25-01-2026

5001CMD303021250039 MD

PHYSICS

1) In an LR circuit, the inductive reactance is equal to the resistance R of the circuit. An e.m.f. E =
E0 cos(ωt) applied to the circuit. The power consumed in the circuit is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) By a cell a current of 0.9 A flows through 2 ohm resistor and 0.3 A through 7 ohm resistor. The
internal resistance of the cell is :-

(1) 0.5 Ω
(2) 1.0 Ω
(3) 1.2 Ω
(4) 2.0 Ω

3) A body falls on the ground from a height of 10m and rebounds to a height of 2.5 m. Coefficient of
restitution is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.75
(4) 1

4) A capacitor of capacitance 5 μF is connected as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the

cell is 0.5Ω. The amount of charge on the capacitor plate is :

(1) 20 μC
(2) 5 μC
(3) 10 μC
(4) 25 μC

5) An electric dipole is placed in a non uniform electric field, then it experiences :–

(1) a force which must be zero
(2) a torque which must be non zero
(3) a force which must be non zero
(4) both a force and a torque which may be non zero

6) A small particle is placed on top of a fixed hemisphere. Particle is projected with a speed
. What is the radius of curvature of the path of the particle at the given instant

(1) 2R
(2) R

(3)

(4) 4R

7) Eight point charges having magnitude q are fixed at vertices of a cube. The electric flux through

square surface ABCD of the cube is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A wire is sliding on two parallel conducting rails placed at a

separation of 1m as shown in figure. Magnetic field 2T exists in a direction perpendicular to rails.
What force is necessary to keep the wire moving with a constant velocity of 1 cm/sec?

(1) 0.08 × 10–3 N

(2) 8 × 10–6 N
(3) 4 × 10–6 N
(4) 8 × 10–4 N

9) A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200V and 3kW power supply. If the current
in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil
respectively are :-

(1) 300 V, 15A

(2) 450 V, 15A
(3) 450V, 13.5A
(4) 600V, 15A

10) Electromagnetic wave of intensity 1400 W/m2 falls on metal surface on area 1.5 m2 is completely
absorbed by it. Find out force exerted by beam :-

(1) 14 × 10–5 N
(2) 14 × 10–6 N
(3) 7 × 10–5 N
(4) 7 × 10–6 N

11) In a resonance tube experiment two consecutive resonances are observed when the length of the
air columns are 16 cm and 49 cm. If the frequency of the tuning fork used is 500 Hz, the velocity of
sound in air is :

(1) 310 ms–1

(2) 320 ms–1
(3) 330 ms–1
(4) 340 ms–1

12) Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a distance of 1mm on its main scale.
The total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge
has a zero error of –0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main
scale reading of 3mm and the number of circular scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35.
The diameter of the wire is :-

(1) 3.32 mm
(2) 3.73 mm
(3) 3.67 mm
(4) 3.38 mm

13) Figure shows graph of deviation (δ) versus angle of incidence (i) for a light ray striking a prism.

Angle of prism is :-
(1) 30º
(2) 45º
(3) 60º
(4) 75º

14) A capillary tube of radius r is lowered into a liquid of surface tension T and density ρ. The angle
of contact between the solid and the free surface of liquid is θ = 0o. The work done by surface
tension during the process in which liquid rises in capillary is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Different semiconductor devices work in specific biasing. Match column I and column
II accordingly.

Column-I (Biasing) Column-II (Semiconductor device)

(a) Forward biasing (i) Photodiode
(b) Reverse biasing (ii) Solar cell
(c) No biasing (iii) LED
(iv) Zener diode
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
(1) (a) → (i), (iii); (b) → (iv); (c) → (ii)
(2) (a) → (ii); (b) → (i), (iv); (c) → (iii)
(3) (a) → (iii); (b) → (i), (iv); (c) → (ii)
(4) (a) → (i); (b) → (i), (iv); (c) → (iii)

16) The length of wire, when M1 is hung from it, is l1 and is l2 with both M1 and M2 hanging. The

natural length of wire is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

17) Which of the following quantities does not depend upon the orbital radius of the satellite?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18)

Energy required to move a satellite of mass m from an orbit of radius 4R to 6R is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

19) Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R.
Assertion A :Two identical balls A and B thrown with same velocity ‘u’ at two different angles with
horizontal attained the same range R. If A and B reached the maximum height h1 and h2 respectively,
then

Reason R: Product of said heights is -

Choose the CORRECT answer :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

20) On a rainy day, a person moving horizontally with speed 20 m/s observes that rain is falling
vertically over his head. He stops on the road and observes that actually rain is falling at an angle
30º with vertical. Find the speed of rain w.r.t. ground :-

(1) 40 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 50 m/s
(4) 70 m/s

21) A long hollow cylindrical wire carries a current I, having inner and outer radii 'R' and 2R
respectively. Magnetic field at a point which 3R/2 distance away from its axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Material) (Susceptibility (x))

(A) Diamagnetic (I)

xα

(B) Ferromagnetic (II) x α Tº

(C) Paramagnetic (III)

xα

(D) Non-Magnetic (IV) x=0

Choose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) (A–I), (B–IV), (C–IV), (D–II)
(2) (A–II), (B–III), (C–I), (D–IV)
(3) (A–III), (B–I), (C–IV), (D–II)
(4) (A–IV), (B–II), (C–I), (D–III)

23) Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y
and Z are four nuclei indicated on the [Link] process that would release energy is

(1) Y→2Z
(2) W→X+Z
(3) W→2Y
(4) X→Y+Z

24) Graph is plotted between photo current (I) and applied voltage (V). Then maximum kinetic
energy of emitted electron will be :-

(1) 2 eV
(2) 4 eV
(3) 0 eV
(4) 1 eV

25) Find the force of friction acting on block B. (Take g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 36 N
(2) 60 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 600 N

26) If focal lengths of objective lens and eye piece are 6 cm and 12.5 cm respectively. An object is
placed at a distance of 9cm from objective lens. Then if final image forms at a distance of 25 cm from
eye piece then magnifying power of microscope will be :-

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 10
(4) 5

27) A mass 'm' is supported by a massless string wound around a uniform hollow cylinder of mass m
and radius R. If the string does not slip on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the mass fall on
release ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) g

28) Two coaxial discs, having moments of inertia I1 an are rotating with respective angular

velocities 1 and , about their common axis. They are brought in contact with each other and
thereafter they rotate with a common angular velocity. then loss in energy due to friction between
the discs is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) The boolen equation for the circuit given :-

(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)

30) A 2V battery is connected across AB as shown in the figure. The value of the current supplied by
the battery when in the first case battery’s positive terminal is connected to A and in second case
when positive terminal of battery is connected to B will respectively be :
(1) 0.2 A and 0.1 A
(2) 0.1 A and 0.2 A
(3) 0.2 A and 0.4 A
(4) 0.4 A and 0.2 A

31) The time period of a simple pendulum is T. The relative density of bob is σ. The whole of the
pendulum is immersed in water and allowed to oscillate. Assuming there are no viscous forces, the
new time period of pendulum will be :–

(1) T(σ – 1)

(2)

(3) T/(σ – 1)

(4)

32) An ideal gas undergoes a process in which its pressure (P) and volume (V) obey PxV = constant.
Bulk modulus of the gas in the process is :-

(1) Px

(2)

(3) xP
(4)

33) Two containers of same volume are filled with atomic Hydrogen and Helium respectively at 1
and 2 atm pressure. If the temperature of both specimen are same then average speed for
hydrogen atoms will be -

(1) =

(2) =

(3) =2

(4)
=

34) Force acting on a particle is 2N. If unit of length and time are doubled and unit of mass is
halved, then the numerical value of the force in new system will be :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

35) Which of the following forces is not conservative?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) A sonometer string produce 6 beat/sec with a tunning fork whether the length of sonometer
string is 95 cm or 100 cm. Frequency of the tunning fork is :-

(1) 262 Hz
(2) 256 Hz
(3) 260 Hz
(4) 234 Hz

37) Temperatures of two stars are in ratio 3 : 2. If wavelength of maximum radiation from first body
is 4000 Å, what is corresponding wavelength of second body ?

(1) 9000 Å
(2) 6000 Å
(3) 2000 Å
(4) 8000 Å

38) A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000Å is incident normally on a single
narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused by convex lens on screen, placed on its focal
plane. The first minima will be formed for the angle of diffraction of ________ (degree).

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

39) A galvanometer of resistance, G, is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in
the circuit unchanged the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

40) Assertion (A) : In Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is directly proportional to
wavelength of the source used.
Reason (R) : When a thin transparent sheet is placed in front of both the slits of Young's double
slits experiments, the fringe width will increase.

(1) Both Assertion and reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

41) Two particles move in a uniform gravitational field with an acceleration g. At the initial moment
the particles were located at one point and move with velocities v1 = 3.0 m/s and v2 = 4.0 m/s
horizontally in opposite direction. Find the distance between the particles at the moment when their
velocity vectors become mutually perpendicular.

(1) 5 m
(2) m

(3)
m

(4)
m

42) If kinetic energy of an electron increases by 44%. Find percentage change in its de Broglie
wavelength.

(1) decreases by 16.6%

(2) increases by 25%
(3) decreases by 54%
(4) None of these

43) Nucleus A is converted into C through the following reactions :-

A→B+α
B → C + 2β
then

(1) A and B are isotopes

(2) A and C are isobars
(3) A and B are isobars
(4) A and C are isotopes

44) A glass sphere of radius R = 10 cm is kept inside water. A point object O is placed at 20 cm from
A as shown in Fig. Find the position and nature of the image when seen from other side of the
sphere. Given µg = 3/2 and µw = 4/3.

(1) 200 cm, virtual

(2) 100 cm, real
(3) 100 cm, virtual
(4) 300 cm, virtual

45) Given : width of aperture d = 3 mm and λ = 500 nm. For what distance ray optics is a good
approximation?

(1) 18 m
(2) 18 nm
(3) 18 Å
(4) 18 light years

CHEMISTRY

1) A
The final product A is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) In the following sequence of reaction :

the compound D is

(1) Butanal
(2) n-butyl alcohol
(3) n-propyl alcohol
(4) propanal

3) Correct order of reactivity toward electrophilic substitution reaction is :-

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) IV > I > II > III

(2) II > IV > III > I
(3) III > II > I > IV
(4) IV > II > I > III

4)
T is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) Match the column-I with column-II and mark the correct option

Column-I Column-II

(A) (i) CH3NH2

(B) (ii)

(C) (iii) CH3NHCH3

(D) (iv) CH3NC

(1) (A)→(i) (B)→(ii) (C)→(iii) (D)→(iv)
(2) (A)→(ii) (B)→(iii) (C)→(iv) (D)→(i)
(3) (A)→(iv) (B)→(i) (C)→(ii) (D)→(iii)
(4) (A)→(iii) (B)→(iv) (C)→(i) (D)→(ii)

6) The R/S configuration of these compounds are respectively :-

(1) R, R
(2) R, S
(3) S, R
(4) S, S

7) Among these acids which of the following order is correct for ease
of esterification with MeOH:-

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) I > III > II

8) Suppose the following reaction.

The dominant component of product will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9)
The above reaction completes with the mechanism :-

(1) Nucleoplilic substitution followed by elimination mechanism

(2) Electrophilic addition followed by elimination mechanism
(3) Electrophilic substitution followed by elimination mechanism
(4) Nucleophilic addition followed by elimination mechanism

10) Assertion:– Wurtz reaction is not preferred for the preparation of alkanes containing odd number
of carbon atoms.
Reason:– It is not possible to prepare alkanes with odd number of carbon atoms through wurtz
reaction.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

11) Arrange the following carbocations in their correct order of stability :-

(1) II > III > I > IV
(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) III > I > II > IV

12) The correct IUPAC name of compound

(1) 2-[2'-Bromophenyl] pentanoic acid

(2) 2-Bromo benzene pentanoic acid
(3) 1-Bromo phenyl-1-carboxy butane
(4) 1-Bromo-1-carboxy butane benzene

13) The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc HNO3 while testing for the halogens. By doing so it :-

(1) decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed

(2) helps in the precipitation of AgCl
(3) increases the solubility product of AgCl
–
(4) increases the concentration of NO3 ions

14) In the reaction sequence

,
y will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

15) Match the column :-

Colum-I Column-II

(I) Water soluble vitamins (P) A, D, E and K

(II) Water insoluble vitamins (Q) B-group and C

Vitamins which act as

(III) (R) C, D and E
antioxidants

Increased blood clotting

(IV) (S) K
time
(1) (I) → (Q), (II) → (P), (III) → (R), (IV) → (S)
(2) (I) → (P), (II) → (Q), (III) → (R), (IV) → (S)
(3) (I) → (R), (II) → (Q), (III) → (P), (IV) → (S)
(4) (I) → (S), (II) → (R), (III) → (Q), (IV) → (P)

16) Uncertainty in the position of an electron moving with a velocity 300 m/s, accurate upto 0.001 %
will be-

(1) 19.2 × 10–2 m

(2) 5.76 × 10–2 m
(3) 1.93 × 10–2 m
(4) 3.84 × 10–2 m

17) In two different experiments equilibrium A(g) B(g) is established by initially taking reactant
only. In first experiment, reaction is carried out in absence of catalyst and in second experiment,
reaction is carried out in presence of catalyst then which of the following curve of rate v/s time for
forward and backward reaction hold true in these two experiments

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

0
18) If = 1.386 and A = 1M then the ratio of is where I, 0 represents I and zero order
reactions respectively :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) .693 : 1

19) In a first order reaction the reacting substance has half-life period of ten minutes. What fraction
of the substances will be left after an hour the reaction has occurred ?

(1) 1/6 of initial concentration

(2) 1/64 of initial concentration
(3) 1/12 of initial concentration
(4) 1/32 of initial concentration

20) The thermodynamic efficiency of fuel cell is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

21)

For cell
Pt1 H2(g) | H+ || H+ | Pt H2(g)
P1 C1 C2 P2

For spontaneous Process condition should be If P1 = P2 = 1 atm ?

(1) C1 > C2
(2) C1 = C2
(3) C2 > C1
(4) Can't predict

22) The solubility of salts of weak acids :

(1) Increases at lower pH

(2) Increases at higher pH
(3) Is maximum at neutral pH
(4) Doesn't depend on pH

23)

Ionisation constant of NH4OH is 10–5 then equilibrium constant of following reaction will be :-
NH4Cl + H2O NH4OH + HCl

(1) 10–5
(2) 10–7
(3) 10–4
(4) 10–9

24) Consider the following statements:

(I) Diffusion is defined as the net movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an
area of higher concentration.
(II) Osmosis is the net passage of water from a region of higher concentration of solution through a
semi permeable membrane to a region of low concentration of solution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct -

(1) (I) only

(2) (II) only
(3) Both (I) and (II)
(4) Neither (I) nor (II)

25) Consider the following statements.

(A) Components of Azeotropic binary mixture can not be seperated by fractional distillation.
(B) Ethanol-water azeotropic mixture contains approximately 95% by volume of ethanol.
(C) A solution containing components A and B follows Raoult's law if A-B attraction force remain
same as A-A and B-B attraction forces.
The correct statements are :-

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) A, B and C
(4) A and C only

26) 44 g of a sample on complete cumbustion gives 88 g CO2 and 36 g of H2O. The molecular formula
of the compound may be :-
(1) C4H6
(2) C2H6O
(3) C2H4O
(4) C3H6O

27) Atomic weight of elements A and B are 30 and 60 respectively. If there are 'y' atoms in the x gm
of A. How many atoms would be there in 2x gm of element B :-

(1) y
(2) 2y
(3) 0.5y
(4) 1.5y

28) How many moles of H2SO3 is required to reduce one mol of KMnO4 in acidic medium :-

(1) 1.5 mol

(2) 3 mol
(3) 2.5 mol
(4) 1 mol

29) The ΔH for the complete combustion of hydrogen, benzene (C6H6) and cyclohexane (C6H12) are
–57.9, –757.5 and –881.7 kcal/mol, respectively. Use the additivity of reactions and heat method to
calculate the ΔH for the reaction:
3H2 + C6H6 → C6H12

(1) –1,812.6 kcal

(2) –49.5 kcal
(3) 66.4 kcal
(4) 182.0 kcal

30) Assertion (A) : The difference between ΔH and ΔE is not significant for systems consisting of
only solids or liquids.
Reason (R) : Solids and liquids do not suffer any significant volume changes upon heating.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

31) Statement-I :- In presence of NO2– test of NO3– can be done.

Statement-II :- Brown colour of Br2 and NO2 can be distinguish By using aqueous solution Because
Br2 impart Brown colour in aqueous solution but NO2 does not.

(1) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True

(2) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is False
(3) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is False
(4) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is True

32) Acidic solution of a salt produced deep blue colour with starch and KI. The salt is :

(1) Chloride
(2) Nitrite
(3) Acetate
(4) Bromide

33) Oxide of metal cation which is not amphoteric ?

(1) Al3+
(2) Cr3+
(3) Fe3+
(4) Zn2+

34) Correct increasing order of number of π bonds in the following is:-

I. H2S2O7 II. H2SO3 III. H2SO4

(1) I, II, III

(2) II, III, I
(3) II, I, III
(4) I, III, II

35) The correct order of bond enthalpy (kJ mol-1) is :

(1) Si—Si>C—-C>Sn— Sn>Ge — Ge

(2) Si—Si > C— C > Ge—Ge > Sn—Sn
(3) C—C > Si—Si > Sn— Sn > Ge — Ge
(4) C—C > Si—Si > Ge—Ge > Sn— Sn

36) Which of the following species are Iso electronic and have same bond order?

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only
(3) a,b,c,d
(4) c and d only

37) In SO2, , and , the hybridizations at the central atom are respectively :

(1) sp2, sp2 and sp

(2) sp2, sp and sp
(3) sp2, sp2 and sp2
(4) sp, sp2 and sp

38) The correct statements from the following are :

(A) Tl3+ is a powerful oxidising agent
(B) Al3+ does not get reduced easily
(C) Both Al3+ and Tl3+ are very stable in solution
(D) Tl+ is more stable than Tl3+
(E) Al3+ and Tl+ are highly stable
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

(2) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only
(3) (B), (D) and (E) only
(4) (A), (C) and (D) only

39) Four successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For which

one of them the standard E. potential has a positive sign ?

(1) Fe (Z =26)
(2) Co (Z = 27)
(3) Ni (Z = 28)
(4) Cu (Z = 29)

40) The incorrect relationship in the following pairs in relation to ionisation enthalpies is:

(1) Mn+ < Cr+

(2) Mn+ < Mn2+
(3) Fe2+ < Fe3+
(4) Mn2+ < Fe2+

41) The correct order of [FeF6]3- , [CoF6]3-, [Ni(CO)4,] and [Ni(CN)4]2- complex species based on
the number of unpaired electrons present is :

3- 3- 2-
(1) [FeF6] > [CoF6] > [Ni(CN)4] > [Ni(CO)4]
2- 3- 3-
(2) [Ni(CN)4] > [FeF6] > [CoF6] > [Ni(CO)4]
3- 3- 2-
(3) [CoF6] > [FeF6] > [Ni(CO)4] > [Ni(CN)4]
3- 3- 2-
(4) [FeF6] > [CoF6] > [Ni(CN)4] = [Ni(CO)4]

42) Statement - I : A homoleptic octahedral complex, formed using monodentate ligands, will not
show stereoisomerism.
Statement - II : cis - and trans - platin are heteroleptic complexes of Pd.

(1) Both statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

43) The correct decreasing order of spin only magnetic moment values (BM) of Cu+, Cu2+, Cr2+ and
Cr3+ ions is:

(1) Cu+ > Cu2+ > Cr3+ > Cr2+

(2) Cu2+ > Cu+ > Cr2+ > Cr3+
(3) Cr2+ > Cr3+ > Cu2+ > Cu+
(4) Cr3+ > Cr2+ > Cu+ > Cu2+

44) Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

List -I List -II

(Complex/Species)) (Shape & magnetic moement )

A [Ni(CO)4] I. Tetrahedral, 2.8 BM

2-
B Ni(CN)4] II. Square planar, 0 BM
2-
C [NiCl4] III. Tetrahedral 0 BM
2-
C [MnBr4] IV. Tetrahedral 5.9 BM

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

45) Statement I : H2Se is more acidic than H2Te.

Statement II : H2Se has higher bond enthalpy for dissociation than H2Te.

(1) Both statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

BIOLOGY

1) Consider the given statements and select the correct option-

Statement-A: In case of carbon monoxide poisoning, oxygen hemoglobin curve shifts to the left
side.
Statement-B: Carboxyhemoglobin is relatively stable and cannot bind with oxygen.

(1) Both statement A and statement B are incorrect

(2) Statement A is correct and statement B is incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct
(4) Both statement A and statement B are correct

2) Frogs differ from mammals in all of the given aspects, except-

(1) Exhibiting positive pressure breathing

(2) Showing branchial respiration in larval forms
(3) Elastic recoil of the lungs during exhalation
(4) Exhibiting cutaneous respiration during aestivation.

3)

One molecule of hemoglobin can binds how many atoms of oxygen-

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 8

4) In humans, under normal physiological condition, the duration between heart sound having high
pitch and heart sound having low pitch is-

(1) 0.3 sec

(2) 0.4 sec
(3) 0.5 sec
(4) 0.8 sec

5) Assertion (A): Congestive heart failure is a state of heart when it is not pumping blood
effectively enough to meet the needs of the body.
Reason (R): Heart muscles do not receive sufficient oxygen due to congestion of the lungs.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

6) Read the following statement A and B w.r.t. chordates and choose the correct answer from the
following given options-
Statement-A: Protochordates are exclusively marine and they have notochord present only in
Larval tail.
Statement-B: In all vertebrates, notochord is replaced by bony vertebral column in the adult.

(1) Both statement A and statement B are incorrect

(2) Statement A is correct and statement B is incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct
(4) Both statement A and statement B are correct

7) Match column - I with column - II and select the correct option-

 Column - I Column - II

a. Corvus i Single circulation

b. Aedes ii. Open circulation

c. Calotes iii. Double circulation

d. Scoliodon iv. Incomple double cirulation

(1) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i
(2) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii
(3) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
(4) a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv

8) Which of the following is considered as the most posterior part of balanoglossus?

(1) Proboscis
(2) Collar
(3) Stomochord
(4) Trunk

9) Statement-A: Protochordates are chordates in which vertebral column is present throughout

their life.
Statement-B: All Flatworms are Tapeworm.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) Both statement A and statement B are incorrect

(2) Statement A is correct and statement B is incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct
(4) Both statement A and statement B are correct

10) The enzyme commission number of an enzyme 'X' is [Link]. 'X' belongs to a class of enzymes
that catalyse-

(1) NAD+ + 2H+ + 2e- → NADH + H+

(2) S - G + S1 → S + S1 - G
(3) X - C - C - Y → X - Y + C = C
(4) A - B + H2O → A - OH + B - H

11) Disulphide bond is possible in all of the following compounds, except

(1) Insulin
(2) Collagen
(3) Myoglobin
(4) Glycogen

12) The right end of inulin chain is ________ and the left end of insulin is _________ Select the correct
option to fill in the blanks respectively-
(1) Non - reducing, N - terminal
(2) Reducing, C - terminal
(3) Non - reducing, C - terminal
(4) Reducing, N - terminal

13) Read the given statements A, B and C and select the correct option-
(A) Lysozyme and Ribozyme are not proteinaceous in nature.
(B) Some competitive inhibitors are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens.
(C) Active site of an enzyme is formed by the folding of the backbone of tertiary structure of protein
upon itself.

(1) Only Statement A and B are correct

(2) Only Statement B and C are correct
(3) Only Statement A and C are correct
(4) Statements (A), (B) and (C) are correct

14) Which of the following sets of polymers is formed by joining of monomers through bonds that is
formed by elimination of water moiety?

(1) Starch, Chitin, Uridylic acid

(2) Cellulose, Collagen, Adenosine
(3) Chitin, Adenosine, Starch
(4) Glycogen, Trypsin, Insulin

15) Read the following statements-

a. Intercalated disc is a communication junctions, at some fusion points that allows the smooth
muscle fibres to contract as a unit.
b. Neuroglia make up less than one - third the volume of neural tissue in our body.
c. All the cells in a multicellular organism have the same genetic constitution yet they function
differently because the sets of proteins produced in different tissue is different and dependent on
gene expression.
d. The bone marrow in every bones is the site of production of blood cells.
e. Division of labour is not exhibited by paramecium.
Choose the most appropriate option-

(1) a, c and e are correct

(2) c and e are correct
(3) a, b, c, d and e are correct
(4) Only c is correct

16) Which of the following is the correct statement-

(1) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment of male cockroach.

(2) Cockroach exhibit mosaic vision with less sensitivity and more resolution.
(3) In male cockroach, the sperms are stored in the spermatophoes.
(4) Cockroach are nocturnal, omnivore animal which live in damp place.
17) Select the incorrect match w.r.t. animals and their excretory structures-

(1) Hirudinaria - nephridia

(2) Saccoglossus - Porboscis gland
(3) Pila - Radula
(4) Taenia - Flame cells

18) During fight or flight conditions, a significant change in breathing rate is observed. Select the
location of the center that is involved primarily in this change-

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Pons Varolli
(4) Hippocampus.

19) Assertion (A): In vitro fertilization, leading to a "test tube baby" is included under the umbrella
of biotechnology.
Reason (R): The defination of biotechnology, Given by E.F.B. encompasses only modern molecular
biotechnology view.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

20) Arrival of impulse at the neuron's ending triggers events that may cause stimulation or inhibition
of adjacent neurons on the basis of-

(1) Movement of synaptic vesicles

(2) Types of neurotransmitters released
(3) Opening of Na+ channels in pre-synaptic neuron
(4) Opening of K+ channels in post-synaptic neuron.

21) Dense connective tissues are categorised into dense regular and dense irregular tissues on the
basis of-

(1) Number of fibres

(2) Branching of fibres
(3) Orientation of fibres
(4) Formation of fibres

22) Forensic science, DNA fingerprinting is a useful technique to trace genetic identity, relatedness
and tissue matching. Which of the following material / tissue does not find any use in DNA
fingerprinting?

(1) Leucocytes
(2) Erythrocytes
(3) Sperms
(4) Saliva

23) The transitional epithelium lines inner surface of urinary bladder and ureter. This epithelial layer
is thinner and more stretchable as compared to the stratified epithelium.
The best possible explanation for such a structural feature of transitional epithelium is that it-

(1) Prevent infection to the organs.

(2) Accomodates fluctuation of volume of the liquid in an organ.
(3) Enable re-absorption of salts from urine.
(4) Helps in micturition (process of urination)

24) Mono zygotic twins have-

(1) Same genetic make up and different biological sex.

(2) Same genetic make up and same biological sex.
(3) Dissimilar genetic make up and different biological sex.
(4) Dissimilar genetic make up but same biological sex.

25) Given below are few forces of evolution. Which of the following would be the best combination of
primary forces of evolution?

(1) Variation & mutation

(2) Migration & isolation
(3) Variation & migration
(4) Migration & random genetic drift

26) Arrange the reproductive event in humans in correct sequence.

(a) Gametogenesis
(b) Insemination
(c) Fertilization
(d) Implantation
(e) Gestation
(f) Parturition

(1) a → b → d → c → e → f
(2) b → a → c → d → e → f
(3) a → b → c → d → f → e
(4) a → b → c → d → e → f

27) Read the following examples-

(a) Wings of butterfly and birds.
(b) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(c) Potato and sweet potato
(d) Thorns of bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita
(e) Forelimbs of whale, bats, cheetah and human
(f) Vertebrate heart
How many of the above examples are of homologous structures in animals?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

28) How many polar body is formed during oogenesis in a sexually mature virgin female?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 0

29) Limbs and external genital organ well developed during?

(1) 1st month of pregnancy

(2) 2nd month of pregnancy
(3) 3rd month of pregnancy
(4) 5th month of pregnancy

30) A person suffers from an immune disorder termed rheumatoid arthritis. Which cardinal principle
of acquired immunity is not being followed in his body?

(1) Memory
(2) Diversity
(3) Specificity
(4) Discrimination

31) Select the incorrect match w.r.t. disease and the primary organ affected.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Choose the odd one w.r.t. the structures that provides the site of interaction of lymphocytes with
the antigen, which then proliferate to become effector cells.

(1) Peyer's patches

(2) Bone marrow
(3) Appendix
(4) Spleen

33) If due to some disease, if thymus gland of a person is removed then which arm of immune system
will be fully affected?

(1) Innate immune system

(2) Cell mediated immunity
(3) Antibody mediated immunity
(4) Humoral immunity

34) Modified lymphocyte involved in innate immunity-

(1) B-lymphocyte
(2) T-lymphocyte
(3) Natural killer cell
(4) Neutrophils

35) Steps of processes of recombinant DNA technology are given below-

(a) Extraction of the desired product
(b) Ligation of DNA fragment into a vector
(c) P.C.R.
(d) Culturing the host cells in a medium at large scale.
(e) Transferring the recombinant DNA into the host cells.
(f) Isolation of genetic material.
(g) Fragmentation / cut of DNA by R.E.
(h) Isolation of desired gene / DNA fragments.
Choose the correct sequence and select the correct option-

(1) f → g → h → c → b → e → a → d
(2) g → h → f → c → b → e → d → a
(3) h → f → g → c → b → e → a → d
(4) f → g → h → c → b → e → d → a

36) Bt plant / Bt crop have been developed by the transfer of Bt gene / cry gene of bacteria Bacillus
thuringiensis with the help of-----
(1) Ti plasmid
(2) PUC19
(3) Disarmed setrovirus
(4) λ – Bacteriophage.

37) Match column – I with column – II and choose the correct option-

Column – I Column - II
a. SCID i. C-peptide
b. Rosie ii. α – I – antitrypsin
Human alpha
c. Proinsulin iii.
Lactalbumin
d. Emphysema iv. ADA deficiency
(1) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
(2) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii
(3) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
(4) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

38) In pollution control the use of microbes is called as-

(1) Bioremediation
(2) Bioethics
(3) Biopatent
(4) Biopiracy

39) Transgenic animal is being used to study the diseases

a. Cancer
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Alzheimer
Choose the correct option-

(1) a, b only
(2) b, d only
(3) a, c only
(4) a, b, c and d

40) Which of the following is a vector based method of Gene transfer-

(1) Electroporation
(2) Microinjection
(3) Biolistic or particle gun
(4) Retrovirus for animal cell

41) At present about ________X______ recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use
the world over and in India ________Y________ of these are presently being marketed.
(1) X = 12 Y = 30
(2) X = 12 Y = 12
(3) X = 30 Y = 30
(4) X = 30 Y = 12

42) Which of the following is / are not correctly matched pairs?

(i) Ball and socket joint - Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(ii) Pivot joint - Between carpal and metacarpal
(iii) Saddle joint - Between atlas and axis
(iv) Gliding joint - Between the carpals
(v) Fibrous joint - In flat skull bones

(1) (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (v) only
(4) (ii) only

43) Match column - I with column - II and select the correct option from the codes given below-

Column - I Column - II

A. Thyroid i. Acts on the renal tubules

B. Adrenal ii. Regulate blood calcium level

C. Pituitary iii. Maintains diurnal rhythm of our body

D. Pineal iv. Acts on the m melanocytes

(1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(3) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i
(4) A - ii, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii

44) Read the given statements and select the correct option-
Statement - I: MTP is considered relatively safe during the first trimester of pregnancy.
Statement - II: Foetus become intimately associated with the maternal tissues after the first
trimester.

(1) Both Statement I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and II are correct

45) Which one of the following groups include sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria
only?

(1) Syphilis, Gonorrhoea, Chancroid

(2) Syphilis, Chlamydiasis, Chancroid
(3) Syphilis, Gonorrhoea, Scabies
(4) Syphilis, Scabies, Pediculosis

46) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which include all the correct
one only.
(a) Biology is the story of life on earth.
(b) All living organisms-present, past and future are linked to one another by the sharing of common
genetic material but to varying degrees.
(c) The comma patient has no consciousness.
(d) Ernst mayr, is called "The Darwin of the 20th century"

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (c)
(4) (b), (d)

47)

The following events occur in cell cycle arrange them in sequence :

I – Polymerase synthesis (DNA Replication)
II – Tubulin protein synthesis
III – Histone protein synthesis
IV – centrosome duplication

(1) I → II → III → IV
(2) II → III ≡ IV → I
(3) I → III ≡ IV → II
(4) IV ≡ III → II → I

48) Anaerobic respiration is similar to aerobic respiration as it

(1) Involves ETS

(2) Involves Krebs’ cycle
(3) Has pyruvic acid as the product of glycolysis
(4) Releases 38 ATP from oxidation of one molecule of glucose

49) Read the given statements -

(i) Sclereids are found in leaves of tea.
(ii) Fibres generally occur single in various plant parts.
(iii) Sclerenchyma provides mechanical support to young stems.
(iv) Parenchyma cells have thick walls.
(v) Collenchyma cells are thickened at corners.
How many are correct

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
50) Match the columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(plant) (Placentation)
a. Primrose (i) Basal
b. Maize (ii) Parietal
c. Argemone (iii) Free central

(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

51) India now has ......... biosphere reserves, ........ national parks and .......... wildlife sanctuaries.

(1) 10, 80, 330

(2) 14, 120, 517
(3) 3, 13, 90
(4) 14, 90, 448

52) Within a region, on increasing explored area, species richness :-

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains constant
(4) Increases but upto a certain limit

53) A stable ecosystem tends to remain in homeostasis. Identify the character which are not linked
to stable ecosystem-
(A) High species diversity
(B) Simple food web
(C) Generalized niche
(D) High productivity
(E) High variability in ecosystem processes
(F) Low resistance & resilience

(1) B, E and F
(2) B, C, E and F
(3) B, C and F
(4) B and E

54) The first step for initiation of photosynthesis will be

(1) Photolysis of water

(2) Excitement of chlorophyll molecules due to absorption of light
(3) ATP formation
(4) Glucose formation
55) Bundle sheath cells

(1) Are rich in RuBisCo

(2) Are rich in PEP carboxylase
(3) Lack RuBisCo
(4) Lack both RuBisCo and PEP carboxylase

56) Discovery of how many out of 5 major PGRs was accidental?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 5

57) Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of another flower of different plant of the
same species is called

(1) Geitonogamy
(2) Xenogamy
(3) Autogamy
(4) Cleistogamy

58) Larger and more number of nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out:-

(1) Lipid synthesis

(2) Carbohydrate synthesis
(3) Protein synthesis
(4) Glycolipid synthesis

59) Axillary buds of stem may also get modified into woody, straight and pointed thorns, which are
found in :-

(1) Colocasia
(2) Bougainvillia
(3) Chrysanthemum
(4) Eichhornia

60) A population of lotus plants in a pond is 450 in the starting of January 2014. It has a birth rate of
0.2/lotus plant/month. The number of plants after 2 months will be:

(1) 630
(2) 540
(3) 610
(4) 648

61) Given below are some example :

Pacific salmon fish, Bamboo, Bird, Mammals, Oysters, Pelagic fishes, Cow, Dog, Elephant, Goat,
Eagle.
How many examples are related to r-selected species.

(1) 2
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) 3

62)

Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of :-

(1) Prokaryotes
(2) Algae
(3) Bryophyta
(4) Spermatophyta

63)

Phycobilins are characteristic pigments of :-

(1) Rhodophyta and phaeophyta

(2) Rhodophyta and Pyrophyta
(3) Pyrophyta and Cyanophyta
(4) Rhodophyta and Cyanophyta

64) Consider the following statements w.r.t. heterocysts -

(a) Polar granules are present at the ends
(b) Evolve oxygen during photosynthesis
(c) Photosystem II is absent
(d) Outer layer is thick and made up of lignins.
Which of the two statements are incorrect ?

(1) (a) & (c)

(2) (b) & (c)
(3) (b) & (d)
(4) (a) & (d)

65) (a)- Stem of Pinus and Cedrus are branched

(b)- Selaginella is heterosporous pteridophyte
(c)- Mustard is a flowering plant
(d)- Marchantia is dioecious bryophyta
(e)- Protonema is the character of Moss.
From given correct statement is/are .........

(1) Only a, c, d
(2) Only a, b, c
(3) Only b, c, d
(4) All are correct

66) (a) Gymnosperms are heterosporous

(b) Dryopteris is Pteriodophyta
(c) Floridian starch present in Polysiphonia
(d) Gemma present on thallus of Marchantia
(e) Radish is Gymnosperm
Wrong statement is/are ......

(1) b and e
(2) c and d
(3) only e
(4) only a

67) Assertion A: The style is a part of the pistil that connects the stigma to the ovary.
Reason R: The ovary is located at the base of the pistil and contains the ovarian cavity where the
placenta is found.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

68) Assertion A: In the embryo sac, after the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are formed around six of the
eight nuclei.
Reason R: The formation of cell walls after the 8-nucleate stage leads to the development of the
typical female gametophyte or embryo sac.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

69) Assertion A: Dioecy in plants, where male and female flowers are on different plants, prevents
both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Reason R: Having unisexual flowers on the same plant ensures the transfer of compatible pollen of
the same species to the stigma.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

70) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Reproduction is a vital process that ensures the survival of species over millions of
years.
Statement II: Sexual mode of reproduction does not contribute to the creation of new variants and
therefore does not enhance survival advantage. In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

71) Horizontal growth of seedling, swelling of axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedling are
associated with:-

(1) Photoperiodism
(2) Vernalisation
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin

72) Select how many statements are correct from following ?

(A) Growth in plants is open.
(B) Plant growth is localised
(C) Decrease growth per unit time is termed as growth rate.
(D) Plant growth is affected by many factor

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

73) Which of the following sequence of the developmental process in a plant cell is correct ?

(1) Meristematic cell → Expansion → Maturation → Plasmatic growth → Mature cell → Senescence
Meristematic cell → Plasmatic growth → Expansion → Maturation→ Mature cell → senescence →
(2)
Death
(3) Mature Cell → Maturation→ Expansion→Senescence → Meristematic cell → Death
(4) Meristematic cell→ Mature cell→ Plasmatic growth→ Maturation→ senescence→Death

74) Which of the following are included in ground tissue system ?

(a) Hypodermis and pericycle
(b) Endodermis and general cortex
(c) Pith and medullary rays
(d) Epidermis and vascular tissue

(1) Only a, b and c

(2) Only a and b
(3) Only b and d
(4) Only a and c

75) Which of the following statement is not true regarding trichome ?

(1) The trichomes in the shoot system are usually multicellular.
(2) The trichomes help in preventing water loss due to transpiration
(3) They may be branched or unbranched and soft or stiff.
(4) The trichomes help in absorb water and minerals from the soil.

76) Statement-I :- Mendel's experiments had a large sampling size, which gave greater credibility
to the data that he collected.
Statement-II : Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were similar
except for one character with contrasting traits.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false

(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true

77) Which of the following statement is correct ?

In a typical test cross an organism showing a dominant phenotype is crossed with the recessive
(1)
parent instead of self-crossing
(2) In case of co-dominance the F1 generation resembles none of the parents
(3) Starch grains size in Pisum Sativum show complete dominance
(4) In a Mendelian dihybrid cross, 4 different types of genotype are obtained at F2 generation

78) In a plant species, flower colour yellow dominant over white and fruit shape round is dominant
over elongated. Crossing was performed between two pure lines one having yellow flower and round
fruit and another with white flower and elongated fruit. About 20 plants survied in F1 progeny. Plant
of F1 were allowed to selffertilize and about 960 plants survied in F2. If the traits follow Mendelian
inheritance the number of plants would have yellow flower and round fruit in F1 and F2 are
respectively

(1) 20, 960

(2) 20, 540
(3) 10, 180
(4) 10, 60

79) How many structures are not associated with bacterial cell ?
(a) Golgi body
(b) Ribosome
(c) Double stranded DNA
(d) Naked genetic material
(e) Fimbriae
(f) Mitochondria
(g) Endomembrane system
(h) Presence of plasmid
(i) Chloroplast

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 7

80) Which of the following is true for lion:

(1) Order - Carnivora, Class - Insecta

(2) Order - Carnivora, Kingdom - Animalia
(3) Class - Mammalia, Kingdom - Angiospermae
(4) Order - Primata, Class - Insecta

81) A : Formation of mature male gametophyte requires one meiotic and one mitotic division in 60%
of the angiosperms.
R : Pollination occurs in three celled condition in majority of angiosperms.

(1) Only statement-1 is correct

(2) Only statement-2 is correct
(3) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect

82) Assume that gene a and b are linked and show 40% recombination. If ++ / ++ individual is
crossed with ab / ab, then types and proportions of gametes in F1 will be :-

(1) ++ 20% : ab 20% : +b 20% : a + 40%

(2) ++ 50% : ab 50%
(3) ++ 25% : ab 25% : + b 25% : a + 25%
(4) ++ 30% : ab 30% : + b 20% : a + 20%

83)

Sem, Tomato, Tulips, Belladonna Glorisa tobacco Aloe, Petunia, Asparagus Sesbania Colchicum,
Chilli, Indigofera, and Trifolium.

How many plants given above are having one cotyledon in seed. :-
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 8

84)

Study the floral formula given below :

How many members in the list given below belong to the given floral
formula Brinjal, Potato, Capsicum, Mustard, Lily, Lupin, Ladyfinger, Cotton, Chinarose
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Six

85) Potato, Tomato, Brinjal, Turnip, mustard, Cauli flower, Raddish and Soyabean belong to how
many genera?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

86) Read the following statements :-

(i) Eukaryotic mRNA is polycistronic whereas prokaryotic mRNA is monocistronic
(ii) Prokaryotic mRNA is capless and tail-less whereas eukaryotic mRNA is with cap and tail
(iii) The precursor of prokaryotic mRNA is hnRNA
(iv) The initiation codon AUG in eukaryotes codes for formylated methionine
(v) In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in nucleus and translation in cytoplasm
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (ii), (iii) and (v)

(2) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (ii) and (v)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

87) Repressible operon is usually found in __(A)__ pathways. The pathway's end product serve as a
__(B)__ to activate the repressor, turn off enzyme synthesis and prevent overproduction of the end
product of the pathway. Genes of this operon are usually __(C)__ and the repressor is synthesized in
an __(D)__ form :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) The following diagram shows two chromosomes and the lettered number represents the genes
Which of the following would result if a translocation occurred between chromosome 1 and 2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

89)

Crop plants grown in monoculture are :-

(1) Low in yield

(2) Free from intraspecific competition
(3) Characterised by poor root system
(4) Highly prone to pests

90) Which is incorrect about the Nucleopolyhedrovirus (NPV) ?

(1) These are species-specific

(2) These are broad-spectrum
(3) They have no negative impact on plants, mammals, bird, fish and non-target insects
(4) They aid in an overall IPM programme or when an ecologically sensitive area is being treated
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 1 1 4 1 3 4 2 4 3 4 2 2 3 1 4 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 3 2 3 1 2 4 3 4 2 2 3 4 3 4 2 3 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 4 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 4 4 3 2 1 2 4 3 2 1 1 3 1 3 1 3 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 4 4 3 3 1 3 2 4 4 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 3 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 4 3 3 1 3 4 1 2 4 4 2 4 2 4 3 3 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 3 3 4 3 2 2 3 4 1 1 1 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 4 4 1 2 3 3 1 1 4 4 2 2 1 4 2 3 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 4 3 4 3 2 1 3 4 3 3 2 1 4 2 1 2 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 2 2 2 3 4 2 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Given XL = R so, Z = ⇒P=

2)

Solve r= ....... (1)

and r= ....... (2)

we have r = 0.5Ω & E = 2.25V

3)

h1 = e2h
2.5 = e210

e= = 0.5

4)

Current through battery

VC = VXY = VAB = E – Ir

= 5 – 2 × = 4V
∴ Charge = 5μ × 4 = 20 μC

5) In non uniform electric field

Torque and force both may be non-zero
6) RC = = = 2R

7) The electric flux through the cube due to single charge q at one corner .
If this flux is due to q at E then flux is passing through only 3 surfaces in which this charge is
not coinciding that are ABCD, BCGF and DCGH. Now flux through ABCD only is

Then flux through ABCD due charges q at E, F, G and H is

& flux through ABCD due to charges at A, B, C and D is zero so total flux through ABCD is

8)

9) η = ⇒ 0.9 = ⇒ VS = 450V

As VPIP = 3000 so IP = = 15A

10) Pressure =

∴ Force =

11) If ℓ1 and ℓ2 are the consecutive resonant lengths, the wavelength of sound is given by
λ = 2(ℓ2 – ℓ1) = 2(49 – 16) = 66 cm
v = vλ = 500 × 66 = 330 ms–1

12) 50 C.S.D = mm

1 C.S.D = mm
35 C.S.D = 0.35 mm
Diameter = M.S.R + C.S.R – zero error
= 3 + 0.35 – (–0.03)
= 3.38 mm

13)

δ=i+e–A
30 = 15 + 60 – A ⇒ A = 45°

14)
The work done by surface tension

15) (a) → (iii); (b) → (i), (iv); (c) → (ii)

16) M1g = k(l1 – l0) _ (1)

(M1 + M2)g = k (l2 – l0) _ (2)
from eqn (1) & (2)

17) As T2 ∝ R3

Therefore, T2/R3 does not depend on R as T2 R3 that means = constant.

18)

Required energy = ΔTE

= =

19)

Conceptual

20) ∵

∵ sin 30º =

∴
∴ VR = 40 m/s
 =μi
0
21)

B.2π

B.3πR =

B=

22)

Conceptual

23) Energy is released in a process when total Binding energy (B.E.) of the nucleus is
increased or we can say when total B.E. of products is more than the reactants. By calculation
we can see that only in case of option (3), this happens.
Given W → 2Y
B.E. of reactants = 120 × 75 = 900 MeV
and B.E. of products = 2 × (60 × 85) = 1020 MeV i.e. B.E. of products > B.E. of reactants.

24) eV0 = KEmax

25) (fr)max = m(10)g = 60 N

but required force is 5g = 50 N

26)

Explanation:
To find out magnification power of comound microscope when local graph of objective and
equation are 6 cm and 12.5 cm.

Concept:
Magnification power of compound microscope.

Solution:

Formula
Solution:
Given u0 = -9cm, f0= 6cm
D = 25 cm
fe = 12.5 cm
Calculation:
v0 = 18 cm

mp. = =2×3=6
Answer (1)

27)
τ = Iα

TR = mR2
τ = ma

mg – T = ma
T = ma
___________

28)

Loss ⇒

29)

30)

When +ve polarity is connected to A

Then D1 is forward biased and D2 is reversed biased i.e.

So I1 current through D1 = = 0.4 A

When -ve polarity is connected to B then D2 is forward biased and D1 is reversed biased then
I2 = = 0.2 A

31)

T= ; T' =

geff =

32) PxV = constant ⇒ xPx–1 ΔPV + PxΔV = 0

⇒ Bulk modulus =

33) Average speed < C > ∝

< CH > = 2< CHe >

34)

Force = 2N = 2
If unit of length and time are doubled and unit of mass is halved, then unit of force will be

times.
Hence numerical value of the force will be 4 times.
Therefore, numerical value in new system will be 8.

35)

For conservative force

36)
95f + 95 × 6 = 100 f – 600
570 + 600 = 5f
f = 234 Hz

37) According to Wien's displacement law,

λmT = constant

or

∴ (λm)2 =
= 6000 × 10–10 m
= 6000 Å

38) For first minima

39)

40)

Conceptual

41)

(3) (–4) + (–gt)2 = 0

.....(1)
SRel = Vrel t

42)

λ=
 If E' = E + E = 1.44 E

λ′ =

λ′ =

⇒ ×100 = ×100 = ×100

= = –16.6
de Broglie wavelength decreases by 16.6%.

43) By emitting one-α particle, atomic number decreases by 2. By emitting two b-particle
atomic number increases by 2.

44) 100 cm, virtual

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Question Explanation: $\text{Friedel-Crafts}$, $\text{Chlorination}$, and $\text{Ether}$

cleavage.

Concept: EAS and $\text{Ether}$ Cleavage.

Solution: The reaction sequence starts with Anisole
($\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{OCH}_3$).

A. $\text{Anisole} \xrightarrow{\text{Me}_3\text{C}-\text{Cl} / \text{AlCl}_3}$ (Friedel-

Crafts Alkylation): The $\mathbf{-\text{OCH}_3}$ group is a strong
$\mathbf{\text{ortho/para}}$ director. The bulky $t\text{-butyl}$ group
($\text{Me}_3\text{C}^+$) attacks the least sterically hindered para position.

$$\text{Product } \mathbf{X} = \text{p}\text{-t}\text{-Butyl anisole}$$

B. $\mathbf{X} \xrightarrow{\text{Cl}_2 / \text{FeCl}_3}$ (Electrophilic Chlorination):

The $\mathbf{-\text{OCH}_3}$ group is much more activating and directs the incoming
$\text{Cl}^+$ to the remaining ortho position ($\text{C}-3$) relative to the
$\text{OCH}_3$ group.

$$\text{Product } \mathbf{Y} = \text{3-Chloro-4-t-butyl anisole}$$

C. $\mathbf{Y} \xrightarrow{\text{HBr}, \Delta} \mathbf{A}$ (Ether Cleavage): The

$\text{HBr}$ cleaves the $\text{alkyl}-\text{O}$ bond, not the $\text{aryl}-\text{O}$
bond, leading to the formation of a phenol and an alkyl halide.

$$\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{OCH}_3 \rightarrow \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{OH} +

\text{CH}_3\text{Br}$$

The methoxy group ($\text{OCH}_3$) is converted to a hydroxyl group ($\text{OH}$).

$$\text{Final Product } \mathbf{A} = \text{2-Chloro-4-t-butylphenol}$$

Final Answer:

47)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify compound 'D' in the given reaction
sequence.

Concept: This question based on Nucleophilic substitution, preparation on of GR, NAR

(Addition of GR)

Solution:
Final Answer:Option (3)

48)

49)

Question Explanation: Product T

Concept : Oxidation of Aromatic hydrocarbon.
Solution :

Final Answer : option (4)

50)

Explain the Question : Match the amine reactions in Column-I with their corresponding
products in Column-II.
Concept : This question is based on Carbylamine reaction, Hoffmann bromamide degradation,
Diazotisation, Isocyanide reduction.
Solution :

Column-II
Reaction (Column-I) Reaction Name Product Formed d
Match

(A) CH3NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH Carbylamine Reaction Methyl Isocyanide (CH3NC) (iv)

(B) CH3CONH2 + Br2 + KOH Hoffmann Bromamide Primary Amine with 1 less C(CH3NH2) (i)

Unstable diazonium salt → Alcohol

(C) CH3NH2 + NaNO2 + HCl Diazotisation (on 1° Alkylamine) (ii)
(CH3OH) → Ether (CH3OCH3)

(D) CH3NC + 4H/Pt Isocyanide Reduction Secondary Amine (CH3NHCH3) (iii)

The correct matching is : (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii).
Final answer : 3

51)

52)

Conceptual

53)

Explaining the Question :- Complete the following reaction and find the final products
Concept:- This question is based on Gattermann-koch reaction, Cannizaro reaction.
Solution :-

Gattermann koch reaction proceed through ESR mechanism In Cannizzaro reaction oxidation
of HCHO and reduction of benzaldehyde takes place.
Final Answer :- 2

54)

Explanation Question:
The question asks to identify the mechanism for the reaction of cyclopentanone with
hydrazine.
Concept:
This question is based on Nucleophilic addition, elimination reaction, hydrazone formation
Solution:
The reaction proceeds in two steps: nucleophilic addition of the hydrazine to the carbonyl
carbon, followed by the elimination of water. The overall mechanism is a nucleophilic addition
followed by elimination.
Final Answer: (4)

55) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about given statement.

Concept :
This question is based on Wurtz reaction.
Solution :- Wurtz reaction is considered as best method for preparation of symmetrical
alkanes [alkane with even number of carbon atoms]
However asymmetrical alkane can also be prepared by this method but yield of alkane is very
low.

Final Answer :
Option (3) (If assertion is true but reason is false)

56)

Question Explanation: Arranging carbocations in order of stability.

Concept: Stability of Carbocations
Solution: The stability of a carbocation is increased by electron-donating groups (+M effect
and +I effect) and decreased by electron-withdrawing groups (-I effect). The methoxy group
(II) has a strong +M effect, which is most effective at the para position. The ethyl group (III)
and methyl group (I) have a +I effect. The chlorine atom (IV) has a -I effect. The correct order
of stability is II > III > I > IV.

Stability of

57) Question Explanation : Correct IUPAC name of given compound.

Concept : Use IUPAC rules in sequence.
Solution :

2-[2'-Bromophenyl] pentanoic acid

Final Answer : Option (1)

58)

While testing for halogens, lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 to decompose Na2S
and NaCN if formed.

59)

Conceptual

60)

Explain Question : The question requires correctly matching the properties and roles of
vitamins listed in Column-I with the corresponding vitamins in Column-II.

Concept : This question is based on Biomolecules, Vitamins

Solution : The matching is based on the classification and functions of vitamins, as shown in
 the table below.

Column-I Matched Column-II

(I) Water soluble vitamins (Q) B-group and C

(II) Water insoluble vitamins (P) A, D, E and K

(III) Vitamins which act as antioxidants (R) C, D and E

(IV) Increased blood clotting time (S) K

The correct matching sequence is: (I)→(Q), (II)→(P), (III)→(R), (IV)→(S).

Final Answer : option (1)

61) Δx.ΔV ≥

Δx =

62) Experiment-I
* In the first experiment, reaction is carried out in absence of catalyst.
Experiment-II
* Reaction in presence of catalyst.
* Rate of forward & backward increases in presence of catalyst.
* Rate of backward reaction will be zero in both experiments as there is no product at t = 0.
* In second experiment, rate of forward reaction will be higher compare to uncatalysed
reaction.
So only option (A) is correct

63)

Conceptual

64)

65) Explain Question:

it is a true-false type question.
Concept:
This Question based on Crop Harvesting.
Solution:
Final Answer:
Statement is true.
 66)

Ecell =
Anode H2(g) → 2H+ + 2e–

Ecell =
∴ P1 = P2 = 1 atm

Ecell =

C2 > C1 Ecell = +ve .

67) NCERT XIth Pg.#222 Para-I

68)
Kh = 10–9

69) (I) Diffusion of net movement from high concentration to low concentration.
(II) Osmosis is through semi permeable membrane.

70) NCERT-XII (2017), Pg.#45

71)

CO2 = = 2 mole of CO2 = 2 mole of C

H2O = = 2 mole of H2O = 4 mole of H

Mass of C + Mass of H + Mass of O = 44
24 + 4 + x = 44; x = 16

∴ mole of O = 1 and molecular formula is C2H4O.

72)

73) +7 +4 +2 +6
MnO4– + SO32– → Mn+2 + SO42–
∵ equivalents of O.A. = equivalents of R. A.
or 1 × 5 = n × 2
∴ = 2.5 mol.

74)

75) Question Explanation:

We need to find correct relation between assertion and reason provided.

Concept:
This question is based on ΔH = ΔE + PΔV

Solution:
ΔH = ΔE + PΔV; for solids / liquids, ΔV is negligible, so
ΔH – ΔE = PΔE; for no significant ΔV, difference is minimal.

Correct Option: 4

76) Question Explanation

Question is asking about correct statement and about their relation
Concept
This concept based on Brown ring test, Test for radicals.
Solution
The common qualitative test for nitrate ions (NO3−​) is the brown ring test. However, nitrite
ions (NO2−​) also produce a brown ring with the reagents used in this test (ferrous sulfate and
concentrated sulfuric acid), and can do so even more readily (sometimes in dilute acid without
concentrated H2​SO4​). This interference means that a direct test for NO3−​ in the presence of
NO2−​ would give a false positive or an ambiguous result for NO3−​.
So statement 1 is false.
By observing the color of the aqueous solution after exposing it to the respective substances
(e.g., bubbling the gases through water), one can distinguish between Br2​ and NO2​. Bromine
will yield a brown (or yellowish-brown) solution, while nitrogen dioxide will yield a colorless
solution as it reacts with the water.
so statement 2 is true
Final Answer (4)

77) Question Explanation

Question is asking about the salt that produce deep blue colour with starch and KI
Concept
The concept based on Salt analysis
Explanation
Among the given salts, nitrite (NO₂⁻) is an oxidizing agent in acidic solution and can oxidize
iodide ions to iodine.
Final Answer (2)

78)

Explain question:
Find metal oxide that is not amphoteric

Concept:
Amphoteric oxides react with both acids & bases

Solution:
• Al3+ → Al2O3 → Amphoteric.
• Cr3+ → Cr2O3 → Amphoteric.
• Zn2+ → ZnO → Amphoteric.
• Fe3+ → Fe2O3 → Basic oxide, does not show amphoteric behavior.

Final Answer: Option (3)

79) Explain Question:

Asking about Correct increasing order of number of bonds

Concept:
Structure

Solution:

(I) (II) (III)

Hence increasing order will be II<III<I

Final Answer: Option (2)

80)

C—C > Si—Si > Ge—Ge > Sn— Sn

81)

correct answer (a,b,c,d)

82)

correct answer is
sp2, sp2 and sp
 83)

(A), (B), (D) and (E) only

84)

correct answer is
Cu (Z = 29)

85)

correct answer is
Mn2+ < Fe2+

86)

[FeF6]3- > [CoF6]3- > [Ni(CN)4]2- = [Ni(CO)4]

87)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

88)

Cr2+ > Cr3+ > Cu2+ > Cu+

89)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

90)

Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Based

92)

NCERT Based
93)

NCERT Based

94)

NCERT Based

95)

NCERT Based

96)

NCERT Based

97)

NCERT Based

98)

NCERT Based

99)

NCERT Based

100)

NCERT Based

101)

NCERT Based

102) NCERT Based

103)

NCERT Based

104)

NCERT Based
105)

NCERT Based

106)

NCERT Based

107)

NCERT Based

108)

NCERT Based

109)

NCERT Based

110)

NCERT Based

111)

NCERT Based

112)

NCERT pg. # 121

113)

NCERT pg. # 101, 103

114)

NCERT pg. # 56

115)

NCERT pg. # 121

116)
NCERT pg. # 42

117)

NCERT pg. # 121

118)

NCERT pg. # 49

119)

NCERT pg. # 54

120)

NCERT Based

121)

NCERT Based

122)

NCERT Based

123)

NCERT Based

124)

NCERT Based

125) [NCERT pg. # 171]

126) [NCERT pg. # 179]

127) [NCERT pg. # 184]

128)

NCERT pg. # 207

129) [NCERT pg. # 183]

130) [NCERT pg. # 171]

131) [NCERT pg. # 181]

132)

NCERT pg. # 312

133)

NCERT pg. # 332, 333

134)

NCERT pg. # 62

135)

NCERT pg. # 63

136)

NCERT Based

137)

138)

NCERT Based

139)

NCERT Based

140)

NCERT Based

141)
 NCERT Based

142)

NCERT Based

143) Explaining the question : Identify the characterostics that do not contribute to stability
of ecosystem
Concept : The importance of species diversity to the ecosystem
Solution :
A stable ecosystem has high species diversity, complex food webs, and high resistance &
resilience. Characteristics not linked to stability include:

A. (B) Simple food web - Less stable, fewer energy pathways.

B. (C) Generalized niche - Stability requires both generalists and specialists.
C. (E) High variability in ecosystem processes - Stability needs consistent nutrient cycling.
D. (F) Low resistance & resilience - A stable ecosystem has high resistance & resilience.

Final answer : Option : (2) B, C, E, F

144) NCERT Based

145) NCERT Based

146) NCERT Based

147) NCERT Based

148) NCERT Based

149) NCERT Based

150) NCERT Based

151) NCERT Pg. # 232

152) NCERT Based

153) NCERT Based

154) NCERT Based

155)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 33,32,30,31

156)

NCERT Pg. No. 39, 3.4

157)

Question Explanation: Evaluating the assertion and reason about the style and ovary
location.

Concept: Pistil Structure

Solution:

A. Assertion A: The style connects the stigma to the ovary. (True)

B. Reason R: The ovary is at the base and contains the ovules (placenta). (True)
The reason provides descriptive facts, but does not explain the function of the style
itself.

Final Answer: Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

158) The assertion is true as cell walls are formed around six of the eight nuclei after the 8-
nucleate stage in the development of the embryo sac. The reason is also true and it is the
correct explanation for the assertion because the formation of these cell walls is what leads to
the organization of the typical female gametophyte or embryo sac.

159) The assertion is true as dioecy, the condition where male and female flowers are present
on different plants, does indeed prevent both autogamy (self-pollination within the same
flower) and geitonogamy (pollination between different flowers on the same plant). However,
the reason is false because having unisexual flowers on the same plant (monoecy) does not
ensure the transfer of compatible pollen; it only prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy.
Dioecy is not a mechanism to ensure the transfer of compatible pollen but rather a mechanism
to prevent self-pollination and promote cross-pollination.

160)

Question Explanation: Evaluating statements on the importance and role of reproduction.

Concept: Reproduction

Solution:

A. Statement I: Reproduction ensures the survival of species over long periods. (True)
B. Statement II: Sexual reproduction does contribute to the creation of new variants and
enhances survival advantage. (False)

Final Answer: option (4)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

161) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 230

162) Explain Question:

The question asks how many of the given statements about plant growth are correct.

Concept:
Character of plant growth (open growth, meristematic activity, growth rate, factors affecting
growth).

Solution:
(A) Growth in plants is open → Correct. Plants show open growth due to meristems.
(B) Plant growth is localised → Correct. Growth occurs only at meristems.
(C) Decrease in growth per unit time is termed growth rate → Incorrect. Growth rate is
increase in growth per unit time.
(D) Plant growth is affected by many factors → Correct. Both intrinsic and extrinsic factors
affect growth.
So, A, B, and D are correct → total three.

Final answer: option (3)

163) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 246

164)

NCERT Based

165)

166)

NCERT-XII Pg#54

167)

Question Explanation:Identifying a correct genetics statement.

Concept:Mendelian Genetics

Solution:The correct statement is the first one, which accurately defines a test cross. A test
cross involves crossing an individual with a dominant phenotype but unknown genotype with a
homozygous recessive individual to determine the genotype. The other statements are
incorrect: co-dominance expresses both parental traits, starch grain size in peas shows
incomplete dominance, and a dihybrid cross yields 9 different genotypes in the F₂ generation.

Final Answer:Option 1: In a typical test cross an organism showing a dominant phenotype is

crossed with the recessive parent instead of self-crossing

168)

NCERT Based

169) Explain Question: Question asks about how many of the listed structures are not
associated with bacterial cells.

Concept: Structure of bacteria

Solution: Not associated with bacterial cells →

(a) Golgi body , (f) Mitochondria , (g) Endomembrane system , (i) Chloroplast

→ These four are absent in bacteria.

Final answer: 2

170)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 7, 8

171) NCERT Based

172) Question Explanation–Types and proportions of gametes produced by an F1 individual.

Genes a and b are linked with 40% recombination

Concept – This question based on linkage and recombination.

Solution –
If gene show x% recombination then
→ Parental types = (100 – x )
→ Recombination types = x

→ Each parental type =

each recombination type =

Recombination = 40%
so, Recombination + b = 20%
 a+ = 20%
Parentals (100 – 40) = 60 %
each ++ = 30%
ab = 30%

Final Answer – Option (4) ++ 30% : ab 30% : + b 20% : a + 20%

173) NCERT Pg. # 79,80,81

174) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 79

175) NCERT-XIth Pg.#80

176) NCERT Pg. # 110/111

177) NCERT Based

178) NCERT Based

179) NCERT Based

180) NCERT Pg. # 187