29-01-2026

5001CMD303021250040 MD

PHYSICS

1) Each element in the finite chain of resistors shown in the figure is 1Ω. A current of 1 A flows
through the final element. Then what is the potential difference V across input terminals of the

chain.

(1) 12 volt
(2) 34 volt
(3) 1 volt
(4) 16 volt

2) Graph of force of impact 'F' vs time 't' for short duration of collision of two bodies is as shown.

Find coefficient of restitution for given graph.

(1) 0.56
(2) 1
(3) 0.64
(4) 0.26

3) The net electric field on two sides of a large charged nonconducting sheet kept in an external
electric field is shown in the figure. The charge density on the sheet in S.I. Units is given by (ε0 is the

Permittivity of free space in S.I. Units) :-

(1) 2ε0
(2) 4ε0
(3) 10ε0
(4) Zero

4) In a L-R circuit the stored energy in the inductor coil is 5 Joule and rate of heat generation is 10
Watt at a charge flow rate of one coulomb per second. The time constant of circuit is :

(1) 2 second
(2) 1 second
(3) 1.5 second
(4) Data insufficient

5) A large parallel plate capacitor, whose plates have an area of 1 m2 and are separated from each
other by 1mm , is being charged at a rate of 25 V/[Link] the dielectric between the plates has the
dielectric constant 10, then the displacement current at this instant is

(1) 25 μA
(2) 11 μA
(3) 2.2 μA
(4) 1.1 μA

6) A rod is fixed between two points at 20°C. The coefficient of linear expansion of material of rod is
1.1 × 10–5/°C and Young's modulus is 1.2 × 1011 N/m2. Find the stress developed in the rod if
temperature of rod becomes 10°C :

(1) 1.32 × 107 N/m2

(2) 1.10 × 1015 N/m2
(3) 1.32 × 108 N/m2
(4) 1.10 × 106 N/m2

7) A soap bubble of radius R is surrounded by another soap bubble of radius 2R, as shown. Take
surface tension = S. Then, the pressure inside the smaller soap bubble, in excess of the atmospheric

pressure, will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Assertion (A):- Angular momentum of a satellite remains conserved.

Reason (R):- Conservation of linear momentum leads to conservation of angular momentum.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

9) Three long wires, with identical currents, either directly into or directly out of the page, are
placed at three corners of a square in four different arrangements as shown. Correct order of the
magnitude of net magnetic field at the empty upper right corner of the square is :

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) BI = BIV > BII = BIII

(2) BI > BIV > BII = BIII
(3) BII = BIII > BI = BIV
(4) BI > BIII > BII > BIV

10) If there is no change in the volume of wire on stretching, then poisson's ratio for material of wire
is :-

(1) –1
(2) 0
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.25

11) A ball is thrown from the top of 36 m high tower with velocity 5 m/s at an angle 37° above the
horizontal as shown. Its horizontal range on the ground is closest to [ g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 12 m
(2) 18 m
(3) 24 m
(4) 30 m
12) The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot(A/2).
The angle of minimum deviation is :-

(1) 180° – 2A
(2) 90° – A
(3) 180° + 2A
(4) 180° – 3A

13) A road of width 20 m forms an arc of radius 15 m, its outer edge is 2 m higher than its inner
edge. For what speed the rod is banked?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

14) In the branch AB of a circuit, as shown in the figure, a current I = (t + 2) A is flowing, where t is
the time in second. At t = 0, the value of (VA – VB) write will be :-

(1) 3V
(2) –3V
(3) –5V
(4) 5V

15) In the given figure force on wire ABC will be (B = 2T) :

(1) 4(3+2π) N
(2) 20 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 40 N

16) A small body of mass m slides down from the top of a hemisphere of radius r. The surface of
block and hemisphere are frictionless. The height (h) at which the body loses contact with the

surface of the sphere is :- (hemisphere is fixed)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) If the maximum compression in the spring is 50 cm then find the value of K(g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

18) A long solenoid of radius 2 cm has 100 turns/cm and carries a current of 5A. A coil of radius 1
cm having 100 turns and a total resistance of 20 Ω is placed inside the solenoid coaxially. The coil is
connected to a galvanometer. If the current in the solenoid is reversed in direction, find the charge
flown through the galvanometer :-

(1) 2 × 10–4 C
(2) 4 × 10–4 C
(3) 6 × 10–4 C
(4) 8 × 10–4C

19) A plane glass plate is constructed by combining a plane-convex lens and a plane-concave lens of

different materials as shown in figure. Its focal length for paraxial rays is:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

20) Assertion(A) :- The flux crossing through a closed surface is independent of the location of
charge within the surface.
Reason(R) :- On displacement of charges within a closed surface, electric field at any point on the
surface does not change.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

21) For a P–N junction diode, its V – I characteristic are shown in figure, when a forward bias
voltage of 1.5 V is applied across it. The dynamic resistance of diode is given by :

(1) 20 Ω
(2) 30 Ω
(3) 40 Ω
(4) 50 Ω

22) In the reading shown in the figure, find the zero error

(1) 0.05 cm
(2) –0.05 cm
(3) 0.03 cm
(4) –0.03 cm

23) A non-viscous fluid of constant density of 1000kg/m3 flows in a stream line motion along a tube of

variable cross-section. The area of cross-section at positions P and Q are

2 2
40 cm and 20 cm respectively. If velocity of fluid at P is 3 m/s then find velocity of fluid at Q.

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

24) Two blocks of mass 8 kg and 5 kg are connected by a heavy rope of mass 3 kg. Complete system
is accelerated upwards by 10 m/s2 as shown in the figure. The tension at the point ‘P’ will be :-

(1) 80N
(2) 90N
(3) 160N
(4) 150N

25) Liquid reaches an equilibrium as shown, in a capillary tube of internal radius r. If the surface
tension of the liquid is T, the angle of contact θ and density of liquid ρ , then the pressure differnce

between P and Q is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) In convex lens of focal length F, the minimum distance between object and its real image :-

(1) 3 F
(2) 4 F
(3) Zero
(4) 2 F

27) In the Young's double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the
path difference is λ is K, (λ being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point where the
path difference is λ/4, will be :-

(1) K
(2) K/4
(3) K/2
(4) Zero

28) The earth is revolving around the sun in an elliptical orbit. If the ratio of speeds of earth

at B to the speed at A will be : A

(1) x
(2) x2
(3)
(4)

29)

With respect to PEE experiment match the Column-I with the Column-II

Column-I Column-II

If (frequency) is increased keeping I (intensity)

(i) (a) stopping potential increases
and (work function) constant

(ii) If I is increased keeping f and ϕ constant. (b) Saturation current increases

(iii) If the distance b/w anode and cathode increases (c) maximum K.E. of electron increases

(iv) If ϕ is decreased keeping f and I constant. (d) stopping potential remains the same
(1) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-d, (iv)-c
(2) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
(4) (i)-a, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-c

30) The frequency of the first overtone of a closed pipe of length l1 is equal to that of the first
overtone of an open pipe of length l2. The ratio of their lengths (l1: l2) is

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 4 : 5
(3) 3 : 5
(4) 3: 4

31) For series L-C-R circuit the plot of Imax versus o is shown in the figure. The bandwidth will be:
(1) 0.2 rad s-1
(2) 0.3 rad/sec
(3) 0.6 rad/sec
(4) 0.5 rad/sec

32) A nucleus of mass m at rest emits a photon of wavelength λ, find recoil energy of the nucleus :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) An electron of mass m with an initial velocity enters an electric field

(E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If λ0 is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie
wavelength at time t is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) λ0t
(4) λ0

34)

Find extension in the spring (at steady state) ?

(1) 5 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 5 m
(4) 10 m

35) The given circuit is equivalent to :

(1) OR
(2) NOR
(3) AND
(4) NAND

36) Three immisicible liquids of densities d1 > d2 >d3 and refractive indices µ1 > µ2 > µ3 are put in a
beaker. The height of each liquid column is h/3. A dot is made at the bottom of the beaker. For near
normal vision, find the apparent depth of the dot.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 30

cm. The image will form at :-

(1) 30 cm left
(2) Infinity
(3) 1 cm to the right
(4) 18 cm to the left

38) In a microscope the focal lengths of two lenses are 1.2 cm and 6.25 cm. If an object is placed at
2 cm and the final image is formed at 25 cm from eye lens. The distance between the two lenses is

(1) 6.00 cm
(2) 8.00 cm
(3) 7.75 cm
(4) 9.25 cm

39) The least coefficient of friction for an inclined plane inclined at an angle a with horizontal, in
order that a solid cylinder will roll down without slipping is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Current flowing through the zener diode shown in circuit is :-

(Given diode is ideal and Vz = 4V)

(1) 0.4 A
(2) 0.5 A
(3) 0.1 A
(4) 0.9 A

41) If the length of a pendulum is made 9 times and mass of the bob is made 4 times, then the value
of time period becomes :-

(1) 3T
(2) (3/2)T
(3) 4T
(4) 2T

42) A beaker contains 100 gm of water. The water equivalent of beaker is 10 gm. The initial
temperature of water in the beaker is 10oC. If 330 gm of hot water at 90oC is poured in it. The final
temperature neglecting radiation losses will be neared to :-

(1) 58oC
(2) 68oC
(3) 70oC
(4) 80oC

43) Two identical square rods of metal are welded end to end as shown in figure (1), 20 calories of
heat flows through it in 4 minutes. If the rods are welded as shown in figure (2), the same amount of

heat will flow through the rods in -

(1) 1 minute
(2) 2 minutes
(3) 4 minutes
(4) 16 minutes

44)

Consider a gas with density ρ and as the root mean square velocity of its molecules contained in a
volume. If the system moves as whole with velocity v, then the pressure exerted by the gas is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation PV2 =
constant. The heat capacity of the gas during this process is

(1) 2 R
(2) R/2

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

Interstitial compounds with transition metals cannot be formed by which non -metal?

(1) Boron
(2) Carbon
(3) Sulphur
(4) Hydrogen

2) Which of the following statements is incorrect when a mixture of NaCl and K2Cr2O7 is gently
warmed with conc. H2SO4 ?

(1) A deep red vapour is evolved

(2) The vapour when passed into NaOH solution gives a yellow solution of Na2CrO4
(3) Chlorine gas is evolved
(4) Chromyl chloride is formed

3) In the compound, CoCl3.5NH3

(1) All the Cl atoms show primary valency only.

(2) Two Cl atoms show primary valency and one Cl atom shows secondary valency.
Two Cl atoms show primary valency and one Cl atom shows primary valency as well as
(3)
secondary valency.
(4) All the Cl atom show secondary valency.

4) In which case recemic mixture is obtained on mixing its mirror images in 1 : 1 molar ratio?

+3
(1) [Cr(en)3]
(2) [Ni(DMG)2]
(3) cis-[Cu(Gly)2]
(4) In all case

5) Which electronic distribution have maximum number of unpaired electrons?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) K2[Hgl4] helps in the detection of

(1) Cu2+
(2) Pb2+
(3) Mg2+
+
(4) NH4

7) On heating a small lump of borax on a platinum loop, a glassy bead containing

(1) Na2B4O7 is formed

(2) NaBO2 and B2O3 is formed
(3) Na2O is formed
(4) Na2B is formed

8) Consider the following reaction : CuO(s) + H2(g) Cu(s) + H2O(g); K1 = 2 × 1015 H2(g) + 0.5
O2(g) H2O(g); K2 = 5 × 1022 The equilibrium constant for the reaction : CuO(s) Cu(s) + 0.5
O2(g) would be :

(1) 1 × 1038
(2) 4 × 10–8
(3) K1 + K2
(4) None

9) The resistance of 0.05M solution of H2C2O4 is 200 ohm and cell constant is 2.0 cm–1, the equivalent
conductance [Scm2eq–1] will be :-

(1) 100
(2) 10
(3) 1
(4) 200

10) What will be the pH of 1 × 10–4 M H2SO4 solution?

(1) 10.4
(2) 3.70
(3) 3
(4) 13

11) For 1 molal solution of each compound maximum freezing point will be assuming complete
ionisation in each case :-

(1) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3
(2) [Fe(H\O)5Cl] Cl2.H2O
(3) [Fe(H2O)4Cl2] Cl.2H2O
(4) [Fe(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O

12) Out of (A) Internal energy, (B) boiling point, (C) pH, (D) cell EMF, intensive properties are :-

(1) A, B
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, C, D
(4) All of these

13) Which reaction show correct product :

(1)

(2)
CH3–C≡N CH3–CH2–NH2

(3)

(4)

14) Consider the following statements:

(I) The radius of an anion is larger than that of the parent atom
(II) the IE increases left to right in a period
(III) The electronegativity of an element is the tendency of an isolated atom to attract an electron.
The correct statements are:

(1) I alone
(2) II alone
(3) I and II
(4) II and III

15) A : Tetracyanomethane;
B: Carbon dioxide;
C: Benzene;
D: 1,3 buta-diene
Ratio of σ-and π-bonds is in the order

(1) A = B < C < D

(2) A = B < D < C
(3) A = B = C = D
(4) C < D < A < B

16) Match the column I with II and mark the appropriate choice:

Column-I Column-II

Pentose
(A) (i) Ascorbic acid
sugar in DNA

(B) Nucleic acid (ii) Uracil

(C) RNA (iii) Genetic material

(D) Vitamin (iv) Furanose structure

(1) A–iv; B-iii; C–ii; D–i
(2) A–iii; B-ii; C–iv; D–i
(3) A–ii; B-iii; C–iv; D–i
(4) A–i; B-ii; C–iii; D–iv

17) Statement-I: Change of orange colour of K2Cr2O7/H+ solution to green is used as test for
drunken driver.
Statement-II: C2H5OH gets oxidized and colour of dichromate solution changes to green.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

18)

For the faseous reaction

Find the value of

(1) (RT) 1

(2) (RT)-1
(3) (RT)-2
(4) (RT)2

19)

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding degree of hydrolysis of a salt of strong acid
and weak base ?

(1) It is independent of dilution

(2) It increases with decrease in Kb of the base
(3) It increase with dilution
(4) It decreases with decreases in temperature

20) Mol fraction of vapours of A above solution in mixture of A and B where XA = 0.4, and
, ?

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.8
(3) 0.25
(4) 1.2

21)

Find the major product of given reaction :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) An organic compound has 4% sulphur, calculate value of its minimum molecular mass :-

(1) 200
(2) 32
(3) 800
(4) 300

23)

Combustion of glucose takes place according to the equation,

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O,
ΔH = –72 kCal
How much energy will be released by combustion of 160 g of glucose

(1) 0.064 kCal

(2) 0.64 kCal
(3) 6.4 kCal
(4) 64 kCal

24) Assertion (A) : ClO4– does not show disproportionation reaction.

Reason (R) : In ClO4–, chlorine is present in its highest oxidation state.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

25) Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of velocity of electron with z or
n

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The major product formed in the following reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)
Formation of carbocation (A)
Attack of proton (H+) (B)
Attack of nucleophile H2O (C)
Deprotonation (D)
Correct sequence of mechanism of catalysed hydration of Alkene is

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) B → A → D → C
(3) B → A → C → D
(4) A → B → D → C

28) Consider following reaction + CHCl3 Major product (a) Salicylic acid is major
product
(b) Dichloro carbene is electrophile
(c) Name of reaction is Reimer-tieman formylation reaction
Correct statement is/are :-

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, b

29) Match the column.

Column-I Column-II
(Reaction of Glucose) (Product)

(a) (p) Osazone

Glucose

(b) (q) n-Hexane

Glucose

(c) (r) Gluconic acid

Glucose

(d) (s) Saccharic acid

Glucose
(1) a – q, b – s, c – p, d - r
(2) a – q, b – p, c – r, d - s
(3) a – q, b – s, c – r, d - p
(4) a – q, b – r, c – s, d - p

30) In the given reaction (x) will be :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31) Assertion : p-Hydroxybenzoic acid has a lower boiling point than o-hydroxybenzoic acid.
Reason : o-Hydroxybenzoic acid has intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

32) In favour of benzaldehyde which of the following statement is incorrect-

(1) –CHO group of benzaldehyde is meta directing

(2) Benzaldehyde undergoes Claisen condensation
(3) Benzaldehyde on oxidation gives phenyl acetic acid
(4) Benzaldehyde on reduction gives benzyl alcohol

33) Consider following table–

Column-I
(A) Best and latest technique for isolation, purification and separation of organic compounds
(B) In lassaigne's test for ‘N’
(C) In Lassaigne's test for ‘S’
(D) Aniline is purified from water by
(E) Glycerol is purified from spent lye
Column-II
(i) Chromatography
(ii) Vacuum distillation
(iii) Violet coloured complex is formed
(iv) Prussian blue coloured complex is formed
(v) Steam disstillation
The correct match is–
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) (iv) (v) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii)
(4) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
34) Arrange the following compound in their stability order :-

(1) (2)

(3)

(1) 1 > 2 > 3

(2) 3 > 2 > 1
(3) 2 > 1 > 3
(4) 2 > 3 > 1

35) Identify the reaction which have identical number of carbon in reactant as well as product -

(1)
CH3–CH2–COOH
CH3–CH2–Cl
(2)

CH3CH2COONa
(3)

CH3–CH2–Cl
(4)

36) Which of the following have maximum dipole moment

(1) CH3F
(2) CH3Cl
(3) CH3Br
(4) CH3I

37) For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4g of an organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl method

and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 120 mL of sulphuric acid. the unreacted acid required

20 mL sodium hydroxide for complete. neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the

compound is ?

(1) 6 %
(2) 3 %
(3) 5 %
(4) 10 %

38) 2,4-Diethyl-3-methylpenta-2,4-dienoic acid is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)

Column –I (Electronic configuration) Column –II (Corresponding elements)

(A) [Xe] 4f14 5d2 6s2 (P) Inner-transition element
(B) [Xe] 4f 5d 6s 6p 7s
14 10 2 6 2
(q) Representative element
(C) [Rn] 5f 6d 7s
14 1 2
(r) d-block element
(D) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 (s) Transition element
(t) s-block element
(1) (A)-r,s; (B) -q,t; (C) -p; (D) -r
(2) (A)-p,r; (B) -p,q,r; (C) -p,s; (D) -t
(3) (A)-q,t; (B) -p; (C) -r; (D) -r,s
(4) (A)-t; (B) -p,r; (C) -p,s; (D) -p,q,r

40) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R),
Assertion (A): Li and Mg show diagonal relationship.
Reason (R): They have very close ionic and atomic radii, also, their polarizing powers are almost
same.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

41) In column I, the different types of molecules are given where A is central atom B is side atom ,
and E is lone pair of electrons.

Column –I (molecule type) Column –II (shape)

(A) AB4E (i) T-shape
(B) AB3E2 (ii) Square planar
(C) AB5E (iii) See saw
(D) AB4E2 (iv) Square pyramid
(1) (A)-iii, (B) -i, (C) -iv, (D) -ii
(2) (A)-i, (B) -iii, (C) -ii, (D) -iv
(3) (A)-iii, (B) -iv, (C) -i, (D) -ii
(4) (A)-ii, (B) -iv, (C) -i, (D) -iii

42) According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following is correct?

(1) LUMO level for C2 molecule is σ2px orbital.

(2) In C2 molecule, both the bonds are π bond.
(3) In C2 ion, there is one σ and two π bonds
2-

(4) All of the above are correct.

43) There is no S - S bond in

2-
(1) S2O8
-2
(2) S2O7
-2
(3) S2O3
(4) both (1) and (2)

44) Statement-I: The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increase in the
order
H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te.
Statement-II: The boiling pionts of these hydrides increases with increase in molar mass.

(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

45) Select the correct representation about no. of P —OH groups in oxyacid of phosphorus.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Diatoms are known for:

(1) Having a protein-rich pellicle

(2) Causing red tides
(3) Possessing silica cell walls
(4) Exhibiting mixotrophic behavior

2) What distinguishes compound leaves from simple leaves?

(1) Compound leaves have a single lamina, while simple leaves have multiple leaflets.
(2) Compound leaves have multiple leaflets, while simple leaves have a single lamina.
(3) Compound leaves lack a midrib, while simple leaves have a prominent midrib.
(4) Compound leaves have an axillary bud, while simple leaves do not.

3) What distinguishes the pith in dicot stems from monocot stems?

(1) Presence of large intercellular spaces

(2) Absence of sclerenchyma cells
(3) Presence of water-containing cavities
(4) Lack of parenchymatous cells

4) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R). Assertion (A) :
Assertion: Euglenoids shows flexibility which allowing them to change shape as they move.
Reason: Euglenoids have a protein-rich pellicle instead of a cell wall.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

5) In which type of flower does the margin of the thalamus grow upward, enclosing the ovary
completely and getting fused with it?
(1) Hypogynous
(2) Perigynous
(3) Epigynous
(4) None of the above

6)

Earth is an:

(1) Open system for energy and open system for minerals
(2) Closed system for minerals and open system for energy
(3) Closed system for energy and open system for minerals
(4) Closed system for energy and closed system for minerals

7) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Example) List-II (Fact)

Deletions and insertions of
(a) (i) known as point mutation.
base pairs of DNA
Deletions or gain (insertion/
Result in alteration in
(b) duplication) of a segment of (ii)
chromosomes.
DNA,
Change in a single base pair Results in the gain or loss
(c) (iii)
of DNA of a chromosome
Failure of segregation of
causes frame-shift
(d) chromatids during cell (iv)
mutations
division cycle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

8) What is the primary role of accessory pigments like chlorophyll b, xanthophylls, and carotenoids
in photosynthesis?

(1) Directly absorb light for ATP synthesis

(2) Protect chlorophyll a from photo-oxidation
(3) Transfer electrons to Photosystem I
(4) Convert NADP+ to NADPH

9) What paradoxical outcome does meiosis achieve despite reducing chromosome number?

(1) It increases genetic variability

(2) It decreases genetic variability
(3) It leads to identical offspring
(4) It stabilizes chromosome number across generations

10) Box ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively represents -

(1) A - Immigration B - Mortality

(2) A - Emigration B - Natality
(3) A - Immigration B - Emigration
(4) A - Immigration B - Migration

11) What is the final electron acceptor in the Z scheme of photosynthesis?

(1) NADPH
(2) Water
(3) ATP
(4) NADP+

12) The revelation of the interconnectedness of all living organisms influence …..?

(1) It sparked movements advocating for the exploitation of natural resources.

(2) It led to a resurgence in anthropocentric views of biology.
(3) It inspired cultural movements focused on the conservation of biodiversity.
(4) It resulted in the abandonment of taxonomical studies.

13) What does the term "glycolysis" refer to?

(1) Complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O

(2) Partial oxidation of glucose to pyruvic acid
(3) Conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid
(4) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl-CoA

14) Which character of species is not susceptible of extinction-

(1) Large body size

(2) Small population size
(3) Feeding at high trophic levels in food chain
(4) High reproductive rate

15) What is the chromosome count in an onion root tip cell after M phase?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 64

16) Which enzyme converts sucrose into glucose and fructose?

(1) Maltase
(2) Invertase
(3) Amylase
(4) Glucosidase

17) What percentage of the human genome codes for proteins?

(1) Less than 1%

(2) Approximately 2%
(3) About 10%
(4) More than 50%

18) What role do SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphisms) play in humans?

(1) They encode proteins.

(2) Their function is not yet fully understood.
(3) They participate in chromosome structure.
(4) They are linked to disease susceptibility and human ancestry.

19) What is the characteristic feature of the generative cell in a mature pollen grain?

(1) Large irregularly shaped nucleus

(2) Dense cytoplasm and spindle shape nucleus
(3) Abundant food reserves
(4) Spindle shape with dense cytoplasm

20) How does the number of xylem bundles in monocot roots compare to dicot roots?

(1) Monocot roots have fewer xylem bundles

(2) Monocot roots have more xylem bundles
(3) Both have the same number of xylem bundles
(4) Monocot roots lack xylem bundles

21) How does dioecy prevent both autogamy and geitonogamy ?

(1) By producing unisexual flowers
(2) By synchronizing pollen release and stigma receptivity
(3) By placing anther and stigma at different positions
(4) By having male and female flowers on different plants

22) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion: The morphology of the mycelium, mode of spore formation and fruiting bodies form the
basis for the division of the kingdom Fungi into various classes.
Reason: These characteristics reflect fundamental differences in the biology and life cycles of
different fungal groups.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

23) Which statement is incorrect regarding the structure of Nucleic acid ?

(a) The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is formed by sugar and phosphates.
(b) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional -OH group at the 2' position in the ribose with
comparison to deoxyribose.
(c) The two chains of DNA have anti-parallel polarity.
(d) Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with Thiamine from the opposite strand.

(1) (b) and (d) Only

(2) (d) Only
(3) (a), (b), (c) Only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) Only

24) Why are mature seeds crucial for agriculture?

(1) They prevent dehydration and dormancy.

(2) They allow for immediate germination.
(3) They can't be stored for long periods.
(4) They serve as a food source and for crop cultivation in the next season.

25) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I ( Chromosomal
List-II (Symptoms)
Disorders/Condition)
(a) Trisomy of 21 (i) Cleft lip, Cleft palate
an additional copy of X
(b) (ii) Gynaecomastia
chromosome
Short statured, furrowed
(c) 45 with X0 (iii) tongue and partially
open mouth.
 Sterile as ovaries are
(d) Patau syndrome (iv)
rudimentary
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

26) Which of the following contributions of Ramdeo Misra's notable to ecology ?

(1) Establishment of the Ministry of Environment and Forests

(2) Formulation of the first undergraduate course in ecology in India
(3) Research on plant genetics
(4) Study of tropical communities and their succession

27)
For the given population growth curve which statement is correct .

(1) Curve 'a' does not show saturation because rate of population growth is very low.
(2) 'K' is carrying capacity and is specific for a given population.
(3) Curve 'a' is obtained when responses are limiting.
(4) Curve 'b' is depicted by a population of small organisms.

28) What is the function of chromatophores in some prokaryotes like cyanobacteria?

(1) DNA replication

(2) Increasing cell wall formation
(3) Pigment containment
(4) Motility

29) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion: Lichens are symbiotic relationships between fungi and algae.
Reason: Fungi provide nutrients to the algae, while the algae provide photosynthetic products.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

30) Mendel’s Factors are

(1) Stable
(2) Discrete
(3) Not blendable
(4) All of these

31) Which statement accurately describes the structure of mitochondria?

(1) They are single-membrane bound organelles with a dense Matrix.

(2) Mitochondria possess a single circular DNA molecule, a few RNA molecules, and ribosomes.
(3) The outer membrane of mitochondria forms infoldings called cristae.
(4) Mitochondria primarily store carbohydrates and proteins.

32) Select the accurate statements about the reproductive strategies of algae, bryophytes,
pteridophytes, and gymnosperms.
(A) The red algae usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation. They reproduce asexually by
non-motile spores and sexually by non-motile gamete.
(B) Bryophytes reproduce sexually through the fusion of gametes produced by mitosis.
(C) Pteridophytes disperse seeds through fruits produced by the sporophyte generation.
(D) Gymnosperms produce seeds enclosed within fruits, facilitating dispersal by animals.

(1) A and B only

(2) B and D only
(3) A and D only
(4) A, B, and D only

33) Match the following types of species interactions with their respective examples:

List-I
List-II (Examples)
(Interactions)
Clownfish and sea
(a) Mutualism (i)
anemone
Tick feeding on a dog's
(b) Parasitism (ii)
blood
Fruit Eating Birds
(c) Commensalism (iii)
nesting in tree branches
Lions and hyenas
(d) Competition (iv)
competing for prey
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(2) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
(3) a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv
(4) a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv

34) What are the characteristic features of cells in the meristematic area/phase?

(1) Thick secondary cell walls

(2) Small nuclei with minimal protoplasm
(3) Thin primary cell walls with abundant plasmodesmatal connections
(4) Large vacuoles with scarce cytoplasm

35) Phenomenon that leads to variation in DNA is/are?

(1) Mutation Only

(2) Recombination only
(3) Recombination and Mutation
(4) Crossing Over Only

36) Study carefully the given floral diagram and select the option which represents the related floral

formula:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when :

(1) K = N
(2) K > N
(3) K < N
(4) The value of 'r' approaches zero

38) Which plant growth regulator is commonly used in tissue culture to promote shoot proliferation?

(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinins
(4) Abscisic acid
39) Properties of populations are not present in the ___"A"___ but arise as a result of interactions
among the ___"B"___ comprising the population. "A" and "B" are :-

(1) Organisms and ecosystems

(2) Biomes and organisms
(3) Organism and organisms
(4) Ecosystems and communities.

40) The Z scheme in photosynthesis derives its name from:

(1) Its zigzag pattern on a graph plotting redox potential against electron carriers.
(2) Its zero-energy state after the transfer of electrons.
(3) Its zone of high electron density within the chloroplast.
(4) Its zenithal position within the thylakoid membrane.

41) What is the main idea conveyed by the concept of dominance ?

(1) Dominance is a fixed attribute of genes and their products.

(2) Dominance is determined solely by environmental factors.
(3) Dominance can vary depending on the phenotype being observed or studied.
(4) Dominance is consistent across all genetic traits.

42) Which of the following is NOT a method to estimate population sizes indirectly?

(1) Counting individuals.

(2) Assessing per cent cover or biomass.
(3) Using relative densities.
(4) Utilizing pug marks and fecal pellets.

43) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : When the Microspore divide, pollen grain contains two unequal Size cells, the
Large vegetative cell and Small generative cell.
Reason (R) : Spindle is positioned asymmetrically in a dividing microspore cell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

44) Why is genetic variability important for the process of evolution?

(1) It reduces the chances of survival in a changing environment

(2) It ensures that all individuals in a population are genetically identical
(3) It provides the raw material for natural selection to act upon
(4) It decreases the rate of adaptation to new environments

45) Which microbes used as a biopesticide ?

(1) Streptococcus
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Pseudomonas putida
(4) Yeast

46) Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action:-

(1) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site.

Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
(2)
malonate.
A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the
(3)
substrate.
(4) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase.

47) If fat/cholesterol is deposited in the artery supplying the heart musculature it leads to :-

(1) Atherosclerosis
(2) Cardiac arrest
(3) Heart block
(4) Vericose vein

48) In scapula, just below the __A__, a cavity called __B__ is located, which articulate with head of
__C__.
Identify the A, B & C.

(1) A-Coracoid process, B-Acetabulum, C-Femur

(2) A-Coranoid process, B-Glenoid, C-Humerus
(3) A-Acromion process, B-Glenoid, C-Humerus
(4) A-Spinous process, B-Acetabulum, C-Tibia

49) Match the column I with column II :-

Column-I Column-II
(i) Arthritis (a) Between carpals
(ii) Osteoporosis (b) Inflammation of joints
(iii) Gout (c) Between atlas and axis
(iv) Pivot joint (d) Age related disorders
Accumulation of uric acid
(v) Gliding joint (e)
crystals in joints.
(1) i–b, ii–d, iii–e, iv–a, v–c
(2) i–d, ii–b, iii–e, iv–a, v–c
(3) i–d, ii–b, iii–c, iv–e, v–a
(4) i–b, ii–d, iii–e, iv–c, v–a
50) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum commonly called the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle
fibers is the store house of :

(1) Calcium ions

(2) Ferric ions
(3) Cupric ions
(4) Magnesium ions

51) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function ?

(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.

Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls
(2)
movement.
Hypothalamus : production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and
(3)
thirst.
(4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.

52) Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes?

(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

53)

Which of the following statements are correct

about "SAHELI"?
(A) Non steroidal pill
(B) Prevent implantation
(C) Developed by CDRI in Lucknow
(D) Daily oral pill with very few side effects

(1) A, C and D only

(2) B and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, B and C only

54) Which one of the following is an incorrect match regarding the labels of the figure ?
 Adrenal It secrete
(1) A
gland catecholamines

(2) B Pelvis Funnel shaped

Renal Fibrous capsule

(3) C
capsule of kidney

Common path
(4) D Urethra for gametes and
urine
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the evolution.

(1) Its a process as well as its result.

(2) Geological history on earth corelates with biological history on earth.
(3) Homology explains divergent evolution.
(4) Analogy indicates towards common ancestry.

56) When was prehistoric cave art developed ?

(1) 1,00,000-40,000 [Link]

(2) 75,000 [Link]
(3) 18,000 [Link]
(4) 15 mya

57) How many statements are correct about common cold?

(A) It is caused by rhino virus
(B) Alveoli of the lungs are filled with fluid
(C) Symptoms are nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache,
tiredness etc.
(D) It usually lasts for 3–7 days.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

58) From the following relationships between respiratory volume and capacities, mark the correct
option :-
(i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Residual volume (RV).
(ii) Vital capacity (VC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) + Expiratory reserve
volume (ERV)
(iii) Residual volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
(iv) Tidal volume (TV) = Inspiratory capacity (IC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

(1) (i) incorrect, (ii) incorrect, (iii) incorrect,(iv) correct

(2) (i) incorrect, (ii) correct, (iii) incorrect, (iv) correct
(3) (i) correct, (ii) correct, (iii) incorrect, (iv) correct
(4) (i) correct, (ii) incorrect, (iii) correct, (iv) incorrect

59)
Observe the following diagram and find out the correct option for (A) :-

(1) Androgen, FSH, LH

(2) Cortisol, Thyroxine, Androgen
(3) Oestrogen, Thyroxine, PTH
(4) Cortisol, ADH, Thyroxine

60) First time excretory organs were developed in

(1) Protozoa
(2) flatworms
(3) Annelids
(4) insects

61) Match the abnormal conditions given in column I with their explanation given in column II and
Choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

Accumulation of
(A) Glycosuria (i)
uric acid in joints

Renal Inflammation in
(B) (ii)
calculi glomerulus
 Mass of
Glomerular
(C) (iii) crystallised salts
nephritis
within the kidney

Presence of
(D) Gout (iv)
glucose in urine
(1) A - i B - iii C- ii D-iv
(2) A - iii B - ii C- iv D-i
(3) A - iv B - iii C- ii D-i
(4) A - iv B - ii C- iii D-i

62) The hormone secreted by kidney is :

(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) Erythropoietin
(4) Aldosterone

63) If a person is suffering from dehydration, which of the following will cause restoration of blood
volume and GFR ?

(1) Release of renin from JG cells

(2) Release of a powerful vasodilator Angiotensin-II
(3) Release of aldosterone directly triggered by Angiotensiongen
(4) Release of ADH from JG apparatus

64) Which of folllowing is an auto immune disease ?

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Tetany
(3) Gout
(4) Osteoporosis

65)

The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the vector pBR 322. Which one of the given
options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?
(1) Hind III, ECoRI-selectable markers
(2) ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
(3) ori-original restriction enzyme
(4) rop-reduces osmotic pressure

66) The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibres is due to :-

(1) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band

(2) The absence of actin filaments in the central portion of A-band
(3) The central gap between myosin filaments in the sarcomere
(4) The central gap between I-band extending through myosin filaments

67) Statement – 1 : H zone disappear during muscle contraction.

Statement – 2 : Actin shorten to cause muscle contraction.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement–1 is correct but statement–2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement–1 is incorrect but statement–2 is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

68) The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-
recombinant bacteria because of :

(1) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria

(2) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase
(3) Insertional activation of alpha-galactosidase in nonrecombinant bacteria
(4) Insertional inactivation of beta-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria

69) Assertion: The Ribs have two articulation surfaces on its ventral end
Reason: the ribs in humans are tricephalic

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
70) Which character is/are associated with locomotion ?
(A) All locomotion are movements
(B) All movements are not locomotions
(C) Methods of locomotion vary with animals habitats
(D) Locomotion is also for escape from predators

(1) A and B
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B, C and D

71) Which statement is false?

(1) Neurons are excitable cells because their membrane is in polarised state
(2) Myelinated nerve fibres are not found in spinal and cranial nerves
(3) Neurons can detect, receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli
(4) Unipolar neurons are usually found in embryonic stage

72)

Cerebral aqueduct is found in-

(1) Forebrain
(2) Midbrain
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Medulla

73) Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?

(1) Bacterial artificial chromosome

(2) Yeast artificial chromosome/ YAC
(3) Plasmid derived vector
(4) Cosmid

74) Pituitary gland of adult human is surgically removed. Which of the following endocrine glands
will be less effected :-

(1) Thyroid
(2) Gonads
(3) Adrenal cortex
(4) Adrenal medulla

75) Which of the following parts of sperm contains enzymes helpful in fertilization of ovum ?

(1) Middle piece

(2) Nucleus
(3) Acrosome
(4) Tail

76) Match the column–A and B about the embryonic development of human :-

Column-A Column-B

Most of the major

(i) End of one month (a)
organ systems developed

End of second Appearance of

(ii) (b)
month hair on the head

(iii) End of three month (c) Heart formation

(iv) During fifth month (d) Eye-lids separated

Limbs and digits

(v) End of sixth month (e)
formation
(1) (i) – e, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(2) (i) – e, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – b, (v) – d
(3) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(4) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – d

77)

The structure formed after release of ova from graafian follicles and secretory in nature, is

(1) Corpus callosum

(2) Corpus luteum
(3) Corpus albicans
(4) Corpus stratum

78) Sauropsids were derived from early reptiles. These sauropsids gave rise to :-

(1) Dinosaurs, Therapsids and Lizard

(2) Dinosaurs, Modern reptile and Bird
(3) Mammals, Turtle and Tortoise
(4) Pelycosaurus, Therapsid and Mammals

79)

The first cellular form of life appeared on earth before how many years:-

(1) 2000 million

(2) 3000 million
(3) 4000 million
(4) 200 billion

80) Find out the incorrect matching with regards to innate immunity :-
(1) Physical barriers = Skin, mucosa
(2) Cytokine barriers = Interferons
(3) Cellular barriers = PMNL neutrophils
(4) Physiological barriers = Epithelial lining of blood vessels

81) Which statement is false ?

(1) Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition

(2) Metastasis is the most feared property of benign tumours
Proto oncogenes when activated under certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic
(3)
transformation
Early detection of cancer is essential as it allows the disease to be treated successfully in many
(4)
cases

82) A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection ?

(1) ELISA
(2) MRI
(3) Ultra sound
(4) WIDAL

83) Suckers and Hooks is the adaptation related with

(1) parasitic mode

(2) Aerial mode
(3) Aquatic mode
(4) Free living mode

84) Spiny bodied animal belong to:

(1) Echinoderm
(2) Cnidaria
(3) Arthropods
(4) Molluscs

85) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Choanocytes A Roundworm

(ii) Bioluminescence B Sycon

(iii) Proboscis gland C Pleurobrachia

Well-developed
(iv) D Balanoglaussus
muscular pharynx
(1) (i)-A, (ii)-B, (iii)-C, (iv)-D
(2) (i)-D, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-C
(3) (i)-C, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-B
(4) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-D, (iv)-A

86) Which animal group do not show bilateral symmetry?

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Roundworms
(4) Adult echinoderms

87) The chitinous exoskeleton of arthhropods is formed by the polymerisation of :

(1) lipoglycans
(2) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
(3) D-glucosamine
(4) N-acetyl glucosamine

88)

Read the following statements :-

(a) Hormones are non nutrient chemicals which act as an intercellular messengers and are produced
in trace amounts. (b) The endocrine system alone co-ordinate and regulate the physiological
functions of the body.
(c) Hypothalamus forms the basal part of diencephalon.
(d) Somatostatin from hypothalamus inhibits release of growth hormone from pituitary. How many of
the above statements are true?
(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

89) How many statements are correct with respect to restriction endonuclease?
(i) Same restriction endonuclease to be used to cut both the passenger DNA and vector DNA
(ii) R.E. was discovered by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
(iii) Restriction endonuclease of class II is used in genetic engineering
(iv) It identifies and cuts DNA at palindromic sequence

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

90) Match the Column - I with Column -II.

 Column
Column - II
-I

(a) P-wave (i) Ventricular depolarisation

QRS Return of the venticles

(b) (ii)
complex from excited to normal state

Heart do not pump blood

(c) T-wave (iii) efficiently to full fill the
requirement of body

Heart
(d) (iv) Excitation of the atria
failure

(v) Repolarisation of atria

Select the correct option-
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)

(3) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 4 3 1 2 3 1 1 4 3 1 1 1 4 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 3 1 4 4 2 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 1 1 1 2 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 4 1 3 1 3 3 4 4 4 3 3 3 4 2 4 2 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 4 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 4 3 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 4 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 2 4 3 4 2 3 3 4 2 1 1 3 3 2 1 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 3 3 2 2 1 3 4 1 2 1 3 4 4 3 3 2 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 1 1 2 2 2 4 4 4 2 2 3 4 3 4 2 2 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 1 1 4 4 4 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

Question Explanation: We have to calculate coefficient of restitution.

Concept: Head–on inelastic collision and coefficient of restitution.

Solution:
Impulse = Area under F-t graph

Final Answer: Option (1)

3) E0 – E = 8
E0 + E = 12
∴ 2E = 4

σ = 4ε0

4) =5⇒ L=5×2
I R = 10 ⇒ R = 10 ⇒ τ = 1 sec.
2

5) iD = ε εr ϕE
0

0
= ε εr

= (CV)
 =

= × 25
i = 221.25 × 10–8 A

6) Thermal stress = = Yα Δt

7) P2 – P4 = .....(1)

P3 – P 2 = ........(2)
eq. (1) + eq.(2)

P3 – P 1 =

8)

When external torque on system is zero, then (Take = 0) angular momentum of system is
conserved, but when (fext = 0) then linear momentum is conserved.

9) Here it is obvious that

BI = BIV > BII = BIII

10) V = ℓ × π

dV = dℓ × + ℓ × 2D dD ×

⇒ dℓ × +ℓ × 2D dD = 0

⇒ = –2 . ⇒ σ= =+ = 0.5

11) – 36 = 3t – 5t2 ⇒ t = 3s
Range = 4 × 3 = 12 m
12) μ =
∵ μ = cot (A/2)

∴ cot (A/2) =

⇒ cos (A/2) = sin

⇒ 90° – A/2 =
⇒ δm = 180° – 2A

13) Condition for velocity on banked road

∵
∴

But (for small-angle)

14) VA –IR – L + 10 = VB ⇒ VA – VB= –3V

15) Force an AB = BIℓ = 12 N (upward)

Force on BC = 16N (left)

so force on ABC =

16)
By conservation of energy

mv2 = mg(r – h) .....(1)

as block leaves contact at B,
so normal reaction at B = 0

∴ = mg cos θ ⇒ = mg ×
⇒ mv2 = mgh substitute this in eqn (1) we get
 = mg(r – h)

or r= h ⇒ h= r

17) wfriction = ΔKE + ΔU

– μmg(ℓ + x) =

18)

Induced charge =

=
=

19)

20)

R is not true

21) Dynamic resistance

= = 50 Ω

22)

In the diagram, zero of the vernier scale lies to the right of zero of main scale. So it has
positive zero error.
N = 0, Third division of vernier scale is coinciding with the main scale division.
∴ zero error
= N + 3 × L.C = 0 + 3 × 0.01 cm
= 0.03 cm
So zero correction = –0.03 cm.
Z.E. = +0.03 cm
23)

APVP = AQVQ
40 × 3 = 20 × VQ
VQ = 6 m/s

24) TP = Mbelow × (g + a) = (3 + 5)(10 + 10) = 160N

25)
PQ – PP = hρg

26) distance between object & its real image is d then

27)
when Δx = λ I=k

when

28) V1r1 = V2r2

⇒ VA . (OA) = VB.(OB)

29)

eV0 = Kmax = hf – ϕ
when f ↑, V0 ↑ , Kmax ↑
If I↑, keeping F and ϕ constant current increases but v0 remain same.
if distance between anode and cathode increases, v0 remain same
If ϕ↓ , f and I constant. V0↑, Kmax↑

30)
31)

Conceptual

32)
COLM

O = +mv +

V=

KE = =

33)

34)

Conceptual

35)

36) App. depth =

37)
v = – 30 cm

38) Here, f0 = 1.2 cm, fe = 6.25 cm

u0 = –2 cm, ve = –25 cm

For objective

0
⇒ ⇒ v = 3 cm

For eyepiece

⇒
ue = –5 cm
Distance between two lenses = |v0| + |ue| = 3+5 = 8 cm

39)

µmin =

40)

iZ = Icell – IL = 0.5 – 0.4 = 0.1A

41)
Time period of pendulum is independent of mass of the bob. So, after increasing its length 9
times, its period will become T' = 3T.

42) Let the find temperature is T heat lost by hot water = heat-gain by container + water
330 × 1 (90–T) = 100 × 1 (T–10) + 10 × 1(T–10)

43)
For fig. (a) ;
Keq = HM of K1 & K2
Keq = K

for fig. (b) ;

(AM of K1 & K2)
∵ Q1 = Q 2
 ⇒
Given t1 = 4 min.
θ1 – θ2 = 100 ⇒ t2 = 1 min.

44)

vrms =

vrms = ...(i)

also from (i)

P=

45) PVx = constant (Polytrophic process)

Heat capacity in polytrophic process is given by

Given that PV2 = constant ⇒ x = 2 ...(1)

also gas is monoatomic so

...(2)
by formula

CHEMISTRY

48)

Conceptual

49)

Conceptual

50)

Conceptual

51)

Conceptual
52)

Conceptual

54)
= 10–2 ohm–1 cm–1

55)

Conceptual

56)

Conceptual

57)

Conceptual

58)

Diazotisation reaction

59)

Conceptual

60)

conceptual

61)

Conceptual

63)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 202

64)
 67)

Conceptual

71)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking about the product of given reaction of ether with HI
Concept:-
This question is based on reaction of ether with HI
Solution :-

Final Answer :- (1)

72) NCERT-12th, Page No. 329

74)

Explain Question: Match the column.

Concept: Reaction of Glucose.

Solution:

Column-I Column-II
(Reaction of Glucose) (Product)

(a) (d) n-Hexane

(b) (r) Gluconic acid

(c) (s) Saccharic acid

(d) (p) Osazone

Final answer: option (4)

75)

77) Question Explanation:Identifying incorrect statement for benzaldehyde.

Concept:Properties of Benzaldehyde.
Solution:

Benzoic acid not phenylacetic acid

The oxidation of benzaldehyde (C6​H5​CHO) results in the addition of an oxygen atom to the
aldehyde group, forming a carboxylic acid. The product is benzoic acid (C6​H5​COOH), not
phenylacetic acid. Therefore, the statement is incorrect.
All other statements are correct properties of benzaldehyde.

Final Answer:Option(3)
Benzaldehyde on oxidation gives phenyl acetic acid.

78)

Fact.

79)

Conceptual

80) NCERT XI Pg. # 378, 379

81) NCERT XII / Part II / Pg.# 286

82)

initial H2SO4 =

H2SO4 remaning = 6mm – 1mm = 5mm

mole N = 10×10–3 mole

wt of N = 10 × 10–3 × 14

% of N =

84)

Conceptual

86)

Conceptual

87)
 Conceptual

88)

Conceptual

90)

Conceptual

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT 11th Class

92) NCERT-11th MORPHO

93) Presence of large intercellular spaces NCERT-11th Class

94) NCERT 11th Class

95) NCERT 11th Class : Morphology

96) NCERT 11th Class : Morphology

97) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 24 & (SRFP)

98) NCERT-11th Class -Photosynthesis

99) NCERT-11th class - 10.5 SIGNIFICANCE OF MEIOSIS

100)

NCERT BASED

101) NCERT-11th -photosynthesis

102) NCERT 11th

103)
NCERT BASED

104) NCERT Class -12th MHW

105) NCERT 11th Class : cell cycle Box info.

106) NCERT 11th Class : Cellular Respiration

107) NCERT-12TH

108) NCERT-12TH

109) NCERT 12th Class

110) NCERT 11th Class

111) NCERT 12th Class

112) NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 23

113) NCERT 12th Class

114) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-2)

115) NCERT 12th Class (Genetics) Different Pages

116) NCERT 12th Class

117)

NCERT BASED

118) NCERT cell structure

119) NCERT 12th Class : 4.5 PLEIOTROPY & 4.8.2 Mendelian Disorders

120) NCERT 12th Class : 4.3.2 Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance

121) NCERT 11th Class : Cell Organelle

122) A and B only

123) NCERT 12th Class :

124) NCERT 11th Class :

125) NCERT 12th Class : 4.7 MUTATION

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 79

127)

In a logistic growth curve, population growth slows down as it approaches the carrying
capacity (K) of the environment. When N (population size) = K, the population reaches
equilibrium, and growth stops, forming an asymptote in the curve.

128) NCERT 11th Class +12th Class

129)

NCERT BASED

130) NCERT-11th Photosynthesis

131) NCERT 12th

132) NCERT 12th Class

133) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 23 : Part : 2.2.1 Stamen, Microsporangium and
Pollen Grain : Diagram : When a spindle is positioned asymmetrically in a dividing cell, the
resulting daughter cells are unequal in size

134) NCERT NCERT-11th class - 10.5 SIGNIFICANCE OF MEIOSIS

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 187

136)

NCERT BASED
137)

NCERT BASED

138) NCERT XIth Pg # 311

140)

NCERT BASED

141)

NCERT BASED

142)

NCERT BASED

143) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 54

145) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 131

150)

NCERT BASED

152)

NCERT BASED

153)

NCERT BASED

154) NCERT XIth Pg # 312

156)

NCERT BASED

158)

NCERT BASED
 159)

NCERT BASED

160)

Question Explanation :
The question is asking you to identify the correct statements about locomotion.

Concept :
Locomotion and Movement.

Solution:

(A) All locomotion are movements: This is correct because locomotion involves movement
from one place to another.

(B) All movements are not locomotions: This is correct as not all movements result in a
change of location (e.g., blinking).

(C) Methods of locomotion vary with animals' habitats: This is correct since different animals
adapt their locomotion methods based on their environment (e.g., swimming, flying, walking).

(D) Locomotion is also for escape from predators: This is correct as locomotion often serves
survival purposes, such as escaping threats.

Hence,
Option (4) is correct : A, B, C and D

161)

NCERT BASED

162)

NCERT BASED

163)

NCERT BASED

164) Adrenal medulla is not directly controlled by anterior pituitary while rest of three gland
i.e. thyroid, gonads, adrenal cortex are controlled by anterior pituitary.

165)

NCERT BASED
166) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 46

167)

NCERT BASED

169)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 111

170)

NCERT Pg. # 150 (E)

171) NCERT (XII) Pg. #157

173)

NCERT BASED

174)

NCERT BASED

175) NCERT Pg. # 49-52 (E/H)

177)

NCERT BASED

178)

NCERT BASED

179)

NCERT BASED

180)

NCERT XI Pg # 286