01-03-2026

2401CMD303029260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) If (x + y)2 = 4, then is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) –1

2) At p, will be :

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) can't say

3)

Value of tan 420° is ___

(1)

(2) 1
(3)
(4) None

4) cos 120° =

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5)

(1) 2
(2) x+c
(3) x
(4) 1

6)

(1) –1
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) –2

7)

(1)

(2) log10x + c
(3) logex + c
(4) x + c

8) The radius of a circular plate increases at the rate of 0.1 cm/sec. At what rate does the area

increase when the radius of plate is cm ?

(1) 1 cm2/sec
(2) 0.1 cm2/sec
(3) 0.6 cm2/sec
(4) 0.29 cm2/sec

9) Find maximum value of Y is :- Y = 10x – 5x2 + 5

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) Not defined

10) The average value of y = 2x + 3 in the interval 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 is :-

(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 4

11)

Calculate average velocity for .

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

12) From the given y-x curve calculate .

(1) 75
(2) 85
(3) 90
(4) 95

13) Equation of given line is:

(1) y =
y=
(2)
 y=
(3)

y=
(4)

14) The radius of the circle x2 + y2 = 4 is :-

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 16

15) Graph of 2x + 3y – 6 = 0 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) In the figure is shown graph of function y = sin x. Which of the following statement is false?

(1) Slope of the chord in interval x = 0 to x = π is zero.

(2) Slope of tangent at x = 0 is unity.
(3) Slope of tangent at x = 0 is less than unity and greater than zero.
(4) Slope of tangent at x = π/2 is zero.

17) Plot the function y = sin(x) & y = 2sin(x) between –180° & 180° [Small → y = sinx]
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A vector is along negative x-axis. If it is rotated through 90° in anticlockwise direction then
the vector will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) The resultant of which pair cannot have a magnitude of 4N ?

(1) 2N and 3N
(2) 3N and 3N
(3) 2N and 6N
(4) 3N and 8N

20) If is a unit vector in the direction of the vector , then:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

21) At what angle should the two forces 2P and act so that the resultant force is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

22) If then what is the value of :–

(1) 2
(2)
(3) 1
(4) 0

23) If angle between and is 30° then find at angle between and

(1) 30°
(2) 150°
(3) 180°
(4) 90°

24) The vector makes 120° with the x-axis and the vector makes 30° with the y-axis. What is
their resultant ?

(1) P + Q
(2) P – Q

(3)

(4)

25) A vector which has a magnitude of 8 is added to the vector which lies along x-axis. The
resultant of two vectors lies along y-axis and has magnitude twice that of P. The magnitude of is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) In the arrangement shown in figure no. of images formed by combination of mirror will be :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) None of these

27) Position of 5th image of given object in mirror M2 is :-

(1) 65 cm from mirror M2

(2) 145 cm from mirror M2
(3) 170 cm from mirror M2
(4) 135 cm from mirror M2

28)

In the shown figure what is the value of deviation?

(1) 40°
(2) 140°
(3) 80°
(4) None of these

29) If two plane mirrors are kept at 60° to each other and a body is placed at the middle, then total
number of images formed is :

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3

30) A 160 cm tall person is standing in front of a plane mirror. His eyes are at a height of 150 cm
from floor. To see the complete image of himself, the minimum length of mirror needed is :

(1) 85 cm
(2) 170 cm
(3) 80 cm
(4) 160 cm

31) A watch shows the time as 3:25. What will be the time that appears when seen through a plane
mirror :

(1) 9:35
(2) 8:35
(3) 8:25
(4) 7:35

32) In fig. XY is the principal axis of a mirror which forms an image I of the object O. Referring to
the information given in the fig. it can be concluded that the mirror is :-

(1) Concave and kept to the right of 'I'

(2) Concave and kept to the left of 'I'
(3) Convex and kept to the right of 'O'
(4) Convex and kept to the left of 'O'

33) A light ray is incident at point A of an interface separating the two mediums as shown in figure.

For what value of θ, 100% reflection takes place ?

(1) 25°
(2) 35°
(3) 39°
(4) 10°

34) Variation of v with u for a spherical mirror is as shown in fig. A straight line of unit slope
intersects the curve at point 'A'. If the focal length of mirror is 20 cm, coordinates of point A are:

(1) 20 cm, 10 cm
(2) 40 cm, 40 cm
(3) 40 cm, 20 cm
(4) 20 cm, 20 cm

35) The focal length of a concave mirror is f and the distance from the object to the principle focus is
x. The ratio of the size of the image to the size of the object is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) If the refractive index of water is and that of glass is , then the critical angle of incidence for
light tending to go from glass to water is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A fish in water sees an object which is 24 cm above the surface of water. The height of the object

above the surface of water that will appear to the fish is (Refractive Index of water is )

(1) 24 cm
(2) 32 cm
(3) 18 cm
(4) 48 cm

38) The wavelength of light in vacuum is 6000 Å and in a medium it is 4000 Å. The refractive index
of the medium is :-

(1) 2.4
(2) 1.5
(3) 1.2
(4) 0.67

39) A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in
such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is :-

(1) 10 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 2.5 cm
(4) 5 cm

40) An object is placed at a distance of f/2 from a convex mirror. The image will be :-

(1) At one of the foci, virtual and double its size

(2) At 3f/2, real and inverted
(3) At 2f, virtual and erect
(4) None of these

41) Each quarter of a vessel of depth H is filled with liquids of the refractive indices n1, n2, n3 and n4
from the bottom respectively. The apparent depth of the vessel when looked normally is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

42) An object is placed at 20 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 20 cm. The distance of the
image from the pole of the mirror is :-

(1) Infinity
(2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 20 cm

43) An object is placed at a distance u cm from a concave mirror of focal length f cm. The real image
of the object is received on a screen placed at a distance v cm from the mirror. The values of u are
changed and corresponding values of v are measured. Which one of the graphs shown in the figure

represents the variation of with ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A convex refracting surface of radius of curvature 20 cm separates two media of refractive

indices and 1.6. An object is placed in the first medium (µ = 4/3) at a distance of 200 cm from the
refracting surface. The position of the image formed is -

(1) 120 cm
(2) 240 cm
(3) 100 cm
(4) 60 cm
45) A vessel is quarter filled with a liquid of refractive index μ. The remaining parts of the vessel is

filled with an immiscible liquid of refractive index μ. The apparent depth of the vessel is 50% of the
actual depth. The value of μ is

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Two liquids A and B boils at 100°C and 150°C respectively. which one of them has higher vapour
pressure at 50°C :-

(1) Liquid A
(2) Liquid B
(3) Both have same vapour pressure
(4) None

2) 20.0 kg of H2(g) and 32 kg of O2(g) are reacted to produce H2O(l). The amount of H2O (l) formed
after completion of reaction is

(1) 62 kg
(2) 36 kg
(3) 42 kg
(4) 72 kg

3) Equal masses of oxygen, hydrogen and methane are taken in identical conditions. What is the
ratio of the volumes of the gases under identical conditions?

(1) 16 : 1 : 8
(2) 1 : 16 : 2
(3) 1 : 16 : 8
(4) 2 : 16 : 1

4) Each 9.4 gm of a compound contains 7.2 gm carbon, 0.6 gm hydrogen and rest oxygen. The
empirical formula of the compound is:

(1) C3H3O
(2) C6H3O
(3) C6H6O
(4) C3H6O2
5) At same pressure and temperature, equal volume of gases will contain :

(1) equal no. of moles

(2) equal no. of molecules
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

6) A sample of silver (1.5 g) is heated with sulphur to form Ag2S. The mass of Ag2S formed was 0.124
g. What was the percentage yield of silver sulphide?

(1) 6.41 %
(2) 7.20 %
(3) 8.27 %
(4) 10.8 %

7) A metal chloride contains 55.0% of chlorine by weight. 100 mL vapours of the metal chloride at
STP weigh 0.57 g. The molecular formula of the metal chloride is
(Given : Atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5u)

(1) MCl2
(2) MCl4
(3) MCl3
(4) MCl

8) Molar solution means 1 mole of solute present in:

(1) 1000 g of solve

(2) 1 litre of solvent
(3) 1 litre of solution
(4) 1000 g of solution

9) In the reaction 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3 what will be the number of moles of product formed?
Starting from 2 moles of A, 1.2 moles of B and 1.44 moles of C.

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 4.64
(4) 0.48

10) Which of the following changes with increase in temperature :

(1) Molality
(2) Weight fraction of solute
(3) Molarity
(4) Mole fraction
11) Statement-I : For a complete reaction between 10 L H2(g) and 10 L, O2(g), 5L of H2O(ℓ) is
obtained.
Statement-II : The volume of gaseous reactants and products involved in any reaction are in the
same ratio as their stoichiometric coefficient :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) 1Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

12) A polymer contains 3.4% Sulphur by mass. The minimum molecular weight of polymer is
approximately

(1) 941
(2) 541
(3) 341
(4) 1241

13) In which case is number of molecules of water maximum?

(1) 18 mL of water
(2) 0.18 g of water
(3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
(4) 10–3 mol of water

14) 2 moles of liquid A is mixed with 3 moles of liquid B. The mole fraction of A in vapour phase if
= 100 mm and = 200 mm.

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.6

15) Certain amount of urea is dissolved in 200 g of water in order to decrease the vapour pressure of
water by 25%.The molality of the solution is

(1) 1.85 m
(2) 0.93 m
(3) 18.5 m
(4) 9.3 m

16) If 20% (W/V) of a urea solution whose volume is 200 mL is mixed with 30% (W/V) of glucose
solution whose volume is 300 mL, then %(W/V) of the final solution is :-

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 26%
(4) 27%

17) Calculate the pure vapour pressure of liquid A and liquid B.

Given : PS = 300 – 175 XB
where , XB = mole fraction of liquid B.

(1) 125, 300

(2) 300, 125
(3) 25,175
(4) None of these

18) Two liquids A and B have and in the ratio of 1 : 3 and the ratio of number of moles of A
and B in liquid phase are 1 : 3 then mole fraction of 'A' in vapour phase in equilibrium with the
solution is equal to :-

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.5
(4) 1.0

19) A 100 cm3 solution is prepared by dissolving 2g of NaOH in water. Calculate the normality of the
solution.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) According to Henry’s law, the partial pressure of gas (Pg) is directly proportional to mole fraction
of gas in liquid solution, Pgas = [Link], where KH is Henery’s constant. Which is incorrect ?

(1) KH is characteristic constant for a given gas-solvent system

(2) Higher is the value of KH, lower is solubility of gas for a given partial pressure of gas
(3) KH has temperature dependence
(4) KH decreases with increase of temperature

21) 15 gram of methyl alcohol is dissolved in 35 gram of water. What is the mass percentage of
methyl alcohol in solution ?

(1) 30%
(2) 50%
(3) 70%
(4) 75%

22) Molality of a solution containing 3g CH3COOH in 50 g Benzene is :

(1) 1 m
(2) 1.4 m
(3) 1.3 m
(4) 1.13 m

23) Normality of 10% (w\V) H2SO4 solution is nearly

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.5
(4) 2

24) What is the mole ratio of benzene ( = 150 torr) and toluene ( = 50 torr) in vapour phase if
the given solution has a vapour pressure of 120 torr?

(1) 7 : 1
(2) 7 : 3
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 7 : 8

25) The volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 solution is (n-factor of H2O2 = 2)

(1) 4.8
(2) 5.2
(3) 8.8
(4) 8.4

26) Lowering of vapour pressure due to a solute in 1 molal aqueous solution at 100°C is :-

(1) 13.66 mm Hg
(2) 14.12 mm Hg
(3) 32.1 mm Hg
(4) None of these

27) When 100 g glucose is mixed in pure water its vapour pressure decreased to 95% of pure water.
What will be mole Fraction of Glucose :-

(1) 0.95
(2) 1.95
(3) 0.05
(4) 9.5
28) Mole fraction of the toluene in the vapour phase in equilibrium with a solution of benzene
(PA° =120 Torr) and toluene (PB° = 80 Torr) having 2.0 moles of each, is (ideal solution) :-

(1) 0.50
(2) 0.70
(3) 0.80
(4) 0.40

29) The mass of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute (molar mass = 50 g mol–1) needed to be
dissolved in 114 g octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 75%, is :-

(1) 50 g
(2) 37.5 g
(3) 75 g
(4) 16.67 g

30) For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total pressure of the solution is given as :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) Following isomeric pair constitutes an example of :

(1) Functional isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Geometrical isomers
(4) Metamers

32) Minimum number of carbon atom that must be present in alkane to show position isomerism is:-

(1) 7
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 5

33) CH3–O–CH2–CH2–CH3 &

CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
are :-

(1) Position-isomer
(2) Chain-isomer
(3) Metamer
(4) None of the above

34) The compound A and B are

(1) Position isomer

(2) Chain isomer
(3) Not isomer
(4) Homomer

35) The relation between given compound is :-

(1) Chain isomerism

(2) Position isomerism
(3) Functional isomerism
(4) Metamers

36) Total number of geometrical isomers for

Me–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH=CH–Et will be -

(1) 2
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 6

37) Which of the following will show geometrical isomerism.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

38) Which one of the following has optically inactive stereoisomers ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Which of the following has ‘S’ configuration ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

40) How many geometrical isomers are possible for :

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

41) The ‘E-isomer is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of the above

42) Consider the following representation They are

(1) enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Conformational isomers
(4) identical
43) Which of the following is an achriral molecule?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A Fischer projection of (2R,3S)butane-2,3-diol is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Assertion :- Meso tartaric acid is optically inactive.

Reason :- Its optically inactive due to external compensation.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

BIOLOGY

1) Match the following columns and select correct option.

Column I Column II

A. Pollen grain (i) Locule

Ovarian
B. (ii) Germ pores
cavity

C. Ovule (iii) Filiform apparatus

Integumented
D. Synergid (iv)
Megasporangium

A B C D

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (v)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Plants such as Commelina can perform

(a) Autogamy (b) Geitonogamy
(c) Xenogamy
The correct one(s) is/are

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (c)only
(4) All (a), (b) and (c)

3) Which of the following phenomena is not considered as an event of pollen-pistil interaction?

(1) Deposition of pollen on the stigma

(2) Entry of pollen tube into the ovule
(3) Germination of pollen grain on the stigma
(4) Release of pollen from anther
4) After fertilisation, what happened with antipodal cells?

(1) One of them participates in triple fusion and others degenerate

(2) All of them degenerate
(3) Two of them participate in triple fusion and one degenerates
(4) All of them multiply to form a tissue that stores food

5) Which of the following is correct

Angiospermic flower shows an amazing range of adaptations to ensure formation of the end
(1)
products of sexual reproduction the fruits and seeds.
(2) Flowers do not exist only for us to be used for our own selfishness.
(3) All fertile flowering plants shows sexual reproduction.
(4) All of these

6) At the time of pollination in majority of angiosperms:

(1) Pollen grains have two cells i.e., one vegetative cell and one generative cell
(2) Pollen grains have two male gametes
(3) Pollen grains have three cells i.e., one vegetative cell and two male gametes
(4) Pollen grain have one vegetative cell and one male gamete

7) Please give the answer according to given diagram below :-

Which part is a modified stem ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

8) Which of the following hydrophyte is marine and does not pollinate by wind or insects ?

(1) Hydrilla
(2) Water hyacinth
(3) Vallisneria
(4) Zostera

9) Select correct statement from followings :-

(1) All monocarpic plants are annual or perenial
(2) Mango is a monocarpic plant
(3) Neelkuranji is a monocarpic plant
(4) Stamens are usualy monothecous

10) Which of the following plant came into India as a contaminant with imported wheat and cause
pollen allergy ?

(1) Typha
(2) Tradeschantia
(3) Parthenium
(4) Amaranthus

11) How many microspore mother cells are responsible for the formation of 80 microspores in
Angiosperms ?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 80

12) The cells of tapetum become polyploid due to :-

(1) Free nuclear division

(2) Endomitosis
(3) Amitosis
(4) Meiosis

13)

Given below is the diagrammatic view of three dimensional cut section of an anther. Identify the
parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

 Pollen Pollen Filament Line Of
1
sacs grains (Stalk) dehiscence

Pollen Pollen Line Of Filament

2
sacs grains dehiscence (Stalk)

Pollen Filament Line Of

3 Pollen sacs
grains (Stalk) dehiscence

Pollen Line Of Pollen Filament

4
sacs dehiscence grains (Stalk)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14)

Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) The site of meiotic division in higher plants is spore mother cell.
(B) In the anther wall middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum.
(C) 2 male gametes are formed from generative cell and vegetative cell.
(D) Pollen grain intine has prominent apertures called germ pores.

How many of the above statements are right :-

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

15) Which of following is surrounded by callose layer?

(1) Synergid
(2) Microspore mother cell
(3) Male gamete
(4) Egg cell

16) What will be ploidy of the cells of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional megaspore and
embryosac respectively

(1) n, 2n, 3n, 4n

(2) n, 3n, 4n, 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n
(4) 3n, 4n, 2n, n

17) In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is :-

(1) 7 celled 7 nucleated structure

(2) 7 celled 8 nucleated structure
(3) 7 celled 6 nucleated structure
(4) 4 celled 4 nucleated structure

18) How many times meiosis and mitosis required for production of embryo sac respectively?

(1) 1, 3
(2) 1,2
(3) 1, 1
(4) 1, 4

19) In angiosperms, the following events occur during megasporogenesis, megagametoagenesis and
fertilization –
(i) Meiosis of the megaspore mother cell
(ii) Formation of a linear tetrad
(iii) Fusion of the polar nuclei
(iv) Formation of the embryo sac
(v) Differentiation of the megaspore mother cell
(vi) Degeneration of 3 megaspores
(vii) Mitotic division of the functional megaspore
The correct sequence of events is –

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi), (vii)

(2) (v), (i), (ii), (vi), (iv), (iii), (vii)
(3) (v), (i), (ii), (vii), (vi), (iii), (iv)
(4) (v), (i), (ii), (vi), (vii), (iv), (iii)

20) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) The early stages of embryogeny are similar in both monocotyledons and dicotyledons
(2) Embryo develops at the chalazal end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated
(3) Most zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed
(4) A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons

21) How many of the following statements are not incorrect ?

(i) Raphe represents the junction between ovule and funicle.
(ii) Polar nuclei are situated below the egg-apparatus in large central cell.
(iii) Three sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the formation of 8-nucleate stages of the
embryo sac.
(iv) Pollen grains are shed at 3-celled stage in 60% of angiosperms.
(v) Number of ovules in an ovary may be many in papaya and orchids.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

22) Given below are two statements one is labelled as assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Geitonogamy is functionally cross pollination and genetically self pollination.
Reason (R) : Geitonogamy involves a pollinating agent, but pollen grains come from the same plant.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

23)

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Panchanan Maheshwari opposed the idea of artificial culture of immature embryo.
Megaspore dyad is formed from a megaspore mother cell through meiosis I during
(2)
megasporogenesis.
(3) The central tissue is the nucellus in which the archesporium differentiates.
(4) Pollen grains represents the male gametophytic generation.

24) Read the following four [A-D] statement :-

(A) Sticky pollens
(B) Light pollens
(C) Sticky stigma
(D) Small stigma
How many of above statements are correct for wind pollination?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

25)

Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column- I Column- II Column- III

(i) Nucellus Perisperm Diploid

(ii) Micropyle Ovule Entry of water

(iii) Synergid Filiform apparatus Chemotropic movement of pollen tube

(1) (i) only
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) and (ii)
(4) (i) and (iii)

26) What is meant by double fertilization ?

(1) Fusion between egg and male gamete
(2) Fusion between secondary nucleus and male gamete
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Formation of two zygotes

27) In an embryosac, the cells that degenerate after fertilisation are:-

(1) synergids and PEC

(2) synergid and antipodal cell
(3) Antipodal and PEC
(4) Egg and synergids

28) Which of the following is true for sexual reproduction in flowering plant ?
(A) Double fertilization (B) Triple fusion
(C) Zoidiogamy (D) Siphonogamy
(E) Haploid endosperm (F) Triploid endosperm

(1) A, B, C & F only

(2) A, B, D & F only
(3) A & D only
(4) A, B, D, E & F

29)

Arrange the following events of embryo development in correct sequence :-

(a) Heart shaped stage
(b) Torpedo stage
(c) Globular stage

(d) Proembryo stage

(1) d, a, c, b
(2) b, c, a, d
(3) d, c, a, b
(4) d, c, b, a

30) After entering ovule, the pollen tube releases two male gametes into

(1) Cytoplasm of central cell

(2) Vacuole of female gamete
(3) Cytoplasm of antipodal cell
(4) Cytoplasm of degenerating synergid

31) Read the following four statement [A - D] carefully :-

(A) Stigma serves as landing platform for pollen grains
(B) Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle
(C) Cells of nucellus have reserve food materials
(D) Wind pollinated flowers are colourful
How many above statement/s is/are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

32)

Perisperm is present in

(1) Beet
(2) Pea
(3) Gram
(4) Maize

33) Which of following event can never take place after the degeneration of generative cell in pollen
grain:-

(1) Entry of pollen tube inside the embryosac

(2) Syngamy
(3) Only triple fusion but not syngamy
(4) Neither entry of pollen-tube inside the embryosac nor fertilization.

34) Assertion : Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils.

Reason : The intine of pollen grain is composed of cellulose and pectin.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & reason is the correct explain of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & reason is not correct explain of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

35)

The only type of pollination that brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma is:

(1) Chasmogamy
(2) Cleistogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Xenogamy

36) Which of the following is not nutritive ?

(1) Tapetum
(2) Endosperm
(3) Integument
(4) Nucellus
37) Callase :

(1) Separates the four pollen from pollen tetrad

(2) Is secreted by the innermost wall layer of microsporangium
(3) Forms megaspore
(4) Both (a) and (b)

38) Filiform apparatus is located at the :-

(1) Tip of microsporangium

(2) Tip of the filament
(3) Micropylar end
(4) Chalazal end

39) Unisexuality in flowers prevents :

(1) Autogamy but not geitonogamy

(2) Geitonogamy but not xenogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy

40) Which of the following event is not included under post pollination events ?

(1) Triple fusion

(2) Development of endosperm
(3) Transformation of ovary into fruit
(4) Formation of embryo sac

41)

Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Floral primordium is developed as a result of hormonal activities

(2) Every flower has both male and female reproductive structures
(3) Flower is a modified root
(4) Floral organs are modified buds

42) Find out incorrect statement.

(1) The vegetative cell of pollen grain has large irregular shaped nucleus.
(2) Intine of pollen grain is made up of pectocellulose.
(3) Generative cell of pollen grain divides meiotically to give rise to the two male gametes.
(4) Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad.

43) Largest cell of the embryo sac is :

(1) Antipodal cell

(2) Egg cell
(3) Synergid
(4) Central cell

44) The ability of the pistil to recognise the pollen followed by its acceptance or rejection is :

(1) A chance factor only

(2) Due to certain protein factors of petals
(3) The result of a continuous dialogue between the pistil and pollen grain
(4) Is mediated physically but not chemically

45) What percentage of angiosperms does the pollen grain develop to the two celled stage within the
anther?

(1) 60%
(2) 100%
(3) 40%
(4) 30%

46) Which of the following is not a role of estrogen hormone?

(1) Endometrial hyperplasia

(2) Myometrial hypertrophy
(3) To increase the vascularity of endometrium
(4) To decrease myometrial contractions.

47) Consider the following:

A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male
gametogenesis.
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for
males compared to females.
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of
menstrual bleeding.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B are true

(2) A and C are true
(3) B and D are true
(4) B and C are true

48) Find the correct statements :

A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.
D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.
E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and E Only

(2) B and C Only
(3) B, C, D and E Only
(4) A, C, D and E Only

49) Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of
the following must be true?

(1) They are monozygotic twins.

(2) They are fraternal twins.
(3) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
(4) They have 75% identical genetic content.

50) A mature Graafian follicle is characterized by which of the following?

(1) A solid mass of granulosa cells surrounding a primary oocyte.

A fluid-filled cavity called antrum, containing a primary oocyte that has completed its first
(2)
meiotic division.
A secondary oocyte surrounded by a new membrane called zona pellucida, prior to its release
(3)
from the ovary.
(4) The presence of a corpus luteum, formed after ovulation

51) The primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division at what stage during oogenesis?

(1) Before birth, during the embryonic development stage.

(2) When the primary follicle is formed.
(3) At the stage when the tertiary follicle grows in size
(4) Just before ovulation, within the Graafian follicle

52) If a primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes will each resulting
secondary spermatocyte possess?

(1) 46
(2) 23
(3) 92
(4) It varies depending on the individual.

53) Statement 1: By the end of the first trimester (12 weeks), most major organ systems of the
foetus are well-developed, including external genital organs
Statement 2:. The first movements of the foetus are typically observed by the end of the second
month of pregnancy.

(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.

(2) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true.
(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false.

54) Statement 1: The scrotum's primary function is to provide a protective pouch for the testes,
preventing physical damage.
Statement 2: The low temperature maintained by the scrotum is crucial for the process of
spermatogenesis.

(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.

(2) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true.
(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false.

55) Assertion (A): The first meiotic division of the primary oocyte in a tertiary follicle results in two
equal, haploid secondary oocytes.
Reason (R): The secondary oocyte retains the bulk of the nutrient-rich cytoplasm of the primary
oocyte.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

56) Consider the following statements regarding spermatogenesis and oogenesis:

I. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty, while oogenesis is initiated during embryonic development.
II. Both processes involve mitotic divisions followed by meiotic divisions.
III. In spermatogenesis, all four spermatids produced from a secondary spermatocyte develop into
spermatozoa.
IV. In oogenesis, the first meiotic division is unequal, producing a large secondary oocyte and a tiny
first polar body.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) I, II, and III only

(2) I, III, and IV only
(3) I, II, and IV only
(4) I, II, III, and IV

57) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding menstrual cycle?

The changes in the ovaries as well as uterine endometrium are induced by changes in the level
(1)
of ovarian and pituitary hormones, respectively
(2) Menstrual cycle is stopped during pregnancy
(3) Menstrual cycle is the reproductive cycle exhibited by continuous breeders
(4) The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche

58) Statement I: The mitotic division starts as the zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct
towards the ovary is called cleavage.
Statement II: The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast
and an inner group of cells called the inner cell mass.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement I and Statement II both are [Link] II both are incorrect.

59) In humans, the endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during ___A__ while the myometrium
exhibits strong contractions during __B__.
Choose the option which correctly represents A and B resprectively.

(1) Mesntrual cycle, spermiation

(2) Menstrual cycle, parturition
(3) Delivery of the baby, menopause
(4) Menopause, ovulation

60) Identify the hormones that are secreted in large amount prior to ovulation : A. LH
B. FSH
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone

(1) A only
(2) A & B only
(3) A, B & C only
(4) A, B, C & D

61) Birth canal is formed by_______ and_______ :

(1) Cervix and Uterus

(2) Cervix and Fallopian tube
(3) Cervix and Vagina
(4) Uterus and Fallopian tube

62) Select the incorrect statement(s) among these :

(i) Clitoris lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora.
(ii) Clitoris lies at the upper junction of the two labia majora.
(iii) Presence of hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity.
(iv) Labia minora are paired folds of tissue present above the labia majora.

(1) i, ii and iv
(2) ii and iii only
(3) i, iii and iv
(4) ii, iii and iv

63) How many mentioned below are part of female external genitalia.
Vagina, Clitoris, Mons pubis, Cervix, Labia Majora, Labia Minora.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

64) Assertion: In male, urethra is considered as urinogenital duct

Reason: Urethra carries both urine and semen in males

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false

65) The figure given below show different phase of menstruation cycle's hormones. Select the option
which gives correct identification together with its source of secretion.

(1) B–Estrogen ; Theca externa

(2) C–LH ; Graafian follicle
(3) A–Progesterone ; Corpus albicans
(4) D–FSH ; Anterior pituitary gland

66) Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occuring during the menstrual
cycle ?

(1) Menstruation : Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised

(2) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone.
(3) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of corpus luteum.
(4) Secretory phase : Development of corpus luteum and increased secretion of progesterone.

67) In a female, undergoing hysterectomy, which one of the following will not occur ?

(1) Formation of Graafian follicle

(2) Ovulation
(3) Menstruation
(4) Completion of meiosis-I and formation of secondary oocyte

68) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which include all correct ones
only :
(a) Estrogen causes myometrial hypertrophy
(b) Progesterone decreases myometrial contraction
(c) Pre-ovulatory phase also known as progesteronic phase
(d) Oestrogen causes endometrial hyperplasia.
(1) Statement (a), (c) and (d)
(2) Statement (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Statement (a), (b) and (d)
(4) Statement (b), (c) and (d)

69) How many structures in the list given below are haploid ?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar
body

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

70) During Oogenesis in human, first maturation division starts ___A___ and completes ____B___.

(1) A-Before birth, B-Just prior to ovulation

(2) A-After birth, B-Before menopause
(3) A-Before ovulation, B-After entry of sperm
(4) A-Before ovulation, B-After fertilisation

71)

Read the following

(A) It is a thick layer of smooth muscles
(B) It is highly glandular layer
(C) It exhibits strong contraction during delivery of the baby
(D) It is a thin membranous layer
Which of the above statements are correct with respect to myometrium?

(1) A and B
(2) B, C and D
(3) A and C
(4) A, B and C

72) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram. Which of them has been correctly identified along

with its function :-

(1) (A) Epididymis Formation of sperm

 (2) (B) Rete testis Functional maturation of sperms

(3) (C) Seminal vesicle store and transport the sperms

(4) (D) Bulbourethral destroy the acidity of urethra

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73)
Find out A, B, C, D and E respectively :-

A B C D E

(1) Testis Leydig cells Sertoli cells AMH ABP

(2) ICSH Testis AMH Sertoli cells ABP

(3) LH Interstitial cells FSH Sertoli cells AMH

(4) ICSH Leydig cells FSH Sertoli cells ABP

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Identify the correct pair :-

Hormones Function

Development of secondary sexual

I Inhibin a
characters of male

Androgen binding Stimulates Leydig cells to secrete

II b
protein (ABP) testosterone

Concentrates testosterone inside

III Testosterone c
seminiferous tubule

Suppression of synthesis and reléase of

IV LH d
FSH
(1) I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-c
(2) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
(3) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
(4) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d

75)

Read the following four statements about the function of sertoli cell and answer the question given
below.
(A) To provide the nutrition to sperm.
(B) To phagocyte the dead or injured sperm.
(C) Secretions of testosterone.
(D) Conversion of oestrogen into progesterone.
Which set of option is incorrect statements ?

(1) A & B
(2) C & D
(3) A & C
(4) B & D

76) If the menstrual cycle of female is of 40 days, then ovulation takes place on

(1) 20th day

(2) 16th day
(3) 26th day
(4) 14th day

77) Indu gave birth to a pair of female twins. How many eggs were released at the start of her
pregnancy.

(1) 1 egg only

(2) 4 eggs only
(3) 2 eggs only
(4) May be 1 egg or 2 eggs

78) Which of these hormones would be detected in both pregnant and a non-pregnant female?

(1) Relaxin
(2) Prolactin
(3) hCG
(4) Progesterone

79) The male accessory duct includes

(1) Penis, Testis and ureter

(2) Rete testis, Vasa efferentia , Epididymis and vas deferens
(3) Ureter, Urinary bladder, and urethra
(4) Ureter, urethra and Penis

80) Signals for parturition originate from:

(1) Placenta only

(2) Fully developed foetus only
(3) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(4) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary

81) Arrange the following parts in human mammary gland, traversing the route of milk ejection.
A. Mammary duct
B. Lactiferous duct
C. Mammary alveolus
D. Ampulla
E. Mammary tubule
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) D → C → E → A → B
(2) C → E → B → A → D
(3) C → E → A → D → B
(4) A → C → E → D → B

82) Assertion (A): The middle piece of a sperm contains numerous mitochondria.
Reason (R): These mitochondria produce energy for the movement of the tail, facilitating sperm
motility which is essential for fertilisation

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

83) Which of the following event induced the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary
oocyte ?

(1) The process of contact of sperm with egg

(2) The entry of the sperm into the cytoplasm of the egg
(3) The release of egg from the ovary
(4) Collection of egg after ovulation by infundibulum

84)

Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female :-

(1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endrometrium.

(2) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo.
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.
(4) High level of hCH stimulates the thickening of endometrium.
85) Which type of cells have the potency to give rise to all the tissue and organs in embryo ?

(1) Trophoblast
(2) Inner cell mass
(3) Ectoderm
(4) Amniogenic cells

86) Ovulation in human female normally takes place during the menstruation cycle

(1) At the mid of secretory phase

(2) At the end of proliferative phase
(3) Just before the end of secretory phase
(4) At the beginning of proliferative phase

87) The main reason behind LH surge of 6–10 bolds, while FSH surge of 2–3 folds only, during
preovulatary phase of menstrual cycle is :-

(1) High level of estrogen promotes release of FSH and LH

(2) Inhibin inhibits release of FSH and to a lesser extent LH
(3) LH surge is necessary for ovulation
(4) (1) and (2) both simultaneously

88) If the sperm count of normal adult human is 300 million per ejaculation, how many sperms
must have normal shape and size per ejaculate for normal fertility?

(1) 180 million

(2) 240 million
(3) 360 million
(4) 72 million

89) Once a sperm fuses with an ovum, the remaining sperms cannot fertilize ovum. What changes
are responsible for such phenomenon?

(1) Selective permeation through ovum.

(2) Specific spatial arrangement of corona radiata cells.
(3) Change in the membrane zona pellucida.
(4) Ovum releases toxic substances thereby killing other sperms.

90) Find out the incorrect match from the following table:

Column-I Column-II Column-III

White fibrous Outermost layer of

(i) Tunica albuginea
connective tissues testis

(ii) Dartos muscles Voluntary Layer of testis

 Germinal Layer of ovary &
(iii) Cuboidal cells
epithelium seminiferous tubules
(1) (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii) only
(3) (iii) only
(4) (i) and (ii)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 3 3 1 2 3 4 2 4 2 2 4 2 3 3 1 3 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 2 1 2 2 2 1 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 3 3 1 1 1 3 3 2 1 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 4 1 4 1 3 4 4 2 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 3 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 4 2 4 1 1 4 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 3 2 1 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 1 2 4 3 2 2 3 4 4 1 2 2 4 3 4 3 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 4 3 2 4 1 4 2 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 1 3 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 1 4 4 3 3 4 1 3 4 4 2 2 3 4 4 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) (x + y)2 = 4
x + y = ±2
y = ±2 – x

=0–1
= –1

2) Positive

3) tan420° = tan(360° + 60°)

= tan60°
=

4) cos 120° = cos (180° – 60°)

= –cos 60° =

5)

6) = –[cos π – cos 0]
= – [–1 –1] = 2

7)

8) A = πr2

= 0.29 cm2/sec

9)

y = 10 x – 5x2 + 5

= 10 – 10 x = 0
x=1
(y)max = 10 × 1 – 5 × 12 + 5 = 10

10)

11) =

12) = Area under curve.

13) Slope of line, m = –tan 30° =

Intercept on y–axis, c = 4
Equation of line, y = mx + c

⇒y= x+4

14)

x2 + y2 = 4 = (2)2
So, radius = (2)

15)
2x + 3y – 6 = 0
3y = –2x + 6

y=
16)
Slope of chord AB is zero.

Slope of tangent at A =

At ,

17)

19) Explanation : resultant of which pair given in options cannot given the magnitude of 4N
Concept : Addition and subtraction
Solution : Max. Resultant = A + B
Mini. Resultant = |A – B|
(A + B)
A. 5 R 1
B. 6 R 0
C. 8 R 4
D. 11 R 5 4 cannot be resultant in this addition
Final answer: D

21)

Explain Question : In this question we are asked to find the angle between the two force say
F1 = 2p and F2 = such that their resultant force is R = .
Concept : This question is based on resultant of two vectors.
Solution : Resultant of two forces acting at an angle θ is given by

⇒ R2 =(f1)2 + (f2)2 + f1f2 cosθ

⇒
⇒ 10p2 = 4p2 + 2p2 +
⇒ 10p2 =

⇒
 ⇒ θ = 45°

Final answer : Option (1)

23)

Explain Question : In this question, angle between vector and is 30°. We need to find the

angle between the scaled vectors and .

Concept : This question is based on Angle between the two vectors.

Solution :

A. Angle between two vector depend only on their direction not on their Magnitude.
B. Also Multiplying a vector by a negative scalar reverses its direction.

⇒ Angle between and = 30°

A. has same direction as

B. has opposite direction to

⇒ So the angle between and

= 180° – 30° = 150°

Final Answer : option (2)

24)
As and are along the same direction, hence their resultant = P + Q.

25) Let q be the angle between and and β be the angle which resultant of and makes
with direction of . Then β = 90°, Q = 8 and R = 2P

Tanβ = or ∞ =
or P + 8 cos θ = 0 or cosθ = –P/8
As R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2 PQ cos θ
∴ 4 P2 = P2 + 82 + 2P × 8 × (–P/8)

or 5P2 = 64 or P =

26) Explain question:

We have to find no. of images forms by combination of mirrors.

Concept
Images made by combination of mirrors.

Solution:

No. of images
So, no. of image will be '3' (3 < 3.6)

Final answer: option (2)

27)

Explain the Question : Object is placed between two plane mirror M1 and M2.
Distance form M1 = 30 cm, from M2 = 5cm.
Find the position of the 5th image formed in mirror M2.
Concept : This question is based on images in two parallel plane mirrors from alternately in
M1 and M2.
Each new image forms by reflecting the previous image across the opposite mirror.
Distance of an image from a mirror = distance of the object (or previous image) from that
mirror.
Formula :
Distance between mirrors :
D = 30 + 5 = 35 cm.
Positions follow repeated reflection :
Each step shifts image position by 2D = 70 cm toward the opposite mirror.
Solution :

Final answer : 2
29) = 6 (even)
number of images = 6 – 1 = 5

31) Explaining : To find the time after reflection from plane mirror
Concept : This question is based on plane mirror image
Solution :
Object time = 3h : 25m
Image time = (11 – 3) : (60 – 25)
= 8 : 35
Final Answer : option (2)

32)

33)
θC = 37°
i > θC

34) For point 'A', u = υ so from + = , we have u = υ = 2f

⇒ Co-ordinates of 'A' = (2f, 2f)

35) Explanation:

To find the ratio of

Concept:
This concept based on magnification by concave mirror.

Solution:
Hence,
Correct option: (2)

36)

37) The height of object observed by fish is

38) n = =

∴n=

39) End A of the rod acts as an object for mirror and A' will be its image. By mirror formula,
image distance of A.

Now using

u = 2f + 10 = – 30 cm

⇒
⇒ vA = – 15 cm
Also image distance of C
vC = – 20 cm
The length of image = |vA – vC|
= |–15 – (20)| = 5 cm
∴ Length of image is 5 cm.

40) (Given u = )
⇒ ⇒

⇒ and m =
So virtual at the focus and of double size.

41) Apparent depth of bottom

42)
⇒ V = 10 cm

43) For mirror, which represents a straight line between and with
negative slope.

44)

µ1 =
u = – 200 cm, R = 20 cm
V = 240 cm

45)

Explain the question : A vessel is 1/4 filled with a liquid of refractive index μ and the
remaining 3/4 is filled with an immiscible liquid of refractive index (3/2)µ. The total apparent
depth is given to be 50% of the actual depth. We must find μ.
Concept : This question is based on apparent depth for multiple layers of liquid.
Formula : Apparent depth = H1/μ + H2/[(3/2)µ]
Solution :
Final answer : 2

CHEMISTRY

46)

Ans. 1
(1) is the correct answer.

47)

Ans. 2
(2) is the correct answer.

48)

49)

51)
Amount of Ag2S that can be formed from 1.5 g silver

% yield of Ag2S =

53)

Ans. 3
(3) is the correct answer.

54)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

55)
Ans. 3
(3) is the correct answer.

57)

Ans. 1
(1) is the correct answer.

58) = 1g/ml
18ml = 18g = 1 mole

59)

Ans. 1
(1) is the correct answer.

61)

Explain the Question : We need to calculate the final % (W/V) when urea and glucose
solutions of different concentrations an volumes are mixed.
Concept : This question is based on %(W/V) concentration of mixtures.
Solution :
Given :
Urea solution : 20% (W/V), V = 200 mL
Glucose solution : 30% (W/V), V = 300 mL
Formula :

Urea mass =

Glucose mass =
Total solute = 40 + 90 = 130g
Total volume = 200 + 300 = 500 mL

Final answer : 3

62) PS =

or PS =

⇒ PS =

PS =
Given : PS = 300 – 175 XB

300 – ⇒

63) YA =

= = 0.1

64)

Question Explanation: Find normality of NaOH solution made by dissolving 2 g NaOH in 100
cm³ water.

Concept: Normality = (gram equivalent of solute) / (volume in litre)

Solution:
Equivalent weight of NaOH = 40
Given mass of NaOH = 2 g
Equivalent = 2 / 40 = 0.05
Volume = 100 cm³ = 0.1 L

Normality = 0.05 / 0.1 = 0.5 N = N/2

Final Answer: Option 1

65)

Explanation the Question:

Identify the incorrect statement about Henry's law constant.
Concept:
This question is based on solubility of gases in liquids (Henry's law).
Solution:
Henry's law: Pgas = KH ⋅ Xgas
Explanation of options:
1. KH is characteristic constant for a given gas-solvent system-Correct.
2. Higher is the value of KH, lower is solubility of gas for a given partial pressure of gas -
Correct.

Solubility Xgas = .
3. KH has temperature dependence -Correct.
4. KH decreases with increase of temperature – Incorrect. As temperature increases, KH
generally increases.
Final Answer: (4)

66)

Ans. 1
(1) is the correct answer.

67)

Ans. 1
(1) is the correct answer.

68)

Question Explanation: Find normality of 10% (w/v) H₂SO₄ solution.

Concept: Normality = Molarity × n-factor

For H₂SO₄, n-factor = 2

Solution:
10% (w/v) ⇒ 10 g H₂SO₄ in 100 mL solution
⇒ 100 g H₂SO₄ in 1 L solution

Molar mass of H₂SO₄ = 98 g mol⁻¹

Molarity ≈ 100 / 98 ≈ 1.02 M

Normality = 1.02 × 2 ≈ 2.04 ≈ 2 N

Final Answer: Option 4

69)

P= XB + XT
120 = 150 (XB) + 50 (1 – XB)
100 XB = 70
XB = 0.7

YB = = 0.875

YT = 1 – 0.875 = 0.125

70) Explain the Question : We are asked to calculate the volume strength of 1 1.5 N
hydrogen peroxide solution.
Concept : This question is based on volume strength of H2O2.
Solution :
Volume strength = 5.6 × Normality
Given : N = 1.5
Volume strength = 5.6 × 1.5 = 8.4
Final Answer: (4)

73)

Explain the Question : You need to find the mole fraction of toluene in the vapour phase
when an ideal solution consists of equal moles of benzene and toluene.
Concept : This question is based on Raoult's law
For an ideal solution: PA = XA·PA⁰, PB = XB·PB⁰
Vapour-phase mole fraction: YB = PB / (PA + PB)
Solution :
Given:
PA°(benzene) = 120 Torr
PB°(toluene) = 80 Torr
Moles of each = 2 → mole fractions in liquid:
XA (benzene) = 2/4 = 0.5
XB (toluene) = 2/4 = 0.5
Partial pressures:
PA (benzene) = 0.5 × 120 = 60 Torr
PB (toluene) = 0.5 × 80 = 40 Torr
Total vapour pressure = 60 + 40 = 100 Torr
Vapour-phase mole fraction of toluene:
Y = PB (toluene) / Ptotal = 40 / 100 = 0.40
Final Answer : Option (4)

74)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

75)

Ans. 2
(2) is the correct answer.

76)

Explain Question: Identify the type of isomerism exhibit by the given pair of compounds.

Concept: Structural isomerism

Solution:
Both compounds have same molecular formular but differ in position of substituents.
So there are position isomers of each other.
Final answer: Option (2)

77)

Explain Question : Find out the minimum number of carbon atom in alkane to show position
isomerism.
Concept : This question is based on position isomerism, alkane homologous series.
Solution :
Position isomers : Compound having same mol formula but differ in position of PFG, MB and
subs.
Analysis the alkane : C1 to C3, not show isomerism
C4 and C5 have one subs but not show PI.

Minimum 6c required to P.I. in alkane.

Final answer : option (3)

79) Question Explanation :

Identify the relationship between given two compounds.

Concept :
This question is based on Structural isomerism.

Solution :

Both compounds have same mol. formula, same FG, but have different number of C-atoms is
PCC
∴ these are chain isomers of each other.

Final Answer :
Option (2)
 80)

Question Explanation : Determine the isomerism type.

Concept : Functional isomerism in amines.

Solution :
To find the relationship between the two structures, we analyze the degree of the amine
functional group:

A. First Molecule (2-methylpiperidine): The nitrogen atom is bonded to two carbon atoms within
the ring and one hydrogen atom. This makes it a secondary ( ) amine.
B. Second Molecule (1-methylpiperidine): The nitrogen atom is bonded to three carbon atoms
(two in the ring and one methyl group). This makes it a tertiary ( ) amine.

In organic chemistry, primary, secondary, and tertiary amines are considered different
functional groups because they exhibit different chemical properties and reactivity. Since
these two molecules have the same molecular formula but different functional
groups, they are functional isomers.

Final Answer : Option (3)

82)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

84)

Ans. 3
(3) is the correct answer.

85)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

86)

Ans. 3
(3) is the correct answer.

87)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

88)
 Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

89)

Explaining the Question :-

Identify the structure of (2R, 3S) butane –2,3-diol.
Concept :-
R-S configuration in fischer projection formula.
Solution :-

∴ Name of structure is :
[2R, 3S] Butane –2,3-diol.
Final Answer :- Option (1)

90) Question Explanation : Identify the correct statement.

Concept : This question is based on meso-compound.

Solution :

Has two chiral carbon, so it an optical isomer.

It is optically inactive due to presence of plane of symmetry.
Since it is optically inactive due to equal and opposite rotation caused by both chiral carbon
atoms.
Therefore it is internal compensation.
∴ Assertion is correct and reason is false.

Final Answer : (3)

BIOLOGY
91)

NCERT Reference: Class XII, Page No. 23, 25,27

92)

NCERT Reference: Class XII, Page No. 28

93)

NCERT Reference: Class XII, Page No. 33

94) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Page No. 34

95)

NCERT Page # 19

96) NCERT XII Pg # 23

97)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

98)

NCERT (XII) Pg # 29

99)

Ans. 3
(3) is the correct answer.

100) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23

101) Question Explanation: The question is asking a question about the process of
microsporogenesis in Angiosperms.
Concept: This question based on Pre-Fertilization structure and events - microsporogenesis in
Angiosperms.
Solution: Total microspores = 80
Each MMC gives = 4 microspores

Required MMCs =
Final Answer: 20

102)

NCERT XII Page # 5

103) NCERT XII pg. 21 Fig. 2.2 (b)

104)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

105)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

106) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Ploidy of :
(i) nucellus = 2n
(ii) megaspore mother cell = 2n
(iii) functional megaspore = n
(iv) embryo sac = n
Final Answer : (3)

107)

Question Explanation: Question is asking about the what is the common structure or type of
female gametophyte found in most angiosperms

Concept: Female gametophyte

Solution:

In a mature embryo sac three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute
the egg apparatus. The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of two synergids and one egg cell.
Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals. The large central cell has two
polar nuclei. Thus, a typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, though 8-nucleate is 7-celled

Final answer: 2
108)

XII NCERT Pg # 10, 11

110)

Ans. 2
(2) is the correct answer.

111) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23,25,27, para-2.2.1, 2.2.2

112) NCERT XII Pg. # 30

113) Ans. (1)

1 is the correct answer

114)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

115)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

116) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 34

117)

Ans. 2
(2) is the correct answer.

119) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 35(E)

120)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

121) NCERT, XII Page # 8, 13

122)
 NCERT-XII, Pg. # 20

123)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

124)

Question Explanation: The question asks to evaluate the assertion and reason about pollen
preservation.

Concept: Pollen grain

Solution:

Assertion: "Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils." - correct.

The outer layer of pollen grains, called the exine, is composed of sporopollenin, a highly
resistant organic material that can withstand degradation and decomposition for long periods,
leading to their excellent preservation in the fossil record.

Reason: "The intine of pollen grain is composed of cellulose and pectin." - correct.

The intine is the inner layer of the pollen grain wall and is indeed composed of cellulose and
pectin, similar to a plant cell wall.

While both the Assertion and the Reason are individually correct statements, the Reason does
not correctly explain the Assertion.

Final Answer:
Option (2)

126) NCERT XII, Page # 21,25, 35

127) NCERT-XII Page # 27

128) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 33

130)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the event that occurs before pollination.

Concept : This question is based on Post-Pollination Events.

Solution : Post-pollination events include all processes from the time pollen lands on the
stigma to the maturation of the fruit/seed. The formation of the embryo sac
(megagametogenesis) occurs in the ovule before pollination.

Final Answer : option (4) Formation of embryo sac

132) Question Explanation :
The question asks to identify the incorrect statement among the four options provided
regarding the structure and development of pollen grains in flowering plants.

Concept:
This question is based on Structure Of Pollen Grain.

Explanation: Generative cell of pollen grain divides meiotically to give rise to the two male
gametes. - Incorrect
The generative cell divides mitotically, not meiotically, to form two male gametes.

Final answer: Generative cell of pollen grain divides meiotically to give rise to the two male
gametes.

133) NCERT-XII Pg # 27

134)

NCERT XI Pg no. 17

135)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

136)

Ans. 4
(4) is the correct answer.

137) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : A
Final Answer : (1)

138) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : A
Final Answer : (4)

139) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : -
Final Answer : (2)

140) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : The tertiary follicle soon transforms into a tertiary follicle which is characterised by
a fluid filled cavity called antrum." It then mentions that at this tertiary follicle stage, the
"primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle grows in size and completes its first meiotic
division" resulting in a "haploid secondary oocyte and a tiny first polar body." Finally, "The
tertiary follicle further changes into the mature follicle or Graafian follicle.
Final Answer : (3)

141) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : It is important to draw your attention that it is at this stage that the primary oocyte
within the tertiary follicle grows in size and completes its first meiotic division. While the
secondary oocyte is released from the Graafian follicle, the first meiotic division is completed
at the tertiary follicle stage.
Final Answer : (3)

142) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Each spermatogonium is diploid and contains 46 chromosomes. Some of the
spermatogonia called primary spermatocytes periodically undergo meiosis. A primary
spermatocyte completes the first meiotic division (reduction division) leading to formation of
two equal, haploid cells called secondary spermatocytes, which have only 23 chromosomes
each.
Final Answer : (2)

143) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Statement 1 is true: "By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester), most of the major
organ systems are formed, for example, the limbs and external genital organs are well-
developed." Statement 2 is false: "The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on
the head are usually observed during the fifth month.
Final Answer : (2)

144) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Statement 1 is false; while the scrotum provides protection, its primary function
highlighted in the text is temperature regulation. The text explicitly states, "The scrotum helps
in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2−2.5∘ C lower than the normal internal
body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis." Therefore, Statement 2 is true.
Final Answer : (3)

145) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution :

Assertion (A):, "It is an unequal division resulting in the formation of a large haploid secondary
oocyte and a tiny first polar body This contradicts the assertion that it results in "two equal,
 haploid secondary oocytes". Therefore, Assertion (A) is false.

Reason (R): "The secondary oocyte retains bulk of the nutrient rich cytoplasm of the primary
oocyte". This confirms that Reason (R) is true. Since A is false and R is true, option (d) is the
correct answer.

Final Answer : (4)

146) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Statement III is incorrect: "The correct statement is -In spermatogenesis, all four
spermatids produced from a primary spermatocyte develop into spermatozoa
Final Answer : (3)

148)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

150) A, B & C only

151) Cervix and Vagina

152) ii, iii and iv

153) Four

154) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion

156)

Ans. 4
(4) is the correct answer.

157)

Ans. 3
(3) is the correct answer.

159)

Ans. 4
(4) is the correct answer.
162)

Ans. 4
(4) is the correct answer.

164)

Ans. 2
(2) is the correct answer.

167)

Ans. 4
(4) is the correct answer.

168)

Ans. 4
(4) is the correct answer.

169) Rete testis, Vasa efferentia , Epididymis and vas deferens

170) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus

171) Ans. (3)

3 is the correct answer

172) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Assertion (A): "The middle piece possesses numerous mitochondria". This confirms
that the assertion is true.
Reason (R): "which produce energy for the movement of tail that facilitate sperm motility
essential for fertilisation". This directly explains why the mitochondria are present in the
middle piece and their function, which is essential for fertilization.
Final Answer : (1)

173)

Ans. 1
(1) is the correct answer.

174)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer
175)

Ans. 2
(2) is the correct answer.

176)

Ans. 2
(2) is the correct answer.

177)

Ans. 4
(4) is the correct answer.

178) 180 million

NCERT Pg No 32

179) Ncert Pg No: 35

180) Module