06-01-2026

1016CMD303362250021 MD

PHYSICS

1) Avalanche breakdown in a PN junction diode is due to :-

(1) Sudden shift to Fermi level

(2) Increase in the width of forbidden gap
(3) Sudden increase of impurity concentration
(4) Cumulative effect of increased electron collision and creation of added electron hole pairs

2) Minimum how many NOR gates are required to from a AND gate :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) A full-wave rectifier circuit with an ac input is shown The

output voltage across RL is represented as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) In circuit shown the barrier voltage of diode is 0.7 V. Then match the physical quantities :-
 Column-I Column-II
(A) Peak current in diode (in mA) (P) 37.8
(B) Peak voltage(in volts) at the end of load (Q) 40.0
(C) Peak current (in mA) if diode is ideal (R) 20.0
(D) Peak voltage (in volts) at the ends of load if diode is ideal (S) 18.9
(1) A → Q ; B → R ; C → P ; D → S
(2) A → P ; B → S ; C → R ; D → Q
(3) A → P ; B → S ; C → Q ; D → R
(4) A → S ; B → P ; C → Q ; D → R

5) In given figure when input voltage increases,

(1) the current through RS, RL and zener increases

(2) the current through RS increases, zener increases but through RL remains constant
(3) the current through RS increases, through zener decreases, RL increases
(4) the current through RS increases, through zener remains constant but RL increases

6) Calculate the conductivity of pure silicon at room temperature when concentration of carrier is
1.6 × 1010 per - cm3.
Take µe = 1500 cm2/volt-sec, and
µh = 500 cm2/volt-sec at room temp.

(1) 5.12 × 10–6 mho/cm

(2) 3.12 × 10–6 mho/cm
(3) 2.35 × 10–6 mho/cm
(4) None of these
7) In the given circuit, Current through the battery is :-

(1) 0.5 A
(2) 1 A
(3) 1.5 A
(4) 2 A

8) To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit below, the input must be :-

A B C
(a) 0 1 1
(b) 1 0 1
(c) 0 1 0
(d) 0 0 1
(1) a & d
(2) b & c
(3) c & d
(4) a & b

9) Photo electric effect experiment is repeated three times on the same photo cell with light of same
frequency but different intensity of ratio 1 : 3 : 5. Ratio of stopping voltage and saturation current
will be :-

(1) 1 : 3 : 5, 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 5 : 3 : 1, 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 1 : 1 : 1, 1 : 3 : 5
(4) 1 : 3 : 5, 1 : 3 : 5

10) Figure represents a graph of maximum kinetic energy (K) of photoelectrons (in eV) and
frequency (ν) for a metal used as cathode in photoelectric experiment. What is value of frequency at

point A.
(1) 5 × 1014 Hz
(2) 1015 Hz
(3) 5 × 1015 Hz
(4) 1016 Hz

11) An unknown nucleus contains 70 neutrons and has twice the volume of the nickel nucleus.
Identify the unknown nucleus in the form .

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) A radioactive element decays into the number of β– particles emitted is :-

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 1

13) A potential difference of 20 kV is applied across an X-ray tube. The minimum wavelength of X-
rays generated (in Å) is -

(1) 0.62
(2) 1.24
(3) 0.31
(4) 6.2

14) A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength, λ. The
stopping potential for photo-electric current for this light is 3V0. if the same surface is illuminated
with light of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this surface
for photoelectric effect is :-

(1) 4 λ

(2)

(3)

(4) 6 λ

15) A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets disintegrated into two small fragments of mass
numbers 80 and 120. If binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 MeV and for daughter
nuclei is 7 MeV and 8 MeV, respectively, then the energy released in the decay will be :-

(1) 200 MeV

(2) –220 MeV
(3) 220 MeV
(4) 180 MeV

16) The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303 a.m.u. What is the binding energy per
nucleon for helium in MeV ?

(1) 28
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) 1

17) In a reactor, 2 kg of 92U235 fuel is fully used up in 30 days. The energy released per fission is 200
MeV. Given that the Avogadro number, N = 6.023 × 1026 per kilo mole and 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J. The
power output of the reactor is close to :

(1) 125 MW
(2) 60 MW
(3) 35 MW
(4) 54 MW

18) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A : The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of the atomic number for
nuclei of mass number in the range 30 to 170.
Reason R : Nuclear force is short ranged.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
Option :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

19) The energy levels of the hydrogen spectrum are shown in figure. There are some transitions A,

B, C, D and E. Transition A, B and C respectively represents :

First spectral line of Lyman series, third spectral line of Balmer series and the second spectral
(1)
line of Paschen series
Ionization potential of hydrogen, second spectral line of Balmer series and third spectral line of
(2)
Paschen series
 Series limit of Lyman series, third spectral line of Balmer series and second spectral line of
(3)
Paschen series
Series limit of Lyman series, second spectral line of Balmer series and third spectral line of
(4)
Paschen series

20) An gas of H-atoms in excited state n2 absorbs a photon of some energy and jump in higher
energy state n1. Then it returns to ground state after emitting six different wavelengths in emission
spectrum. The energy of emitted photon is equal, less or greater than the energy of absorbed photon
then n1 and n2 will be

(1) n1 = 5, n2 = 3
(2) n1 = 5, n2 = 2
(3) n1 = 4, n2 = 3
(4) n1 = 4, n2 = 2

21) When a metal is irradiated by light having wavelength λ (λ < λ0), all the photoelectron emitted

0
are bent in a circle of radius r by a magnetic field of flux density B. Find the , where λ is
thershold wavelength.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

22) The figure shows a plot of binding energy per nucleon (B.E/A) Vs mass number (A) for nuclei.
Four nuclei, P, Q, R and S are indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is.

(1) R → 2S
(2) P → Q + S
(3) P → 2R
(4) Q → R + S
23) Locate the image of the point P as seen by the eye in the figure.

(1) 0.9 cm below P

(2) 0.8 cm above P
(3) 0.7 cm above P
(4) 0.9 cm above P

24) An object is placed at a distance of x cm from a concave mirror and its real image is received on
a screen placed at a distance of y cm from the mirror. The focal length of the mirror is z cm. The
values of x are changed and the coresponding values of y are measured. Which one of the graphs
shown in figure represents the best variation of y with x?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A particle is moving towards a fixed convex mirror. The image also moves. If Vi = speed of image
and V0 speed of the object, then:

(1) Vi > V0 if |u| < |F|

(2) Vi > V0 if |u| > |F|
(3) Vi < V0 if |u| > |F|
(4) Vi = V0 if |u| = |F|

26) Monochromatic light is incident on a glass prism of angle A. If the refractive index of the
material of the prism is µ, a ray, incident at an angle θ, on the face AB would get transmitted

through the face AC of the prism provided :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The angle of deviation (δ) vs angle of incidence (i) is plotted for a prism. Pick up the incorrect

statements.

(1) The angle of prism is 60°

(2) The refractive index of the prism is n =
(3) For deviation to be 65° the angle of incidence i1 = 55°
(4) The curve of 'δ' vs 'i' is parabolic

28) An object 1 cm tall is placed 4 cm infront of a mirror, In order to produce an upright image of 3
cm height one needs a :-

(1) Convex mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm

(2) Concave mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm
(3) Concave mirror of radius of curvature 4 cm
(4) Plane mirror of height 12 cm
29) Find power of system (Lenses are thin):

(1) –12.5 D
(2) –7.5 D
(3) +7.5 D
(4) +12.5 D

30) Two lenses in contact made of materials with dispersive powers in the ratio 2 : 1, behaves as an
achromatic convex lens of focal length 10 cm. The individual focal length of the lenses are :

(1) 5 cm, –10cm

(2) –5 cm, 10 cm
(3) 10 cm, –20 cm
(4) –20 cm, 10 cm

31) The position of final image formed by the given lens combination from the third lens will be at a

distance of f1 = +10cm, f2 = –10cm, f3 = +30 cm:-

(1) 15 cm
(2) Infinity
(3) 45 cm
(4) 30 cm

32) A equiconvex lens has a focal length f and power P. It is cut into two symmetrical halves by a
plane normal to the principal axis as shown in figure (i). The two pieces are recombined as shown in

figure (ii) Then the power of the combination is

(1) Zero
(2) P/2
(3) P
(4) 2P

33) In displacement method, the distance between object and screen is 96 cm. The ratio of length of
two images formed by a converging lens placed between them is 4, then
(1) Distance between the two positions of the lens is 48 cm
(2) Distance between the two positions of the lens is 32 cm
(3) Focal length of the lens is 64/3 cm
(4) Both (2) & (3) are correct

34) An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distance objects. The
separation between the objective and the eye-piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity.
The focal length f0 of the objective and fe of the eye-piece are

(1) f0 = 45 cm and fe = – 9 cm
(2) f0 = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm
(3) f0 = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm
(4) f0 = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm

35) Light traveling through three transparent substances follows the path shown in figure. Arrange
the indices of refraction in order from smallest to largest. Note that total internal reflection does

occur on the bottom surface of medium 2.

(1) n1 < n2 < n3

(2) n2 < n1 < n3
(3) n1 < n3 < n2
(4) n3 < n1 < n2

36) If ratio of amplitude of two interferring source is 3 : 5. Then ratio of intensity of maxima and
minima in interference pattern will be :

(1) 25 : 16
(2) 5 : 3
(3) 16 : 1
(4) 25 : 9

37) In Young's double slit experiment, the seventh maximum with wavelength λ1 is at a distance d1
from central maxima and the same order maximum with wavelength λ2 is at a distance d2. Then d1/d2
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

38) A wavefront is incident on a plane mirror as shown in figure. The medium is perfectly isotropic

and homogeneous. Reflected wavefront will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light with mutually perpendicular planes of polarization
are seen through a polaroid. From the position when the beam A has maximum intensity (and beam
B has zero intensity), a rotation of polaroid through 30° makes the two beams appear equally bright.
If the initial intensities of the two beams are IA and IB respectively, then IA/ IB equals

(1) 3
(2) 3/2
(3) 1
(4) 1/3

40) In Young's double slit experiment the slits are 0.5 mm apart and interference is observed on a
screen placed at a distance of 100 cm from the slits. It is found that the 9th bright fringe is at a
distance of 9.0 mm from the second dark fringe from the centre of the fringe pattern. What is the
wavelength of light used :-
(1) 2000 Å
(2) 4000 Å
(3) 6000 Å
(4) 8000 Å

41) Three polarizer P, Q and R are placed parallel to each other with their planes perpendicular to
the z-axis. Q is placed between P and R. Initially the polarizing directions of P and Q are parallel, but
that of R is perpendicular to them. In this arrangement when unpolarized light of intensity I0 is
incident on P, the intensity coming out of R is zero. The polarizer Q is now rotated about the z-axis.
As a function of angle of rotation, the intensity of light coming out of R is best represented by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Young's double slit experiment is conducted in a liquid of refractive index µ1 as shown in figure.
A thin transparent slab of refractive index µ2 and thickness t is placed in front of the slit s2. The
magnitude of optical path difference in medium at 'O' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

43) Statement-1 : In standard YDSE set up with visible light, the position on screen where phase
difference is zero appears bright.
and
Statement-2 : In YDSE set up magnitude of electric field at central bright fringe is not varying with
time.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

44) A single slit of width b is illuminated by a coherent monochromatic light of wavelength λ. If the
second and fourth minima in the diffraction pattern at a distance 1 m from the slit are at 3 cm and 6
cm respectively from the central maximum, what is the width of the central maximum? (i.e., distance
between first minimum on either side of the central maximum)

(1) 4.5 cm
(2) 1.5 cm
(3) 6.0 cm
(4) 3.0 cm

45) For what distance is ray optics a good approximation when the aperture is 3 mm wide and
wavelength is 500 nm ?

(1) 18 m
(2) 25 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 35 m

CHEMISTRY
1) Match the following column :-

Column-I Column-II
Compound Boiling point

(A) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br (P) 364 K

(B) CH3CH2CH(Br)CH3 (Q) 346 K

(C) (CH3)3CBr (R) 375 K

(1) (A) → R,(B) → Q, (C) → P
(2) (A) → P,(B) → R, (C) → Q
(3) (A) → Q,(B) → P, (C) → R
(4) (A) → R,(B) → P, (C) → Q

2) Match the alkyl halide reacting with reagent given in Column-I with their respective substituted
product given in Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below -

Column-I Column-II
(Reagent) (Substituted Product)

(A) KCN (p) R–H

(B) AgCN (q) R–C≡N

(C) KNO2 (r) R–N C

(D) LiAlH4 (s) R–O–N=O

(E) AgNO2 (t) R–NO2

Codes :
A B C D E

(1) q r t p s

(2) r q t p s

(3) q r s p t

(4) r q s p t
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Statement-I :- For SN2 reaction Sec Butyl chloride is more reactive than n-butyl chloride.
Statement-II :- For SN1 reaction Benzyl bromide is more reactive than ethyl bromide.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

4) Match the following column :

Column-I (Reaction) Column-II (Reaction Name)

(P) (A) Etard Reaction

(Q) (B) Gattermann-koch reaction

(R) (C) Swarts Reaction

(S) (D) Sandmayer reaction

(1) P-B, Q-C, R-A, S-D

(2) P-B, Q-D, R-C, S-A
(3) P-C, Q-B, R-D, S-A
(4) P-B, Q-C,R-D, S-A

5)
Major product B is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Which of the following alcohol will give positive iodoform test ?

(1)
(2)

(3) C6H5–CH2–CH2OH

(4)

7)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The correct order of melting point of dichlorobenzenes is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9)

The final product R of the reaction :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Consider the reaction

X,
here X is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) and are readily distinguished by their reaction with :-

(1) Iodine and alkali

(2) 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
(3) Tollen's reagent
(4) All the above

12) A compound with molecular formula C3H9N when reacts with benzene sulphonyl chloride gives a
product soluble in dilute KOH solution. The compound should be :-

(1)

(2)
(3) (CH3)3N
(4) All of the above

13)

The heating of phenyl methyl ether with HI produces :-

(1) Ethyl iodide

(2) Iodobenzene
(3) Phenol
(4) Benzene

14) + CH3 – CH = CH2

A B C + acetone
The structure of intermediate compound B will be :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Which of the following reaction represent correct major product.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16)
Find the correct statement regarding both reaction :-

(1) Both reaction are nucleophilic substitution reaction

(2) Both reaction are called Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Both reaction involved formation of dichlorocarbene (singlet form)
(4) Product of both the reactions has similar functional group

17) Phenol z
product z is :-

(1) Benzaldehyde
(2) Benzoic acid
(3) Benzene
(4) Toluene

18)

Which of the following compound will reduces by both LiAlH4, as well as NaBH4

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(5)

(1) 1, 3, 4
(2) 1, 5, 3
(3) 3, 5
(4) 4, 5, 2

19)
Product B is :

(1) CH3CH2CH3
(2) CH3CH2–OH
(3) CH3CH2CH2–OH
(4) CH3CH2CHO
20) Major product of the given reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which of the following reagents cannot be used to prepare acetophenone :-

(1) C6H5COCl + (CH3)2Cd

(2) C6H5COCl + CH3MgBr
(3) C6H5CN + C2H5MgBr
(4) C6H6 + (CH3CO)2O/AlCl3

22) Which of the following will give silver mirror test.

(1) CH3 – CO – CH3

(2) CH3 – CHO
(3) Ph – CO – CH3
(4) Ph – COOH

23) Consider the following reaction sequence

CH3CH2CH2OH
Product B is an

(1) Ether
(2) Ester
(3) Anhydride
(4) Acetal
24) Major product B of the given reaction sequence is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction for following compound is
:-

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) II > IV > III > I

(2) IV > I > III > II
(3) IV > III > I > II
(4) III > IV > I > II

26)

C6H5CHO Product

Product formed will be :

(1) a meso compound
(2) d
(3) ℓ
(4) Racemic mixture

27) Reaction by which Benzaldehyde cannot be prepared :-

(1)
+Zn/Hg and conc. HCl

(2)
+CrO2Cl2 in CS2 followed by hydrolysis

(3)
+ H2 in presence of Pd+BaSO4

(4)
+ CO + HCl in presence of anhydrous AlCl3

28) Which of the following acids is a vitamin ?

(1) Aspartic acid

(2) Ascorbic acid
(3) Adipic acid
(4) Saccharic acid

29) The change in optical rotation with the time of freshly prepared solution of α-D glucose is known
as:-

(1) Specific rotation

(2) Mutarotation
(3) Inversion
(4) Rotatory motion

30) Select correct statement about following name D-(+)-glucose :-

(1) ‘’D’’ indicates dextrorotatory nature of glucose

(2) D-Glucose has 6-chiral carbon atoms
(3) Compound is optically inactive
(4) “+” indicates dextrorotatory nature of compound

31)

Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose?

(1) β-D-Glucopyranose and α-D-fructofuranose

(2) α-D-Glucopyranose and β-D-fructopyranose
(3) α-D-Galactopyranose and α-D-glucopyranose
(4) α-D-Glucopyranose and β-D-fructofuranose

32) Match the column :-

Colum-I Column-II
 (I) Water soluble vitamins (P) A, D, E and K

(II) Water insoluble vitamins (Q) B-group and C

Vitamins which act as

(III) (R) C, D and E
antioxidants

Increased blood clotting

(IV) (S) K
time
(1) (I)→(Q), (II)→(P), (III)→(R), (IV)→(S)
(2) (I)→(P), (II)→(Q), (III)→(R), (IV)→(S)
(3) (I)→(R), (II)→(Q), (III)→(P), (IV)→(S)
(4) (I)→(S), (II)→(R), (III)→(Q), (IV)→(P)

33) Match the List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Reaction) (Product)

(a) Stephen reaction (i)

(b) HVZ reaction (ii) R–I

Reimer-Tiemann
(c) (iii)
reaction

(d) Finkelstein reaction (iv) R–CHO

Select the correct option :

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

34) Match the list-I with list - II

List -I List - II

1° structure of The shape in which a polypeptide

(a) (i)
protein chain can exist.

2° structure of
(b) (ii) Overall folding of polypeptide chains
protein

The spatial arrangement of two or

3° structure of
(c) (iii) more polypeptide chains with respect
protein
to each other.

4° structure of
(d) (iv) Specific sequence of amino acids
protein
Select the correct option :-
(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(2) a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
(3) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
(4) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i

35) Which of the following compound can be separated by steam distillation method.:-

(1) Steam volatile but insoluble in water

(2) Steam volatile but soluble in water
(3) Steam non volatile but sparingly soluble in water
(4) Liquid in steam but solid in water

36) The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc HNO3 while testing for the halogens. By doing so it :-

(1) decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed

(2) helps in the precipitation of AgCl
(3) increases the solubility product of AgCl
–
(4) increases the concentration of NO3 ions

37) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

Separation of
Fractional
(a) aniline-water (i)
distillation
mixture

Separation of Distillation
(b) aniline-chloroform (ii) under reduced
mixture pressure

Separation of
(c) glycerol from (iii) Simple distillation
spent-lye

Separation of
(d) different fractions (iv) Steam distillation
of crude oil

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

38) Mixture of amino acids can be separated by

(1) Sublimation
(2) Chromatography
(3) Distillation under steam
(4) Distillation under reduced pressure

39) Which purification technique is used for liquids having very less difference in their boiling point.

(1) Simple distillation

(2) Steam distillation
(3) Fractional distillation
(4) Reduced pressure distillation

40) Correct order of bond angles of following compounds is :

(1) θ1 < θ2 < θ3

(2) θ1 > θ2 > θ3
(3) θ3 > θ1 > θ2
(4) θ2 > θ1 > θ3

41) Freon-12 can be used

(1) as a general anaesthetic

(2) as a refrigerant
(3) in perfumery
(4) all of the above

42) Find the correct order of boiling points :-

(1) CH3CHO > CH3CH2OH > CH3OCH3 > CH3CH2CH3

(2) CH3CHO > CH3OCH3 > CH3CH2OH > CH3CH2CH3
(3) CH3CH2OH > CH3CHO > CH3OCH3 > CH3CH2CH3
(4) CH3CH2OH > CH3OCH3 > CH3CHO > CH3CH2CH3

43) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis
of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl2, known as Lucas Reagent.
Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room
temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
44)
Product is :

(1) Acetaldehyde
(2) Ethyl alcohol
(3) Acetone
(4) Methane

45) Which of the following will not give ether as product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

BIOLOGY

1) In laboratory experiments, two species of the protist Paramoecium were grown alone and in the
presence of the other species. The following graphs show growth of species 1 and species 2 both

alone and when in mixed culture? Interpretation of

these graphs shows that :-

(1) Competitive exclusion occurred in these experiments.

(2) Both species are affected by inter specific competition but species 1 is affected less.
(3) Both species are affected by inter specific competition but species 2 is affected less.
(4) Both species are affected equally by inter specific competition.

2) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogen or inactivated or weakened

(1)
pathogen (vaccine) are introduced into the body.
(2) The Antibody-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
 The antibodies produced in the body during vaccination would neutralise the pathogenic agents
(3)
during actual infection.
(4) The thymus is quite large at the time of birth but keeps reducing in size with age.

3) Choose correct statements :-

(A) Immense diversity exists not only at species level but from the macro molecules to biomes level
(B) Biochemical or molecular taxonomic methods are suitable for identifying microbial species
(C) Bioprospecting is done on molecular, genetic and species level as biodiversity plays no role in
ecosystem services that nature provides.
(D) Species richness contributes to the well being of an ecosystem

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, D
(4) A, B, C, D

4) They need a constant supply of energy to synthesise the molecules they require, to counteract the
universal tendency towards increasing disorderliness, these lines indicates:-

(1) First law of thermodynamics in Food chain

(2) Second law of Thermodynamics in Food chain
(3) Surface volume ratio
(4) Homeostasis of organisms

5) Louis pasteur by his experimentation dismissed which theory ?

(1) Theory of special creation

(2) Oparin-Haldane theory
(3) Panspermia theory
(4) Spontaneous generation theory

6) During post industrialization period, the tree trunk become dark and white winged moth did not
survive, due to

(1) there was no food for them

(2) they were not capable for reproduce
(3) they did not survive due to predator
(4) All of the above

7) Choose correct statements

Potency and concentration of reserpine in Rauwolfia changes according to species diversity of

(1)
Rauwolfia
Potency and concentration of reserpine in Rauwolfia not change with species diversity of
(2)
Rauwolfia
(3) Potency and concentration of Reserpine changes according to genetic diversity in Rauwolfia
(4) Potency and concentration of Reserpine not changes according to genetic diversity in Rauwolfia
8) Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified immune response which
is called

(1) Primary immune response

(2) Amnestic response
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Anamnestic response

9) Statement-I : Similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse
organisms give clues to common ancestry.
Statement-II : These biochemical similarities point to the same shared ancestry as structural
similarities among diverse organisms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Both Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

10) Which of the following statement is not connected to energy flow in ecosystem ?

(1) The energy flow is unidirectional from sun to producers and then to consumers.
(2) Energy flow follows first law of thermodynamics.
The amount of energy decreases at successive trophic level during energy flow from producers
(3)
to consumers.
The energy lost during energy flow is utilised to enhance the universal tendency towards
(4)
decreasing disorderliness.

11) Match the following :-

Column I Column II

(A) Common cold (i) Dry & Scaly lesions

(B) Typhoid (ii) Haemophilus influenzae

Stool with mucous & blood

(C) Pneumonia (iii)
clots

(D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus

(E) Ringworm (v) Salmonella typhi

(F) Amoebiasis (vi) Haemozoin

(1) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iv, E–iii, F–v
(3) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–iii, F–i
(4) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–i, E–vi, F–iii

12) How did MacArthur's study on warblers support the idea of coexistence through resource
partitioning ?
(1) The warblers evolved to become more competitive.
(2) The warblers avoided competition by choosing different foraging patterns.
(3) The warblers eliminated the competitively inferior species.
(4) The warblers faced no competition due to abundant resources.

13) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The historic convention on biological diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992, called
upon all nations to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable
utilization of its benefits.
Statement II : Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for the products of
economic importance is known as bioprospecting.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true.

14) Match column I with column II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Over-exploitation (i) Amazon rain forest

(b) Co-extinction (ii) Lantana, Eicchornia

(c) Habitat loss (iii) Plant-Pollinator

Alien Stellers sea cow,

(d) (iv)
species invasion Passenger pigeon

Options :-
(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
(2) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
(4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv

15) Smoking is associated with increased incidence of cancer of :-

(a) Lungs
(b) Urinary bladder
(c) Throat

(1) a and c
(2) a, b and c
(3) b and c
(4) a only
16)
In a aquatic food chain a disease reduced the number of consumer (2) What effect would be likely to
have on the number of consumer (1) and (3)

Consumer (1) Consumer (3)

(1) ↑ in number ↑ in number

(2) ↑ in number ↓ in number

(3) ↓ in number ↑ in number

(4) ↓ in number ↓ in number

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) The correct sequence of evolution of plants :-

(1) Chlorophytes – Tracheophytes – Rhynia type – Psilophytons – Progymnosperms

(2) Chlorophytes – Psilophyton – Tracheophytes – Rhynia type
(3) Chlorophytes – Progymnosperms – Lycopods
(4) Psilophyton – Tracheophytes – Zosterophyllum – Rhynia type

18)
How many statements are true about above figure:-
(A) These are placental mammals found in Australia
(B) This is a type of divergent evolution
(C) They show homology
(D) These animals are found only in Australia

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

19) How many of the following examples belong to innate immunity ?

T-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes, Macrophage, Skin, Tears, Antibodies, Interferons, Natural killer
cells.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

20) Statement-I : Acid in stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes all prevent microbial
growth.
Statement-II : Bacteria infected cell secrete protein called interferon.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Only statement-I is correct
(3) Only statement-II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

21) Which of the following is related to Typhoid ?

Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for this
(1)
disease
As a result of the infection, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in
(2)
respiration.
(3) The symptoms of this disease include fever, chills, cough and headache.
(4) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases.

22) In present grim scenario of extinctions, which among the following species in world are facing
maximum threat of extinction-

(1) Angiosperms species

(2) Gymnosperms species
(3) Amphibians species
(4) Mammals species

23) Consider the following four statements and select the option which includes all the correct ones:-
(a) Sparrow eating any seed is no less a predator
(b) Viceroy butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator
(c) Nearly 25% of all insects are known to be phytophagous.
(d) Thorns are the most common morphological defence mechanism.

(1) Statements- (a), (c), (d)

(2) Statements- (a), (b)
(3) Statements- (a), (b), (c)
(4) Statements- (b), (d)

24) If there are 200 carrot grass and a single huge banyan tree then best method of calculating
population density is :
(1) Number
(2) Biomass
(3) Percent cover area
(4) Both (2) and (3)

25) In logistic growth curve when the population density reaches the carrying capacity, that stage is
called as :-

(1) Exponential phase

(2) Acceleration phase
(3) Deceleration phase
(4) Asymptote phase

26) ________ and _______ are the most important climatic factors that regulate decomposition through
their effect on the activities of soil microbes:-

(1) Soil, Temperature

(2) Moisture, Topography
(3) Temperature, Moisture
(4) pH, Chemical composition of detritus

27) In which ecosystem pyramid are always upright ?

(1) Tree ecosystem

(2) Ocean
(3) Grass land ecosystem
(4) All of the above

28) Identify the molecule shown below and select the right option :-

(1) Morphine
(2) Cocaine
(3) Cannabinoid
(4) LSD

29) Choose the odd one :-

(1) Forest
(2) Grassland
(3) Desert
(4) Garden

30) Identify the correct match from the coloumn I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Plant pollinator
1 Predation a i +/–
relation

2 Commensalism b Cuckoo & Crow ii +/0

Biological control
3 Mutualism c iii +/+
method

Sea-anemone &
4 Parasitism d iv +/–
clown fish
(1) 1-b-i, 2-a-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-d-iv
(2) 4-a-ii, 2-b-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-d-i
(3) 1-c-i, 3-a-iii, 2-d-ii, 4-b-iv
(4) 1-c-i, 3-a-iii, 2-b-iv, 4-d-ii

31) Identify the correct match from column I and column II :-

Column–I Column–II

(A) Origin of Universe (i) 4 bya

(B) Origin of earth (ii) 4.5 bya

(C) Origin of first cellular form of life (iii) 3 bya

(D) Origin of first non-cellular form of life (iv) 13.8 bya

(E) Life appeared (v) 2 bya

(1) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii, E – v
(2) A – iv, B – i, C – v, D – ii, E – iii
(3) A – iv, B – ii, C – v, D – iii, E – i
(4) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – v, E – i

32) Assertion : The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.

Reason : The biomass of fishes far exceeds than that of phytoplanktons.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

33) Match the columns with regard to innate immunity :-

 Column I Column II

(A) Interferon (i) Physiological barrier

(B) Gastric juice, saliva, tear (ii) Physical barrier

(C) Mucosa and Skin (iii) Cellular Barrier

(D) Neutrophils, monocyte, N–K cells (iv) Cytokine Barrier

(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
(2) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii
(3) A–iv, B–i, C–iii, D–ii
(4) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii

34) More species in community, tends to more stability than communities with less species'. It was
supported by–

(1) David Tilman

(2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) Humboldt
(4) Both (1) and (2)

35) How many of the given characters are true for mutation?
Random, Directional, Occur at large scale, small

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

36) Symptoms of which disease include constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, stools with excess
mucous and blood clots?

(1) Typhoid
(2) Ascariasis
(3) Wuchereria
(4) Amoebic dysentery

37) Cocaine & opioids are respectively.

(1) Sedative & Depressant

(2) Stimulant & Depressant
(3) Depressant & Sedative
(4) Hallucinogen & Stimulant

38) Given below ecological pyramid represents :-

(1) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem.
(2) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem.
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Pyramid of energy in grassland ecosystem.

39) Which of the following organ provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen?

(1) Spleen
(2) Lymph nodes
(3) Thymus
(4) Both 1 and 2

40) In the given figure which one of the following represent the correct example of convergent
evolution ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Who proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic
molecules ?

(1) Louis Pasteur

(2) Miller
(3) Oparin & Haldane
(4) Darwin

42) Assertion : Tropics harbour more species than temperate and polar areas.
Reason : Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant which promote niche-
specialization and greater species diversity.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

43) Select the option that correctly identifies I, II, III and IV :-
 I – Biosphere reserves
II – National parks, wildlife sanctuaries
(1)
III – Sacred plants at home gardens
IV – Gene banks, cryopreservation
I – Sacred plants at home gardens
II – National parks, wildlife sanctuaries
(2)
III – Biosphere reserves
IV – Gene banks, cryopreservation
I – Biosphere reserves
II – Gene banks, cryopreservation
(3)
III – Sacred plants at home gardens
IV – National parks, wildlife sanctuaries
I – Biosphere reserves
II – Sacred plants at home gardens
(4)
III – National parks, wildlife sanctuaries
IV – Gene banks, cryopreservation

44) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option-

Sr. Sr.
Column-I Column-II
No. No.

(i) Paul Ehrlich (a) Species area relationship

(ii) A.V. Humboldt (b) Narrowly utilitarian

(iii) Bioprospecting (c) In-situ conservation

(iv) Pollination (d) Rivet-popper hypothesis

(v) Wildlife safari (e) Broadly utilitarian

(vi) Wildlife sanctuary (f) Ex-situ conservation

(1) i-d, ii-a, iii-e, iv-b, v-f, vi-c
(2) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-e, v-b, vi-f
(3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-e, v-c, vi-f
(4) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-e, v-f, vi-c

45) Which of the following is air-borne disease ?

(1) Typhoid
(2) Amoebiasis
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Ascariasis

46) How many of the given example are carnivore but not a predator ? Lion, Snake,
Vulture, Peacock, Rabbit, Tiger, Fox, Shark

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Five
(4) Three

47) Assertion (A) : When energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some
energy is always lost as heat at each step.
Reason (R) : Heat loss increases disorderliness which is an universal tendency of all ecosystems
and for this ecosystem needs a constant supply of energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

48) Choose the correct statement -

(1) Morphology and anatomy of endoparasites are greatly simplified.

(2) Parasites act as conduits of energy transfer across trophic levels.
(3) Brood parasitism is a true parasitism.
(4) Parasitic mode of life ensures catch, kill and eat the parasites.

49) Which of the following is not a bacterial disease?

(1) Plague
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Dysentery
(4) Dengue

50) Which of the following is correct?

According to IUCN(2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so for is
(1)
slightly more than 7.0 million.
A more conservative and scientifically sound estimation of species diversity made by alexander
(2)
von Humboldt.
Among animals, insects are the most species rich taxonomic group, making up more than 70
(3)
percent of the total.
The number of fungi species in the world is less than the combined total of the species of fishes,
(4)
amphibians, reptiles and mammals.
51) Malignant malaria caused by :-

(1) P. falciparum
(2) P. vivax
(3) P. malaria
(4) P. Ovale

52) Identify 'A' in given figure :-

(1) Crocodile
(2) Bird
(3) Tyrannosaurus
(4) Mammal

53) Match List–I with List–II:

List–I List–II

Water-soluble nutrients go down into the soil

(A) Fragmentation (I)
horizon

(B) Leaching (II) Breakdown of detritus into smaller particles

Enzymatic degradation of detritus into

(C) Catabolism (III)
simpler substances

Formation of dark-colored humus resistant

(D) Humification (IV)
to microbial action

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

54) Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is
drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls.

(1) Asthma
(2) Pleurisy
(3) Emphysema
(4) Pneumonia

55) Which of the following is/are correct :

(A) Organisms placed on second trophic level are carnivores
(B) Detritus food chain begins from death of organism
(C) Members of grazing food chain can also be the members of detritus food chain
(D) Ecosystem are exempt of second law of thermodynamics

(1) B, C, D
(2) A and D
(3) B and C
(4) A, B, C, D

56) Identify the correct statement regarding log curves :-

(1) Z value of forest B is higher

Log equation is represented as
(2)
logS = logZ + ClogA
(3) Intercept on X-axis is referred as C
(4) In a unit area species richness of forest-A is higher than forest-B

57) How many drugs obtained from same plant source ?

Bhang, Charas, Ganja, Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Hasish

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 6

58) Choose incorrect match from the following :-

Column-A Column-B

(1) Ophrys & Bumble Bee Pseudocopulation

Use of Male flower as

(2) Ficus & Female wasp
oviposition site

(3) Orchid – Mango Commensalism

(4) Brood parasitism Koel and Crow

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
(A) The common cold is characterised by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness,
cough, headache, tiredness, etc.
(B) When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, sporozoites enter the mosquito’s
body and undergo further development.
(C) A healthy person acquires ascariasis through contaminated water, vegetables, fruits, etc.
(D) Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes typhoid fever in human beings.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) T T F F

(2) F T T F

(3) T F T T

(4) F T F T

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Life appeared ___(A)___ after the formation of earth i.e., almost ___(B)___ .

(1) A – 500 billion years, B – 4.5 BYA

(2) A – 500 billion years, B – 4 BYA
(3) A – 500 million years, B – 4 BYA
(4) A – 500 million years, B – 4.5 BYA

61) Match the column for 784 species extinct in last 500 years based on IUCN.

(a) Plants Species (i) 338

(b) Vertebrate Species (ii) 87

(c) Invertebrate Species (iii) 359

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii

62) Assertion(A) : The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in
the environment is called allergy.
Reason (R) : Allergy is caused due to the release of chemicals like steroids from the mast cells.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

63) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Smack is chemically diacetyl morphine which is obtained by acetylation of heroin
(b) Morphine is obtained from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum
(c) Drugs having their effects on cardiovascular system of body are being abused by some sports
persons.
(d) Crack interfers with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) c, d

64) Choose the correct option for ecosystem no. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) ?

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv) where A, B, C are Birds, x is a mammalian species and 1 is a

plant species :-

(1) (iv) is more diverse among all of these

(2) (i) is more diverse than (ii)
(3) (iii) show maximum species diversity
(4) (ii) and (iii) are taxonomically same diverse

65) Which of the following is a placental mammal :

(1) Bobcat
(2) Spotted cuscus
(3) Numbat
(4) Flying phalanger

66) Excessive dosage of _______causes hallucinations.

(1) Morphine
(2) Heroine
(3) Smack
(4) Cocaine

67) How much area of Earth's land surface is covered by hotspots?

(1) 4%
(2) 10%
(3) more than 15%
(4) less than 2%

68) Which of the following is chemically diacetylmorphine which is a white, odourless, bitter
crystalline compound?

(1) Smack
(2) Morphine
(3) Charas
(4) Coca alkaloid

69) Which activity is not performed by bee in relationship with orchid ?

(a) Pseudocopulation
(b) Sexual deciet
(c) Mimicry

(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) Only a
(4) a, b & c

70) The first cellular form of life appear on earth at :-

(1) 2000 million years ago

(2) 200 million years ago
(3) 2000 billion years ago
(4) 200 billion years ago

71) Read the following a & b statements carefully.

Statement (a) :- Rhino viruses one such group of viruses which cause one of the most infectious
human ailments the common cold.
Statement (b) :- Ascaris the common round worm and wuchereria the filarial worm, are some of the
helminths which are known to be pathogenic to man.
Mark the correct choice w.r.t various diseases-

(1) Only statement a is correct

(2) Only statement a is incorrect
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Statement b is incorrect

72) 'When migration of a section of population to another place and population occur, gene
frequency change.'
This is called as

(1) Mutation
(2) Gene recombination
(3) Gene migration
(4) Natural selection

73) According to IUCN

(1) Number of plant and animal species > 1.5 million

(2) Number of plant and animal species > 1.3 million
(3) Number of plant and animal species > 1.7 million
(4) Number of plant and animal species > 1.9 million

74) Morphine is extracted from _____ of poppy plant.

(1) Flower tops

(2) Leaves
(3) Resin
(4) Latex

75) If log A = 4, Z = 0.3 and log C = 0.8, what is log S?

(1) 3.76
(2) 100
(3) 4.24
(4) 2

76) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): Common examples of allergens are mites in dust, pollens, animal dander, etc.
Reason (R): Symptoms of allergic reactions include sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and
difficulty in breathing.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

77) According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, in a population frequency of allele 'A' is 0.4 than what
would be the frequency of allele-a :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.2

78) According to Oparin which gas was not present in free form in the early atmosphere of earth ?

(1) Methane
(2) Ammonia
(3) Oxygen
(4) Water vapour

79) Those who take drugs intravenously (direct injection into the vein using a needle and syringe),
are much more likely to acquire serious infections like?

(1) Cirrhosis
(2) Typhoid
(3) AIDS and Hepatitis B
(4) Pernicious anaemia

80) Assertion (A) :- Some organisms produce a large number of small-sized offspring.
Reason (R) :- These organisms have evolved this strategy to maximize their Darwinian fitness.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

81) When an organism dies, It starts the :

(1) Grazing food chain

(2) Detritus food chain
(3) Detritus food web
(4) Both 2 and 3 given above

82) A is the remaining biomass or the energy left after utilisation of producers. Here A is :-

(1) GPP
(2) NPP
(3) NCP
(4) GSP

83) Which statement is/are correct :-

(A) Constant environment promote niche specialisation and lead to a greater species diversity
(B) Rich biodiversity is not only essential for ecosystem health but imperative for the very survival of
the human race on this planet
(C) Species inventories are more complete in tropical than in temperate countries.
(D) The number of fungi species in the world is more than the combined total of the species of fishes,
amphibians, reptiles and mammals.

(1) A,B,C,D are correct

(2) A,B,C are correct
(3) A,B,D are correct
(4) A,C,D are correct
84) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Individuals who require repeated blood transfusions are at high risk of getting HIV infection
Benign tumors normally remain confined to their original location and do not spread to other
(2)
parts of the body and cause little damage.
Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissue and blood and
(3)
bone marrow tests for decreased WBCs in the case of leukemias.
(4) AIDS patients suffers from bouts of fever, diarrhoea and weight loss.

85) What benefits does fig tree offers to wasp in return for its pollination ?

(1) Delicious fruits

(2) Nectar
(3) Pollens
(4) Oviposition site and developing seeds

86) How much amount of incident solar radiation (ISR) is used in the photosynthetic process by
plants ?

(1) 1-5%
(2) 2-10%
(3) 20-40%
(4) 50-70%

87) Use of antibiotics or drugs against eukaryotic organisms shows

(1) Retrogressive evolution

(2) Mutation
(3) Speciation
(4) Natural selection

88) ____(A)___ are found in Khasi and Jaintia. Hills of Meghalaya, Aravali hills of ____(B)___, western
ghat regions of karnataka and maharastra and the sarguja, chanda and Baster areas of ____(C)___. In
meghalaya, the sacred groves are the last refuges for a large number of rare and threatened species,
India has ____(D)___. Biosphere reserve and 90 national parks. What does A, B,C,D respectively are
in above statement.

(1) Sacred groves, Madhya Pradesh, 14, Rajasthan

(2) Sacred groves, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, 14
(3) Biosphere reserve, Rajasthan, Sacred groves, 14
(4) Zoological park, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, 34

89) Find out the correct match :-

(1) Typhoid fever - Wuchereria

(2) Ringworm - Epidermophyton
(3) Dengue fever - Culex mosquito
(4) Hepatitis-B - Rhino virus

90) Which strategy is considered better for maximizing reproductive fitness in Populations ?

(1) r-selected strategy

(2) K-selected strategy
(3) Both strategies are equally effective
(4) It depends on various factors such as habitat, selection pressures, and life history traits
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 4 3 2 1 3 3 3 2 4 4 1 1 3 2 2 4 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 2 1 1 4 3 4 4 4 3 1 2 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 3 4 3 1 3 4 2 4 3 1 3 3 3 3 2 3 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 2 2 4 4 1 3 3 1 1 3 2 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 2 4 3 3 4 4 4 1 2 4 3 2 2 1 2 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 1 4 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 1 2 4 3 4 2 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 4 3 2 1 1 4 3 1 3 1 3 3 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 3 1 4 4 1 2 1 3 3 1 4 4 2 3 3 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 3 3 4 1 4 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Avalanche break down occure in lightly doped PN-junction diode is commutative effect of
increased electron collision and creation of added electron hole pair.

2) (AND gate)

3)

Capacitor is used to reduce ripples in output.

4) If diode is real then

I = 37.8 mA
Peak voltage at the end of load if diode is real
V = IR
V = (37.8) × 10–3 × 500
V = 18.9 Volt

5) Zener diode voltage regulation (constant load voltage)

In the regulating region, VO​ = VZ​ = constant, so IL​ = VZ​/RL​ is constant.
As Vin​↑, the voltage drop across RS​ increases, so IS​ = (Vin​ − VZ​)/RS​ increases.
Since IZ​ = IS​ − IL​, and IS​↑ and IL​ is constant, IZ​ increases.
So, B. the current through RS​ increases, zener increases but through RL​ remains constant

6) σ = en [µe + µh]

7)
i = 1.5A

8)
put A = 0 B = 1 C = 0
y=1
put A = 0 ; B = 0 ; C = 1
y=1

9) Stopping voltage depend on frequency

eV0 = hυ – ϕ.
saturation current ∝ intensity of light.

10)

K = hν – ϕ
2eV = hν – 2eV

hν = 4 eV ⇒
ν = 1015 Hz

11) V = =
V' = 2V ⇒ A' = 2A = 120
⇒ Z = 50

12)

n' = 83 – 82 = 1

13) V = 20 KV
E = 20 × 1.6 × 10–19 eV

λmin = = 0.62 ×10–10 = 0.62Å

14)

By Einstein’s equation

and
⇒

15)

Q=(80 × 7 + 120 × 8) – 200 × 6.5 MeV

= 220 MeV

16) 1 amu = 931 MeV.

Hence 0.0303 amu = 0.0303 × 931 MeV
= 28.2 MeV 28MeV.
Binding energy per nucleon for helium

= = 7 MeV

17) Number of uranium atoms in 2kg

energy from one atom is 200 × 106 e.v. hence total energy from 2 kg uranium

2 kg uranium is used in 30 days hence this energy is received in 30 days hence energy
received per second or power is

Power = 63.2 × 106 watt or 63.2 Mega Watt

18) Binding energy per nucleon is almost same for nuclei of mass number ranging 30 to 170.

19) For A(n1 = 1, n2 = ∞) → Series limit of Lyman series

For B(n1 = 2, n2 = 5) → 3rd spectral line of Balmer series
For C(n1 = 3, n2 = 5) → 2nd spectral line of Paschen series

20) As the electron returns to ground state after emitting six different wavelengths in emission
spectrum, there must be a difference of '2' between the ground and excited states. Also the
ground state should be n = 2.
Hence n1 = 4 , n2 = 2.

21) K.E. = mv2 =

22)

In only 3rd option the sum of BE of product is more than reactant hence it is possible.

23) Shift =

= 0.2 + 0.3 + 0.4 = 0.9 cm

Shift in the direction of rays

24) u = –x
y = –y (real image)
f = –z

25) For convex mirror

|m| < 1 for any real object
Now, Vimage = –m2Vobject
⇒ |Vimage| < |Vobject| always

26)
For all light to come out from face AC angle of emergence
Apply Snell's Law at face AC
µ sin r2 = 1 sin e

r2 = sin–1 (if e = 90)

r1 = A – sin–1 (∴ r1 + r2 = A)
Apply Snell's law at face AB
1 sinθ = µsin(r1)

θ=
for all light transmitted through AC, e < 90°
 ⇒

27) δ = i + e – A (for minimum derivation i = e)

∴ minimum deviation = 2i - A
60 = 2 × 60 – A ⇒ A = 60°

n= = =
δ1 = i1 + e – A
65° = i1 + 70° – 60° or i1 = 55°
the δ versus i curve is not parabolic

28)

= 3x = 12

[Virtual enlarged image]

f= = 6 cm
R = 12 cm

29)

Equivalent focal length

(If f is in cm)

use
P = –12.5 D

30)

For Achromatic combination

....(1)

....(2) given

⇒ f1 = –2f2 ⇒

31)

V2 = + ∞ as Image V1 is formed at focus of concave lens.

V3 = + 30 convex lens will form final image at its focus for incident light from infinity (V2)

32) Peq. = P1 + P2 ⇒ = =P

33)

Let object and image distances be x and y,

and m1m2 = 1 ⇒ m1 = 2 , m2 = x + y = 96; y/x = 2

y = 2x
3x = 96
x = 32
x + y = 96
x = 32 cm
so y = 64 cm
x–y = 32
Distance between the positions of the lens is 32 cm.

⇒ u = – 32, V = 64
put values

Focal length of the lens is cm

34) For normal adjustment of astronomical telescope tube length (LT = fo + fe)
Magnifying power M.P. = fo/fe
Given M.P. = 5 , LT = 36 cm

⇒ = 5 ⇒ fo = 5fe .....(i)
fo + fe = 36 ....(ii)
By solving fo = 30 cm , fe = 6 cm

35) Snell's Law: When light travels from one medium to another, the relationship between the
angle of incidence (θ1) and the angle of refraction (θ2) is given by Snell's Law:
n1 sin(θ1) = n2 sin(θ2) = n3 sin(θ3)
• where n1 and n2 are the refractive indices of the two media.
• Total Internal Reflection: Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from a denser
medium (higher refractive index) to a rarer medium (lower refractive index) and the angle of
incidence exceeds the critical angle.
• Medium 1 to Medium 2: The light ray bends away from the normal as it enters medium 2.
This indicates that the refractive index of medium 2 (n2) is more than that of medium 1 (n1).
For TIR ; n2 > n3
and n1 sin(θ1) = n3 sin(θ3) ⇒ n1 > n3

36) Intensity at Maxima:

Imax ∝ (A1 + A2)2
Intensity at Minima :
Imin ∝ (A1 – A2)2
Where A1 and A2 are the amplitudes of the two sources.
Let the amplitudes of the two sources be A1 = 3 and A2 = 5
Intensity at Maxima:
Imax ∝ (3 + 5)2 = 82 = 64
Intensity at Minima:
Imin ∝ (5 – 3)2 = 22 = 4
The ratio of intensities at maxima to minima is:
Thus, the ratio of intensity at maxima to minima is 16 : 1.

37)

38)
Consider rays perpendicular to wavefront, reflect them from mirror.

39)

40) The distance of the mth bright fringe from the central fringe is

ym =
where β = λD/d is the fringe width
∵ y9 = 9β (i)
th
The distance of the m dark fringe from the central fringe is

y'm = =

∴ y'2 = (ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get y9 – y'2

= 9β – =
It is given that y9 – y'2 = 9.0 mm and

= 1.2 × 10–3 m
Now λ = βd/D. Substituting for β, d and D, we get
λ = 6 × 10–7 m = 6000 Å
41)

42)

(S2O – S1O)optical
⇒ [μ1(S2O – t) + μ2t] – μ1(S1O)
⇒ μ1(S2O – S1O) + μ2t – μ1t
= 0 + t [μ2 – μ1]
⇒ (μ2 – μ1)t

43) Light is EM wave

at centre Δϕ = 0
Emax = 2E0
E1 = E0 sin ωt
E2 = E0 sin (ωt + ϕ)
Eresultant = 2E0 sin (ϕ)
amplitude is constant
Magnitude of electric field is changing with time

44) For the secondary minima dsinθ = nλ

Sinθ = nλ/d
For second minima n = 2

For fourth minima n = 4

Width of the central max = 3 cm

45) Given, aperture, a = 3 mm = 3 × 10–3 m

and wavelength, λ = 500 nm = 5 × 10–7 m
According to Fresnel distance, ZF,
CHEMISTRY

46) NCERT XII Pg. # 290

B.P ∝ Molar mass
B.P × 1/Branching.

47) NCERT Class XII part-II ed. 23-24 Pg: No. 170

48)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking about the statement (I) and (II)
Concept:-
This question is based on SN2 and SN1 reaction
Solution :-

(1) Rate of SN2 reaction ∝

Statement (I) is false

(2) Rate of SN1 ∝ stability of carbocation

Statement (II) is correct

Final Answer :- (3)

49)

All are the examples of name reactions.

50)

51) give positive iodoform test

52)
53)

54)

55)

56)

57)
58)

59)

60)

61)

NCERT 12th Page No. # 401, 343

62)

63)

FACT

64)

65)

NaBH4 reduces Aldehyde but not carboxylic acid.

66)

C6H5CN + C2H5 MgBr

67) NCERT - Ald & Ketone, Oxidation

68) CH3 – CH2 CH2OH CH3 – CH2COOH

CH3CH2COOCH3

69)

70) rate of NAR ∝ electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon ∝

 71) Explaining the Question :- Questions asks about the nature of product of given reaction.
Concept:- This question is based on NAR
Solution :-

Carbonyl carbon is planar so attacking nucleophile can attack from both side. On attack of
nucleophile, a chiral center is generated in the product I that means a racemic mixture is
formed as product.
Final Answer :- (4)

72) In presence of Zn – Hg and conc. HCl reduction is useful specially for aldehyde and ketone
but carboxylic group remains uneffected

73)

Ascorbic acid is vit vitamic 'C'

74) The change in optical rotation with the time of freshly prepared solution of α-D glucose is
known as muta rotation.

75)

(+) is dextrorotating isomer

76)

Sucrose is a dissachride of α-D-glucopyranose and β-D-fructofuranose

77) Solution : The matching is based on the classification and functions of vitamins, as shown
in the table below.

Column-I Matched Column-II

(I) Water soluble vitamins (Q) B-group and C

 (II) Water insoluble vitamins (P) A, D, E and K

(III) Vitamins which act as antioxidants (R) C, D and E

(IV) Increased blood clotting time (S) K

The correct matching sequence is:
(I)→(Q), (II)→(P), (III)→(R), (IV)→(S)
Final Answer : option (1)

78)

NCERT, class 12th, part-2, Article No:6.4.3,7.4.4,8.2.2,8.9.4 Pg No: 165,213, 232, Edition:
2023-24.

79)

Refer: NCERT-XII, Biomolecuole, structure of protein.

80) Fact

81)

Na2S + conc. HNO3 → H2S↑

NaCN + conc. HNO3 → HCN

82) Knowledge based

XI NCERT Page No. 348 & 349
Distillation

83)

Chromatography is used to seperate mixture of Amino acids

84) NCERT Pg. No. # 349

Question Explanation: The question asks which purification technique is suitable when the
difference in boiling points of two liquids is very low.
Concept: Distillation methods depend on boiling point differences.
Solution:
• Simple distillation: Works only when boiling point difference is large (>30-40oC).
• Steam distillation: Used for steam-volatile, immiscible substances, not for close boiling
liquids.
• Reduced pressure distillation: Used for high-boiling compounds prone to decomposition, not
for close boiling liquids.
• Fractional distillation: Specific designed for liquids with small differences in boiling points,
using a fractionating column for effective separation.
Final Answer: Option (3)
 85) NCERT XII, Topic # 11.3

86)

Freon is a refrigerant

87)

Fact

88) 1°,2°,3° Alcohol are distinguished by Lucas test on the basis of the time taken for turbidity
to appear
R–CH2–OH R–CH2–Cl
1° alcohol (Turbidity in 30 min.)

2° alcohol (Turbidity in 5 min.)

3° alcohol (Immediate turbidity appears)

Reactivity of alcohol towards Lucas reagent
⇒ 3° > 2° > 1° Alcohol

89)

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XII Pg#198,199

92) NCERT, Pg # 136, 138

93) NCERT-XII Pg#216,221

94) NCERT-XII Pg#209

95) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 127

96) NCERT_Page No. 132

97) NCERT-XII Pg#217

98) NCERT, Pg. # 135

99)

NCERT Page No. # 115

100)

NCERT-XII Pg#209

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 130-133

102)

NCERT-XII Pg#119
Explain Question: The question is asking: How MacArthur’s warbler study demonstrated that
species can coexist by dividing resources.

Concept: Resource Partitioning.

Solution:

MacArthur’s study showed that five closely related warbler species coexisted on the same tree
by foraging in different parts and in different ways, thus avoiding direct competition.

The correct Answer: The warblers avoided competition by choosing different foraging
patterns.

Final answer: Option (2)

103) NCERT-XII Pg#225

104)
NCERT-XII Pg#222,223

105) NCERT Page No. E – 160

106)

NCERT-XII Pg#209,210

107)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 122

108)

NCERT, Pg # 117

109) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 150, 151

110) NCERT Pg. # 134, 135

111) NCERT XII Page No. : 130, 131

112)

NCERT-XII Pg#222

113) NCERT-XII, Pg No. # 197, 198

114) NCERT-XII Pg#191

115) NCERT-XII Pg#195

116)

NCERT-XII Pg#208

117)

NCERT-XII Pg#212

118) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 158,159, Para-8.5

119)

NCERT-XII Pg#206

120) NCERT-XII Pg#197,198,199,200

121)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 111,112

122) NCERT-XII Pg#212,213

123) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 150,151, para-8.2.1

124)

NCERT-XII Pg#221,220

125) NCERT_Page No. 135

126) NCERT, Pg # 132

127) NCERT Pg. # 159

128) NCERT-XII Pg#212

129) NCERT, Pg. # 138

130) NCERT-XII, Pg # 118

131) NCERT, Pg. # 111

132) NCERT-XII Pg#219,220

133)

NCERT-XII Pg#224,225

134) NCERT-XII Pg#220,221,224,225

135) NCERT XII Pg # 133

136)

NCERT-XII Pg#197,198

137) NCERT-XII Pg#209

138) NCERT-XII Page No. 200

139) NCERT, Pg. # 134

140) NCERT-XII Pg#218,219

141) NCERT XII Pg # 131

142) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 114

143)

NCERT-XII Pg#207,208

144)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 184

145)

NCERT-XII Pg#208,209

146)

NCERT-XII Pg#220

147)

NCERT XII, Pg # 104

148) NCERT-XII Pg#201,202

149) NCERT, Pg # 130,131,133

150) NCERT Pg # 111

151)

NCERT-XII Pg#218

152) NCERT-XII Pg. # 153 Para. = 8.2-5 (E)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 165 Para. = 8.2-5 (H)

153)

NCERT XII Pg. # 158, 159 (E)

154)

NCERT-XII Pg#206

155) NCERT Pg. No. 118

156) NCERT 12th Page #143

157) NCERT-XII Pg#224

158) NCERT, Pg. # 142

159)

NCERT-XII Pg#201,202

160) NCERT_Page No. 137

161) NCERT Page No. 147 & 149 (E), 160 & 162 (H)

162) NCERT_Page No. 137

163) NCERT-XII Pg#217

164) NCERT Pg#142

165) NCERT-XII Pg#220

166) NCERT, Pg # 137

167) NCERT XII (E) Pg. 139, 1st pare.

168) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111

169)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 146

170) NCERT-XII Pg#196

171) NCERT-XII Pg#210

172)

NCERT-XII Pg#207

173)

NCERT-XII Pg#219,221,218

174) NCERT, Pg # 139, 140, 141

175)

NCERT-XII Pg#202

176)

NCERT-XII Pg#209

177) NCERT_Page No.132

178) NCERT 12th, Page No. # 225

179) NCERT Pg. # 130, 131, 133

180) NCERT-XII Pg#196