26-12-2025

1016CMD303362250019 MD

PHYSICS

1) An electric charge 10–6μC is placed at origin (0, 0) m of X –Y co-ordinate system. Two points P and
Q are situated at and respectively. The potential difference between the points
P and Q will be :

(1)
(2)
(3) 0 V
(4) 3 V

2) A thin metallic wire having cross sectional area of 10–4 m2 is used to make a ring of radius 30 cm.
A positive charge of 2π C is uniformly distributed over the ring, while another positive charge of 30
pC is kept at the centre of the ring. The tension in the ring is ; provided that the ring does not get
deformed (neglect the influence of gravity).

(Given, SI units)

(1) 2N
(2) 1N
(3) 3N
(4) 4N

3) An electron is moving under the influence of the electric field of a uniformly charged infinite plane
sheet S having surface charge density +σ. The electron at t = 0 is at a distance of 1 m from S and

has a speed of 1 m/s. The maximum value of σ if the electron strikes S at t = l s is the
value of α is

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 2

4) Force between two point charges and placed in vacuum at ‘r’ cm apart is F. Force between
them when placed in a medium having dielectric K = 5 at ‘r/5’ cm apart will be:

(1) F/25
(2) 5F
(3) F/5
(4) 25F

5) An electric toaster has resistance of 60 Ω at room temperature (27ºC). The toaster is connected to
a 220 V supply. If the current flowing through it reaches 2.75 A, the temperature attained by toaster
is around : (if )

(1) 694oC
(2) 1235oC
(3) 1694oC
(4) 1667oC

6) Electric field in a given by . Then the charge enclosed in the cube of side 1m

oriented as shown in the diagram is :

(1) ε0
(2) 2ε0
(3) 4ε0
(4) Zero

7) Three charges +Q, q, + Q are placed respectively, at distance, 0, d/2 and d from the origin, on the
x-axis. If the net force experienced by + Q, placed at x = 0, is zero, then value of q is :

(1) +Q/2
(2) –Q/2
(3) –Q/4
(4) +Q/4

8) Four equal point charges Q each are placed in the xy plane at (0, 2), (4, 2), (4, –2) and (0, –2). The
work required to put a fifth charge Q at the origin of the coordinate system will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A charge Q is distributed over three concentric spherical shells of radii a, b, c (a < b < c ) such
that their surface charge densities are equal to one another. The total potential at a point at distance
r from their common centre, where r < a, would be :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A solid conducting sphere, having a charge Q, is surrounded by an uncharged conducting hollow
spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid sphere and that of the
outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge of –4Q, the new potential
difference between the same two surfaces is :

(1) V
(2) 2V
(3) –2V
(4) 4V

11) In free space, a particle A of charge 1 μC is held fixed at a point P. Another particle B of the
same charge and mass 4 mg is kept at a distance of 1 mm from P. if B is released, then its speed at a
distance of 9 mm from P is :

(1) 2.0 × 103 m/s

(2) 3.0 × 104 m/s
(3) 1.5 × 102 m/s
(4) 1.0 m/s

12) Consider two charged metallic spheres S1 and S2 of radii R1 and R2, respectively. The electric
fields E1 (on S1) and E2 (on S2) on their surfaces are such that E1/E2 = R1/R2. Then the ratio V1 (on S1) /
V2 (on S2) of the electrostatic potentials on each sphere is :

(1) (R2/R1)

(2)

(3) R1/R2
2
(4) (R1/R2)

13) Concentric metallic hollow spheres of radii R and 4R hold charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. Find
out the potential difference V(R) – V(4R) is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Two identical electric point dipoles have dipole moments and and are held on
the x axis at distance 'a' from each other. When released, they move along the x-axis with the
direction of their dipole moments remaining unchanged. If the mass of each dipole is'm', their speed
when they are infinitely far apart is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Two large identical plates are placed in front of each other at x = d and x = 2d as shown in the
figure. If charges on plates are Q and –5Q, the potential versus distance graph for the region x = 0

and x = 3d is :- (d is very small and potential at x = 0 is V )

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16) A wire of length 10 cm and radius connected across the right gap of a meter
bridge. When a resistance of 4.5 Ω is connected on the left gap by using a resistance box, the
balance length is found to be at 60 cm from the left end. If the resistivity of the wire is R × 10–7Ωm,
then value of R is :

(1) 63
(2) 70
(3) 66
(4) 35

17) The deflection in moving coil galvanometer falls from 25 divisions to 5 division when a shunt of
24Ω is applied. The resistance of galvanometer coil will be :

(1) 12Ω
(2) 96Ω
(3) 48Ω
(4) 100Ω

18) When a potential difference V is applied across a wire of resistance R, it dissipates energy at a
rate W. If the wire is cut into two halves and these halves are connected mutually parallel across the
same supply, the energy dissipation rate will become:

(1) 1/4 W
(2) 1/2 W
(3) 2 W
(4) 4 W

19) The resistance per centimeter of a meter bridge wire is r, with X Ω resistance in left gap.
Balancing length from left end is at 40 cm with 25 Ω resistance in right gap. Now the wire is
replaced by another wire of 2r resistance per centimeter. The new balancing length from left end for
same settings will be at

(1) 20 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 80 cm
(4) 40 cm

20) Two conductors have the same resistances at 0°C but their temperature coefficients of
resistance are α1 and α2. The respective temperature coefficients for their series and parallel
combinations are :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A potential divider circuit is shown in figure. The output voltage V0 is

(1) 4V
(2) 2 mV
(3) 0.5 V
(4) 12 mV

22) The reading in the ideal voltmeter (V) shown in the given circuit diagram is :

(1) 5V
(2) 10V
(3) 0 V
(4) 3V

23) In the given figure, the value of V will be.

(1) 4 V
(2) 8 V
(3) 3 V
(4) 20 V
24) Find potential at A and B in the given circuit–

(1) 40 V, 0 V
(2) 50 V, 0 V
(3) 60 V, –40 V
(4) 40 V, –10 V

25) The value of effective resistance between A and B is ? (R = 2 kΩ)

(1) kΩ
(2) kΩ
(3) kΩ
(4) kΩ

26) In the given circuit the internal resistance of the 18 V cell is negligible. If R1 = 400 Ω, R3 = 100 Ω
and R4 = 500 Ω and the reading of an ideal voltmeter across R4 is 5V, then the value R2 (In ohm) will

be:

(1) 100 Ω
(2) 300 Ω
(3) 400 Ω
(4) 600 Ω

27) Determine the total momentum of electrons in a straight wire of length ℓ = 1000m carrying a
current I = 70A.

(1) 4 × 10–7 N-s

(2) 8 × 10–5 N-s
(3) 3 × 10–7 N-s
(4) Zero
28) As the switch S is closed in the circuit shown in figure, current passed through it is

(1) 7.5 A
(2) 15 A
(3) 3.75 A
(4) 2.5 A

29) For a cell, the graph between the potential difference (v) across the terminals of the cells and
the current I drawn from the cell is as shown in figure. Calculate the e.m.f. and the internal

resistance of the cell.

(1) 2V, 0.4 Ω

(2) 2V, 0.2 Ω
(3) 1V, 1Ω
(4) 1V, 0.2 Ω

30) If internal resistance of a cell is proportional to current drawn from the cell. Then the best
representation of terminal potential difference of a cell with current drawn from cell will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31) In the circuit shown calculate the reading of the ammeter.

(1) 1 amp
(2) 3/2 amp
(3) 1/2 amp
(4) 2/3 amp

32) By what percentage will the illumination of the lamp decrease if the current drops by 20%?

(1) 46%
(2) 26%
(3) 36%
(4) 56%

33) Electromotive force represents

(1) Force
(2) Momentum
(3) work
(4) energy per unit charge

34) The conductivity of a conductor decreases, with temperature because on heating

(1) atoms vibrate vigorously

(2) conductor expands
(3) electrons gain energy
(4) electrons vibrate vigorously

35) ln a balanced wheat stone bridge, current in the galvanometer is zero. It remains zero when :
[1] battery emf is increased
[2] all resistances are increased by 10 ohms
[3] all resistances are made five times
[4] the battery and the galvanometer are interchanged

(1) only [1] is correct

(2) [1], [2] and [3] are correct
(3) [1], [3] and [4] are correct
(4) [1] and [3] are correct

36) In the circuit shown below, with steady current, the potential drop across the capacitor must be

:-

(1) V

(2)
V

(3)
V

(4)
V

37) In the circuit shown in figure plates of capacitor C2 are gradually pulled apart. Then match the

following :-

List-I List-II

(P) Potential difference across C1 (1) Will remain same

(Q) Energy stored in C3 (2) Will increase

(R) Potential difference across C2 (3) Will decrease

Electric field between the plates of

(S) (4) None of these
capacitor C1
(1) P → 1;Q → 3;R → 1;S → 4
(2) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 4;S → 1
(3) P → 3;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 3
(4) P → 4;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4

38) Switch is open initially. Find the heat produced (in µJ) in the circuit after closing the switch if C
= 2 µF, V = 4 volt.

(1) 4 μJ
(2) 5 μJ
(3) 2 μJ
(4) 8 μJ

39) A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A and a second plate having a stair-like structure as

shown in figure. If the area of each stair is and the height is d, the capacitance of the arrangement

is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A capacitor of capacitance C and potential V has energy E. It is connected to another capacitor

of capacitance 2 C and potential 2V. Then the loss of energy is where x is _____ .

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 1

41) In an electrical circuit drawn below the amount of charge stored in the capacitor is.
(1) 40 μC
(2) 60 μC
(3) 20 μC
(4) 30 μC

42) A 500μF capacitor is charged at a steady rate of 100C/sec. The potential difference across the
capacitor will be 10V after an interval of .......

(1) 5 × 10–5 s
(2) 2 × 10–6 s
(3) 4 × 10–5 s
(4) 1 × 10–6 s

43) A parallel plate capacitor is connected to battery as shown in fig.

consider two situations :- (I) :- Key K is kept closed & plates of capacitor are
moved apart using insulating handle
(II) :- Key K is opened & plates are moved apart using insulating handle
choose correct option :-

(1) In I : Q constant but C changes

(2) In (II) V constant but C changes
(3) In I : V constant & Q changes
(4) In (II) Q constant & V also constant

44) The capacitance of a spherical condenser is 1μF. If the spacing between the two spheres is 1 mm
then what is the radius of the outer sphere ?

(1) 4m
(2) 2m
(3) 3m
(4) 1m

45) Four plates of the same area, of cross section A are joined as shown in the figure. The distance
between sucesive plates is d. Find the equivalent capacity across PQ will be
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Consider the graph given in following diagram. Which of the following options does not show

instantaneous rate of reaction at 40th second ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) For the 1st order gaseous reaction A → B + C + D, Starting with initial pressure 400 atm. If the
total pressure after 2 hours is 800 atm. the value of t3/4 is :

(1) 1 hr
(2) 2 hr
(3) 3 hr
(4) 4 hr

3) Assertion (A) : The thermal decomposition of HI gas on gold surface at high pressure is zero
order.
Reason (R) : At high pressure, the metal surface gets saturated with gas molecules.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

4) During nuclear explosion, one of the products is Sr90 with half life of 30 years. If 24 µg (micro
gram) of Sr90 was absorbed in the bones of newly born baby instead of calcium, how much of it will
remain after 90 years ?

(1) 18 µg
(2) 9 µg
(3) 6 µg
(4) 3 µg

5)

Column-I Column-II

P. Zero order reaction 1.

Q. First order reaction 2. t100% = [A]0 / k

Involves at least
R. Second order reaction 3.
two reactants

S. Pseudo order reaction 4. [A] = [A]0e–kt

Code :
P Q R S

(1) 2 1 4 2

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 2 4 3 1

(4) 3 2 1 4
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Study the graph and match column-I with column-II

 Column-I Column-II

(a) Ea of forward reaction (k) 70 kJ

(b) Threshold energy (l) 30 kJ

(c) Ea of reverse reaction (m) 15 kJ

Enthalpy change of reaction

(d) (n) 45 kJ
(only magnitude)
(1) (a)-(k), (b)-(l), (c)-(n), (d)-(m)
(2) (a)-(l), (b)-(k), (c)-(m), (d)-(n)
(3) (a)-(m), (b)-(k), (c)-(n), (d)-(l)
(4) (a)-(l), (b)-(k), (c)-(n), (d)-(m)

7) The reaction mechanism for the reaction P → R is as follows : P 2Q (fast) ; 2Q + P R

(slow), the rate law for the main reaction (P → R) is :

(1) k1[P] [Q]

2
(2) k3[Q] [P]

(3)

2
(4) k1k2[P]

8) Rate of formation of NH3 according to the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 is 1.7 × 10–3 gm min–1. Hence
rate at which H2 reacts is :-

(1) 2.55 × 10–3 gm min–1

(2) 1.7 × 10–3 gm min–1
(3) 3 × 10–4 gm min–1
(4) 3.2 × 10–3 gm min–1

9) The initial rate of reaction A + 5B + 6C → 3L + 3M has been determined under the following
conditions :-

Experiment [A]0 [B]0 [C]0 Initial rate

No. ( in M) (in M) (in M) (in M min–1)

1. 0.02 0.02 0.02 2.08×10–3

2. 0.01 0.02 0.02 1.04×10–3

3. 0.02 0.04 0.02 4.16×10–3

4. 0.02 0.02 0.04 8.32×10–3

Determine the rate law ?

(1) Rate = k[A] [B] [C]2
(2) Rate = k[A] [C]2
(3) Rate = k[A] [B] [C]
(4) Rate = k[A] [B]5[C]6

10)

For complex reaction.

(1) Molecularity of slowest step and order of complex reaction may or may not be same.
(2) The overall molecularity has no significance.
(3) The overall rate of reaction is determined by slowest step.
(4) All are correct.

11) Two substances X(t1/2 = 10 min) and Y(t1/2 = 30 min) follow first order kinetics are taken in such a
way that initially [X]0 = 4[Y]0. Calculate the time after which the concentration of both the substance
will be equal.

(1) 15 min
(2) 30 min
(3) 25 min
(4) 35 min

12) Consider a reaction

2A + B → 3C
Experimental observation :
(i) By doubling the concentration of A, half life time remains unchanged.
(ii) By doubling the concentration of B, rate of reaction remains unchanged.
What will be unit of rate constant for this reaction

(1) Sec–1
(2) Mol lit–1 sec–1
(3) Lit mol–1 sec–1
(4) Lit2 mol–2 sec–1

13) From the following data; the activation energy for the reaction (cal/mol) H2 + I2 → 2HI

T (in K) 1/T(in K–1) log10K

769 (T2) 1.3 × 10–3 2.9

667 (T1) 1.5 × 10–3 1.1

(1) 4 × 104
(2) 2 × 105
(3) 8 × 107
(4) 3 × 106

14) Reaction X + 2Y + 2Z → B takes place by following mechanism –

(i) X + Y ⇌ 2A ......... (Very fast)
(ii) A + Z → C ......... (Slow)
(iii) 2C + Y → B ......... (Very fast)
The rate law for above reaction is :-

(1) rate = K[Z] [A]

(2) rate = K[X][Y][Z]
(3) rate = K[X]½[Y]½[Z]
(4) rate = K[X]½[Y][Z]

15) Match the value of different concentration terms given in column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

Molarity of a solution containing

(A) (I) 0.166
20 g of NaOH in 450 ml solution is

Molality of a solution containing

(B) (II) 1.11
149 g of KCl in 500 g water is

If 22 g of C6H6 is dissolved in
(C) 154 g of CCl4 then the mass (III) 4
percentage of C6H6 is

If 46 g of C2H5OH is dissolved
(D) in 90 g of water then the mole (IV) 12.5
fraction of C2H5OH is

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

16) Find the value of vapour pressure of an ideal solution at 55°C with benzene to octane in molar
ratio 2 : 3. (Given : At 55°C, vapour pressure of benzene and octane are 260 mm Hg and 450 mm Hg
respectively)

(1) 374 mm Hg
(2) 336 mm Hg
(3) 168 mm Hg
(4) 350 mm Hg

17) At 25°C, which of the following statement about the composition of the vapour over an ideal
equimolar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct ?
(Given : At 25°C, V.P. of benzene and toluene are 12 kPa and 4 kPa respectively)

(1) The vapour will contain equal amount of benzene and toluene.
(2) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
(3) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
(4) Not enough information is given to make a predication.

18) Which one has same van't hoff factor (i) as that of Hg2Cl2 :

(1) NaCl
(2) Na2SO4
(3) Al(NO3)3
(4) Al2(SO4)3

19) The plot of osmotic pressure (P) vs concentration (mol L–1) for a solution gives a straight line with
slope 25.73 L bar mol–1. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is:
(Use R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1)

(1) 37°C
(2) 310°C
(3) 25.73°C
(4) 12.05°C

20) Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two componant A and B
exhibiting negative deviation from ideal behaviour?

(1)
(2) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B
(3)
(4) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are weaker than those between A-B

21) When 36.0 g of a non electrolyte solute is dissolved in 1.20 kg of water then solution freezes at
–0.93°C then molecular formula of the solute is : (Kf = 1.86°C kg mol–1)

(1) C2H4O3
(2) C2H2O2
(3) C2H4O2
(4) C2H4O

22) Assertion : if a non-volatile solute is added to a solvent to give a solution then the vapour
pressure of solution at a given temperature is found to be lower than vapour pressure of pure
solvent :
Reason : On addition of non-volatile solute, the number of solvent molecules escaping from the
surface is correspondingly reduced.

(1) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct for the Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not correct for the Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

23) Consider the following statements :

(i) Azeotropes can be separated by fractional distillation
(ii) Isotonic solutions have same osmotic pressure
(iii) Mixtures of ethanol and acetone behave like ideal solution
(iv) Freezing point is a colligative property
The correct statement is/are:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) Only (ii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

24) If and for pure solvents A and B are 120 and 40 torr respectively. What will be the mole
fraction of A in vapour phase if B has mole fraction 0.4 in solution.

(1) 0.54
(2) 0.82
(3) 0.46
(4) 0.18

25) At 27°C, vapour pressure of pure water is 50 mm Hg. Calculate number of moles of MgCl2 (α =
100%) which are added to 15 moles of water to form a dilute solution, if vapour pressure is reduced
by 10 mm Hg.

(1) 2 moles
(2) 2.5 moles
(3) 1.8 moles
(4) 1 mole

26) At 298 K Henry's constant for the methane in benzene as a solvent is 3.8 × 105 mm Hg.
Calaculate the solubility of methane (in terms of mole fraction) in benzene under 760 mm Hg at 298
K.

(1) 7.6 × 10–2

(2) 2 × 10–3
(3) 7.6 × 10–3
(4) 5.2 × 10–4

27) KH value for some gases at the same temperature T are given
Gas KH (in kilobar)
He 144.97
CO2 1.67
N2 76.48
CH4 0.413
where KH is Henry's law constant in water. The order of their solubility in water is :

(1) CH4 < CO2 < N2 < He

(2) CO2 < He < N2 < CH4
(3) CH4 < N2 < CO2 < He
(4) He < N2 < CO2 < CH4

28) An electric current of 193 A is passed through molten sodium chloride for 5 hours. Calculate the
moles of chlorine gas liberated at the electrode ?

(1) 18 mol
(2) 9 mol
(3) 27 mol
(4) 36 mol

29) The conductivity of saturated solution of AB is 1.44 × 10–6 S cm–1. The limiting ionic
conductivities of A+ and B– are 64 and 80 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The Ksp of AB is :-

(1) 1 × 10–10
(2) 1 × 10–5
(3) 2 × 10–10
(4) 4 × 10–10

30) An aqueous solution of Na2SO4 in water is electrolysed, using Pt electrodes. The products at the
cathode and anode are respectively :-

(1) H2, SO2

(2) O2, NaOH
(3) H2, O2
(4) O2, SO2

31) In the galvanic cell

Cu/Cu+2 (1M) || Ag+ (1M)/Ag the electrons will travel in the external circuit :-

(1) from Ag to Cu
(2) from Cu to Ag
(3) they do not travel
(4) in any direction

32) In the electrolysis of AgNO3, the mass of Ag deposited is plotted against the charge:-

Slope of the line gives:-

(1) Equivalent mass of silver

(2) Electrochemical equivalent of silver
(3) value of faraday
(4) Current passed through the cell

33) The limiting equivalent conductivity of NaCl, KCl and KBr are 126.5, 150.0 and 151.5 S cm2 eq–1,
respectively. The limiting equivalent ionic conductance for Br– is 78 S cm2 eq–1. The limiting
equivalent conductance for Na+ ions (in Scm2 eq–1) would be :-

(1) 128
(2) 125
(3) 49
(4) 50

34) Given, = 0.80 V,

= –2.37 V, = 0.34 V,
= 0.79 V.
Which of the following statements is correct

(1) AgNO3 can be stored in copper vessel.

(2) Cu(NO3)2 can be stored in magnesium vessel.
(3) CuCl2 can be stored in silver vessel.
(4) HgCl2 can be stored in copper vessel.

35)

For the cell

Pt|H2(0.4atm)|H+(pH=1)||H+(pH=2)|H2(0.1 atm)|Pt
The measured potential at 25°C is

(1) –0.1 V
(2) –0.5 V
(3) –0.041 V
(4) –0.021 V

36) For the cell,

Mn(s) | Mn+2 (aq) (0.4M) || Sn+2(aq) (0.04M) | Sn(s),
calculate free energy change (ΔG) at 298 K.

Given : ;

(1) 180.93 kJ
(2) –194.93 kJ
(3) –180.93 kJ
(4) None of these
37) Standard electrode potentials are given :
A+/A = –2.93 volt ; B+/B = 0.80 V
C+2/C = –2.37 volt ; D+3/D = –0.74 V
Increasing order of reducing power of these metals :

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) B < D < C < A
(3) B < C < D < A
(4) C < B < A < D

38) Find out ionisation constant of a weak acid (HA) in terms of and and initial conc.(C)?
(Given : "α" can not be ignored w.r.t. 1)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

39) Which of the following statements about solutions of electrolytes is not correct ?

(1) Conductivity of solution depends upon size of ions.

(2) Conductivity depends upon viscosity of solution.
(3) Conductivity does not depend upon solvation of ions present in solution.
(4) Conductivity of solution increases with temperature.

40) of Zn|Zn+2 || Cu+2|Cu is 1.092 volt at 25°C. The equilibrium constant for the reaction (in
approximation)
Zn + Cu+2 → Zn+2 + Cu

(1) 10–28
(2) 1037
(3) 10–37
(4) 1027

41)

Column-I Column-II

Kohlrausch
(a) (p)
law

Molar conductance,
(b) (q)
Λm
 of Ca3(PO4)2
Specific =
(c) (r)
conductance (κ)

Degree of ionization
(d) (s)
of weak electrolyte
Which of following option show correct matches ?
(1) (a-r) ; (b-p) ; (c-q) ; (d-s)
(2) (a-s) ; (b-p) ; (c-q) ; (d-r)
(3) (a-r) ; (b-s) ; (c-q) ; (d-p)
(4) (a-p) ; (b-s) ; (c-q) ; (d-r)

42) Redox titration of 20 ml of 0.5M ferrous ammonium sulphate (Mohr's salt) against M/25
KMnO4 solution is carried out in acidic medium. Calculate used volume of KMnO4 at equivalence
point or end point ?

(1) 25 ml
(2) 75 ml
(3) 80 ml
(4) 50 ml

43) Colloids can NOT be prepared by which of the following method ?

(1) By peptization
(2) By hydrolysis of FeCl3
(3) By adding starch in boiling water with constant stirring
(4) By mixing equal moles of AgNO3 and NaCl solution

44) In acid-base titration experiment, 20 ml of 0.15M oxalic acid (H2C2O4) is completely neutralised
by 0.2M NaOH solution. Find volume of NaOH solution used in this titration.

(1) 30 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 45 ml
(4) 20 ml

45) Kinetic study of the rate of reaction of Iϴ ions with H2O2 has been carried out at room
temperature. It is observed that, on increasing concentration of Iϴ ions :

(1) Rate of reaction decerases

(2) Rate of reaction increases
(3) No effect on rate of reaction
(4) Rate of reaction may increase or decrease

BIOLOGY
1) Assertion : Polyembryony is found in mango.
Reason : Embryos are produced by nucellar cells apart from zygote in mango.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

2) Which disease is not sexually transmitted?

(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) AIDS
(3) Syphilis
(4) Tuberculosis

3) Which of the following hormone is responsible for maintenance of corpus luteum during
pregnancy ?

(1) LH
(2) Progesterone
(3) HCG
(4) Estrogen

4) Most of the major organ systems are formed in foetus :

(1) End of second month of pregnancy

(2) End of first trimester of pregnancy
(3) End of 24 weeks of pregnancy
(4) During fifth month of pregnancy

5) Assertion :- Administration of progesteron or progesteron-estrogen combination within 72 hours

of coitus are found to be very effective contraceptives.
Reason :- High level of progesterone hormone, inhibits the release of gonadotropins.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Floral formula of Cruciferae is –

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

7) Apomixis is a form of ___[A]___ reproduction that mimics ___[B]___ reproduction.

(1) [A]-Sexual, [B]-Asexual

(2) [A]-Asexual, [B]-Sexual
(3) [A]-Sexual, [B]-Vegetative
(4) [A]-Asexual, [B]-Vegetative

8) Inner most layer of cortex is known as ?

(1) Pericycle
(2) Endodermis
(3) Hypodermis
(4) Pith

9) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) MTP in second trimester is much riskier than first trimester.

(2) Genital herpes is curable STD
(3) In ICSI sperm is directly injected into the ovum
(4) Pelvic inflammatory diseases, still birth and infertility are some of the complications of STDs.

10) In which plant half inferior ovary is found ?

(i) Rose and plum
(ii) Peach and china rose
(iii) Guava and cucumber
Choose the correct option

(1) i, ii, iii

(2) Only i, ii
(3) Only iii
(4) Only i

11)

What is correct about given figure ?

(1) Tap root, mustard
(2) Fibrous root, wheat
(3) Adventitious root, mustard
(4) Tap root, banyan tree

12) Given below are four methods (A–D) and their modes of action (a–d) in achieving contraception.
Select their correct matching from the four options that follow

Method Mode of Action

A. Pills (a) Prevents sperms reaching cervix

B. Condom (b) Decrease sperm motility

C. Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation

D. Copper T (d) Semen contains no sperms

Matching :-
(1) A – (c), B – (d), C – (a), D – (b)
(2) A – (b), B – (c), C – (a), D – (d)
(3) A – (c), B – (a), C – (d), D – (b)
(4) A – (d), B – (a), C – (b), D – (c)

13) How many microspore mother cells are responsible for the formation of 80 microspores in
Angiosperms ?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 90

14) Meiosis-I of primary oocyte which takes place during oogenesis in human females is:

(1) Reductional division with unequal cytokinesis

(2) Equational division with unequal cytokinesis
(3) Reductional division with equal cytokinesis
(4) Equational division with equal cytokinesis

15) Assertion (A) :- The pregnancy continuous even after the ovaries are removed once the
placenta is fully developed.
Reason (R) :- After development of placenta estrogen and progesterone are secreted mainly by the
placenta.

(1) A is true but R is false.

(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

16) How many plants in the list given below have opposite phyllotaxy ? China rose, Sunflower,
Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two

17) Pollinating agents are required in :-

(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy

(2) Autogamy and xenogamy
(3) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
(4) Only in xenogamy

18) Which of the following is not a part of the ground tissue system ?

(1) General cortex

(2) Endodermis
(3) Xylem
(4) Pericycle

19) During oogenesis first polar body is formed :-

(1) After fertilization

(2) After puberty
(3) During multiplication phase
(4) During syngamy of sperm and ova

20) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- Majority of angiosperm plants use biotic agents for pollination.
Statement-II :- Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

21) Read the given statements and select the correct answer :
(A) ICSI is a procedure in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum in the laboratory
(B) Infertility cases due to low sperm counts in the ejaculates could be corrected by artificial
insemination technique
(C) A standard test tube baby programme involve invitro fertilization followed by embryo transfer
(D) GIFT is aimed to help female who can produce ovum but not provide suitable environment for
fertilisation and further development

(1) A and B are correct but C and D are incorrect

(2) A, B and C are correct but only D is incorrect
(3) B, C and D are correct but only A is incorrect
(4) C and D are correct but A and B are incorrect

22) Study of chromosomal abnormalities by taken out the amniotic fluid of embryo is called :-

(1) Endoscopy
(2) Amniocentesis
(3) Laproscopy
(4) Natal endoscopy

23) Monocotyledon plants vascular bundles is closed type because :

Vascular bundles have cambium and cambium possess the ability to form secondary xylem and
(1)
phloem
(2) Vascular bundles have no cambium and they do not form secondary tissue.
Vascular bundles have cambium and cambium do not possess the ability to form secondary
(3)
tissue.
(4) Both (2) and (3)

24) Identify 'A' in the given diagram

(1) Cotyledons
(2) Radicle
(3) Hypocotyl
(4) Epicotyl

25) Well developed pith is found in :-

(1) Monocot root and monocot stem

(2) Monocot stem and dicot root
(3) Monocot root and dicot stem
(4) Dicot root and dicot stem
26) What is the common feature in fruits of mango and coconut ?

(1) Edible part is mesocarp

(2) Endocarp is hard and stony
(3) Mesocarp is thick and stony
(4) Type of fruit is berry

27) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : A functional mammary gland is characteristic of all vertebrates.
Statement-II : The last part of the oviduct isthmus has a narrow lumen and it joins the ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

28) Consider the following statements and select the wrong one :-

(1) Parturition is induced by a complex neuro endocrine mechanism

The first movement of the foetus & appearance of hairs on the head are usually observed during
(2)
fifth month of pregnancy
During parturition, secretion of progesterone decreases but secretion of estrogen increases
(3)
from placenta
(4) Progesterone and estrogen are produced in women only during pregnancy

29) Choose the statement which are unrelated for embryo development in flowering plant.

(1) Develops at micropyle end of ovule

(2) Early stage of embryo development differs in monocot and dicots .
(3) Embryo gets nutrition from endosperm
(4) Most zygote divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed.

30) Which of the diploid cell produces first haploid cells during spermatogenesis.

(1) Spermatogonia
(2) Primary spermatocyte
(3) Secondary spermatocyte
(4) Spermatids

31) Leaf mesophyll is included in :-

(1) Epidermal tissue system

(2) Ground tissue system
(3) Vascular tissue system
(4) All of the above
32)

Endodermis of dicot stem is also known as :-

(1) Starch sheath

(2) Casparian strip
(3) Limiting layer
(4) Exodermis

33) Study the following statement and select the correct option -
(i) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen.
(ii) Hilum represent the junction between ovule and funicle.
(iii) Aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and water lily are pollinated by water and bird
respectively.
(iv) The primary endosperm nucleus is haploid.

(1) (i) and (ii), (iv) are correct but (iii) is incorrect.
(2) (i) and (iv) are correct but (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(3) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) and (iv) are incorrect
(4) (ii) (iii) and (iv) are correct but (i) is incorrect

34) Assertion :- Self incompatibility is one of the device to prevent inbreeding.

Reason :- This is physiological process which prevent cross pollination.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

35) Read the following statements and choose the correct regarding female reproductive cycle ?
(A) Oestrous cycle runs in non primate mammals
(B) Menopause is the initiation of first menstrual cycle occurs at puberty
(C) Absence of menstrual cycle may be considered as the sign of pregnancy
(D) In female primates menstruation repeats cyclically between menarche and menopause
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B and C only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) A and D only

36) The first movements of the foetus usually observed during the :

(1) First trimester of pregnancy

(2) Fourth month of pregnancy
(3) Fifth week of pregnancy
(4) Fifth month of pregnancy
37) Monoecious plant with unisexual flowers prevents :-

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Pollination is not possible

38) Transformation of spermatid into spermatozoa is called :-

(1) Spermiation
(2) Spermiogenesis
(3) Insemination
(4) Both 2 & 3

39) How many mammary lobes are present in a female ?

(1) 15-20
(2) 200-300
(3) 60-80
(4) 30-40

40) During an experiment, vegetative nucleus was destroyed inside the pollen tube. Immediately
afterwards it was observed that the growth of pollen tube was stopped and pollen tube could not
reach up to ovule, because-

(1) Male gametes were not developed

(2) Growth of pollen tube is controlled by vegetative nucleus
(3) Vegetative nucleus secretes chemicals
(4) (1) and (2) both

41) Match the correct options.

A B

(a) Menstrual phase (i) Rupture of graffian follice

(b) L.H surge (ii) Gonadotrophin increases

(c) Follicular phase (iii) Secretory phase

(d) Luteal phase (iv) Breakdown of endometrium

(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

42) Which of the following contraceptive method make uterus unsuitable for implantation ?
(1) Diaphram
(2) Condom
(3) IUD
(4) Natural method

43) Arrange the following events of human reproduction in sequence :-

(A) Gametogenesis
(B) Fertilisation
(C) Implantation
(D) Gestation
(E) Parturition

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) A → B → C → E → D
(3) B → C → A → D → E
(4) B → A → D → E → C

44) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option given below :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) Sunflower root

(B) (Q) Sunflower leaf

(C) (R) Maize leaf

(D) (S) Maize stem

(T) Maize root

(1) A : Q; B : S; C : T; D : R
(2) A : Q; B : S; C : P; D : R
(3) A : R; B : S; C : T; D : Q
(4) A : R; B : S; C : P; D : Q

45) Which of the following statements are not correct?

A. Leydig cells synthesise & secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
B. Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the interstitial cells.
C. Each fallopian tube is about 10-12 cm long and extends from periphery of each ovary to the
uterus.
D. Urethra is a part of female reproductive tract.
E. Placenta allows mixing of maternal and foetal blood

(1) A, C, E
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, C
(4) B, D, E

46) Which of the following is most incorrect regarding vasectomy ?

(1) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied

(2) Irreversible sterility
(3) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
(4) No sperm occurs in epididymis

47) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R)
Assertion (A) :- Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
Reason (R) :- The cells of endosperm are filled with reserve food materials and are used for the
nutrition of the developing embryo.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

48) Assertion : Zona pellucida ensures that only one sperm can fertilise an ovum.
Reason : During fertilization, a sperm comes in contact with Zona pullucida layer of the ovum and
induces changes in the membrane that block the entry of additional sperms.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason not is correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is wrong
(4) Assertion is wrong but Reason is true

49) Pulvinus leaf base and stipulate leaves are present in :-

(1) Malvaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Cruciferae

50) How many of the above technique are include in in-vivo fertilization. Z.I.F.T., IUT, ICSI, AI, GIFT,
Test-tube technique.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

51) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

a–subsidiary cell; b–guard cell ;

(1)
c–epidermal cell; d–stomatal pore
b–subsidiary cell; a–guard cell ;
(2)
c–epidermal cell; d–stomatal pore
b–subsidiary cell; c–guard cell ;
(3)
a–epidermal cell; d–stomatal pore
a–subsidiary cell; d–guard cell ;
(4)
b–epidermal cell; c–stomatal pore

52) Given below is the diagrammatic view of transverse section of monocot stem. Identify the parts

labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them Options :-

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Ground Vascular
(1) Epidermis Hypodermis
tissue bundles

Vascular Ground
(2) Epidermis Hypodermis
bundles tissue

Ground Vascular
(3) Hypodermis Epidermis
tissue bundles

Ground Vascular
(4) Hypodermis Epidermis
tissue bundles
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) Match the Column A & B.

Column-A Column-B

(A) Albuminous seeds (i) Black pepper, beet

(B) Non-albuminous seeds (ii) Wheat, maize

(C) Perispermic seeds (iii) Pea, groundnut

(D) False fruits (iv) Apple, strawberry

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

54)

In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the
fallopian tube?

(1) Zygote only

(2) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(3) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(4) Embryo of 32 cell stage

55) If tubectomy is done in 25 years old female, which statement will be correct after this surgery ?

(1) Menstrual cycle Stop

(2) Menstrual cycle occurs irregulary
(3) No effect on normal menstrual cycle
(4) Ovarian changes during menstrual cycle will not occur

56) In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is :-

(1) 7 celled 7 nucleated structure

(2) 7 celled 8 nucleated structure
(3) 7 celled 6 nucleated structure
(4) 4 celled 4 nucleated structure

57)

Match the following :

Column I Column II
 (A) Reticulate venation (i) Neem

(B) Parallel venation (ii) China rose

(C) Palmately compound leaf (iii) Wheat

(D) Pinnately compound leaf (iv) Silk cotton

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

58) Statement I : Some of the spermatagonia called primary spermatocytes periodically undergo
mitosis division.
Statement II : Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in the
secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

59) Given below are some structures :-

Clitoris, Mammary gland, Oviduct, Labia minora, Vagina, Uterine fundus, Ovary.
How many of above given structures are paired in human female ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

60) Which of the following hormone is not produced by placenta ?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Relaxin

61) A large number of follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty. Therefore, at
puberty only 60,000 - 80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary. The primary follicles get
surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells and new theca and are called secondary follicles.
Statement-I : At birth 60,000 - 80,000 primary follicles are found in each ovary.
Statement-II : Secondary follicles are covered by only granulosa cells.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct & statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect & statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
62) Assertion : In amnioacentesis some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus is taken to
analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
Reason : Succesful implamentation of various action plans to attain resproductive health required
strong infrastructural facilities professional expertiese and material support.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

63) Monocot plants are characterised by the presence of

(1) Tap roots

(2) Fibrous roots
(3) Annulated roots
(4) Prop roots

64) Each testis has about__A__compartments called testicular lobules.

(1) 250
(2) 500
(3) 1–3
(4) 5–8

65)

(a) Exine (i) Large irregular nucleus

(b) Intine (ii) Sporopollenin absent

(c) Germ pore (iii) Sporopollenin

(d) Vegetative cell (iv) Pecto Cellulose

Choose the correct match:-
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

66) Match the following column–I and column–II :

Column-I Column-II

(a) G (i) Superior ovary

(b) ⊕ (ii) Zygomorphic

(c) % (iii) Actinomorphic

(d) P (iv) Perianth

(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-b, iv-c, iii-b, ii-d
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b

67) In which of the following,each vascular bundle is surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle

sheath ?

(1) Sunflower root

(2) Pea root
(3) Sunflower stem
(4) Maize stem

68) Level of estrogen and progesterone are minimum at:-

(1) Follicular phase

(2) Ovulation
(3) Secretory phase
(4) Bleeding phase

69) Endodermis of root is made up of -

(1) Single layer of barrel shaped cells

(2) Single layer of rounded cells
(3) Double layer of barrel shaped cells
(4) Double layer of rounded cells

70) Read the following statements & choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Male Reproductive system is located in the pelvis region.

(2) The enlarged end of penis is called Glans penis.
The vas deferens lead to epididymis that ascends to the abdomen and loops over the urinary
(3)
bladder.
Secretions of epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicle and prostate are essential for maturation
(4)
and motility of sperms.

71) Assertion : Absence of menstruation is not a confirmatory indicator of pregnancy. Reason

: Absence of menstruation can happen due to poor health or stress.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

72) Match the following :-

 Column-I Column-II
(Placentation) (Example)

(A) Marginal (i) Mustard

(B) Axile (ii) Primrose

(C) Parietal (iii) Pea

(D) Free central (iv) Lemon

(1) A–(iii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(ii)
(2) A–(iii), B–(iv), C–(ii), D–(i)
(3) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(i)
(4) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(ii)

73) Which of the following results in positive feedback that causes FSH and LH surge?

(1) High estrogen

(2) Low estrogen
(3) High progesterone
(4) Both 1 and 3

74) Given diagram represents :-

(1) Radial vascular bundle

(2) Conjoint collateral closed vascular bundle
(3) Conjoint collateral open vascular bundle
(4) Internal structure of dicot stem

75) In which of the following parietal placentation is found ?

(1) Lemon
(2) Pea
(3) Wheat
(4) Argemone

76) Which statement is incorrect regarding female external genitalia ?

(1) Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hairs
(2) Labia minora are paired fold of tissue under labia majora
(3) Clitoris lies at the upper junction of labia minora below the urethral opening
(4) Clitoris is a tiny finger like structure.
77) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : During pregnancy the levels of hormones like estrogens, progestogens, cortisol,
prolactin, thyroxine etc. are increased several folds in the maternal blood.
Reason (R) : Increased production of these hormones is essential for supporting the fetal growth,
metabolic changes in the mother and maintenance of pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

78) Which sequence is correct for male genital tract?

(1) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Urethra

(2) Tubuli recti → Rete testis → Vas deferens→ Vasa efferentia → Seminal vesicle → Urethra
(3) Tubuli recti → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Epididymis → Urethra
(4) Tubuli recti → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Urethra

79) Which of following statement about sperm and spermatogenesis is not incorrect ?

(1) Sperm is haploid but spermatid is diploid

(2) Spermatogenesis starts at embryonic stage
(3) On primary spermatocyte give to 4 unequal sperms
(4) Sec. spermatocyte is formed as a result of first meiotic division

80) Endospermous seeds, axile placentation, epipetalous stamens are found in:

(1) Brassicaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Solanaceae

81)

Select the correct match pairs from the following :

(a) Scutellum Cotyledon in grass family

(b) Perisperm Residual, persistant nucellus

(c) Lupinus articus 1000 years of seed dormancy

(d) Phoenix dactylifera 200 years of seed dormancy

(1) (c) and (d) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

82) The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by :

(1) Movement of limbs

(2) Listening to the heart sound
(3) Observing the head size
(4) Formation of gential organ

83) Which of the following option gives the correct categorisation of the tissue systems found
in plants :-

A C
B Ground
Epidermal Vascular
tissue
tissue tissue
system
system system

Bulliform Primary
(1) Cambium
cells xylem

Medullary
(2) Stomata Phloem
Rays

Vascular
(3) Trichomes Hypodermis
Bundles

(4) Root hair Endodermis Epiblema

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below-

Column - I Column - II

(a) Cleistogamy (i) Citrus

(b) Hydrophily (ii) Oxalis

(c) Wind pollination (iii) Vallisnaria

(d) Polyembryony (iv) Maize

Codes :-
a b c d

(1) ii i iv iii

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) iii ii i iv

(4) i ii iii iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Match the Column - I with Column - II regarding post fertilisation development in flowering plant
:-

Column - I Column - II

(A) Ovary (i) Fruit

(B) Zygote (ii) Embryo

(C) Ovule (iii) Seed

(D) Central Cell (iv) Endosperm

(1) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)
(3) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii)
(4) (a) - (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)

86) Which of the following method of contraception is exclusively for female use only.
Barrier, IUDs, Saheli, Injectables, implants, surgical method.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

87)

People in the age group of _______are more vulnerable to STI's.

(1) 15-24 years

(2) 12-15 years
(3) 18-30 years
(4) 60-70 years

88) Which of the following statement/s is/are not true for the seeds?
A. Seeds can be easily stored for a longer period of time due to dormancy and dehydration
B. Seeds form the basis of agriculture
C. Seeds are the final product of asexual reproduction
D. Formation of seeds in angiosperms is more dependable for continuity of species
E. Seeds are genetically identical usually

(1) A, C and D
(2) C and E
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, C, D and E

89) Given below is the diagrammatic view of transverse section of a dorsiventral leaf. Identify the
parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them :-

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Abaxial Spongy Palisade Adaxial

(1)
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis

Abaxial Palisade Spongy Adaxial

(2)
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis

Adaxial Palisade Spongy Abaxial

(3)
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis

Adaxial Spongy Palisade Abaxial

(4)
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Assertion : Reproductive and child health (RCH) care programmes creating awareness among
people about various reproduction related aspects.
Reason : With the help of audio-visual and the print media governmental and non-governmental
agencies have taken various steps to create awareness among the people about reproduction.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion & Reason are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 1 4 1 3 1 3 2 4 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 1 3 2 2 1 3 1 4 3 3 4 1 3 3 3 4 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 3 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 1 4 2 4 3 3 1 4 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 3 2 4 2 4 1 1 3 2 2 4 3 3 2 2 2 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 4 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 2 1 4 2 2 2 4 2 3 2 1 4 4 3 3 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 2 2 1 3 3 3 4 1 2 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 1 1 4 4 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 4 1 3 4 1 1 1 4 3 4 4 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Potential difference =

As
So potential difference = 0

2)

3)

S = –1 m
Using
4) In air
In medium

5) RT=27 = 60Ω,
R = R0 (1+ αΔT)
80 = 60 [1+ 2 × 10–4(T–27)]
T 1694ºC

6)
Given that
ϕnet = ϕout – ϕin
due to field along x-axis
ϕ1 = 0 – 4 × 1 = –4
flux due to field along y-axis
ϕ2 = ϕout – ϕin = 6 × 1 – 0 = 6

so ϕnet = ⇒
so q =

7)
For equilibrium,
8)

Potential at origin =
(Potential at ∞ = 0)

0 0
V – V∞ & W = Q(V – V∞)

∴ Work required to put a fifth charge Q at origin is equal to

9)

Potential at point P,
Qa : Qb : Qc : : a2 : b2 : c2
{since σa = σb = σc}

∴ Correct answer is (2)

10) As given in the first condition :

Both conducting spheres are shown.

In the second condition :

Shell is now given charge –4Q.

Hence, we also obtain that potential difference does not depend on charge of outer sphere.
∴ P.d. remains same

11) WE = –[ΔU] = Ui – UF =

U=

v2 = 4 × 106
v = 2 × 103 m/s

12) E1 = E2 =

Given,

13)
V1 = V(R)
V2 = V(4R)

…(1)

V(4R) =

V(4R) = ....(2)
From eqn. (1) & (2)

V(R) – V(4R) =

14) Using energy conservation : KEi + PEi = KEf + PEf

15) Potential decreases in the direction of E.

∴ From origin potential decrease from V0 to certain value

∴ Slope of graph V-x is equal to E

E is high in between the plate
∴ Slope between plate is maximum.
16)

For null point,

Also,

17) Let x = current/division

After applying shunt

Now 5x × G = 20x × 24
G = 4 × 24
G = 96Ω

18) ….(i)

….(ii)
From (i) & (ii), we get
W' = 4W
19)

.....(i)

..... (ii)
From (i) and (ii)

20) Series :
Req = R1 + R2

Parallel :

⇒
=
⇒
=
Neglecting small terms
2 + 2(α1 + α2)Δθ =

21)
22) i =
I = 25A
V = E – ir
= 5 – 0.2 × 25
=0

23)
By nodal analysis

3V0 – 12 = 0
V0 = 4

24) Charge of each capacitor

Q = Ceq V = × 100 = 20 C
For VA

VA – 3 =0
VA = 60 Volt
For VB

O–2 = VB
VB = – 40 Volt

25)

If Req = r,
rR + 2Rr + 2R2 = r2 + Rr
r2 – 2Rr – 2R2 = 0

=
26)
V4 = 5V

A
V3 = i1R3 = 1V
V3 + V4 = 6V = V2
V1 + V3 + V4 = 18V
V1 = 12 V

i2 = 0.02 Amp V2 = 6V

27)

28) = 7.5V

= 3.75A

29) V = ε – Ir
2 = ε – 0 × r ⇒ ε = 2V
0 = 2 – 5 × r ⇒ r = 0.4 Ω

30) This question is based on the concept of internal resistance and terminal voltage relation
(V = E – Ir) from Kirchhoff’s laws and Ohm’s law.
Given that
r∝i
r= ki where k is some arbitrary constant
V = E – ir = E – i (ik) = E – i2k
This equation represents parabola
 31)

∵ (Balanced WSB)

32)

% change in power

33) Emf is energy per unit charge.

34) Conductivity of conductors decreasing by increasing temperature, because by heating up

electron gains energy due to which, randomness will increase.

35) Condition of balanced wheatsone

36)

=0
3x = 4V

x=4

Now V + VC =

VC =

37) Use basic concepts

⇒ Q = CV ⇒ Ceff in series
⇒

PD in series is distributed as ⇒

38) Wcell = vΔq = Now ui + W = uf + H

H=

39) All capacitor are in parallel combination.

Also effective area is common area only
⇒ Ceq = C1 + C2 + C3

⇒ Ceq =

40) Energy loss =

41)
In steady state there will be no current in branch of capacitor, so no voltage drop across R2 =
5Ω
I2 = 0

∵
I3R3 = Vc
Vc = 1 × 6 = 6 volt
qc = CVc = 10 × 6 = 60 μC

42) q = CV
{q = i × t}
i × t = CV
 t=
t = 5 × 10–5 s

43) In (I) :- V constant of battery but due to change in C, Q also change.

44)
ab = 9 m2 ...(1)
b – a = 10–3

b2 – 9 = 10–3 b
b2 – 10–3 b – 9 = 0

45)
CPQ = 3C

CHEMISTRY

46) For tangent, during 50-30 sec. interval, concn change. = C5–C2 and not C4 -C2.
Hence option (4) is not correct

47)

First order reaction, kt = 2.303

Solution :

400–x x x x
⇒ 400 + 2x = 800 ⇒ x = 200 atm
⇒ In 2hr pressure of A become half
⇒ t1/2 = 2hr
⇒ t3/4 = 4hr

48) NCERT-XII, (New) Part-I chemical kinetics Pg. No. # 72 2nd paragraph

49) NCERT-XII, (old) Part-1, Pg. No. # 121, Q 4.17

All radioactive decay of unstable nuclei take place by first order kinetics. For first order
reaction t1/2 is independent of initial concentration.

24 μg 12 μg 6 μg 3 μg

50) for zero order reaction

t100% =
for first order reaction
At = A0e–Kt
for 2nd order reaction

t1/2 ∝
for pseudo order reaction at least 2 reaction are involved

51)

Eab = 70 – 40 = 30 kJ/mol
ET = 70 kJ/mol
Eab = 70 – 25 = 45 kJ/mol
ΔH = Eaf – Eab = 30 – 45 = – 15 kJ mol–1

52)

From slow step r = k3[Q]2 [P] ...(i)

from reversible step ...(ii)

from (i) & (ii)

53) Here rate in terms of mass so divide by molar mass

gm min–1
= 3 × 10–4 gm min–1

54)

[A] [B] [C] rate

0.02 0.02 0.02 2.08 × 10–3
0.01 0.02 0.02 1.04 × 10–3
0.02 0.04 0.02 4.16 × 10–3
0.02 0.02 0.04 8.32 × 10–3
α = 1, β = 1, γ = 2
∴ rate = K [A] [B] [C]2

55)

Based on theory of complex vectors.

56)
In 30 min both becomes equal.

57) Solution:
From rate law Rate = k[A]x[B]y, where k is the rate constant, and x and y are the orders of the
reaction with respect to A and B, respectively.
Half-life and Order: The observation that doubling [A] doesn't change the half-life indicates
that the reaction is first-order with respect to A (x = 1). For a first-order reaction, the half-life
is independent of initial concentration.
Effect of [B] on Rate: The observation that doubling [B] doesn't change the rate means the
reaction is zero-order with respect to B (y = 0).
Overall Order: The overall order of the reaction is x + y = 1 + 0 = 1.
Units of Rate Constant: The units of the rate constant depend on the overall order of the
reaction. For a first-order reaction, the units are s⁻¹ (or time⁻¹).

58)

logK =

2.9 = …(1)

1.1 = …(2)
from eq (1) & (2)
Ea ≈ 4 × 104 cal/mol

59)

Apply rate law in slow step

r = K [A] [Z] ......(1)
⇓
intermediate
Apply law of mass action in step (1)

KC = ⇒ [A]2 = KC[X] . [Y]

[A] = [X]1/2. [Y]1/2 ......... (2)
Put [A] value on equation (1)
r = K. [X]1/2 [Y]1/2 [Z]
rate = K[X]½[Y]½[Z]

60) ;

61) Let moles of benzene = 2 and moles of octane = 3

PS =
= 374 mm Hg

62)

63)

i for Hg2Cl2 = 3
i for Na2SO4 = 4

64)
On comparing with y = mx
Slope (m) = RT
25.73 = 0.083 × T
T = 310 K = 37°C

65) Given :
The solution of components A and B exhibits negative deviation from Ragout's Law.
Concept : Raoult’s Laws.
Negative deviation from ideal behavior occurs when the intermolecular forces between A and
B(A–B) are stronger than those between A – A and B – B.
This leads to:
Lower vapor pressure than expected.
Exothermic mixing (releases heat).
Strong attraction causes the solution to behave "less volatile" than ideal.

66)

ΔTf = +0.93°C, i = 1

Mw = 60
∴ (Mw) C2H4O2 = (2 × 12) + (1) + 2(16)
= 24 + 4 + 32 = 60

67) (A) In absence of non volatile solute pure liquid particles can evaporate from each point of
liquid surface.
(R) by adding non volatile solute, some surface molecules of pure solvent are replaced by non
volatile solute.

68) Wrong
(i) Using composition of azeotrophic mixture is same so can not separate.
Correct
(ii) By definition isotonic solution having same osmotic pressure.
Wrong
(iii) Calculated VP of solution of ethanol and acetone is not equal to observed VP of solution.
(iv) Depression in F.P. is colligative.

69)

XA = 0.6, XB = 0.4
PT = 120 × 0.6 + 40 × 0.4 = 88

70) for dilute solution

moles of MgCl2 = 1

71) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # Part I (Exercise - 2.35)

from Henry's law ; Pgas = KH × Xgas
72) At a given pressure, higher the value of KH, the lower is the solubility of the gas in liquid
solvent.

73)

No. of faraday = = 36 F
= 36 mol
Mole of Cl2 = 18 mol

74) Question Explanation: .Calculate Ksp from conductivity and limiting ionic conductivities.

Concept: Ksp is the square of molar solubility,

Solution:
=
= 64 + 80 = 144 S cm2 mol–1

For saturated solution :

s=
s = 10–5 M
For AB type : ksp = s2 = (10–5)2
ksp = 1 × 10–10
Final answer: option (1)

75)

76)

Anode cathode
(in external circuit)

77) Explaining the Question : To determine slope of the given Curve.

Concept : This question based on faraday's first law of electrolysis.
Solution : According to faraday's first law of electrolysis.
W∝Q

W = ZQ
Y = mx
Equation of straight line passing through origin.
Slope = m = z (electrochemical equivalent)
Final Answer : (2)

78)

+ 78 = 126.5 + 151.5 – 150.0

⇒ = 50 Scm2/eq.

79)

Reduction potential of copper is less than silver so tendency to gets reduced is less and hence
CuCl2 can be stored in silver vessel.

80)

81)

= 1.04 – 0.03 log10 = 1.01 volt

ΔG = –nFEcell
= –2 × 96500 × 1.01
= –194.93 kJ

82) NCERT XII Part-I, Pg.# 68

Reducing power
Then B < D < C < A

83) NCERT XII Part-1 Pg. # 82, 2nd Paragraph

;
 84) NCERT XII Part-1, Pg. # 72 2nd Paragraph
Conductivity of electrolytic solutions depends on size of ions produced and their solvation.
Conductivity of electrolytic solution increases with the increase of temperature.

85) NCERT XII, Pg. # 72 Ex. 3.2

⇒ log Keq = 37
Keq = 1037

86) ; κ (Specific conductance) =

87) At equivalence point,

=
(This question is based experiment based on titration of Mohr's salt vs KMnO4)

88) Based on principle related to practical chemistry topic is preparation of lyophilic and
lyophobic sol.

89) For complete neutralisation,

(N×V) for oxalic acid = (N × V)for NaOH
For more details refer principles related to practical chemistry

90) On increasing concentration of I– ions, rate of reaction of I– ions with H2O2, increases (Fact
is based on practical chemistry)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XII Pg # 23

92) NCERT Pg#47

93)

NCERT Pg # 37

94) NCERT, Pg. # 38

95) NCERT XIIth Pg.#61

96)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 67

97) NCERT XII Pg # 22

98)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75

99)

NCERT Pg#47

100) NCERT XI Pg. # 73

101)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 66

102)

NCERT Pg#45

103) Question Explanation: The question is asking a question about the process of
microsporogenesis in Angiosperms.
Concept: This question based on Pre-Fertilization structure and events - microsporogenesis in
Angiosperms.
Solution: Total microspores = 80
Each MMC gives = 4 microspores

Required MMCs =
Final Answer: 20

104)

NCERT Pg#32,33

105) NCERT, Pg. # 37

106) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 71

107) NCERT XII Pg # 12

108) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 89

109) NCERT XIIth Pg.#49

110)

Question Explanation : Question is asking given two statements about pollination, select
correct or incorrect statements.

Concept: “This question is based on Pollination ”

Solution:
Statement-I :- Majority of angiosperm plants use biotic agents for pollination.-correct

Statement-II :- Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.-correct

The majority of plants use biotic agents for pollination.

Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.

Final Answer: The correct option is (3)

111) NCERT XII, Pg # 71,72,73

112) NCERT Pg#42

113) NCERT XI, Pg. # 90

114)

NCERT XII Pg # 19

115) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 91, 93

116)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 76, Para 5.6

117) NCERT Pg. No. # 30, 31

118) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 53-54 (E) ; 58-59 (H)

119) NCERT XII Pg # 18

120) NCERT Pg. No. # 31

121) Explain Question:

The question asks for the tissue system category to which leaf mesophyll cells belong.
Concept :
This question is based on Ground tissue system.
Explanation:
The mesophyll in the leaf is made of parenchyma cells which belong to the ground tissue
system.
Final answer : 2

122) Question Explanation: Another name for dicot stem endodermis.

Concept: Starch Sheath
Solution: In a dicot stem, the endodermis is often called the starch sheath. This is because
the cells of this layer are rich in starch grains. It helps regulate the movement of water and
minerals within the plant.
Final Answer: Starch sheath

123)

NCERT XII Pg # 5, 9, 13

124) NCERT XII Pg # 15

125) NCERT-XII ; Page No. # 33, 34

126) NCERT(XII) Pg#54/59(H) Para: 3.6

127) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT XII Pg. # 31
In monoecious pants since male and female flowers are present on different plant so autogamy
is not possible but geitonogamy and xenogamy is possible.
Final Answer : (1)

128)

NCERT Pg # 32

129) NCERT-XII, Pg # 30

130) Explanation:
 A. The vegetative nucleus plays a crucial role in controlling the growth of the pollen tube.
B. It regulates the direction and growth of the pollen tube towards the ovule, and its destruction
prevents further growth.

Final Answer: Growth of pollen tube is controlled by vegetative nucleus

131) NCERT Pg. # 34

132)

NCERT Pg#44

133) NCERT Pg. # 26

134) Explaining : A - Internal structure of a typical Dorsiventral Leaf.

B - Internal structure of a typical Monocotyledonous stem.
C - The internal structure of a typical monocotyledonous root.
D - Internal structure of a typical Isobilateral Leaf.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

135) NCERT-XII, Pg # 27,29,32

136)

NCERT Pg#45

137)

Explain Question : The question asks to evaluate the assertion and reason about the timing
of embryo and endosperm development.

Concept : Embryo and Endosperm Development.

Solution :

A. Assertion (A): Endosperm development precedes embryo development.

(True)

B. Reason (R): Endosperm cells are filled with reserve food materials used for the nutrition
of the developing embryo.
(True)

The reason provides the functional justification for the developmental precedence stated in the
assertion.
Final Answer : Option (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.

138) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 39

139) NCERT XI Pg. # 78

140) NCERT Pg # 64

141) NCERT Pg # 89

142) NCERT XI Pg. # 92, fig 6.7 (b)

143) NCERT XII Pg # 20

144)

NCERT Pg#48

145)

NCERT Pg#45

146)

Question Explanation: Question is asking about the what is the common structure or type of
female gametophyte found in most angiosperms

Concept: Female gametophyte

Solution:

In a mature embryo sac three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute
the egg apparatus. The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of two synergids and one egg cell.
Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals. The large central cell has two
polar nuclei. Thus, a typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, though 8-nucleate is 7-celled

Final answer: 2

147) NCERT Pg. # 75

148) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 34

149) NCERT ; Page No. # 29, 30

150) NCERT-XII, Pg # 37

151) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 36

152) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 42

153) NCERT (XI) Pg.# 66

154)

NCERT Pg. # 11

155)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 7

156)

Solution-

the correct matching is:

(a) - (i)

(b) - (iii)

(c) - (ii)

(d) - (iv)

the correct answer is:(1) i-a, iii-b, ii-c, iv-d

157)

NCERT-XI Page No. 93

158) NCERT Pg. # 50,51

159) NCERT XIth Pg.#91, 1st Para (E), Pg.#90, Last para (H)
160) NCERT Pg. # 26, 27, 28, 32

161) NCERT(XII) Pg# 50 Para:3.4

162) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 75

163) NCERT-XII, Pg#34,35

164) NCERT Pg. # 90

165) NCERT XI Pg. # 75

166) NCERT Pg. # 46

167) NCERT Pg. No. # 37

168)

NCERT Pg#27

169) NCERT Page No. # 31

170)

NCERT Page # 68

171)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the correct match related to seed
structures and dormancy viability records.

Concept : Seed Structure

Solution:
(a) Scutellum - Cotyledon in the grass family: correct.
The scutellum is the specialized cotyledon found in the embryos of grasses (monocotyledons).
(b) Perisperm - Residual, persistent nucellus: correct.
Perisperm is the persistent nucellus that remains in some seeds, like those of black pepper
and beet.

Final answer: 2
172) NCERT Pg#38

173)

NCERT Pg. No. 72-76

174) NCERT XII Pg # 12, 13, 23

175) NCERT XII Pg # 20, 21

176)

NCERT Pg#44,45

177) NCERT XII, Page # 64

178) NCERT XII Pg # 20

179)

Question Explanation : Question is asking about the given diagram of the transverse section
of dorsiventral leaf, Identify the parts labelled A,B,C and D

Concept: Anatomy of dorsiventral Leaf (dicot leaf)

Solution: The given diagram of the transverse section of dorsiventral leaf and labelled parts
A,B,C and D are- A-Adaxial epidermis,B-Palisade mesophyll,C-Spongy mesophyll D-Abaxial
epidermis

Final answer: 3

180)

NCERT Pg#42