.

Final Answer : (3)

100) Explanation: That lateral roots arise from pericycle.

Final Answer: (3)
101) Explanation: Clearly differentiates dicot vs monocot stem hypodermis.
Final Answer: (3)

102) Solution : Because 6 CO₂ needed → 6 × (3 ATP, 2 NADPH).

Final Answer : (3)

103) Solution : PEP accepts CO2 forming OAA.

Final Answer : (2)

104) Solution : Limiting factor controls rate.

Final Answer : (3)

105) Solution : ATP is produced only at steps 1 and 2.

Final Answer : (1)

106) Solution : All four are correct per turn.

Final Answer : (2)

107) Solution : ATP synthesis linked to proton gradient.

Final Answer : (2)

108) Solution : 2 ATP from glycolysis.

Final Answer : (1)

109) Solution : Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to boost the production of tea-
leaves. This is because effect of auxins is removed and growth of lateral buds is enhanced.
Final Answer : (3)

110) Solution : The number of species that are known and described range between 1.7-1.8
million. This refers to the biodiversity or the number and types of organisms present on Earth.
Final Answer : (2)

111) Solution : The main criteria for classification used by Whittaker (1969) include cell
structure, body organisation, mode of nutrition, reproduction, and phylogenetic relationships.
The specific type of genetic material (DNA vs RNA) was not a primary defining criterion for
the five kingdoms.
Final Answer : (4)

112) Solution : Statement I is incorrect because they are mostly found in stagnant water, not
running water. Statement IV is incorrect because the pigments of euglenoids are identical to
those present in higher plants. Statements II and III are correct.
Final Answer : (1)
 113) Solution : Saccharomyces (yeast) is a rare unicellular Ascomycete. Neurospora is used
extensively in biochemical and genetic work. Penicillium is multicellular and a source of
antibiotics. Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.
Final Answer : (1)

114) Solution : Statement (4) is incorrect. Kelps are marine forms of brown algae that form
massive plant bodies (which may reach a height of 100 metres), not microscopic passive
floaters.
Final Answer : (4)

115) Solution : The assertion is true, and the reason perfectly explains it. Because of the
specific restricted requirement of the prothallus (gametophyte) for cool, damp places to grow
and the need for water for fertilization, pteridophytes are geographically limited.
Final Answer : (1)

116) Solution : Statement III is incorrect because vegetative reproduction in mosses occurs
by fragmentation and budding in the secondary protonema, not the primary protonema.
Statements I, II, and IV are correct comparisons.
Final Answer : (1)

117)

Quesiton Explanation:
Assertion (A) :- The life cycle of endoparasite is more complex.
Reason (R) :- Many parasites have evolved to be host specific.

Solution:

A. Assertion (A): "The life cycle of endoparasite is more comples" is correct. Endoparasites
(parasites living inside the host) often have more complex life cycles because they may involve
multiple hosts or different developmental stages within one or more hosts.
B. Reason (R): "Many parasites have evolved to be host specific" is also correct. Many parasites
are highly host-specific, meaning they only infect particular spcies of animals or plants.

Hens,
Correct Option: 1

118) Solution : Mycorrhiza is mutualism and competitive exclusion principle was given by
Guest.
Final Answer : (3)

119) Solution : Curve 'b' is logistic curve.

Final Answer : (4)

120) Solution : Biomass of any trophic level is standing crop.

Final Answer : (4)
121) Solution : One species can be on more than one trophic level.
Final Answer : (4)

122) Solution : Lignin shows down the process.

Final Answer : (2)

123) Solution : Reasons behind high tropical diversity.

Final Answer : (4)

124)

Broadly utilitarian is concerned with indirect benefits from nature, Like photosynthesis,
pollination.

125)

Concept: Test cross phenotypic ratio (1:1).

Solution: Tall = 1/2 → 600 × 1/2 = 300.
Final Answer: (2)

126) Concept: Codominance and multiple allelism.

Solution: Possible phenotypes: A, B, AB, O → 4 types.
Final Answer: (3)

127) Concept: Mutation definition and types.

Solution: Mutations are not always harmful; may be neutral or beneficial.
Final Answer: (3)

128) Concept: DNA helical parameters

Solution: 500 × 0.34 nm = 170 nm
Final Answer: (1)

129) Concept: Properties of genetic code.

Solution: Degeneracy means multiple codons for one amino acid.
Final Answer: (1)

130) Concept: Translation mechanism.

Solution: First three correct; stop codons do not code for amino acids.
Final Answer: (2)

131)

Concept: Semiconservative replication.

Solution: Complementary 2000 nucleotides required for each strand → total 4000.
Final Answer: (2)

132) Solution : Morula is a solid ball of blastomeres formed after cleavage.

Final Answer : (4)

133) Solution: Oxytocin is secreted by the maternal posterior pituitary, not the placenta; it
stimulates strong uterine contractions during parturition.
Final Answer : (3)

134) Solution : A (strong contractions during delivery) – Myometrium, the muscular middle
layer of the uterus.
B (cyclical changes during menstrual cycle) – Endometrium, the inner lining of the uterus that
thickens and sheds.
Final Answer : (3)

135) Solution : e → a → d → b → c
Final Answer : (4)

136) Solution - ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) directly injects a single sperm
into the egg, overcoming issues like low sperm count or poor motility, but it does not
guarantee 100% pregnancy or increase sperm production.
Final Answer : (3)

137) Solution : Genital herpes and hepatitis B are incurable.

Final Answer : (3)

138) Solution : All statements are correct.

Final Answer : (4)

139) Solution : They affect the upper respiratory tract, not the lungs.
Final Answer : (3)

140) Explanation : The parasite completes its life cycle in humans and mosquitoes.
Final Answer : (2)

141) Explanation: Vaccination works on immune memory; memory cells ensure a faster and
stronger secondary response.
Final Answer : (1)

142) Explanation : Human use of antibiotics selects resistant microbes.

Final Answer : (2)
143) Explanation: Beak modifications helped them adapt to different types of food like seeds
and insects.
Final Answer : (3)

144) Explanation: Homo erectus had a larger brain (~900 cc) than Homo habilis.
Final Answer : (1)

145) Solution: BOD measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by micro-organisms. Greater
organic matter means more microbial activity, higher oxygen consumption, and thus a higher
BOD.
Final Answer : (1)

146) Solution : Microspore mother cell microspores 3

celled male gametophyte.
Final Answer : (1)

147) Solution : A = pollen tetrad; B = vacuole; C = nucleus; D = asymmetric spindle; E =

vegetative cell; F = generative cell.
Final Answer : (3)

148) Solution : Presence of ovary and fruit are characters of angiosperms only.
Ovary after fertilisation converts into fruit.
Final Answer : (1)

149) Explanation: A is correct (sarcomere is the functional unit).

B is incorrect (A-band remains constant in length).
C is correct (Ca²⁺ binds to troponin).
D is correct (ATP is needed for cross-bridge detachment).
Final Answer : (1)

150) Explanation: Skull = 22 bones; Ribs = 12 pairs (24); Sternum = 1; Vertebral column =
26; One forelimb = 30 bones.
Final Answer : (4)

151) Explanation: Shoulder = ball and socket; Elbow = hinge; Atlas-axis = pivot; Skull
sutures = fixed.
Final Answer : (3)

152) Explanation: All statements correctly describe nerve conduction and synaptic
transmission.
Final Answer : (1)
153) Explanation: Thalamus = sensory relay; Hypothalamus = homeostasis; Cerebellum =
balance; Medulla = cardiac/respiratory centres; Pons = respiration; Midbrain = reflexes.
Final Answer : (1)

154) Explanation: Axon carries impulses away (true).

Nissl granules are absent in axon (false).
Final Answer: (3)

155) Explanation: Thyroid → Thyroxine → Metabolism.

Pancreas → Insulin → Lowers glucose.
Adrenal → Adrenaline → Emergency response.
Final Answer : (1)

156) Explanation: Insulin deficiency causes diabetes mellitus.

ADH deficiency causes diabetes insipidus.
Final Answer : (1)

157) Explanation: Gas exchange occurs by diffusion, not active transport.

Final Answer : (1)

158) Explanation: The medulla contains respiratory control centres.

Final Answer : (2)

159) Explanation: All statements correctly describe events of cardiac cycle.

Final Answer : (1)

160) Explanation: RBC transport oxygen; WBC provide immunity; Platelets help in clotting.
Final Answer : (3)

161) Solution : Arachidonic acid is a 20-carbon chain with four double bonds, making it a
precursor for inflammatory mediators.
Final Answer : (4)

162) Solution : Turnover value reflects the efficiency of the enzyme under optimal conditions.
Final Answer : (1)

163) Solution : The nitrogenous base always binds to the first carbon, and the phosphate
group binds to the fifth carbon of the pentose sugar.
Final Answer : (3)

164) Solution : By the end of Diakinesis, the nuclear architecture breaks down so that the
spindle fibers can access the chromosomes
Final Answer : (3)

165) Solution : G2​ is a period of metabolic preparation for the physical work of spindle
assembly and chromosome movement.
Final Answer : (3)

166) Solution : Entering Meiosis II, the cell is haploid (n=2) with 2 chromosomes (4
chromatids). During Anaphase II, these 4 chromatids separate and move to poles.
Final Answer : (1)

167) Solution : The bivalent structure in Meiosis I ensures that one homolog goes to one pole
and its partner goes to the other.
Final Answer : (2)

168) Solution : Moving a hydrophilic head through the hydrophobic lipid core to the opposite
leaflet is difficult.
Final Answer : (2)

169) Solution : These genetic and synthetic tools are characteristic of bacteria, not the 80S
systems found in eukaryotic cytoplasm.
Final Answer : (3)

170) Solution : The nucleolus is the site of rRNA transcription and the assembly of ribosomal
subunits.
Final Answer : (2)

171) Solution : Peroxisomes, like mitochondria and chloroplasts, are not part of the
endomembrane system because their functions are not coordinated with the ER/Golgi.
Final Answer : (4)

172) Solution : Radial is seen in adult echinoderms.

Final Answer : (2)

173) Solution : Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

Final Answer : (3)

174) Solution : Aves vertebrate class has pneumatic bones.

Final Answer : (3)

175) Solution : Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Final Answer : (1)
176) Solution : Flatworms → flame cells.
Final Answer : (2)

177) Solution : It is not specialized for secretion.

Final Answer : (3)

178) Solution : Blood does not normally contain fibres appear only during clotting.
Final Answer : (3)

179) Solution : Through the buccal cavity

Final Answer : (3)

180) Solution : Cockroach process open circulatory system.

Final Answer : (3)