05-04-2024

1001CJM050424MRG_I5 JM

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) Light emerges out of a convex lens when a source of light kept at its focus. The shape of
wavefront of the light is :

(A) Both spherical and cylindrical

(B) Cylindrical
(C) Spherical
(D) Plane

2) Following gates section is connected in a complete suitable circuit.

For which of the following combination, bulb will glow (ON):

(A) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1, D = 1
(B) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0, D = 0
(C) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0, D = 1
(D) A = 1, B = 1, C = 1, D = 0

3) If G be the gravitational constant and u be the energy density then which of the following quantity
have the dimension as that the :

(A) Pressure gradient per unit mass

(B) Force per unit mass
(C) Gravitational potential
(D) Energy per unit mass

4) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I: When a capillary tube is dipped into a liquid, the liquid neither rises nor falls in the
capillary. The contact angle may be 0°.
Statement-II: The contact angle between a solid and a liquid is a property of the material of the
solid and liquid as well :
In the light of above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(A) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.

(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(D) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false.
5) Given below are two statements: Statement-I: Figure shows the
variation of stopping potential with frequency (ν) for the two photosensitive materials M1 and M2.

The slope gives value of , where h is Planck's constant, e is the charge of electron.
Statement-II: M2 will emit photoelectrons of greater kinetic energy for the incident radiation
having same frequency.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(A) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.

(B) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

6) The angle between vector and the resultant of and is:

(A) 0°

(B)

(C)

(D)

7) In hydrogen like system the ratio of coulombian force and gravitational force between an electron
and a proton is in the order of:

(A) 1039
(B) 1019
(C) 1029
(D) 1036

8) In a co-axial straight cable, the central conductor and the outer conductor carry equal currents in
opposite directions. The magnetic field is zero.

(A) inside the outer conductor

(B) in between the two conductors
(C) outside the cable
(D) inside the inner conductor
9) An electron rotates in a circle around a nucleus having positive charge Ze. Correct relation
between total energy (E) of electron to its potential energy (U) is:

(A) E = 2U
(B) 2E = 3U
(C) E = U
(D) 2E = U

10) If the collision frequency of hydrogen molecules in a closed chamber at 27°C is Z, then the
collision frequency of the same system at 127° C is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

11) Ratio of radius of gyration of a hollow sphere to that of a solid cylinder of equal mass, for

moment of Inertia about their diameter axis AB as shown in figure is . The value of x is:

(A) 34
(B) 17
(C) 67
(D) 51

12) Two conducting circular loops A and B are placed in the same plane with their centres

coinciding as shown in figure. The mutual inductance between them is:

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

13) Match list-I with list-II:

List-I List-II

(A) Kinetic energy of planet (I)

Gravitation Potential energy of Sun-

(B) (II)
planet system.

(C) Total mechanical energy of planet (III)

Escape energy at the surface of

(D) (IV)
planet for unit mass object
(Where a = radius of planet orbit, r = radius of planet, M = mass of Sun, m = mass of planet)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – IV, (D) – III
(B) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D) – II
(C) (A) – I, (B) – IV, (C) – II, (D) – III
(D) (A) – I, (B) – II, (C) – III, (D) – IV

14) A wooden block of mass 5kg rests on soft horizontal floor. When an iron cylinder of mass 25 kg is
placed on the top of the block, the floor yields and the block and the cylinder together go down with
an acceleration of 0.1 ms–2. The action force of the system on the floor is equal to:

(A) 297 N
(B) 294 N
(C) 291 N
(D) 196 N

15) A simple pendulum doing small oscillations at a place R height above earth surface has time
period of T1 = 4 s. T2 would be it's time period if it is brought to a point which is at a height 2R from
earth surface. Choose the correct relation [R = radius of Earth] :

(A) T1 = T2
(B) 2T1 = 3T2
(C) 3T1 = 2T2
(D) 2T1 = T2

16) A body of mass 50 kg is lifted to a height of 20 m from the ground in the two different ways as
shown in the figures. The ratio of work done against the gravity in both the respective cases, will be:
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 1
(C)
(D) 1 : 2

17) Time periods of oscillation of the same simple pendulum measured using four different
measuring clocks were recorded as 4.62 s, 4.632 s, 4.6 s and 4.64 s. The arithmetic mean of these
reading in correct significant figure is.

(A) 4.623 s
(B) 4.62 s
(C) 4.6 s
(D) 5 s

18) The heat absorbed by a system in going through the given cyclic process is :

(A) 61.6 J
(B) 431.2 J
(C) 616 J
(D) 19.6 J

19) In the given figure R1 = 10Ω, R2 = 8Ω, R3 = 4Ω and R4 = 8Ω. Battery is ideal with emf 12V.
Equivalent resistant of the circuit and current supplied by battery are respectively.

(A) 12 Ω and 11.4 A

(B) 10.5 Ω and 1.14 A
(C) 10.5 Ω and 1 A
(D) 12 Ω and 1 A

20) An alternating voltage of amplitude 40 V and frequency 4 kHz is applied directly across the
capacitor of 12 µF. The maximum displacement current between the plates of the capacitor is nearly
:

(A) 13 A
(B) 8 A
(C) 10 A
(D) 12 A

SECTION-II

1) In Young's double slit experiment, carried out with light of wavelength 5000 Å, the distance
between the slits is 0.3 mm and the screen is at 200 cm from the slits. The central maximum is at x
= 0 cm. The value of x for third maxima is ............. mm.

2) The electric field between the two parallel plates of a capacitor of 1.5 µF capacitance drops to one
third of its initial value in 6.6 µs when the plates are connected by a thin wire. The resistance of this
wire is .............. Ω.
(Given, log 3 = 1.1)

3) The density and breaking stress of a wire are 6 × 104 kg /m3 and 1.2 × 108 N/m2 respectively. The

wire is suspended from a rigid support on a planet where acceleration due to gravity is of the
value on the surface of earth. The maximum length of the wire with breaking is ............ m (take, g =
10 m/s2)

4) An ac source is connected in given series LCR circuit. The rms potential difference across the

capacitor of 20 µF is .............. V.

5) In the experiment to determine the galvanometer resistance by half-deflection method, the plot of

vs the resistance (R) of the resistance box is shown in the figure. The figure of merit of the
–1
galvanometer is .............. ×10 A/division. [The source has emf 2V]
 PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) The incorrect postulates of the Dalton's atomic theory are :

(A) Atoms of different elements differ in mass.
(B) Matter consists of divisible atoms.
(C) Compounds are formed when atoms of different element combine in a fixed ratio.
(D) All the atoms of given element have different properties including mass.
(E) Chemical reactions involve reorganisation of atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (B), (D), (E) only

(B) (A), (B), (D) only
(C) (C), (D), (E) only
(D) (B), (D) only

2) The following reaction occurs in the Blast furnance where iron ore is reduced to iron metal

Using the Le-chatelier's principle, predict which one of the following will not disturb the
equilibrium.

(A) Addition of Fe2O3

(B) Addition of CO2
(C) Removal of CO
(D) Removal of CO2

3) Identify compound (Z) in the following reaction sequence.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Enthalpy of neutralisation of strong monobasic acid with strong monoacidic base is
always –57 kJ mol–1
Reason (R): Enthalpy of neutralisation is the amount of heat liberated when one mole of H+ ions
furnished by acid combine with one mole of –OH ions furnished by base to form one mole of water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(A) (A) is true but (R) is false

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

5) The statement(s) that are correct about the species O2– , F –, Na+ and Mg2+.
(A) All are isoelectronic
(B) All have the same nuclear charge
(C) O2– has the largest ionic radii
(D) Mg2+ has the smallest ionic radii
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A) (B), (C) and (D) only

(B) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(C) (C) and (D) only
(D) (A), (C) and (D) only

6) For the compounds :

(A) H3C–CH2–O–CH2–CH2–CH3
(B) H3C–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3

(C)

(D)
The increasing order of boiling point is :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)

(B) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D)
(C) (D) < (C) < (A) < (B)
(D) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)

7) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: In group 13, the stability of +1 oxidation state increases down the group.
Statement II: The atomic size of gallium is greater than that of aluminium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

8) Number of σ and π bonds present in ethylene molecule is respectively :

(A) 3 and 1
(B) 5 and 2
(C) 4 and 1
(D) 5 and 1

9) Identify 'A' in the following reaction :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10) The reaction at cathode in the cells commonly used in clocks involves.

(A) reduction of Mn from +4 to +3

(B) oxidation of Mn from +3 to +4
(C) reduction of Mn from + 7 to +2
(D) oxidation of Mn from + 2 to +7

11) Which one of the following complexes will exhibit the least paramagnetic behaviour ?
[Atomic number, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27]

2+
(A) [Co(H2O)6]
2+
(B) [Fe(H2O)6]
2+
(C) [Mn(H2O)6]
2+
(D) [Cr(H2O)6]

12) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Cis form of alkene is found to be more polar than the trans form.
Reason (R): Dipole moment of trans isomer of 2-butene is zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
13) Given below are two statements : Statement I: Nitration of benzene involves the following step–

Statement II: Use of Lewis base promotes the electrophilic substitution of benzene.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

14) The correct order of ligands arranged in increasing field strength.

(A) Cl– < –OH < Br– < CN–

– – –
(B) F < Br < I < NH3
– –
(C) Br < F < H2O < NH3
– –
(D) H2O < OH < CN < NH3

15) Which of the following gives a positive test with ninhydrin ?

(A) Cellulose
(B) Starch
(C) Polyvinyl chloride
(D) Egg albumin

16) The metal that shows highest and maximum number of oxidation state is :

(A) Fe
(B) Mn
(C) Ti
(D) Co

17) Ail organic compound has 42.1% carbon, 6.4% hydrogen and remainder is oxygen. If its
molecular weight is 342, then its molecular formula is :

(A) C11H18O12
(B) C12H20O12
(C) C14H20O10
(D) C12H22O11

18) Given below are two statement :

Statement I : Bromination of phenol in solvent with low polarity such as CHCl3 or CS2 requires
Lewis acid catalyst.
Statement II : The lewis acid catalyst polarises the bromine to generate Br+.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

19) Molar ionic conductivities of divalent cation and anion are 57 S cm2 mol–1 and 73 S cm2 mol–1
respectively. The molar conductivity of solution of an electrolyte with the above cation and anion will
be :

(A) 65 S cm2 mol–1

(B) 130 S cm2 mol–1
(C) 187 S cm2 mol–1
(D) 260 S cm2 mol–1

20) The number of neutrons present in the more abundant isotope of boron is 'x'. Amorphous boron
upon heating with air forms a product, in which the oxidation state of boron is 'y'. The value of x + y
is …

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 9

SECTION-II

–18 –31
1) The value of Rydberg constant (RH) is 2.18×10 J. The velocity of electron having mass 9.1×10
kg in Bohr's first orbit of hydrogen atom = ……… ×105 ms–1 (nearest integer)

2) In a borax bead test under hot condition, a metal salt (one from the given) is heated
at point B of the flame, resulted in green colour salt bead. The spin-only magnetic moment value of
the salt is …………. BM.
(Nearest integer)
[Given atomic number of Cu = 29, Ni = 28, Mn = 25, Fe = 26]

3) The heat of combustion of solid benzoic acid at constant volume is –321.30 kJ at 27°C. The heat of
combustion at constant pressure is (–321.30 – xR) kJ, the value of x is …………….

4) Consider the given chemical reaction sequence :

Total sum of oxygen atoms in Product A and Product B are ………

5) An artificial cell is made by encapsulating 0.2 M glucose solution within a semipermeable

membrane. The osmotic pressure developed when the artificial cell is placed within a 0.05 M
solution of NaCl at 300 K is _______ × 10–1 bar. (Nearest Integer)
[Given : R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1]
Assume complete dissociation of NaCl

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) Let d be the distance of the point of intersection of the lines and

from the point (7, 8, 9). Then d2 + 6 is equal to :

(A) 72
(B) 69
(C) 75
(D) 78

2) Let a rectangle ABCD of sides 2 and 4 be inscribed in another rectangle PQRS such that the
vertices of the rectangle ABCD lie on the sides of the rectangle PQRS. Let a and b be the sides of the
rectangle PQRS when its area is maximum. Then (a + b)2 is equal to :

(A) 72
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 64

3) Let two straight lines drawn from the origin O intersect the line 3x + 4y = 12 at the points P and
Q such that ΔOPQ is an isosceles triangle and ∠POQ = 90°. If ℓ = OP2 + PQ2 + QO2, then the
greatest integer less than or equal to ℓ is :

(A) 44
(B) 48
(C) 46
(D) 42

4) If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation + 2y = sin (2x), y(0) = , then is
equal to :

(A) e–π/8
(B) e–π/4
(C) eπ/4
(D) eπ/8

5) For the function f(x) = sinx + 3x – (x2 + x), where x ∈ , consider the following two
statements :

(I) f is increasing in .

(II) f′ is decreasing in .
Between the above two statements,

(A) only (I) is true.

(B) only (II) is true.
(C) neither (I) nor (II) is true.
(D) both (I) and (II) are true.

6) If the system of equations

11x + y + λz = –5
2x + 3y + 5z = 3
8x – 19y – 39z = µ
has infinitely many solutions, then λ4 – µ is equal to :

(A) 49
(B) 45
(C) 47
(D) 51

7) Let A = {1, 3, 7, 9, 11} and B = {2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 10, 12}. Then the total number of one-one maps f :
A → B, such that f (1) + f(3) = 14, is :

(A) 180
(B) 120
(C) 480
(D) 240

8) If the function , x ∈ R, is continuous at x = 0, then f(0) is equal to

:
(A) 2
(B) –2
(C) 4
(D) –4

9) The integral is equal to :

(A) 3π – 50 loge 2 + 20 loge 5

(B) 3π – 25 loge 2 + 10 loge 5

(C) 3π – 10 log + 10 loge 5

e

(D) 3π – 30 loge 2 + 20 loge 5

10) The coefficients a, b, c in the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 are chosen from the set {1, 2,
3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}. The probability of this equation having repeated roots is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

11) Let A and B be two square matrices of order 3 such that |A| = 3 and |B| = 2.
Then |AT A(adj(2A))–1 (adj(4B))(adj(AB))–1AAT| is equal to :

(A) 64
(B) 81
(C) 32
(D) 108

12) Let a circle C of radius 1 and closer to the origin be such that the lines passing through the point
(3, 2) and parallel to the coordinate axes touch it. Then the shortest distance of the circle C from the
point (5, 5) is :

(A)
(B) 5
(C)
(D) 4

13) Let the line 2x + 3y – k = 0, k > 0, intersect the x-axis and y-axis at the points A and B,
respectively. If the equation of the circle having the line segment AB as a diameter is x2 + y2 – 3x –
2y = 0 and the length of the latus rectum of the ellipse x2 + 9y2 = k2 is , where m and n are
coprime, then 2m + n is equal to

(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 13
(D) 12

14) Consider the following two statements :

Statement I : For any two non-zero complex numbers z1,
z2 and
Statement II : If x, y, z are three distinct complex numbers and a, b, c are three positive real

numbers such that , then .

Between the above two statements,

(A) both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(D) both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

15) Suppose is a solution of 4 cosθ – 3 sinθ = 1. Then cosθ is equal to :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

16) If and , then the

point (m, n) lies on the line

(A) 11(x – 1) – 100(y – 2) = 0

(B) 11(x – 2) – 100(y – 1) = 0
(C) 11(x – 1) – 100y = 0
(D) 11x – 100y = 0

17) Let f(x) = x5 + 2x3 + 3x + 1, x ∈ R, and g(x) be a function such that g(f(x)) = x for all x ∈ R. Then
 is equal to :

(A) 7
(B) 42
(C) 1
(D) 14

18) If A(l, –1, 2), B(5, 7, –6), C(3, 4, –10) and D(–l, –4, –2) are the vertices of a quadrilateral ABCD,
then its area is :

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

19) The value of is :

(A) π2

(B)

(C)

(D) 2π2

20) If the line makes a right angle with the line , then
4λ + 9µ is equal to :

(A) 13
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

SECTION-II

1) If the constant term in the expansion of (l + 2x – 3x3) is p, then 108p is equal to

2) The number of ways of getting a sum 16 on throwing a dice four times is __________.

3) If S = {a ∈ R : |2a – 1| = 3[a]+2{a}}, where [t] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to t
and {t} represents the fractional part of t, then is equal to __________.

4) Let f be a differentiable function in the interval (0, ∞) such that f(l) = 1

and for each x > 0. Then 2 f(2) + 3 f(3) is equal to __________.

5) The number of distinct real roots of the equation |x| |x + 2| – 5|x + l| – 1 = 0 is __________.
 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. D B B A A A A C D C C A A C C A C A D D

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 10 4 600 50 5

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. D A C B D B D D B A A C B C D B D D B D

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 22 6 150 14 25

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. C A C B D C D D A C A D B C A D D A A D

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 54 125 18 24 3
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

1) Light emerges parallel

∴ planar wavefront

2)

Bulb will glow if bulb have potential drop on it. One end of bulb must be at high (1) and other
must be at low (0).
Option (B) satisfy this condition

3)

[uG] = [(M1L–1T–2) (M–1L3T–2)]

0
[uG] = [M L2T–4]
= [L1T–2]
Option (B) is correct

4)

Capillary rise

;
If θ = 0° then rise is non-zero
∴ Statement-I is incorrect.
Option (A) is correct

5)

M2 material has higher work function, so statement-(II) is incorrect.

Option (A) is correct.
6)

Angle between and is zero

Option (A) is correct

7)

Option (A)

8)

∴ B = 0 outside the cable

9)

2TE = PE
Option (D)

10) Assuming mean free path constant.

11)

12)

ϕ = Mi = BA

13)
PE = –2KE
TE = –KE

14)

Taking g = 9.8 m/s2

294 – N = 30 × 0.1
N = 291

15)

16)

Work done by gravity is independent of path. It depends only on vertical displacement so work
done in both cases will be same.
Option (A) is correct

17)
Sum of number by considering significant digit sum = 4.6 + 4.6 + 4.6 + 4.6 = 18.4

Arithmetic Mean = = 4.6

18)

ΔU = 0 (Cyclic process)
ΔQ = W = area of P-V curve.
= π × (140 ×103 Pa) × (140 ×10–6 m3)
ΔQ = 61.6 J

19)

Here R2, R3, R4 are in parallel

R234 = 2Ω
R234 is in series with R1 so
Req = R234 + R1 = 2 + 10 = 12Ω

= 1 Amp

20)

Displacement current is same as conduction current in capacitor.

21)
For 3rd maxima y3 = 3β = 10 ×10–3 m = 10 mm

22)

6.6 × 10–6 = R (1.5 × 10–6)(1.1)

 23)
T = mg

24)

XL = ωL = 100 × 1 = 100Ω

Z = 500Ω

rms voltage across capacitor

Vrms = XC irms
= 500 × 0.1 = 50V

25) i = Kθ

Slope =

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

26)
B, D

27)

When solid added no effect on equilibrium.

28)

29)

Enthalpy of neutralization of SA & SB is always –57 kJ / mol because strong monoacid gives
one mole of H+ and strong mono base gives one mole of OH– which form one mole of water.

30)

O–2 F– Na+ Mg+2

–
No. of e ) 10 10 10 10
(Ionic radius) O–2 > F– > Na+ > Mg+2
Zeff O–2 < F– < Na+ < Mg+2

31)

Compounds having same number of carbon atoms follow the boiling point order as :
(Boiling point)Hydrogen bonding >(Boiling point)high polarity > (Boiling point)low polarity > (Boiling point)non polar

32)

Statement I : Number of d & f electrons, increases down the group and due to poor shielding
of d & f e–, stability of lower oxidation states increases down the group
Statement II : The atomic size of aluminium is greater than that of gallium.

33) ethylene is , it has 5σ bonds and 1π bond.

 34)

35) In the cathode reaction manganese (Mn) is reduced from the +4 oxidation state to the +3
state.

36)

Number of unpaired e–

[Co(H2O)6]2+ 3 3.87

[Fe(H2O)6]2+ 4 4.89

[Mn(H2O)6]2+ 5 5.92

[Cr(H2O)6]2+ 4 4.89

Least paramagnetic behaviour = [Co(H2O)6]2+

37) Dipole moment is a vector quantity and for compound net dipole moment is the vector sum
of all dipoles hence dipole moment of cis form is greater than trans form.

38) In nitration of benzene concentrated H2SO4 and HNO3 is used as reagent which generates

electrophile in following steps:

Lewis acids can promote the formation of electrophiles not Lewis base

39) Experimental order Br– < F– < H2O < NH3

40) Ninhydrin test is a test of amino acids. Egg albumin contains protein which is a natural
polymer of amino acids which will show positive ninhydrin test
41) Mn shows highest oxidation state (Mn+7) in 3d series metals.

42) Only C12H22O11 has 42.1% carbon, 6.4% hydrogen & 51.5 percent oxygen.

43) Phenol is a highly activated compound which can undergo bromination directly with
Bromine without any lewis acid.

44)

= 57 + 73 = 130

45)

More abundant isotope = B11

[Number of neutrons = 6]
x=6
B + O2 → B2O3
Oxidation state of B in B2O3 = +3
So, y = 3
Hence x + y = 9

46)

V = 2.18 × 106 ×

= 21.8 × 105 × ≈ 22 × 105 (nearest)

47)

Fe+3 will give green coloured bead when heated at point B.

Number of unpaired e– in Fe+3 = 5
μ = 5.92
Nearest integer = 6

48)

C6H5COOH(S) + O2(g) → 7CO2(g) + 3H2O(ℓ)

ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT

= (–321.30 – 150R) kJ
 49) Picric acid is prepared by treating phenol first with concentrated sulphuric acid which
converts it to phenol-2,4-disulphonic acid and then with concentrated nitric acid to get 2, 4, 6
trinitrophenol.

50)

NaCl —→ Na+ + Cl–

0.05M 0.05M 0.05M
Total C1 = 0.05 + 0.05 = 0.1 M (NaCl)
C2 = 0.2 M (glucose)
π = (C2 – C1) RT
= (0.2 – 0.1) × 0.083 × 300
= 2.49 bar
= 24.9 × 10–1 bar

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

51) …(1)
x = 3λ – 6, y = 2λ, z = λ – 1

…(2)
x = 4µ + 7, y = 3µ + 9, z = 2µ + 4
3λ – 6 = 4µ + 7 ⇒ 3λ – 4µ = 13 …(3) × 2
2λ = 3µ + 9 ⇒ 2λ – 3µ = 9 …(4) × 3
6λ – 8µ = 26
6λ – 9µ = 27
– + – .
µ = –1
⇒ 3λ – 4(–1) = 13
3λ = 9
λ=3
int. point (3, 6, 2) ; (7, 8, 9)
d2 = 16 + 4 + 49 = 69
Ans. d2 + 6 = 69 + 6 = 75
52)
Area = (4cosθ + 2sinθ) (2cosθ + 4sinθ)
= 8cos2θ + 16sinθcosθ + 4sinθcosθ + 8sin2θ
= 8 + 20 sinθcosθ
= 8 + 10 sin2θ
Max Area = 8 + 10 = 18 (sin2θ = 1)θ = 45°
(a + b)2 = (4cosθ + 2sinθ + 2cosθ + 4sinθ)2
= (6cosθ + 6sinθ)2
= 36 (sinθ + cosθ)2
=

= 72

53)

3x + 4y = 12
3(rcosθ) + 4(rsinθ) = 12
r(3cosθ + 4sinθ) = 12 ...(1)
3(–rsinθ) + 4(rcosθ) = 12
r(–3sinθ + 4cosθ) = 12 ...(2)

⇒ 288 = 25r2

ℓ = OP2 + PQ2 + QO2

ℓ = r2 + r2 + r2(cosθ + sinθ)2 + r2(sinθ + cosθ)2
= 2r2 + r2(1 + sin2θ + 1 – 2sin2θ)
= 2r2 + 2r2
= 4r2
[ℓ] = 46

54)
I.F = = e2x

x = 0, y = ⇒

1=C

55)

f(x) = sinx + 3x – (x2 + x)

f′(x) = cosx + 3 – (2x + 1) > 0 f(x) ↑

f′(x) = –sinx + 0 – (2)

= –sinx – < 0 f′(x) ↓

0<x<

56)

11x + y + λz = –5
2x + 3y + 5z = 3
8x – 19y – 39z = µ
for infinite sol.
⇒ 11(–117 + 95) – 1(–78 – 40) + λ(–38 – 24)
⇒ 11(–22) + 118 – λ(62) = 0
⇒ 62λ = 118 – 242

⇒ –5(–117 + 95) – 1(–117 – 5µ) – 2(–57 – 3µ) = 0

⇒ –5(–22) + 117 + 5µ + 114 + 6µ = 0
⇒ 11µ = –110 – 231 = –341
⇒ µ = –31
λ4 – µ = (–2)4 – (–31) = 16 + 31 = 47

57)

A = {1, 3, 7, 9, 11}
B = {2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 10, 12}
f(1) + f(3) = 14
(i) 2 + 12
(ii) 4 + 10
2 × (2 × 5 × 4 × 3) = 240

58)
is continuous at x = 0

for exist
β = 0, 3 + α = 0,

α = –3,

59)

136sinx = A(3sinx + 5cosx) + B(3cosx – 5sinx)

136 = 3A – 5B …(1)
0 = 5A + 3B …(2)

3B = –5A ⇒

60) ax2 + bx + c = 0
a, b, c ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,7, 8}
Repeated roots D = 0
⇒ b2 – 4ac = 0 ⇒ b2 = 4ac

Prob =
⇒ (a, b, c)
(1, 2, 1) ; (2, 4, 2) ; (1, 4, 4) ; (4, 4, 1) ; (3, 6, 3) ; (2, 8, 8) ; (8, 8, 2) ; (4, 8, 4)
8 case

61)
|A| = 3, |B| = 2
|ATA(adj(2A))–1 (adj(4B)) (adj(AB))–1AAT|
= 3 × 3 × |(adj(2A)–1| × |adj(4B)| × |(adj(AB))–1| × 3 × 3
↓ ↓ ↓

212× 22

62)
Coordinates of the centre will be (2, 1)

Equation of circle will be

(x – 2)2 + (y – 1)2 = 1

QC =
QC = 5
shortest distance
= RQ = CQ – CR
=5–1
=4

63) Centre of the circle =

Equation of diameter = 2x + 3y – k = 0

⇒k=6
Now, Equation of ellipse becomes
x2 + 9y2 = 36

length of LR
∴ 2m + n = 2(4) + 3 = 11
64) Statement I :

Since

∴ statement I is correct
For Statement II :

a2 = λ(|y – z|2) = λ(y – z)

b2 = λ(z – x) and c2 = λ(x – y)

Statement II is false

65)

let

4 – 4t2 – 6t = 1 + t2
⇒ 5t2 + 6t – 3 = 0

⇒
66)

⇒m=9

(m, n) =

⇒ 11(9) – 100
= 99 – 99 = 0
Ans. option (4) 11x – 100y = 0

67) f(x) = x5 + 2x3 + 3x + 1

f′(x) = 5x4 + 6x2 + 3
f′(1) = 5 + 6 + 3 = 14
g(f(x)) = x
g′(f(x))f′(x) = 1
for f(x) = 7
⇒ x5 + 2x3 + 3x + 1 = 7
⇒x=1

g′(7) f′(1) = 1 ⇒
x = 1, f(x) = 7 ⇒ g(7) = 1

68)

A(1, –1, 2)
B(5, 7, –6)
C(3, 4, –10)
D(–1, –4, –2)

Area =
69)

(Odd) (Even)

70) …(1)

…(2)

Right angle ⇒
–9µ – 4λ – 1 + 7 = 0
4λ + 9µ = 6

71)
General term m

Put r = 6 to get coeff. of

Put r = 7 to get coeff. of

72) (x1 + x2 ....+ x6)4

x4·(1–x6)4·(1–x)–4
x4[1–4x6 + 6x12....] [(1–x)–4]
(x4 – 4x10 + 6x16....) (1–x)–4
(x4 – 4x10 + 6x16) (1 + 15C12 x12 + 9C6x6 ....)
(15C12 – 4⋅9C6 + 6)x16
(15C3 – 4⋅9C6 + 6)
= 35 × 13 – 6 × 8 × 7 + 6
= 455 – 336 + 6
= 125

73) |2a – 1| = 3[a] + 2{a}

|2a – 1| = [a] + 2a

Case-1 :
2a – 1 = [a] + 2a
[a] = –1 ∴ a ∈ [–1, 0) Reject

Case-2 :
–2a + 1 = [a] + 2a
a=I+f
–2(I + f) + 1 = I + 2I + 2f

I = 0, ∴

Hence
74)

2x.f(x) – x2f′(x) = 1

Put f(1) = 1

2f(2) + 3f(3) =

75)
Case-1
x≥0
x2 + 2x – 5x – 5 – 1 = 0
x2 – 3x – 6 = 0

One positive root

Case-2
–1 ≤ x < 0
–x2 – 2x – 5x – 5 – 1 = 0
x2 + 7x + 6 = 0
(x + 6) (x + 1) = 0
x = –1
one root in range
Case-3
–2 ≤ x < –1
x2 – 2x + 5x + 5 – 1 = 0
x2 – 3x – 4 = 0
(x – 4) (x + 1) = 0
No root in range
Case-4
x < –2
x2 + 7x + 4 = 0

one root in range

Total number of distinct roots are 3