01-03-2026

9610ZMD800401250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two frictionless tunnels AB and AC are dug inside the earth as shown in the figure. A is at R/2
distance from centre of earth along the line connecting centre and B. A particle of mass m1 is
projected along AB another particle of mass m2 is projected along AC such that both escape. Then
ratio of their minimum velocities, so that the particle escapes the gravitational field of earth (assume
tunnel to be small & their is no loss of energy of particle during its collision with tunnel)

(1) 1:1
(2) 2:1
(3) 1:2
(4) None of these

2) The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the centre of earth and
the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become-

(1) 10 h
(2) 80 h
(3) 40 h
(4) 20 h

3) A block of metal of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative density
0.72. If relative density of metal is 10, then tension in string will be :- (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 21.4 N
(2) 47.3 N
(3) 62 N
(4) 37.12 N

4) A rectangular tank is filled completely with water. A hole at its bottom is unplugged. The graph
between the velocity of efflux (through a small hole) vs depth of water h from the top of tank.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration m/s2, in
the third second is

(1)

(2)

(3) 6 m
(4) 4 m

6) For angles of projection of a projectile at angle (45º – θ) and (45º + θ), the horizontal range
described by the projectile are in the ratio of

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 2

7) A uniform chain is just at rest over a rough horizontal table with its 1/ηth part of length hanging
vertically. The coefficient of static friction between the chain and the table is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A chain consisting of 5 links, each of mass 0.1 kg is lifted vertically with a constant acceleration of
2.5 m/s2. The force of interaction between the top link and link immediately below it will be

(1) 6.15 N
(2) 4.92 N
(3) 9.84 N
(4) 2.46 N

9) A block suspended from a spring is released from rest when spring is unstretched. ‘x’ represents
stretch in spring. Select the appropriate graph taking quantities in column-I as y-axis.

List–I List–II

(P) The KE of block (1) 1

The work done on the block by

(Q) (2) 2
gravity

The magnitude of work done on

(R) (3) 3
the block by spring

The total mechanical energy of

(S) (4) 4
block-earth-spring system

(1) P→(3), Q→(1), R→(2), S→(4)

(2) P→(2), Q→(1), R→(4), S→(3)
(3) P→(1), Q→(2), R→(3), S→(4)
(4) P→(4), Q→(2), R→(1), S→(3)

10) In the figure shown, a particle P strikes the inclined smooth plane horizontally and rebounds
vertically. If the angle θ is 60°, then the coefficient of restitution is:

(1) 1/3
(2)
(3) 1/2
(4) 1

11) The torque on a particle of mass 1 kg is 2.5 Nm about the origin. If the force is 1 N and the
particle's distance from the origin is 5 m, the angle between the force and position vector is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A slab is subjected to two forces> and of magnitude F.> acts along the +z-axis at
.> is in the XY-plane at (0,4,0) making 30° with the –y direction. The moment of these forces about

point O is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Which graph correctly represents the variation of the moment of inertia I(x) of a solid sphere
about an axis parallel to its diameter at a distance x from it?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A particle moves such that its acceleration is given by a = –β (x – 2). Here, β is a positive
constant and x the position from origin. Time period of oscillations is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The phase difference between two SHM and at t

= 0.5s is : -

(1)

(2)

(3) π

(4)

16) The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by y = 6 sin 2π (2t – 0.1x), where x and y are in
mm and t is in seconds. The phase difference between two particles 2 mm apart at any instant is : -

(1) 18°
(2) 36°
(3) 54°
(4) 72°

17) A string of linear mass density 4 g/cm is vibrating according to equation y = A sin (120 πt) cos
 where x is in centimeters. Find the tension in the string.

(1) 3.6 N
(2) 36 N
(3) 7.2 N
(4) 72 N

18) The percentage error in measuring M, L and T are 1%, 1.5% and 3% respectively. Then the

percentage error in measuring the physical quantity with dimensions is : -

(1) 1%
(2) 3.5%
(3) 3%
(4) 5.5%

19) Least count of main scale of vernier callipers is 1 mm and 4 part of main scale concide with 5
part of vernier scale, then least count of vernier callipers will be : -

(1) 0.1 mm
(2) 0.8 mm
(3) 0.2 mm
(4) 0.05 mm

20) P–V curve of a diatomic gas is shown in the figure. Find the total heat given to the gas in the
process A → B → C.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The volume of a poly atomic gas compressed adiabatically to of the orginal
volume. If the original pressure of the gas is P0 then new pressure will be :

(1) 16P0
(2) 81P0
(3) 264 P0
(4) None of these

22) A monoatomic gas is suddenly compressed to 1/8 of its volume adiabatically. The ratio of
pressure of the gas now to that of its original pressure is :-(Y = 5/3)

(1) 8 times
(2) 16 times
(3) 32 times
(4) 128 times

23) A convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm forms an image that is half the size of the object.
The object distance is : -

(1) –15 cm
(2) 45 cm
(3) –45 cm
(4) 15 cm

24) A biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 20 cm in air. Its focal length when
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6 will be: -

(1) – 16 cm
(2) – 160 cm
(3) + 160 cm
(4) + 16 cm

25) A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a single
narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused by convex lens on screen, placed on its focal
plane. The first minima will be formed for the angle of diffraction of ________ (degree).

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

26) Two identical current carrying coaxial loops, carry current I in an opposite sense. A simple
amperian loop passes through both of them [Link] the loop as C

(1)

(2)
the value of and is independent of sense of C
(3) at all the points on C, B and dℓ are perpendicular
(4) B vanishes everywhere on C
27) A particle of charge q and mass m is moving along the x-axis with a velocity v and enters a
region of electric field E and magnetic field B as shown in figure below. For which figure the net
force on the charge may be zero ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Two circular coils X and Y, having equal number of turns, carry equal currents in the same sense
and subtend same solid angle at point O. If the smaller coil X is midway between O and Y, and if we
represent the magnetic induction due to bigger coil Y at O as BY and that due to smaller coil X at O

as Bx, then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Assertion (A): The mutual inductance of coil 1 with respect to coil 2 is the same as mutual
inductance of coil 2 with respect to coil 1.
Reason (R): Mutual inductance between coils is independent of current passing through the coil.
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both(A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

30) In an AC generator, the magnetic flux linked with the rotating coil has maximum value "ϕB" and
frequency of rotation of coil is "f". Then amplitude of emf generated is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2πfϕB

31) An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by E = E0 sin(kx – ωt). Which of the
following is/are independent of the wavelength?

(1) k
(2) ω
(3) k/ω
(4) kω

32) In the circuit shown below, the ac source has voltage V = 20 cos(ωt) volts with ω = 2000

rad/sec. The amplitude of the current will be to

(1) 2A
(2) 3.3A
(3)
(4)

33) In a pure capacitive circuit if a frequency of current is ω then frequency of instantaneous power
will be

(1) ω

(2)

(3) 2ω
(4)
34) In an EM wave propagating toward X-direction magnetic field oscillates at a frequency of 3 ×
1010 Hz toward Y-direction and has an amplitude of 10–6 T. The expression for electric field will be :-

10
(1) Ez = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m

(2)
E = 300 sin 2π(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
10
(3) Ey = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m
10
(4) Ey = 300 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m

35) The figure shows a circuit having eight resistances of 1Ω each, labelled R1 to R8, and two ideal
batteries with emf = 12V. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Current through R1 is 2.4A

(2) Current through R2 is zero
(3) Current through R3 is 4.8A
(4) Potential at node B is 4.8 V

36) The current I in the given circuit will be:

(1) 10 A
(2) 20 A
(3) 4 A
(4) 40 A

37) If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved apart from each
other, then
A. the charge stored in it, increases.
B. the energy stored in it, decreases.
C. its capacitance decreases.
D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
E. the product of charge and voltage decreases.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) B,C and E only

(2) A,C and E only
(3) B, D and E only
(4) A, B and C only

38) The Charge supplied by the source in the arrangement shown in figure is :

(1) 300 µC
(2) 150 µC
(3) 250 µC
(4) 200 µC

39) In the following four situations charged particles are at equal distance from the origin. Arrange
them the magnitude of the net electric field at origin greatest first.

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
(3) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(4) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)

40) Two equal negative charge –q are fixed at the fixed points (0, a) and (0, –a) on the Y-axis. A
positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the X-axis. The charge Q will:

(1) Execute simple harmonic motion about the origin

(2) Move to the origin and remain at rest
(3) Move to infinity
(4) Execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion

41) In the following figure two parallel metallic plates are maintained at different potential. If an
electron is released midway between the plates, it will move:

(1) Right ward at constant speed

(2) Left ward at constant speed
(3) Accelerated right ward
(4) Accelerated left ward

42) The binding energy per nucleon of C-12 is 7.68 MeV and of C-13 is 7.48 MeV. The energy (in
MeV) required to remove the extra neutron from C-13 is very nearly equal to :-

(1) 0.2
(2) 3.7
(3) 3.9
(4) 5

43) When light is incident on surface, photoelectrons are emitted. For photoelectrons :-

(1) The value of K.E is same for all

(2) (Kmax) doesn't depends on the wavelength of light
(3) (K.E) ≤ (Kmax)
(4) None of the above

44) Which of the energy band diagrams shown in the figure corresponds to that of a semiconductor?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) With reference to figure, which of the following is possible?

(1) A = 1, B = 0, X = 0
(2) A = 0, B = 1, X = 0
(3) A = 0, B = 0, X = 1
(4) A = 1, B = 1, X = 0

CHEMISTRY

1) Statement-I : is more reactive than

towards hydrolysis

Statement-II: Hydrolysis of gives pure racemic mixture.

(1) Statement-I is correct statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

2) Assertion (A) : can't be obtained by williamson ether synthesis.

Reason (R) : is good nucleophile as well as strong base.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

3)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)
(Major product)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which reaction gives 2° alcohol as a major product

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
Correct option is

(1) Only d
(2) a and d
(3) Only a
(4) a, c, d

8)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A + B, A and B are

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Identical
(4) Position isomers

10)
Product 'A' and 'B' can not be differentiated by

(1) Tollen's reagent

(2) Grignard reagent
(3) Iodoform test
(4) Fehling solution test

11)
Reagent 'A' is

(1) H2N–NH2/KOH/Δ
(2) Zn–Hg/HCl
(3) LiAlH4 (H) H2O
(4) H2/Ni/Δ

12) There are two statements regarding following reaction

+ H–OH → R—OH +
Statement-I : This reaction shows that water is a better proton donar than alcohol
Statement-II : In above reaction alkoxide ion are stronger base than hydroxide ion.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

13) Which is/are incorrect statement

(1) Hydration of propyne in presence of H2SO4 and HgSO4 gives propanone

Catalytic hydrogenation of acid halide in presence of barium sulphate gives benzaldehyde and
(2)
reaction is called Rosenmund reduction
(3) strong oxidising agents oxidise toluene and its derivative to benzoic acid
Addition of H—CN to acetaldehyde gives optically active solution which rotates plane polarized
(4)
light.

14)
A B product 'B' is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Which does not give iodoform test

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–OH

17) IUPAC name of H2[PtCl6] is :

(1) Hydrogen hexachloroplatinate (VI)

(2) Dihydrogen hexachloroplatinate (VI)
(3) Hydrogen hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid
(4) Hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid
18) Select correct statement for Cr·6NH3·Cl3 and Cr·5NH3·Cl3

(1) In both complex compounds secondary valency is satisfied by only NH3

(2) In both complex compounds Cl¯ are satisfied only primary valency
(3) In both complex compounds primary valency is satisfied by only Cl¯
(4) In both complex compounds all Cl¯ are ionizable

19) The magnetic moment of [NiX4]2– ion is found to be zero. The ion is :
(X = monodentate anionic ligand)

(1) sp3 hybridised

(2) spd2 hybridised
(3) dsp2 hybridised
(4) d2sp hybridised

20) Trisilyamine (SiH3)3N is :

(1) Trigonal pyramidal and acidic

(2) Trigonal pyramidal and basic
(3) Trigonal pyramidal and neutral
(4) Trigonal planar and weakly basic

21) Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing melting point ?

(1) Zn < Cu < Ni < Fe

(2) Fe < Ni < Cu < Zn
(3) Ni < Fe < Zn < Cu
(4) Cu < Zn < Fe < Ni

22) Which of the following statement is not true about potash alum?

(1) Its empirical formula is KAl(SO4)2.12H2O

(2) Its aqueous solution is basic in nature
(3) It is used in dyeing industry
(4) On heating it melts in its water of crystallization

23) In layer test of I– and Br–. If reddish -brown layer comes first then -

(1) Br– present

(2) I– absent
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

24) Which of the following can act as an oxidising agent as well as a reducing agent?
(I) H2O2 (II) H2S (III) SO2 (IV) HNO2
(1) I, II, III
(2) II, III, IV
(3) I, III, IV
(4) All

25) The number of photons of light having wave number in 10 J of energy is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) Given:
C(diamond) + O2 → CO2 ; ΔH1 = –400 kJ
C(graphite) + O2 → CO2 ; ΔH2 = –397 kJ
The enthalpy of formation of diamond from graphite is

(1) +2.0 kJ
(2) –2.0 kJ
(3) –3 kJ
(4) 3 kJ

27) Manufacture of ammonia from the elements is represented by

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + 22.4 kcal
The maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained when the process is made to take place

(1) At low pressure and high temperature

(2) At low pressure and low temperature
(3) At high pressure and high temperature
(4) At high pressure and low temperature

28) Which of the following solutions containing weak acid and salt of its conjugate base has
maximum buffer capacity?

(1) [Salt] < [Acid]

(2) [Salt] = [Acid]
(3) [Salt] > [Acid]
(4) [Salt] + [Acid] is minimum

29) In the volumetric estimation of HCl, if we make use of phenolphthalein as an indicator, which
base is unsuitable for the titration :-

(1) NaOH
(2) RbOH
(3) KOH
(4) NH4OH
30) If avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol–1, this would
change :

(1) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation

(2) the ratio of elements to each other in a compound
(3) the definition of mass in units of grams
(4) the mass of one mole of carbon

31) The amount of chlorine evolved when 2 amperes of current is passed for 30 minutes in an
aqueous solution of NaCl

(1) 66 g
(2) 1.32 g
(3) 33 g
(4) 99 g

32) The equivalent conductance of Cl– and Ba2+ are 76 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 and 63.5
ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 respectively at infinite dilution. The molar conductance of BaCl2 at infinite dilution
will be :

(1) 139.5
(2) 279.0
(3) 69.75
(4) 39.875

33) For given cell, if , then will be

(1) 3.33 volt

(2) 3.22 volt
(3) 3.11 volt
(4) 3.01 volt

34) Which of the following graph represents zero order reaction ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of the above

35) For an elementary reaction, X(g) → Y(g) + Z(g), the half life period is 10 min. In what
approximate period of time would concentration of X be reduced to 10% of original concentration ?

(1) 20 min.
(2) 33 min.
(3) 15 min.
(4) 25 min.

36) Rate of chemical reaction depends on

(1) Activation energy

(2) Temperature
(3) Presence of the catalyst
(4) All of these

37) The number of mole of NaOH present in 150 g water of 0.2 molal aqueous solution is :

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.02
(3) 0.03
(4) 0.01

38) Mole fraction of C3H5(OH)3 in a solution of 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerine is :

(1) 0.36
(2) 0.20
(3) 0.40
(4) 0.46

39) Which property decreases from left to right across the periodic table and increases from top to
bottom.
(i) Atomic radius (ii) Electronegativity (iii) Ionisation energy (iv) Metallic character

(1) (i) only

(2) (ii), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)

40) Second ionization potential of Li, Be and B is in the order :

(1) Li > Be > B
(2) Li > B > Be
(3) Be > Li > B
(4) B > Be > Li

41)

Column-I Column-II
(Electronic configuration) (Corresponding elements)

(A) [Xe]4f145d106s2 (P) s-block element

(B) [Rn]5f146d17s2 (Q) Transition element

(C) [Xe]4f145d106s26p67s2 (R) d-block element

(D) [Xe]4f145d26s2 (S) Representative element

(T) Inner-transition element

(1) A → R; B → T; C → P, S; D → Q, R
(2) A → T; B → R; C → P, S; D → Q, R
(3) A → R; B → P, S; C → T; D → Q, R
(4) A → R; B → T; C → Q, R; D → P, S

42) Choose the correct option for the following molecule in view of chemical bonding :

(1) non-planar
(2)
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) µ = 0

43)

Column-I Column-II

(A) SO3 (P) Largest bond angle

(B) BeCl2 (Q) Lowest bond angle

(C) NH3 (R) sp2-hybridisation

(D) (S) sp3-hybridisation

(1) A → R; B → P; C → Q, S; D → R
(2) A → P; B → R; C → Q, S; D → R
(3) A → R; B → Q; C → P, S; D → R
(4) A → R; B → P; C → R; D → Q, S
44) Assertion (A) :- The H-bond present in NH3 dissolved in water is best represented by :

Reason (R) :- The O—H bond polarity is more compared to that of N—H bond.

(1) If assertion is true but the reason is false.

(2) If assertion is false but reason is true
(3) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

45) Assertion (A) :- bond angle is higher than .

Reason (R) :- Oxygen is more electronegative than chlorine.

(1) If assertion is true but the reason is false.

(2) If assertion is false but reason is true
(3) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

BIOLOGY

1) Which theory proposes that life originated from inorganic molecules through chemical evolution?

(1) Theory of special creation

(2) Theory of abiogenesis
(3) Theory of panspermia
(4) Theory of biogenesis

2) Which of the following are mechanisms of evolution?

A. Mutation
B. Genetic recombination
C. Gene flow
D. Special creation

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B, C, D

3) By which method is rDNA directly placed in nucleus of animal cell?

(1) Gene gun (biolistics)

(2) Heat shock
(3) CaCl2
(4) Micro-injection

4) 20 cycles of PCR amplified DNA approximately is how many times?

(1) 1 billion times

(2) 1 million times
(3) 100 times
(4) 1000 times

5)

Identify A and B in the diagram.

(1) a = A fully mature cotton boll, b = Destroyed by bollworms

(2) a = Destroyed by bollworms, b = Fully mature cotton boll
(3) a = Destroyed by virus, b = Immature cotton boll
(4) a = Immature normal cotton boll, b = Destroyed by virus

6) The abbreviation ‘B’ in Bt-toxin stands for :

(1) Biotechnology
(2) Bioprotein
(3) Bacillus
(4) Toxin released by bacterium

7) How many recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use all over the world?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 90

8) In order for the human population to achieve zero population growth which of the following must
occur?

(1) There must be more post reproductive individuals than reproductive individuals
(2) There must be more pre reproductive than reproductive individuals
 There must be the same number of pre reproductive individuals as there are reproductive
(3)
individuals
(4) All of these

9)

Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

Visiting flamingoes and resident fishes in south american

(1) Mutualism a(+, –) i.
lakes

(2) Competition b,(+, 0) ii. Starfish pisaster in american pacific coast

(3) Predation c,(+, +) iii. Cattle egret birds and cattle

(4) Commensalism d,(–, –) iv. Lichens

(1) 1-d-iv, 2-c-i, 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii
(2) 1-c-iv, 2-d-i, 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii
(3) 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-a-ii, 4-b-i
(4) 1-d-iv, 2-c-i, 3-b-ii, 4-a-iii

10) Mark the correct matched pair.

(1) Ex situ conservation - pollen banks

(2) Earth summit - Johannesburg
(3) In situ conservation - Cryopreservation
(4) Word summit - Rio de Janeiro

11) Which one of the followings is not the function of placenta?

(1) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo

(2) Secretes estrogen
(3) Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo
(4) Secretes oxytocin during parturition

12) Which of the following hormones are produced only during pregnancy?

(1) hCG, hPL and prolactin and relaxin

(2) Prolactin, progesterone and relaxin
(3) hCG, hPL and inhibin
(4) hCG, hPL and relaxin

13) Match the following :-

Uterus
Non-medicated Multiload-
(A) (a) (i) unsuitable for
IUDs 375
implantation
 Promote
Copper
(B) (b) Saheli (ii) Phagocytosis of
releasing IUDs
sperms

Hormone
Lippes Suppress
(C) releasing (c) (iii)
loop sperm motility
IUDs

Non-steroidal Prevent
(D) (d) LNG-20 (iv)
pill implantation
(1) A–b–i, B–c–ii, C–d–iii, D–a–iv
(2) A–c–iv, B–a–iii, C–d–i, D–d–ii
(3) A–c–ii, B–a–iii, C–d–i, D–b–iv
(4) A–a–iii, B–c–ii, C–d–i, D–b–iv

14) Fatality of cancer increases with increase in grade of ?

(1) Metastasis
(2) Contact inhibition
(3) Local tissue invasion
(4) Both (1) and (3)

15) Which one is correctly matched :-

(1) Heroin – Smack – Stimulant

(2) Charas – taken by inhalation and oral ingestion – depressant
(3) Cocaine – Erythroxylem coca – Excessive dose causes hallucination
Opiods, Cannabinoids and coca alkaloids – Commonly abused drugs – Majority from fungi and
(4)
some from plants

16) Which animals show open circulatory system?

A. Cockroach
B. Prawn
C. Earthworm
D. Frog
Correct choice:

(1) A & B only

(2) B & C only
(3) C & D only
(4) A, B & D

17) Assertion (A): Annelids are called true coelomates.

Reason (R): Coelom is lined by mesoderm on all sides.

(1) Both A & R are true, R explains A.

(2) Both A & R are true, R doesn’t explain A.
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

18) Which are pseudocoelomates?

A. Ascaris
B. Earthworm
C. Planaria
D. Wuchereria
Correct option:

(1) A & D
(2) B & C
(3) A, B & D
(4) Only A

19) Which bacterium is used in the production of biogas?

(1) Methanobacterium
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Azotobacter
(4) Lactobacillus

20) Assertion (A): Systematics is limited only to naming of organisms.

Reason (R): Systematics includes evolutionary relationships, identification, nomenclature and
classification.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

21) Which feature directly links heterospory with seed habit?

(1) Formation of cones

(2) Retention of female gametophyte
(3) Presence of antheridia
(4) Free-living gametophytes

22) In racemose inflorescence:

(1) Main axis terminates in flower

(2) Flowers are arranged acropetally
(3) Oldest flowers are at top
(4) Growth is limited

23) Which feature is correct for dicot stem?

(1) Vascular bundles scattered

(2) Closed vascular bundles
(3) Presence of cambium
(4) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous

24) Oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from:

(1) CO2
(2) H2O
(3) H2S
(4) Glucose

25) For synthesis of one glucose molecule in Calvin cycle, required ATP and NADPH are:

(1) 12 ATP, 12 NADPH

(2) 18 ATP, 12 NADPH
(3) 18 ATP, 18 NADPH
(4) 12 ATP, 18 NADPH

26) The link between glycolysis and TCA cycle is:

(1) Acetyl-CoA formation

(2) ETS
(3) CO₂ fixation
(4) NADH oxidation

27) Plant hormones and functions

Column I (Hormone) Column II (Function)

A. Auxin 1. Stress hormone
B. Gibberellin 2. Fruit ripening
C. Cytokinin 3. Cell elongation
D. Abscisic acid 4. Delay of senescence
E. Ethylene 5. Stem elongation
(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, E–5
(2) A–5, B–3, C–1, D–4, E–2
(3) A–3, B–5, C–4, D–1, E–2
(4) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–5, E–3

28) A. Tetany is caused by low calcium levels in blood.

B. Emphysema involves destruction of alveolar walls.
C. Cardiac arrest means complete stoppage of heart function.
D. Glomerulonephritis is inflammation of alveoli.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A and D only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) All of the above

29) Assertion (A): Hemodialysis removes waste from blood in kidney failure.
Reason (R): It works on the principle of diffusion across a semipermeable membrane.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

30) A. Most CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate ions.

B. RBCs contain hemoglobin.
C. Platelets help in blood clotting.
Which are correct?

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) A, B and C
(4) A and C only

31) The cardiac cycle is:

(1) One complete heartbeat including systole and diastole

(2) Only contraction of ventricles
(3) Only relaxation of heart
(4) Blood flow in arteries

32) Match the columns :

Column I Column II

A. Glomerulus 1. Filtration

B. Loop of Henle 2. Concentration of urine

C. PCT 3. Reabsorption

D. DCT 4. Selective secretion

(1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(3) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

33) Match the columns :

Column I Column II
(Layer) (Meninges)
 A. Outer layer 1. Dura mater

B. Middle layer 2. Arachnoid mater

C. Inner layer 3. Pia mater

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1
(3) A-2, B-3, C-1
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2

34) A. Neuron is structural and functional unit of nervous system.

B. Cartilage is harder than bone.
C. Bone contains calcium salts.
D. Neuroglial cells support neurons.
E. Bone marrow produces blood cells.
Find the correct answer?

(1) A, B, C, D and E
(2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and E
(4) A, C, D and E

35) Match the columns -

Column I Column II

A. Exine 1. Sporopollenin

B. Intine 2. Cellulose

C. Germ pore 3. Pollen tube emergence

D. Ovule 4. Megasporangium
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

36) Assertion (A): A test cross helps determine the genotype of an individual showing dominant
phenotype.
Reason (R): In a test cross, the individual with unknown genotype is crossed with a homozygous
dominant parent.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

37) Find the incorrect statement regarding codominance.

(1) In codominance, both alleles express themselves in heterozygote.
(2) The F₂ phenotypic ratio in codominance is 1:2:1.
(3) Codominance does not follow the Law of Segregation.
(4) AB blood group in humans is an example of codominance.

38) Assertion (A): The genetic code is degenerate.

Reason (R): More than one codon can code for the same amino acid.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

39) Match the following:

Column I Column II
A. Promoter 1. Site where RNA polymerase binds
B. Cistron 2. Strand read in 3′→5′ direction
C. Terminator 3. Sequence where transcription stops
D. Template strand 4. Structural gene
(1) A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2
(2) A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2
(3) A–1, B–3, C–4, D–2
(4) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3

40) Find the incorrect statement regarding DNA packaging in eukaryotes.

(1) DNA is wrapped around histone octamer to form nucleosome.

(2) Histone octamer contains two copies each of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4.
(3) H1 histone is a part of core histone octamer.
(4) Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around positively charged histones.

41) Select the incorrect one :-

(1) Anaphase-I — Centromere split & chromatids separate.

(2) Prophase — Each centrosome radiates out microtubules called asters.
(3) Metaphase — Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes.
Telophase — Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles & their identity is lost as discrete
(4)
elements.

42) Statement-I : Mitosis is the equational division in which the chromosome number of the parent
is conserved in the daughter cell.
Statement-II : In sexual reproduction when the two gametes fuse the chromosome number is
restored to the value in the parent.
Choose the correct option given below :
(1) Both statements are false.
(2) Both statements are true.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

43) Which one is correct for G0 stage?

I. It is a quiescent stage.
II. In this phase cell cycle is stopped
III. G0 cells do not proliferate but metabolically active
IV. G0 cells can divide in response to some stimulus
Options :-

(1) All are correct

(2) Only I,II,III are correct
(3) Only I,II are correct
(4) Only I and IV are correct

44) Assertion (A): The nucleus is called the control center of the cell.
Reason (R): It contains chromatin, which is the genetic material that controls all cellular activities.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

45) The 70S ribosomes found in (A) are composed of (B) and (C) subunits, while the 80S ribosomes
in the cytoplasm of (D) are composed of (E) and (F) subunits.

(1) (A) Prokaryotes, (B) 50S, (C) 30S, (D) Eukaryotes, (E) 60S, (F) 40S
(2) (A) Eukaryotes, (B) 60S, (C) 40S, (D) Prokaryotes, (E) 50S, (F) 30S
(3) (A) Mitochondria, (B) 50S, (C) 30S, (D) Eukaryotes, (E) 40S, (F) 30S
(4) (A) Bacteria, (B) 40S, (C) 30S, (D) Fungi, (E) 60S, (F) 50S

46) Consider the following five statements about biomolecules and choose the option with all correct
statements.
I: Glycogen is a homopolymer of glucose and is the stored food in animals.
II: Starch is a polymer of glucose, and it provides structural support to plant cells.
III: Proteins are heteropolymers of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
IV: The primary structure of a protein refers to its three-dimensional shape.
V: Lipids are not true macromolecules as their molecular weight does not exceed 800 Da.

(1) I, II, III, and IV

(2) I, III, and V
(3) II, IV, and V
(4) All statements are correct.

47) Assertion (A): The fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane is considered the most accepted
model.
Reason (R): It describes the membrane as a fluid structure where proteins can move within a
phospholipid bilayer.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

48) Mark the following statements as true or false?

A. Enzymes generally function in a wide range of temperature and pH.
B. Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state.
C. High temperature preserves the enzyme in a permanently inactive state by maintaining its
tertiary structure.
D. The catalytic activity of an enzyme is independent of the concentration of the substrate.

(1) T F F F
(2) F F T T
(3) T F F T
(4) F T F F

49) How many of the following events occur during Anaphase of mitosis?
A. Splitting of centromeres.
B. Separation of homologous chromosomes.
C. Chromatids move to opposite poles.
D. Reformation of the nucleolus and nuclear envelope.
E. Decondensation of chromosomes.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

50) According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, allele frequencies remain constant if:

(1) Migration occurs

(2) Mutation rate is high
(3) Random mating takes place
(4) Natural selection acts

51) Match the following:

Column I Column II
(Concept) (Example/Description)

A Adaptive radiation 1 Australian marsupials and mammals

B Convergent evolution 2 Sudden large mutations causing speciation (Hugo de Vries)

 C Parallel evolution 3 Forelimbs of vertebrates (human, whale, bat)

D Saltation (Mutation theory) 4 Wings of bats and insects

(1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

52) Regarding population density, how many of the following statements are correct :
A. Population density is expressed only as number of individuals per unit area.
B. Biomass can also be used to calculate population density.
C. Population density can be measured by counting pug marks of tiger.
D. Relative density gives an absolute count of individuals.

(1) A and D
(2) B and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) B, C and D

53) Assertion (A): Age pyramids help in predicting future population growth.
Reason (R): Age pyramids show relative proportion of pre-reproductive, reproductive and post-
reproductive individuals.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

54)
Which statement is correct based on the above diagram?

(1) Energy flow is cyclic in nature

(2) Energy transfer efficiency is 100%
(3) Energy decreases at successive trophic levels
(4) Decomposers receive energy directly from the Sun
55) Detritus → Fragmentation → Leaching → Catabolism → Humification → Mineralisation
Which process of decomposition is incorrectly matched with its role?

(1) Fragmentation – Breaking of detritus into smaller particles

(2) Leaching – Water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into soil horizon
(3) Catabolism – Conversion of humus into inorganic nutrients
(4) Mineralisation – Release of inorganic nutrients

56) Assertion (A): Biosphere reserves are examples of in-situ conservation.

Reason (R): Species are protected in their natural habitats.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

57) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option:

Column-I Column-II
(Bone/Structure) (Location/Type)
(A) Scapula (i) Forelimb bone
(B) Humerus (ii) Hindlimb bone
(C) Acetabulum (iii) Large triangular flat bone
(D) Patella (iv) Pelvic Girdle
(1) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii
(2) A–iv, B–i, C–iii, D–ii
(3) A–iii, B–ii, C–iv, D–i
(4) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–iv

58) Assertion (A): During muscle contraction, the I-band shortens while the A-band retains its
length.
Reason (R): Actin filaments slide over myosin filaments, but the myosin filaments themselves do not
contract or change length.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

59) Case: A patient’s heart is monitored. It is observed that the duration of their cardiac cycle is 0.8
seconds. During a specific phase, the AV valves are closed, the semilunar valves are open, and the
ventricles are emptying.
Which of the following is true for this specific phase?

(1) It represents Joint Diastole, lasting 0.4 seconds.

(2) It represents Ventricular Systole, and the "Lubb" sound was just produced at its start.
(3) It represents Atrial Systole, where 30% of blood is forced into ventricles.
(4) It represents Ventricular Diastole, and the "Dupp" sound is produced.

60) Which part of the brain is correctly matched with its function?

(1) Cerebellum: Controls body temperature and urge for eating.

(2) Medulla Oblongata: Controls gastric secretions and cardiovascular reflexes.
(3) Hypothalamus: Maintains body posture and equilibrium.
(4) Corpus Callosum: Controls the "fight or flight" response.

61) Gemmae are present in -

(1) Funaria
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Some gymnosperms
(4) Marchantia

62) Which of the following plants is monoecious ?

(1) Carica papaya

(2) Pinus
(3) Marchantia polymorpha
(4) Cycas circinalis

63) Which of the following statement is incorrect about diatoms?

(1) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.

(2) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water.
(3) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible as it is made of only cellulose.
(4) Diatomaceous earth is formed by the cell walls of diatoms.

64) Which of the following hormones is responsible for the initiation of spermatogenesis in human
males?

(1) Testosterone
(2) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(3) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
(4) Progesterone

65) Which part of the sperm contains enzymes that help in penetration of the ovum?

(1) Middle piece

(2) Neck
(3) Tail
(4) Acrosome

66) According to WHO, reproductive health refers to:

(1) Absence of reproductive diseases
(2) Physical well-being only
(3) Total well-being in all aspects of reproduction
(4) Ability to reproduce

67) Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

(1) Measles
(2) Typhoid
(3) AIDS
(4) Dengue

68) In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous plants, how many genotypes and phenotypes
appear in F2?

(1) 3 genotypes, 2 phenotypes

(2) 2 genotypes, 3 phenotypes
(3) 1 genotype, 2 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes, 3 phenotypes

69) Assertion: DNA replication is semi-conservative.

Reason: Each daughter DNA has one parental and one newly synthesized strand.

(1) Both true and R explains A

(2) Both true but R does not explain A
(3) A true R false
(4) Both false

70) Which statement is incorrect?

(1) DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in 5′ to 3′ direction

(2) RNA primers are required for replication
(3) DNA ligase breaks phosphodiester bonds
(4) Leading strand is synthesized continuously

71) In a pedigree, a disorder appears mostly in males and is transmitted through carrier females.
Identify inheritance.

(1) Autosomal dominant

(2) Autosomal recessive
(3) X-linked recessive
(4) Y-linked

72) In figure given below possibility I and possibility II represents :-

(1) Independent assortment of chromosomes.
(2) Dependent separation of chromosomes.
(3) Mitosis
(4) Linkage

73)

Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II

a. Calyx and Corolla 1. Bisexual

b. Androecium and gynoecium 2. Unisexual

c. Calyx and Corolla are not distinct 3. Accessory organs

d. A flower having either only stamens or only carpels 4. Reproductive

e. When a flower has both androecium and gynoecium 5. Perianth

(1) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1, e-5
(2) a-3, b-4, c-5, d-1, e-2
(3) a-3, b-4, c-5, d-2, e-1
(4) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-2, e-1

74)

Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given

Column I Column II

a. Epigynous 1. Brinjal

b. Perigynous 2. Peach
 c. Hypogynous 3. Cucumber
(1) a-1, b-2, c-3
(2) a-3, b-1, c-2
(3) a-3, b-2, c-1
(4) a-2, b-3, c-1

75)

Match the columns I, II and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II Column III

a. 1. Radial K. Monocots

b. 2. Conjoint open L. Dicots

c. 3. Conjoint closed M. Roots

(1) a-3-M, b-2-L, c-1-K

(2) a-2-M, b-3-L, c-1-K
(3) a-3-K, b-2-L, c-1-M
(4) a-2-K, b-2-M, c-1-L
76) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching

(1) a-primary acceptor, b-reaction centre, c-pigment molecules, d-photon

(2) a-primary acceptor, b-reaction centre, d-pigment molecules, c-photon
(3) b-primary acceptor, a-reaction centre, d-pigment molecules, c-photon
(4) d-primary acceptor, a-reaction centre, b-pigment molecules, c-photon

77)

Match the columns:

Column I Column II

a. 4C 1. Acetyl CoA

b. 2C 2. Pyruvate

c. 5C 3. Citric acid

d. 3C 4. α-ketoglutaric acid

5. Malic acid
(1) a-2, b-5, c-3, d-1
(2) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
(3) a-5, b-1, c-4, d-2
(4) a-5, b-3, c-1, d-2

78) Recognise the figure and find out the correct labelling
(1) a-linear curve in geometric growth, b-sigmoid or S-curve in arithmetic growth
(2) a-linear curve in arithmetic growth, b-sigmoid or S-curve in geometric growth
(3) a-sigmoid or S-curve in geometric growth, b-linear curve in arithmetic growth
(4) a-sigmoid or S-curve in arithmetic growth, b-linear curve in geometric growth

79) Which of the following microbes is commonly used in the fermentation of traditional foods like
soy sauce?

(1) Rhizopus
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Aspergillus
(4) Lactobacillus

80) Which term refers to genetically modified animals used to study human diseases?

(1) Hybrid animals

(2) Transgenic animals
(3) Cloned animals
(4) Germline mutants

81) Which of the following is correct about Agrobacterium tumefaciens?

(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to produce antibiotics.

(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used as a vector for gene transfer in plants.
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a virus used in animal genetic engineering.
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used for producing insulin in bacteria.

82) In angiosperms, double fertilization results in the formation of both embryo and endosperm.

(1) Statement is correct.

(2) Embryo and endosperm both not formed
(3) Only embryo is formed
(4) Only endosperm is formed
83) Which of the following statements are correct regarding pollination?
1. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma is called pollination.
2. Autogamy requires a bisexual flower.
3. Cleistogamous flowers always show cross-pollination.
4. Wind pollinated flowers usually have feathery stigma.

(1) 1, 2 and 4 only

(2) 1 and 3 only
(3) 2, 3 and 4 only
(4) All statements are correct

84) Which statement about frog reproductive anatomy is INCORRECT?

(1) Male frogs possess 10-12 vasa efferentia arising from each testis.
(2) The cloaca serves as a common passage for faeces, urine and gametes.
(3) A mature female frog's fecundity ranges from 2500 to 3000 ova at a time.
(4) Oviducts in female frogs open into the urinary bladder before reaching the cloaca.

85) In the anatomy of a male cockroach, which of the following structures is neither a part of the
external genitalia nor associated with reproduction?

(1) Right phallomere

(2) Collaterial glands
(3) Left phallomere
(4) Mushroom gland

86)

Which of the following statements about connective tissue are correct?

1. Matrix is always solid
2. Blood is a connective tissue
3. Bone matrix contains calcium salts
4. Cartilage lacks blood supply

(1) 2, 3 and 4
(2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 4
(4) All correct

87)

Match the Column (Conceptual)

Column I Column II

A. Flame cells 1. Excretion

B. Nephridia 2. Platyhelminthes
 C. Malpighian tubules 3. Arthropoda

D. Flame cells present in 4. Annelida

Correct combination:
(1) A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2
(2) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(3) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
(4) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

88)

Which of the following combinations is correctly matched?

Feature Group
A. Persistent notochord — Cephalochordata
B. Gill slits only in embryo — Mammals
C. Endoskeleton present — Vertebrata
D. Heart ventral — Chordata

(1) A, B and C only

(2) B, C and D only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) All are correct

89) Statement I : Conditional reabsorption of Na+ occurs in DCT.

Statement II : Vasa recta helps in maintaining medullary osmotic gradient.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Both statements are false
(3) Statement I true, II false
(4) Statement I false, II true

90) Which of the following statements regarding PCT are correct?

1. Maximum reabsorption of water occurs here
2. Glucose is actively reabsorbed
3. Secretion of H⁺ occurs here
4. It is impermeable to water

(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 2 and 4
(3) 1 and 4
(4) All are correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 4 1 1 2 3 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 2 4 1 4 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 1 2 3 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 1 1 4 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 3 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 1 4 3 2 3 1 2 2 1 1 4 1 4 2 4 3 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 3 3 2 4 4 2 4 4 2 2 3 2 2 4 3 2 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 1 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 1 4 4 3 4 3 1 1 1 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 2 2 1 3 1 1 3 1 4 1 4 1 3 3 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 4 2 3 3 2 1 3 3 1 1 1 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 3 4 3 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 1 4 2 1 1 4 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explain Question : Find the ratio of minimum velocities

Concept : Escape velocity
Solution :
Escape velocity is independent of direction, results are same by conservation of energy.
Final Answer : Option (1)

2) Explain Question : Find the new time period of satellite

Concept : Kepler's third law
Solution :
According to Kepler's Third Law,
T2 ∝ r3
⇒ 52 ∝ r3 .....(1)
and (T')2 ∝ (4r)3 .....(2)
Dividing equation (1) and (2), we get

or
or
Final Answer : Option (3)

3) Explain Question : Find the tension in string

Concept : Buoyancy
Solution :

T = mg – FB FB = Vρℓg

= 40 – 2.88
= 37.12 N
Final Answer : Option (4)

4) Explain Question : Find correct graph between the velocity of efflux (through a small hole)
vs depth of water h from the top of tank.
Concept : Velocity of efflux
Solution :

at h = 0 maximum
at h = H =0
Final Answer : Option (1)

5) Explaining :This question asks for the specific distance covered by an object during only
the third second of its motion, starting from a state of rest with a known constant acceleration.
Concept : This question is based on Calculation of displacement in the nth second, defined by
the formula: Sn = (a/2)(2n-1).
Solution :
Distance travelled in the 3rd second = Distance travelled in 3 seconds – distance travelled in 2
seconds.
As u = 0,

As , hence
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
Final Answer : (1)

6) Explaining :This question asks for the ratio of horizontal ranges for two projectiles
launched at angles that are equally offset above and below 45°.This question asks for the ratio
of horizontal ranges for two projectiles launched at angles that are equally offset above and
below 45°.
Concept : This question is based on Projectile motion range for complementary angles. If the
sum of two projection angles is 90°, their horizontal ranges are [Link] motion
range for complementary angles. If the sum of two projection angles is 90°, their horizontal
ranges are identical.
Solution :

Horizontal range .
For angle of projection (45º – θ), the horizontal range is

For angle of projection (45º + θ), the horizontal range is

ϕ1 = 45º – θ and ϕ2 = 45º + θ

As ϕ1 + ϕ2 = 90º, i.e., complementary to each other.
∴ The range is the same.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
Final Answer : (2)

7) Explaining :This question asks for the coefficient of static friction required to keep a
uniform chain at rest when a specific fraction of its length is hanging off the edge of a table.
Concept : This question is based on Static equilibrium involving friction, where the weight of
the hanging part must be balanced by the maximum static frictional force acting on the part
remaining on the table.
Solution :
We see that a portion of the chain is lying on the table top.
Let the mass of that portion be m1.
Let the mass of the remaining (hanging) portion of the chain be m2.
Since the chain is at the point of slipping, the weight of the hanging portion of the chain
balances the maximum static frictional force fmax between m1 and the surface.
m2g = fmax = µN1
where N1 – m1g = 0 for the equilibrium of the portion of chain lying on the table.
∴ m2g – µm1g = 0
or

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Final Answer : (3)

8) Explaining : This question asks for the internal force of interaction (tension/elastic force)
between the first and second links of a 5-link chain being pulled upward with constant
acceleration.
Concept : This question is based on Newton's Second Law applied to connected bodies. The
force between the top link and the rest of the chain must accelerate all the links located below
that point.
Solution :
Let F be the upward force, then
5ma = F – 5mg
or F = 5m(a + g)
Let the force of interaction between top (first) link and second link be F12.
The forces on the top link are
(a) Upward force F
(b) Weight mg
(c) Elastic force of interaction F12 by which the remaining four links pull the top link
downward.
Thus, ma = F – mg – F12
∴ F12 = F – mg – ma
= 5m(a + g) – m(a + g) = 4m(a + g)
= 4 × 0.1 (2.5 + 9.8) = 4.92 N
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
Final Answer : (2)

9) Explaining : Select the correct option in column-II with quantity in column-I according to
graph
Concept :
M.E. = K.E. + P.E.

Solution :
(P) Kinetic energy K starts from zero increases to maximum at the equilibrium position, and
decreases after that.
(Q) Wmg = Fdcos0°
= mgx

(Q) ⇒ W ∝ x2
(S) For conservative force field M.E. remains constant.
Final Answer : (1)

10)

Explain Question:
A particle hits a smooth inclined plane horizontally and rebounds vertically. The question asks
to find coefficient of restitution (e).

Concept:
On a smooth plane, tangential component of velocity remains unchanged during collision.

Solution:

Tangential to the plane,

u cos 60° = v cos30°

...(1)
Perpendicular to the plane,
v sin 30° = e (u sin 60°)
v sin 30° = e ( sin 60°)
Final answer: option (1)

11) Question Explanation: Solve for the angle in the cross-product definition of torque.
Concept Involved: Torque magnitude is given by .

Solution: . radians.
Final Answer: (2)

12) Question Explanation: Calculate the resultant torque vector for multiple forces in 3D
space.
Concept Involved: Total torque is the vector sum of individual torques
Solution: . at y = 4 is .

. Total . (Note: based on standard visual

cues in similar diagrams, if F2 location is 6m on x, result changes. For the text (2,3), result is
choice 1).
Final Answer: (1)

13) Question Explanation: Identify the functional relationship between moment of inertia
and axis displacement.
Concept Involved: Parallel Axis Theorem:
Solution: The equation represents a parabola with a positive y-intercept (Icm).
Final Answer: (2)

14)

Explain Question: Find the period of oscillation

Concept: differential equation of linear SHM
Solution:
a = –β (x – 2) is displaced SHM about x = 2 having angular frequency
ω2 = β
ω=

Final Answer: (2)

15)

Explain Question: Find phase difference at t = 0.5 sec

Concept: phase difference
Solution:

Phase for 1st SHM : ϕ1 = 10πt +

Phase for 2nd SHM : ϕ2 = 8πt +

Phase difference :
Put t = 0.5 s

Final Answer: (2)

16)

Explain Question: Find phase difference

Concept:
Solution:
From the given equation, k = 0.2π

⇒ = 0.2π ⇒ λ = 10 mm

Final Answer: (4)

17)

Explain Question: Find tension in string

Concept: stationary wave
Solution:

Hence

As so T = μv2 = 4 × 10–1 (3)2 = 3.6 N

Final Answer: (1)

18)

Explain Question: Find percentage error

Concept: propagation of error
Solution:
Physical quantity having dimensional formula
= [M1L–1T–1]
% error in this physical quantity
= (% error in M) + (% error in L) + (% error in T)
= 1% + 1.5% + 3% = 5.5%
Final Answer: (4)

19)

Explain Question: Find least count of Vernier callipers

Concept: Vernier callipers
Solution:
5 part of vernier scale = 4 mm
value of 1 part of vernier scale = 0.8 mm
Least count = 1 mm – 0.8 mm = 0.2 mm
Final Answer: (3)

20) Question Explanation: For a diatomic gas, a P-V diagram shows two processes: A→B and
B→C. We need the total heat supplied to the gas over A→B→C.

Concept: First law of thermodynamics: Q = ΔU + W. Use given process details to find ΔU and
work done.

Solution:

From the diagram (described):

Process A→B: Isochoric (volume constant = V0)

At A: P = P0, V = V0
At B: P = 2P0, V = V0

Process B→C: Isothermal at temperature corresponding to P = 2P0, V = V0, expanding to V =

2V0.
Step 1: A→B (Isochoric)
Work done WAB =0
Change in internal energy:
ΔUAB = nCvΔT

For diatomic gas, Cv = R

From A to B:
SO ΔT = TB – TA = TA

0 0
But nRTA = P V ⇒TA =

Thus Heat in A→B: QAB = ΔUAB + WAB =

Step 2: B→C (Isothermal)
For isothermal, ΔUBC = 0

Work done WBC = nRTB In

nRTB = PBVB = (2P0) (V0) 2P0V0

0 0 0 0 0 0
VC = 2V , VB = V ⇒ = 2 WBC = 2P V In 2 Heat in B→C: QBC = ΔUBC + WBC = 0 + 2P V In 2

0 0 0 0
Step 3: Total heat Qtotal = QAB + QBC = P V + 2P V In 2 This matches option 3.
Final Answer : Option (3)

21)

Question Explanation : For an adiabatic process P1 = P0, V1 = V

P2 = ? V2 = , γ = 4/3

Concept : This question is based on adiabatic process.

Formula :

Solution :

P2 = P0 × (27)4/3
P2 = P0 × (33)4/3
P2 = P0 × 34
P2 = 81P0

Final answer : Option (2)

22)

Explain Question :- For an adiabatic process

P1 = P, V1 = V, Y = 5/3

P2 = ? , V2 =
Concept :-This question is based on Adiabatic process [P1V1Y = P2V2Y]
Solution :-

P2 = P1 ×

P2 = P×
P0 = P × (23)5/3
P2 = P × 32
P2 = 32P
The find pressure will be equal to 32 times of initial pressure
Final answer :- (3)

23) Explaining : To find the object distance as given condn. of Q.

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
Given R = 30 cm
f = R/2 = +15 cm

Magnification (m) =
For convex mirror, virtual image is formed for real object.
Therefore, m is +ve

u = – 15 cm
Final Answer : (1)

24) Explaining : To find focal length of given Q.

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
μl = 1.5
μm = 1.6
fa = 20 cm

As

fm = –160 cm
Final Answer : (2)

25) Explaining : To find angle of diffraction.

Concept : This question is based on (for minima)
Solution :
For first minima

Final Answer : (3)

26) Explaining : to choose the correct statements regarding ampere's law

Concept : ampere's law
Solution :

Applying the Ampere's circuital law, we have (because current is in

opposite sense)
Also, there may be a point on C where B and dℓ are perpendicular and hence .
Final Answer : (2)

27) Explanation: To choose the correct option for which the net force on the charge maybe 0.
Concept: Lorentz force and velocity selector.
Solution : The charge will not experience any force if . This condition is satisfied
in option (2) only.
Final Answer : (2)

28) Explaining : To find the ratio of magnetic field due to x & y at O.

Concept : Magnetic field due to circular coil at axial point.
Solution :

By = =

Final Answer : (3)

29) Explanation: The question is based on assertion and reason regarding mutual inductance
between two coils.
Concept: Mutual inductance of coil 1 with respect to coil 2 is same as mutual inductance of
coil 2 with respect to coil 1. Mutual inductance is independent of current passing through the
coil.
Solution :

Independent of current.
Final Answer : (2)

30) Explanation: To find the amplitude of EMF generated in case of a AC generator.

Concept: AC generator.
Solution :
Amplitude of generated emf
emax = NABω
= [1] [BA cos10°)] [ω]
= [1] [ϕB] [2πf]
= 2πfϕB
Final Answer : (4)

31) Explaining : An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by E = E

sin(kx – ωt). Which of the following is/are independent of the wavelength?

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

32) Explaining : In the circuit shown below, the ac source has voltage V = 20 cos(ωt) volts
with ω = 2000 rad/sec. The amplitude of the current will be to

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : R = 6 + 4 = 10Ω
XL = ωL = 2000 × 5 × 10–3 = 10Ω

Amplitude of current =
Final Answer : (1)

33) Explaining : In a pure capacitive circuit if a frequency of current is ω then frequency of

instantaneous power will be
Concept : This question is based on P = VI.

Solution : V = V0 sinωt, I = I0 sin (ωt + ) = I0 cosωt

p=V×I
p = V0I0 sinωt cosωt

Final Answer : (3)

34) Explaining : We have to find equation of EMW with given parameters.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : f = 3 × 1010 Hz B0 = 10–6T
E0 = cB0 = 3 × 108 × 10–6 = 300 V/m

E = E0sin (kx – ωt)

Final Answer : (2)

35) Explanation: Given: A symmetric electric circuit having eight resistances of 1W each.
Asked: The current through different resistances.
Concept: Folding symmetry, nodal analysis.
Solution:
From symmetry : VB = VD

KCL at node x :

Now, v' = 12 –

Final Answer: (3)

36) Explanation: Given: A balanced Wheatstone bridge.

Asked: The current through the source of emf 40 V.
Concept: Remove the 2 W resistor and reduce the circuit.
Solution:
It follow Wheatstone bridge so, the equivalent circuit will be
Apply KVL law
–40 + 4I = 0 ⇒ I = 10A
Final Answer: (1)

37) Explanation: Given: The plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are
moved apart.
Asked: The change in different parameters.

Concept: Q = CV, C = , = C, U = CV2

Solution:
Battery connected so V = constant
Now d ⇒ C↓
A : Q = CV ∝ C ⇒ Q↓

B:U= CV2 ∝ C ⇒ U↓

C:C= ⇒ C↓

D : = C ⇒ C↓
E: (Q) (V) ∝ C ⇒ QV↓
Therefore statements B, C and E are correct.
Final Answer: (1)

38) Explanation: Given: A capacitive circuit.

Asked: The Charge supplied by the source.
Concept: Combination of capacitor and Q = CV
Solution:

Ceq = 5 + 15 = 20µF
Q=CeqE=200 µC
Final Answer: (4)

39) Explanation: Given: Four situations of discrete charged particle system.

Asked: The order of net electric field at origin.

Concept:
Solution:

As,
Final Answer: (3)

40) Explanation: Given: Two equal negative charge –q is fixed at the fixed points (0, a) and (0,
–a) on the Y-axis.
Asked: About the motion if a positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the
X-axis.
Concept: Calculate net force at a distance x from O, if the nature of force is restoring, motion
will be oscillatory.
Solution: By symmetry of problem the components of force on Q due to charges at A and B
along y-axis will cancel each other while along x-axis will add up and will be along CO. Under
the action of this force charge Q will move towards O. If at any time charge Q is at a distance x
from O. Net force on charge Q

Fnet ⇒ 2F cosq = 2

i.e., Fnet =
As the restoring force Fnet is not linear, motion will be oscillatory but not simple harmonic.
Final Answer: (4)

41) Explanation: Given: two parallel metallic plates, maintained at different potential.
Asked: The motion of an electron if it is released midway between the plates.
Concept: The direction Electric field is from higher potential of –200 V to lower potential of
–400 V (right ward). The electron accelerates opposite to the electric field.
Solution: Electric field is direction right ward (higher potential of –200 V to lower potential of
–400 V). When electron left free in an electric it accelerates opposite to the electric field.
Hence in the given case electron accelerates left ward.
Final Answer: (4)

42) Problem Explanation: The binding energy per nucleon of C-12 is 7.68 MeV and of C-13 is
7.48 MeV. The problem asks for the energy required to remove the extra neutron from C-13.
Concept Used: This problem uses the concept of binding energy, which is the energy
required to disassemble a nucleus into its constituent protons and neutrons. The energy
required to remove a single nucleon is the difference between the total binding energy of the
original nucleus and the total binding energy of the resulting nucleus.
Formulas Used:
• Total Binding Energy = (Binding Energy per Nucleon) × (Number of Nucleons)
Calculation:
• Total binding energy of C-13 =
• Total binding energy of C-12 =
• Energy required to remove the neutron = (Total Binding Energy of C-13) - (Total Binding
Energy of C-12)
• Energy required = 97.24 MeV–92.16 MeV = 5.08 MeV. This is very nearly 5 MeV.
Final Answer: The energy required is very nearly equal to 5 MeV. The correct option is (4).

43) Problem Explanation: When light is incident on a surface, photoelectrons are emitted.
The question asks about the kinetic energy of these photoelectrons.
Concept Used: This question is about the photoelectric effect. When a photon strikes a
metal surface, it transfers its energy to an electron. This energy is used to overcome the work
function of the metal, and any remaining energy becomes the kinetic energy of the emitted
electron. However, not all electrons will have the maximum possible kinetic energy. Some
electrons might lose energy through collisions inside the metal before being emitted.
Formulas Used:
• Einstein's Photoelectric Equation: KEmax = hv – ϕ
Calculation:
• The maximum kinetic energy (KEmax) is the kinetic energy of an electron that absorbs a
photon and is emitted without any energy loss due to internal collisions.
• Due to internal collisions, the kinetic energy (KE) of other emitted photoelectrons will be less
than or equal to the maximum kinetic energy.
• Therefore, KE ≤ KEmax.
Final Answer: For photoelectrons, (KE) ≤ (Kmax). The correct option is (3).

44) Explaining : The question asks to identify the correct energy band diagram for a
semiconductor from the four options provided.
Concept : This question is based on Energy band theory in solids, which describes the
allowed energy levels for electrons. The key features are the valence band (VB), the
conduction band (CB), and the forbidden energy gap (Eg) between them.
Solution :
Diagram (1) & (2): Show overlapping or partially filled conduction bands, which are
characteristic of metals (conductors).
Diagram (3): Shows a very large energy gap (Eg >> TT) between the filled valence band and
the empty conduction band. This is the energy band diagram for an insulator.
Diagram (4): Shows a small, finite energy gap (Eg KT) between the valence band and the
conduction band. At room temperature, the thermal energy (KT) is sufficient to excite some
electrons from the VB to the CB. This diagram correctly represents a semiconductor.
Final Answer : (4)

45) Explaining : The question shows a logic circuit with inputs A and B and output X. It asks
to find a possible combination of input and output values.
Concept : This question is based on Operation of basic logic gates: AND gate and OR gate.
The circuit shows inputs A and B feeding into two separate AND gates, whose outputs then
feed into an OR gate.
AND Gate: Output is 1 only if all inputs are 1.(Y = A . B)
OR Gate: Output is 1 if any input is 1. (Y = A + B)
Solution :
The output of the top AND gate is .B. The output of the bottom AND gate is A . . Both of
these outputs go into the OR gate. So, the final output X is given by the Boolean expression: X
= ( . B) + (A . )
Final Answer : (4)
CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : Find the statements are correct OR incorrect.

Concept : This question is based on NSR in halide.
Solution : Aryl halide are less reactive than benzylic halide & SN1 of halide gives partial
racemization.
Final Answer : (4)

47) Explaining : Find the assertion and reason are correct OR incorrect.
Concept : This question is based on Williamson synthesis.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

48) Explaining : Find product.

Concept : This question is based on elimination-addition (overall NSR)
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

49) Explaining : Find product.

Concept : This question is based on elimination of halide.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

50) Explaining : Find product.

Concept : This question is based on NSR in alcohol.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

51) Explaining : Find final product.

Concept : This question is based on addition then hydrolysis.
Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

52) Explaining : Find reaction gives 2° alcohol.

Concept : This question is based on NAR in aldehyde/ketone and NSR in ester.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

53) Explaining : Find product.

Concept : This question is based on ESR.

Solution : x = 0 is deactivating while is activating so attack on para with respect to

—NH—
Final Answer : (1)

54) Explaining : Find relation between A and B.

Concept : This question is based on EAR (Anti addition)
Solution :

are not mirror images so diastereomers.

Final Answer : (2)

55) Explaining : Find product A and B and differ by.

Concept : This question is based on oxidation of alcohol and stephen reaction
Solution :
can be differentiated by (1), (3), (4) but not by (2)
Final Answer : (2)

56) Explaining : Find the reagent 'A'.

Concept : This question is based on reduction of ketone.
Solution : In Wolff-kishner reduction no change in —OH.
Final Answer : (1)

57) Explaining : Find correct statement.

Concept : This question is based on acid-base reaction feasibility.
Solution : More acidic is converted in less acidic.
Final Answer : (1)

58) Explaining : Find incorrect statement.

Concept : This question is based on different type of reaction.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

59) Explaining : Find product 'B'.

Concept : This question is based on iodoform reaction and decarboxylation.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

60) Explaining : Find product.
Concept : This question is based on Cannizzaro reaction.
Solution : —M of —NO2 increases reactivity of aldehyde so it is oxidised.
Final Answer : (4)

61) Explaining : Find which gives iodoform test.

Concept : This question is based on haloform reaction.
Solution :

type of alcohol and gives iodoform test.

* Amide does not.
Final Answer : (2)

62)

Explaining : IUPAC nomenclature

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC nomenclature
Solution : H2[PtCl6] is an acid, not salt hence its name : Hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid.
Final Answer : (4)

63)

Explaining : Werner's theory

Concept : This question is based on Werner's theory
Solution :
Cr·6NH3·Cl3 → [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
Secondary valency '6' satisfied by only NH3, all Cl¯ satisfy only primary valency.
Cr·5NH3·Cl3 → [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
Secondary valency '6' satisfied by five NH3 and one Cl¯ while all three Cl¯ satisfy primary
valency.
Final Answer : (3)

64)

Explaining : Magnetic moment

Concept : This question is based on crystal field theory
Solution :
The magnetic moment of [NiX4]2– ion is zero.
e.g., → [Ni(CN)4]2– → dsp2-hybridisation
Final Answer : (3)

65)

Explaining : Shape of molecule

Concept : This question is based on back bonding
Solution :
Trisilyamine N(SiH3)3 is trigonal planar and weakly basic as lone pair of nitrogen is involved in
back bonding.

Final Answer : (4)

66)

Explaining : Melting point

Concept : This question is based on Melting point
Solution :
Melting point ∝ Number of unpaired electrons in (n–1)d subshell +ns subshell.
Zn < Cu < Ni < Fe
Final Answer : (1)

67)

Explaining : Potash plum

Concept : This question is based on Potash plum
Solution :
Aq. solution of Potash alum is acidic in nature because it is a double salt of strong acid [H2SO4]
and weak base [Al(OH)3].
Final Answer : (2)

68)

Explaining : Salt analysis

Concept : This question is based on salt analysis
Solution :
The layer test is performed in the presence of dil HCl and carbon disulphide.
In presence of Br¯ ion gives orange.
In presence of I¯ ion gives violet.
If reddish brown layer comes first that mean both I¯ and Br¯ both absent.
Final Answer : (3)

69)

Explaining : Oxidising as well as reducing agent

Concept : This question is based on types of redox reaction
Solution :
I. H2O2 undergoes oxidation to O2 and also undergoes reduction to give H2O (–1 oxidation state
to 0 and –2)
II. S2– undergoes only oxidation either to S, SO2 or in which oxidation number changes
from –2 to 0, +4 or +6.
III. SO2 (oxidation number of S is +4) can undergo oxidation and reduction. S is having
highest oxidation state of +6. The element in a molecule having its oxidation state in the
middle (i.e., > minimum and < maximum) can be used as oxidant and as reduction both.
IV. HNO2 (oxidation number of N is +3). Highest oxidation state of N is +5. So it can undergo
both oxidant and reductant.
Final Answer : (3)

70)

Explaining : Number of photon

Concept : This question is based on electromagnetic wave
Solution :

∴ 10 = or n =
Final Answer : (2)

71)

Explaining : Enthalpy of formation

Concept : This question is based on heat of reaction
Solution :
C(graphite) → C(diamond)
ΔH = ΔH2 – ΔH1 = – 397 + 400 = 3 kJ
Final Answer : (4)

72)

Explaining : Maximum yield of ammonia

Concept : This question is based on Le-chatelier's principle
Solution :
Because the reaction is exothermic and on product side the number of moles of gaseous
substance is less.
Final Answer : (4)

73)

Explaining : Maximum buffer capacity

Concept : This question is based on Buffer solution
Solution : Maximum buffer capacity, when pH = pKa, and this is only possible when [Salt] =
[Acid].
Final Answer : (2)

74)

Explaining : In the volumetric estimation of HCl, if we make use of phenolphthalein as an

indicator, which base is unsuitable for the titration :-
Concept : This question is based on titration
 Solution : Phenolphthalein as an indicator is used when base is strong. So it is unsuitable for
NH4OH.
Final Answer : (4)

75)

Explaining : Correct option

Concept : This question is based on find mole
Solution : If NA change from 6.022 × 1023 to 6.027 × 1020 then the mass of 1 mole of carbon
will also change.
Final Answer : (4)

76)

Explaining : Amount of chlorine evolved

Concept : This question is based on Faraday's first law
Solution :
Here's how to calculate the amount of chlorine evolved:
1. Calculate the total charge passed:

A. Current (I) = 2 amperes

B. Time (t) = 30 minutes = 30 * 60 = 1800 seconds
C. Charge (Q) = I * t = 2 A * 1800 s = 3600 Coulombs

2. Calculate the moles of electrons transferred:

A. Faraday's constant (F) = 96485 Coulombs/mol

B. Moles of electrons = Q / F = 3600 C / 96485 C/mol = 0.0373 moles

3. Determine the moles of chlorine evolved:

A. The balanced half-reaction for chlorine evolution is: 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻
B. This means 2 moles of electrons are required to produce 1 mole of Cl₂.
C. Moles of Cl₂ = Moles of electrons / 2 = 0.0373 moles / 2 = 0.01865 moles

4. Calculate the mass of chlorine evolved:

A. Molar mass of Cl₂ = 70.9 g/mol

B. Mass of Cl₂ = Moles of Cl₂ * Molar mass of Cl₂ = 0.01865 moles * 70.9 g/mol = 1.32 g
(approximately)

Therefore, the correct answer is 2) 1.32 g.

Final Answer : (2)

77)

Explaining : Molar conductance of BaCl2

Concept : This question is based on Kohlrausch's law
Solution :
= 63.5 + 76 = 139.5
∴
Final Answer : (2)

78)

Explaining : Ecell will be

Concept : This question is based on nernst equation
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

79) Explaining : Graph identification

Concept : This question is based on

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
We know, for zero order reaction -
At = A0 – Kt

t1/2 ∝ [A0]

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

80) Explain Question : The problem asks the time required for the concentration of X to
reduce to 10% of its initial value for an elementary reaction, given its half-life.
Concept : This question is based on First-order reaction, half-life
Solution : t =(2.303/k)×log([X]0/[X]t)
Given t1/2 = 10 min → k = 0.693 / 10 = 0.0693 min−1
We need t when [X]0/[X]t = 10.
t = (2.303/0.0693) × log(10)
t = 2.3026 / 0.0693 ≈ 33.2 min
Final answer : 2
81)

Explaining : Rate of chemical reaction depends on

Concept : This question is based on rate of reaction
Solution : Rate of reaction depends on temperature, presence of catalyst and activation
energy of reaction.
Final Answer : (4)

82)

Explaining : Number of moles of NaOH

Concept : This question is based on molality
Solution :

nB = 0.03
Final Answer : (3)

83)

Explaining : Mole fraction of C3H5(OH)3

Concept : This question is based on mole fraction
Solution :

C3H5(OH)3 A so nA = = 0.5

H2O is B so nB = =2

∴
Final Answer : (2)

84)

Explaining : Different properties

Concept : This question is based on different properties
Solution :
Atomic radius and metallic character decreases from left to right across the period and
increases from top to bottom down the group.
Final Answer : (4)

85)

Explaining : Ionisation potential

Concept : This question is based on ionisation potential
Solution :
Li+ :- 1s2
B+ :- 2s2
Be+ :- 1s22s1
Final Answer : (2)

86)

Explaining : Identification of element

Concept : This question is based on identification of elements
Solution :
(A) [Xe]4f145d106s2, last e– goes to 5d subshell so it is a d-block element and 5d subshell is
fulfilled so it is not considered as transition element (A→R)
(B) [Rn]5f146d17s2, last e– goes to 5f subshell so it is f-block or inner-transition element (B→T)
(C) [Xe]4f145d106s26p67s2, last e– goes to 7s subshell so it is a s-block or representative element
(C→P, S)
(D) [Xe]4f145d26s2, last e– goes to 5d subshell so it is a d-block element and 5d subshell is
partially field so it is also considered as transition element (D→Q, R)
Final Answer : (1)

87)

Explaining : Hybridisation
Concept : This question is based on hybridisation.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

88)

Explaining : Bond parameters

Concept : This question is based on bond parameters
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

89)

Explaining : Hydrogen bonding

Concept : This question is based on hydrogen bonding
Solution :
 The correct representation of hydrogen bonding is
NH3 + H2O → + OH–
and ammonia never acts as acid in aqueous medium
NH3 + H2O → + H3O+
Final Answer : (2)

90)

Explaining : Bond angle

Concept : This question is based on bond angle
Solution :

In , O is more electronegative than Cl. Hence, its will contain more s character in
hybrid orbital hence bond angle will be more than expected. Hence, bond angle is HOCl is
greater than HOF.
Final Answer : (2)

BIOLOGY

91) Explanation : Abiogenesis suggests that simple organic compounds formed from
inorganic ones in primitive Earth's reducing atmosphere, leading to complex molecules and
eventually life forms, based on experiments simulating early conditions.
Final Answer : (2)

92) Explanation: Mutations introduce new alleles, recombination shuffles them, and gene
flow exchanges between populations; special creation is not scientific.
Final Answer : (2)

93) Solution : rDNA is directly placed in nucleus of animal cell by micro-injection method.
Final Answer : (4)

94) Solution : 20 cycles of PCR amplified DNA 1 billion times.

Final Answer : (2)

95) Solution : a = Destroyed by bollworms, b = Fully mature cotton boll

 Final Answer : (2)

96) Solution : Bt-stands for Bacillus thuringiensis.

Final Answer : (3)

97) Solution : 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use all over the
world.
Final Answer : (3)

98) Solution : Same number of pre reproductive and reproductive individuals show stable
population growth.
Final Answer : (3)

99) Solution :

Column I Column II Column III

(1) Mutualism c,(+, +) iv. Lichens

Visiting flamingoes and resident fishes in south american

(2) Competition d,(–, –) i.
lakes

(3) Predation a(+, –) ii. Starfish pisaster in american pacific coast

(4) Commensalism b,(+, 0) iii. Cattle egret birds and cattle

Final Answer : (2)

100) Solution :
Cryopreservation - Ex situ conservation
World summit - Johannesburg
Earth summit - Rio de Janeiro
Final Answer : (1)

101) Oxytocin secretes during parturition with the help of pituitary gland.

102) hCG, hPL and relaxing are produced only during pregnancy

103) A–c–ii, B–a–iii, C–d–i, D–b–iv

104)

Fatality of cancer increases with increase in grade of Metastasis and Local tissue invasion

105) Cocaine – Erythroxylem coca – Excessive dose causes hallucination

106) Solution : Arthropods have open circulation.

Final Answer : (1)

107) Solution : Both true and R correctly explain A

Final Answer : (1)

108) Solution : Nematodes are pseudocoelomate.

Final Answer : (1)

109) Solution: methanogens like Methanobacterium produce methane (biogas) from organic
waste in anaerobic conditions.
Final Answer : (1)

110) Explanation: Systematics is not limited to naming. It includes evolutionary relationships,

identification, nomenclature and classification, making the assertion false and the reason true.
Final Answer : (4)

111) Explanation: Retention of megaspore and female gametophyte is a precursor of seed

habit (NCERT line).
Final Answer : (2)

112) Solution : Racemose inflorescence shows indeterminate growth and acropetal

succession (youngest at top).
Final Answer : (2)

113) Solution : Dicot stem has open vascular bundles with cambium.
Final Answer : (3)

114) Solution : Oxygen is released during photolysis of water.

Final Answer : (2)

115) Solution : Calvin cycle requires 18 ATP and 12 NADPH per glucose.
Final Answer : (2)

116) Solution : Pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA in mitochondria.

Final Answer : (1)
117) Solution : Auxin → elongation; GA → stem growth; Cytokinin → delays ageing; ABA →
stress; Ethylene → ripening.
Final Answer : (3)

118) Explanation: Tetany occurs due to hypocalcemia. Emphysema damages alveoli. Cardiac
arrest is stoppage of heart. Glomerulonephritis is inflammation of glomeruli (kidney), not
alveoli.
Final Answer : (1)

119) Explanation: Hemodialysis removes urea and wastes using diffusion across a
semipermeable membrane. Reason correctly explains assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

120) Explanation: ~70% CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate. RBCs have hemoglobin. Platelets
function in clotting.
Final Answer : (3)

121) Explanation: Cardiac cycle = complete sequence of contraction (systole) and relaxation
(diastole) in one heartbeat.
Final Answer : (1)

122) Explanation: Glomerulus filters. Loop concentrates urine. PCT reabsorbs nutrients. DCT
does selective secretion.
Final Answer : (4)

123) Explanation: Dura mater = outermost, Arachnoid = middle, Pia mater = innermost.
Final Answer : (1)

124) Explanation: Cartilage is softer than bone, so B is incorrect. Others are correct.
Final Answer : (4)

125) Solution : Exine contains sporopollenin; intine is cellulose; pollen tube emerges through
germ pore; ovule acts as megasporangium.
Final Answer: (1)

126) Solution: Assertion is correct; Reason is false because test cross uses homozygous
recessive, not dominant.
Final Answer: (3)

127) Solution: Law of Segregation still operates; therefore statement (3) is incorrect.
Final Answer: (3)

128) Solution: Both statements are true and Reason correctly defines degeneracy.
Final Answer: (1)

129) Solution: Promoter is RNA polymerase binding site; structural gene codes RNA;
terminator signals stop; template strand is read 3′→5′.
Final Answer: (1)

130) Solution: H1 is linker histone and not part of core octamer; hence statement (3) is
incorrect.
Final Answer: (3)

131) Explaining : In anaphase-I, homologous chromosomes separate but no centromere

division is seen.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

132) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Number of chromosomes remain same in mitosis. The gametes are formed by
reductional division i.e. meiosis.
Final Answer : (2)

133) Explaining : All statements are correct.

Concept :
Solution : All statements are correct.
Final Answer : (1)

134) Solution : Assertion (A) is correct. The nucleus directs all the activities of the cell,
including growth, metabolism, and reproduction.
Reason (R) is also correct. The nucleus houses the cell's genetic material in the form of
chromatin (a complex of DNA and proteins). The genes within the DNA contain the
instructions for synthesizing all the proteins and other molecules the cell needs to function.
The reason explains why the nucleus is the control center—because it contains the blueprint
(genetic material) for all cellular functions.
Final Answer : (1)

135) Solution : The 70S ribosomes are characteristic of prokaryotes (A) and the organelles
of endosymbiontic origin (mitochondria/chloroplasts) in eukaryotes. The 70S ribosome
dissociates into a 50S (B) large subunit and a 30S (C) small subunit. The 80S ribosomes are
found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotes (D). The 80S ribosome is composed of a 60S (E) large
subunit and a 40S (F) small subunit.
Final Answer : (1)

136) Solution : Statement II is incorrect. Starch is indeed a polymer of glucose and the
stored food in plants, but cellulose, not starch, provides structural support to plant cells.
Statement IV is incorrect. The primary structure of a protein is the linear sequence of
amino acids in a polypeptide chain. The three-dimensional shape is the tertiary structure.
Final Answer : (2)

137) Solution : Assertion (A) is true. The fluid mosaic model, proposed by Singer and
Nicolson in 1972, is the most widely accepted model for the structure of the cell membrane.
Reason (R) is also true. The model describes the membrane as a "fluid" because its
components, particularly the lipids, can move laterally. It's a "mosaic" because it's a
patchwork of different types of proteins embedded in the phospholipid bilayer..
Final Answer : (1)

138) Solution : Statement A is incorrect: Enzymes work in a narrow range of temperature

and pH. Statement C is incorrect: High temperature destroys enzymatic activity because
proteins are denatured by heat. Statement D is incorrect: The velocity of enzymatic reaction
rises with an increase in substrate concentration until it reaches Vmax.
Final Answer : (4)

139) Solution :
1. Correct: Centromeres split to allow chromatid separation.
2. Incorrect: Homologous chromosomes separate in Anaphase I of Meiosis, not mitosis.
3. Correct: Daughter chromatids move toward opposite poles.
4. Incorrect: Reformation of organelles happens in Telophase.
5. Incorrect: Decondensation (becoming chromatin again) happens in Telophase.
Final Answer : (2)

140) Explanation: Hardy-Weinberg principle assumes no evolutionary forces (no selection,

mutation, migration, genetic drift) and random mating to keep allele and genotype frequencies
stable across generations.
Final Answer : (3)

141) Explanation: Adaptive radiation fills empty niches (divergent); convergent produces
similar structures independently; Parallel evolution shows convergent of closely related
species common ancestry with modification; saltation proposes jumps via mutations, not
gradual change.
Final Answer : (3)

142) Solution: Population density may be measured by numbers, biomass by counting pug
marks of tiger. Relative density does not give absolute numbers.
Final Answer : (2)

143) Explanation: Population growth trend depends on age structure as explained in NCERT.
Final Answer : (1)

144) Solution : Only ~10% energy is transferred to the next trophic level; rest is lost as heat.
Final Answer : (3)
145) Explanation: Catabolism = enzymatic degradation of detritus, not humus conversion.
Final Answer : (3)

146) Solution : In in-situ conservation species are protected in their natural habitats and
biosphere reserves are example of in-situ conservation.
Final Answer : (1)

147) Solution : The Scapula is a triangular bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax. The
Humerus is the upper arm bone (forelimb). The Acetabulum is the cavity in the pelvic girdle
where the femur head articulates. The Patella is the knee cap (hindlimb).
Final Answer : (1)

148) Solution : In the sliding filament theory, the "sliding" of thin filaments (actin) toward the
H-zone reduces the distance between Z-lines (shortening the I-band/sarcomere), while the
thick filaments (A-band) remain constant in length.
Final Answer : (1)

149) Solution : During Ventricular Systole, the pressure rises, closing the AV valves (first
heart sound: Lubb) and opening the semilunar valves to eject blood into the arteries.
Final Answer : (2)

150) Solution : The Medulla contains centers for respiration, cardiovascular reflexes, and
gastric secretions. The Hypothalamus (not cerebellum) controls temperature and hunger. The
Cerebellum (not hypothalamus) controls posture.
Final Answer : (2)

151) Explanation: Gemmae are asexual reproductive structures found characteristically in

some liverworts such as Marchantia.
Final Answer : (4)

152) Explanation: Pinus (pine) is monoecious, meaning the same individual plant bears both
male (pollen) cones and female (seed) cones, typically on different branches, allowing for both
self-pollination and cross-pollination, which increases reproductive efficiency.
Final Answer : (2)

153) Explanation: Diatom cell walls are made of silica, which is hard and resistant to
destruction.
Final Answer : (3)

154) Solution : FSH acts on Sertoli cells of seminiferous tubules and initiates
spermatogenesis. LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone, which helps in
maturation but does not initiate the process
Final Answer : (3)
 155) Solution : The acrosome is a cap-like structure over the sperm head containing
enzymes like hyaluronidase and acrosin, which help the sperm penetrate the egg during
fertilization.
Final Answer : (4)

156) Solution : WHO defines reproductive health as a state of total physical, emotional,
behavioral, and social well-being in all matters related to the reproductive system.
Final Answer : (3)

157) Solution : Typhoid is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. Measles, AIDS, and
dengue are viral diseases.
Final Answer : (2)

158) Solution: Genotypic ratio is 1:2:1 and phenotypic ratio is 3:1.

Final Answer : (1)

159) Solution: Proven by Meselson–Stahl experiment.

Final Answer : (1)

160) Solution: DNA ligase joins fragments, it does not break bonds.
Final Answer : (3)

161) Solution: Typical pattern of X-linked recessive inheritance.

Final Answer : (3)

162) Concept : Chromosomal theory of inheritance.

Solution : Figure shows independent assortment of chromosomes.
Final Answer : (1)

163) Solution : a-3, b-4, c-5, d-2, e-1

Column I Column II

a. Calyx and Corolla 3. Accessory organs

b. Androecium and gynoecium 4. Reproductive

c. Calyx and Corolla are not distinct 5. Perianth

d. A flower having either only stamens or only carpels 2. Unisexual

e. When a flower has both androecium and gynoecium 1. Bisexual

Final Answer : (3)

164) Solution : Epigynous - Cucumber

Perigynous - Peach
Hypogynous - Brinjal
Final Answer : (3)

165) Solution : a-3-K, b-2-L, c-1-M

Final Answer : (3)

166) Solution : b-primary acceptor, a-reaction centre, d-pigment molecules, c-photon.

Final Answer : (3)

167) Solution : a-5, b-1, c-4, d-2

Final Answer : (3)

168) Solution : a-linear curve in arithmetic growth, b-sigmoid or S-curve in geometric

growth.
Final Answer : (2)

169) Solution : Aspergillus species are used in the fermentation process to produce soy sauce.
Final Answer : (3)

170) Solution : Transgenic animals are genetically modified to study human diseases and test
new treatments.
Final Answer : (2)

171) Solution : Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a bacterium used as a vector for transferring

genes into plants through its Ti plasmid.
Final Answer : (2)

172) Solution : In angiosperms, one male gamete fuses with egg (syngamy) forming the
zygote (embryo), while the other fuses with two polar nuclei (triple fusion) forming the primary
endosperm nucleus. Hence, both embryo and endosperm are formed.
Final Answer: (1)

173) Solution: Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Cleistogamous flowers show self-
pollination, not cross-pollination.
Final Answer : (1)

174) Explaining : Oviduct opens into cloaca.

Final Answer : (4)

175) Explaining : Phallomeres and mushroom gland are parts of male external genitalia or
reproductive system in cockroach. Collaterial glands are present in female cockroaches and
secrete material to form ootheca.
Final Answer : (2)
 176) Explaining :
× Matrix not always solid (blood = fluid)
✔ Blood = connective tissue
✔ Bone → Ca²⁺ salts
✔ Cartilage → avascular
Final Answer : (1)

177) Explaining : A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2

A. Flame cells 1. Excretion

B. Nephridia 4. Annelida

C. Malpighian tubules 3. Arthropoda

D. Flame cells present in 2. Platyhelminthes

Final Answer : (1)

178) Explaining :
✔ Cephalochordata → notochord persists
✔ Mammals → gill slits only embryonic
✔ Vertebrates → endoskeleton
✔ Heart is ventral in all chordates
Final Answer : (4)

179) Explaining : Conditional reabsorption of Na+ occurs in DCT. Vasa recta which maintain
counter current mechanism.
Final Answer : (1)

180) Explanation :
✔ PCT = major site of reabsorption
✔ Glucose → active transport
✔ H⁺ secreted
× It is permeable to water
Final Answer : (1)