21-12-2025

1016CMD303362250018 MD

PHYSICS

1) We have half a bucket (6 litre) of water at 20ºC. If we want water at 40ºC, how much steam at
100ºC should be added to it ?

(1) 200 g

(2)

(3) 2 kg

(4)

2) A block is hung by means of two identical wires having cross section area A (1 mm2) as shown in
the diagram. If temperature is lowered by ΔT (10°C), find the mass (in kg) to be added to hanging
mass such that junction remains at initial position. Given that co-efficient of linear expansion α = 2 ×

10–5 /°C and Young's modulus Y = 5 × 1011 N/m2 for the wire. If your answer is N fill value of .

(1) 2
(2) 15
(3) 4
(4) 20

3) A glass flask contains some mercury at room temperature. It is found that at different
temperatures the volume of air inside the flask remains the same. If the volume of mercury in the

flask is 300 cm3, then find the volume of the flask. If your answer is N (in cm3). Fill value of .
[Given that coefficient of volume expansion of mercury and coefficient of linear expansion of glass
are 1.8 × 10–4 (°C)–1 and 9 × 10–6 (°C)–1 respectively]

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 8
(4) 16

4) A black body emits radiation at the rate P when its temperature is T. At this temperature, the
wavelength at which radiation has maximum intensity, is λ0. If at temperature T' power radiated is
P' and wavelength at maximum intensity is , then :-

(1) T' = 2T

(2)

(3) P' = 16 P
P' =
(4)

5) With increase in temperature, match the following two columns.

Column-I Column-II

(P) Density of water (1) will increase

(Q) Fraction of a solid floating in a liquid (2) will decrease

(R) Apparent weight of a solid immersed in water (3) will remain unchanged

(S) Time period of pendulum (4) may increase or decrease

(5) None of these

(1) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 2; S → 4
(2) P → 4; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1
(3) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 1
(4) P → 4; Q → 4; R → 4; S → 1

6) Three rods of identical cross section area are made from same metal form sides of isosceles
triangle ABC right angled at B. The point A and B are maintained at temperature T and
respectively in the steady state. Assuming that only heat conduction takes place, the temperature of

point C is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
7) An empty pressure cooker of volume 10 litres contains air at atmospheric pressure 105 Pa and
temperature of 27°C. It contains a whistle which has area of 0.1 cm2 and weight of 100 g. What
should be the temperature of air inside so that the whistle is just lifted up ?

(1) 600 K
(2) 300 K
(3) 100 K
(4) 800 K

8) A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state to an intermediate state by the linear
process shown in figure. Its volume is then reduced to the original value from E to F by an isobaric

process. Calculate the total work done by the gas from D to E to F

(1) 350 J
(2) 450 J
(3) 180 J
(4) 200 J

9) One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process as shown in the figure. Find the molar

specific heat of the gas in the process.

(1) R

(2)

(3)

(4) 2R

10) The work done by gas in process ABCDEFGHA is 2NP0V0. Find the value of N.
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 3.5
(4) 4.5

11) An ideal gas is undergoing a cyclic process

A → B → C as shown in the figure. Choose the incorrect option(s) :

(1) PA < PB
(2) PB = PD
(3) PD > PC
(4) PB > PC

12) A monoatomic ideal gas is compressed isothermally at temperature 300 K from volume V1 to V2
then again expanded adiabatically to final volume . Find final temperature of gas.

(1) 150 K

(2)

(3)
(4) None

13) 28 gm of N2 gas is contained in a flask at a pressure of 10 atm and at a temperature of 57°. It is

found that due to leakage in the flask, the pressure is reduced to half and the temperature reduced
to 27°C. The quantity of N2 gas that leaked out is :-

(1) 11/20 gm
(2) 20/11 gm
(3) 5/63 gm
(4) 63/5 gm

14) A monoatomic gas is kept in a vessel at some finite temperature. Choose the CORRECT
statement(s) :-
(A) Number of atoms moving with speed equal to half of RMS speed will be more than number of
atoms moving with speed equal to one third of RMS speed.

(B) Average velocity of atoms of gas has magnitude equal to .

(C) Number of atoms moving with average speed will be more than number of atoms moving with
RMS speed.
(D) If its temperature (in degree Celsius) is increased to 4 times then its RMS speed will increase by
a factor less than 2.

(1) D
(2) A, D
(3) A, C, D
(4) A, B, C

15) A carnot engine having efficiency 40% used as refrigerator. If work done by the compressor of
gas is 100J, find heat absorbed from the body having lower temperature.

(1) 250 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 150J
(4) None

16) A closed container contains diatomic gas at temp T1 (300 K), pressure P1. Gas is now heated to
temperature T2 (600 K) such that 20% of molecules are broken into atoms. Find ratio of final

pressure (P2) to initial pressure (P1) .

(1) 1.4
(2) 3.4
(3) 2.4
(4) 5.4

17) The rms speed of helium gas at 27°C and 1 atm pressure is 900 ms–1. Then the rms speed of
helium molecules at temperature 27°C and 2 atm pressure is :-

(1) 450 m/s

(2) 900 m/s
(3) 1800 m/s
(4) 750 m/s

18) When 500J heat is given to a gas at constant pressure, it performs work. Find the average
number of degrees of freedom per molecule of gas :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

19) Container A in figure holds an ideal gas at a pressure of 1.0 × 105 Pa and a temperature of 300K.
It is connected by thin tube (and a closed valve) to container B, with four times the volume of A.
Container B holds the same ideal gas at a pressure of 9.0 × 105 Pa and a temperature of 400K. The
valve is opened to allow the pressures to equalize, but the temperature of each container is

maintained as before. What then is the common pressure approx

(1) 105 Pa
(2) 7 × 105 Pa
(3) 2 × 105 Pa
(4) 8 × 105 Pa

20) The displacement equation of a particle is x = 3 sin2t + 4cos2t. The amplitude and maximum
velocity will be respectively :-

(1) 5, 10
(2) 3, 2
(3) 4, 2
(4) 3, 4

21) A block of mass m rests on a platform. The platform is given vertical up and down SHM with an
amplitude d. What can be the maximum frequency so that the block never leaves the platform?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The angular velocity and the amplitude of a simple pendulum are 'ω' and 'A' respectively. At a
displacement x from the mean position its kinetic energy is 'T' and potential energy is 'V'. Then the

ratio is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

The radius of circle, the period of revolution, initial position and sense of revolution are indicated in
the fig.

y-projection of the radius vector of rotating particle P is :

(1) y(t) = –3cos(2πt), where y in m

(2)
where y in m

(3)
where y in m

(4)
where y in m

24) A ball of mass m = 1 kg is hung from a spring of constant 400 N/m and another ball of mass 2m
is hanging from it as shown with the help of a thread. The system is in equilibrium. Now the thread
is burned. As a result, ball of mass m starts moving upwards. Eventually it will stop under the
influence of gravity and spring. In between, there is a point at which its speed is maximum. What is

that maximum speed (in m/s) ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

25) A particle performs S.H.M. of amplitude A with angular frequency ω along a straight line. When

it is at a distance A from mean position, its kinetic energy gets increased by an amount mω2A2
due to an impulsive force. Then its new amplitude becomes-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) The total energy of the body executing S.H.M. is E. Then the kinetic energy when the
displacement is half of the amplitude is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The left block collides inelastically with the right block and sticks to it. Find the amplitude of the

resulting simple harmonic motion.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) If the length of pendulum is made 9 times and mass of the bob is made 4 times, then the value of
time period in terms of initial time period 'T' will be :-

(1) T
(2) 2T
(3) 3T
(4) 4T

29) On a smooth inclined plane, a body of mass M is attached between two springs. The other ends
of the springs are fixed to firm supports. If each spring has force constant k, the period of oscillation

of the body is : (assuming the springs as massless)

(1) 2π (M/2k)1/2
(2) 2π (2M/k)1/2
(3) 2π (Mg sin θ/2k)
(4) 2π (2Mg/k)1/2

30) The equation of a plane progressive wave is

y = 0.09sin 8π
When it is reflected at rigid supports, its amplitude becomes (2/3)rd of its previous value. The
equation of the reflected wave is :

(1)
y = 0.09sinπ

(2)
y = 0.06sinπ

(3)
y = 0.06 sin 8π

(4)
y = – 0.06 sin 8π

31) A transverse sinusoidal wave of amplitude a, wavelength λ and frequency ƒ is travelling on a

stretched string. The maximum speed of any point on the string is , where v is the speed of
propagation of the wave. If a = 10 m and v = 10 m/s, then λ and ƒ are given by :–
–3

(I) λ = 2π × 10–2 m (II) λ = 10–3 m

(III) ƒ = Hz (IV) ƒ = 104 Hz

(1) I, III
(2) II, IV
(3) I, IV
(4) II, III

32) A string is rigided by two ends and its equation is given by y = cos2πt sin2πx
Then minimum length of string is

(1) 1 m
(2) 0.5 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 2π m

33) A string of length 0.4 m and mass 10–2 kg is tightly clamped at its ends. The tension in the string
is 1.6 N. Identical wave pulses are produced at one end at equal intervals of time Δt. The value of Δt
which allows constructive interference between successive pulses is :-

(1) 0.05 sec

(2) 0.10 sec
(3) 0.20 sec
(4) 0.40 sec

34) The figure shows four progressive waves A, B, C and D with their phases expressed with respect

to the wave A. It can be concluded from the figure that :-

(1) The wave C is ahead by a phase angle of π/2 and the wave B lags behind by a phase angle of π/2
(2) The wave C lags behind by a phase of π/2 and the wave B is ahead by a phase angle of π/2
(3) The wave C is ahead a phase angle of π and the wave B lags behind by a phase angle of π
(4) The wave C lags behind by a phase angle of π and the wave B ahead by a phase angle of π

35) A uniform rope of length 12 m and mass 6 kg hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of
mass 2 kg is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 0.06 metre is
produced at the lower end of the rope. What is the wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top
of the rope ?

(1) 0.06 metre

(2) 0.03 metre
(3) 0.12 metre
(4) 0.09 metre

36) A sonometer string produce 6 beat/sec with a tunning fork whether the length of sonometer
string is 95 cm or 100 cm. Frequency of the tunning fork is :-

(1) 262 Hz
(2) 256 Hz
(3) 260 Hz
(4) 234 Hz

37) A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2
is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower
end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ2/λ1
is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A string is cut into three parts, having fundamental frequencies n1, n2 and n3 respectively. Then
original fundamental frequency 'n' related by the expression as :-

(1)
= + +
(2) n = n1 × n2 × n3
(3) n = n1 + n2 + n3

(4)
n=

39) An organ pipe closed at one end has fundamental frequency of 1500 Hz. The maximum number
of overtones generated by this pipe which a normal person can hear is

(1) 14
(2) 13
(3) 6
(4) 9

40) An organ pipe P closed at one end vibrates in its first harmonic. Another organ pipe Q open at
both ends vibrates in its third harmonic. When both are in resonance with a tuning fork, the ratio of
the length of P to that of Q is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The ratio of the velocity of sound in hydrogen (γ = 7/5) to that in helium (γ = 5/3) at the same
temperature is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

42) In a long cylindrical tube , the water level is adjusted and the air column above it is made to
vibrate in unison with a vibrating tuning fork kept at the open end . Maximum sound is heard when
the air column lengths are equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A tuning fork whose frequency as given by manufacturer is 512 Hz is being tested with an
accurate oscillator. It is found that the fork produces a beat of 2 Hz when oscillator reads 514 Hz but
produces a beat of 6 Hz when oscillator reads 510 Hz. The actual frequency of fork is :-

(1) 508 Hz
(2) 512 Hz
(3) 516 Hz
(4) 518 Hz

44) The first overtone of a closed organ pipe of length 18 cm is equal to the third overtone of an
organ pipe open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at both the end is :-

(1) 36 cm
(2) 24 cm
(3) 48 cm
(4) 72 cm

45) A tuning fork with frequency 325 Hz produces resonance in a resonance column tube with upper
end open and lower end closed by water surface. Successive resonance are observed at length 25.4
cm and 77.4 cm. The speed of sound in air is :-

(1) 298 m/s

(2) 338 m/s
(3) 358 m/s
(4) 289 m/s

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following compound has sp-hybridised carbon atom :-

(1) CH3COOH
(2) CH3COCH3
(3) CH3CH2CN
(4) CH2=CH–CH=CH2

2) Which of the following homologous series has incorrect general formula :-

(1) Alkyne CnH2n–2

(2) Alkanol CnH2n+2O
(3) Alkanal CnH2n+1O
(4) Carboxylic acid CnH2nO2

3) How many type of functional group present in this compound :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

4) Identify wrong numbering in following compound as per IUPAC rules ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Which of following reaction involves free radical?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
6) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1) 2-(Ethoxycarbonyl) benzalychloride

(2) Ethyl 2-(Chloro) benzoate
(3) Ethyl 2-(Chloromethanoyl) benzoate
(4) Ethyl 2-(Chlorocarbonyl) benzoate

7)

The number of total isomers of formula C2H2Br2 are :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

8)
Compound I & II are related as :-

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Structural isomers
(4) None

9)

Which is correctly matched ?

(1)
and Position isomers

(2) and
Functional group isomers

(3) and
Functional isomers

(4)
and Chain isomers

10) Total number of aromatic isomer of C6H3Cl3 :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

11) The most stable conformer of 1,2 - diphenyl ethane is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) and

(1) Structural isomers

(2) Enantiomers
(3) Homomers
(4) Diastereomers

13) The absolute configuration of given compounds respectively, is :-

(I) (II)

(1) S, R
(2) R, S
(3) R, R
(4) S, S

14) Which of the following will not have any stereoisomer :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The number of asymmetric carbon atoms and the number of optical isomers in
CH3(CHOH)2COOH are respectively:-

(1) 3 and 4
(2) 1 and 3
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 2 and 3

16) Which of the following statement is wrong:-

(1)
and
are geometrical isomers

(2)
(Order of Dipole moment)

(3)
and
are homomers

(4)
and are isomers

17) Which reaction is not possible :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Which of the following has non-zero dipole moment?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19)
Order of enol content of compounds is :-

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > I > III
(3) II > III > I
(4) III > II > I
20) Select correct order of heat of hydrogenation (HOH) :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(1) b > a > c

(2) b > c > a
(3) c > a > b
(4) c > b > a

21) Which among the following compound will liberate CH4 gas on reaction with CH3MgBr (Methyl
magnesium bromide) ?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(e)

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, e
(3) a, c, d, e
(4) a, c

22) Which of the following is not correct order of basic strength?

(1)
Ph – NH – Ph < Ph – NH2 <

(2)

< <

(3)
> > Ph–NH2
(4)

< <

23) During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldahl method, the Ammonia
evolved from 0.5 g of the compound in Kjeldahl estimation of nitrogen, neutralised 10 ml of 1 M
H2SO4. Find out percentage of nitrogen in the compound :

(1) 17.46%
(2) 58%
(3) 56%
(4) 78%

24) The correct order of nucleophilicity for the given species is :-

(I) CH3–O–CH2–O–
(II)
(III)
(IV)

(1) IV > III > II > I

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III > IV > II > I
(4) II > I > IV > III

25) Which is correct :-

(1)

Acidic strength

(2)

Stability of carbocation

(3)

Basic strength
(4)

Stability of carbanion

26) Which one of the following compounds will be most readily dehydrated ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)
What is C ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which of the following column is correctly match ?

Column-I Column-II
(Reaction) (Product)
 (1) (p)

(2) (q)

(3) (r) CO2

(4) (s) H2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Which is aromatic compound -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) (A) and (B) are respectively

(1)
both

(2)
both

(3)
and
(4)
and

31) Most reactive compound for electrophilic addition reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) , A is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

33) When ethyl chloride and n-propyl chloride undergoes wurtz reaction which is not obtained :-

(1) n-butane
(2) n-pentane
(3) n-Hexane
(4) Isobutane

34)

Match list I with list II and then select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.

List I List II

A Butane → Isobutane (a) Cracking

B Butane → Lower hydrocarbons (b) Isomerisation

Wurtz
C n-Heptane → Toluene (c)
reaction

D Methyl lodide → CH3–CH3 (d) Aromatization

(1) A-b, B-a, C-d, D-c
(2) A-b, B-d, C-a, D-c
(3) A-b, B-c, C-d, D-a
(4) A-b, B-d, C-c, D-a

35) Alkene(x)
x is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3
36) Product The number of sp hybrid carbon atoms in product is/are :-

(1) 9
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

37)
Y is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
38) How many carboxylic acid (Only Structure isomer) can give isopentane on decarboxylation ?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 1

39) Product is :-

(1) An optically active compound

(2) An optically inactive compound
(3) A racemic mixture
(4) Meso

40) The product of acid catalysed hydration of 2-phenyl propene is :-

(1) 3 - phenyl -2- propanol

(2) 1 - phenyl - 2- propanol
(3) 2 - phenyl - 2- propanol
(4) 2 - phenyl - 1- propanol

41)
A and B respectively are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) can be converted in to by :-

(1) Red P + HI
(2) Wolff Kishner reduction
(3) Clemmensen reaction
(4) All

43) Z is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) In sulphur estimation, 0.157 g of an organic compound give 0.4813 g of Barium sulphate. What
is the percentage of sulphur in the compound :

(1) 34.04%
(2) 48%
(3) 39%
(4) 42.10%

45) Electrophile attacks the following

In which cases will attack at meta position

(1) II and IV
(2) I, II and III
(3) II and III
(4) I only

BIOLOGY

1) ______ is a derivative of tyrosine amino acid.

(1) Thyroxine
(2) Cortisol
(3) Calcitonin
(4) Insulin

2) Select the incorrect statement about mid brain :

(1) Cerebral aqueduct passes through midbrain.

(2) Mid brain is a part of brain stem.
(3) Ventral part of mid brain contain corpora quadrigemina.
(4) Thalamus is not a part of mid brain.

3) There are 12 pair of ribs each rib is a thin flat bone connected dorsally to vertebral column and
ventrally to sternum. It has two articulation surface on its dorsal end and is hence called bicephalic.
Statement-I : The 8th, 9th and 10th pair of ribs do not articulate directly with sternum but joins
7th ribs with the help of hyaline cartilage so called as vertebro-chondral ribs.
Statement-II : The 11th and 12th pair of ribs do not articulate with sternum so called as floating ribs.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but II is correct

4) Acromian process are present in.

(1) Radius
(2) Ulna
(3) Scapula
(4) Femuor

5) How many CO2 molecule will released when 2 molecule of malic acid converted in to
oxaloacetic acid in TCA cycle -

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Zero

6) Which of the following statements regarding glucagon is false ?

(1) It is secreted by alpha cells of Langerhans

(2) It acts antagonistically to insulin.
(3) It decrease blood suger level.
(4) The gland responsible for its secretion glucagon is a heterocrine gland.

7) Ca+2 binds to ______ in the skeleton muscle and lead to expose the binding site for ______ on the
filament _____ ?

(1) Troponin, myosin, actin

(2) Troponin, actin, myosin
(3) Actin, myosin, tropomysoin
(4) Tropomyosin, myosin, actin

8) The first CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is :

(1) PEP
(2) RuDP
(3) PGA
(4) OAA

9) Individual amino acid enter the respiratory pathway within the kreb's cycle as :-

(1) As pyruvate
(2) As acetyl Co-A
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Clyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

10) Bundle sheath cells are similar to mesophyll cells in :-

(a) having large number of chloroplast.
(b) having grana.
(c) being involved in CO2 fixation.
(d) being impervious to gaseous exchange.
(e) Their primary CO2 fixation product is same.

(1) Only c & e

(2) Only a, b & e
(3) Only c
(4) Only a & d

11) What is the primary function of the membranous system within the chloroplast ?

(1) Storage of nutrients

(2) Synthesis of proteins
(3) Trapping light energy
(4) Regulation of cell division

12) Intercalated discs are character of which muscles

(1) Skeletal muscle

(2) Smooth muscle
(3) Cardiac muscles
(4) Visceral muscles

13) Assertion (A) : ABA increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses.
Reason (R) : ABA stimulates the opening of stomata.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A are R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect
14) Which of the following part of brain can control cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretion ?

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla
(4) Amygdala

15) Match List I with List-II

List-I List-II

A Between flat skull bones I Cartilaginous joint

Between adjacent vertebra in vertebral

B II Ball and socket joint
column

C Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb III fibrous joint

D Between humours and pectoral girdle IV Saddle joint

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-III

16) Adenine derivative plant growth regulator is:-

(1) IAA
(2) Kinetin
(3) ABA
(4) C2H4

17) Select true statement about locomotion and movements :-

(1) Locomotary structures need to be different from those affecting other types of movements.
(2) All locomotions are movement but not all movements are locomotion.
(3) Methods of locomotion by animals does not vary with their habitats.
(4) Streaming of protoplasm forms cilia.

18) Statement-I : Each plants take care of its own gaseous exchange needs.
Statement-II : In ETS complex IV refers to cytochrome c oxidase.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-(I) and (II) both are incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-(I) and (II) both are correct.

19) What happens during the light phase of photosynthesis?

(1) ADP is hydrolysed and NADPH oxidised

(2) ADP is phosphorylated and NADP reduced
(3) ADP is hydrolysed and NADPH oxidized
(4) ATP is hydrolysed and NADP reduced

20) Which one of the following statements is false ?

(1) Clavicle Bone articulates with acromian process of spcapula

(2) Head of humerus bone articulates with glenoid cavity
(3) The skull is composed of two sets of bone carpal and facial
(4) The vertebral column protects the spinal cord

21) How many organized endocrine bodies are present in given box :-
Thymus, gonads, gastrointestinal tract, liver, kidney, heart, pancreas, pineal, adrenal.

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Four
(4) Three

22) Match column-I & column-II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Adenine derivative (a) ABA

(ii) Gases (b) GA

(iii) Carotenoids derivative (c) Kinetin

(iv) Terpenes (d) Enthylene

(1) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
(2) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-d, (iv)-a
(3) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-a, (iv)-b
(4) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d

23) Read the column-I, II and III and identify their correct match -

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(A) Heart (P) Oxytocin (i) Milk ejection

(B) Kidney (Q) Thymosin (ii) Cell mediated immunity

(C) Thymus (R) Erythropoietin (iii) Decreases blood pressure

(D) Posterior pituitary (S) ANF (iv) Increases RBC production

(1) A-P-i, B-Q-ii, C-R-iii, D-S-iv
(2) A-Q-i, B-P-ii, C-S-iii, D-R-iv
(3) A-Q-i, B-P-iv, C-S-iii, D-R-ii
(4) A-S-iii, B-R-iv, C-Q-ii, D-P-i
24) Which hormone increases the blood calcium level?

(1) Thyroid
(2) Parathyroid
(3) Thyrocalcitonin
(4) GH

25) In C4-plants the final CO2-fixation takes place in which cells :-

(1) Epidermal cells

(2) Guard cells
(3) Bundle sheath cell
(4) Mesophyll cells

26) Statement-I : Sympathetic neural system is a part of autonomic neural system.

Statement-II : Autonomic neural system always sensory in nature.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

27) Which of the following complex of E.T.S also takes part in krebs cycle.

(1) Complex I
(2) Complex III
(3) Complex IV
(4) Complex II

28) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Multipolar neurons are found in cerebral cortex.

(2) Bipolar neurons are found in retina of eye.
(3) Unipolar neurons are found in nasal epithelium.
(4) The gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths on axon are called nodes of Ranvier

29) Statement-I : At a electrical synapse, the membranes of the pre- and post-synaptic neurons are
separated by an air-filled space called synaptic cleft.
Statement-II : Chemicals called neurotransmitter are involved in the transmission of impulses at
synapses.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
30) Find out the incorrect match from the following table

Column-I Column-II

1. Heart Atrial natriuretic factor

2. Kidney Erythropoietin

3. Gastro-intestinal tract CCK

4. Ovary oxytocin
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31)

The axoplasm contains high concentration of __(A)__ and negatively charged proteins and low
concentration of __(B)__ ?

(A) (B)

(1) K⊕ ions ions

(2) Na⊕ ions K⊕ ions

(3) K⊕ ions Na⊕ ions

(4) ⊕
ions K ions
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Assertion - It is more appropriate to call the respiratory pathway amphibolic rather than
catabolic
Reason - Respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism and catabolism.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

33) Each limb of human made of how many bones.

(1) 60
(2) 30
(3) 120
(4) 29
34)

Read the following statements and choose the correct statements ?

(a) Electrical synapse are rare in our system
(b) Neurotransmitter bind to their specific receptor present on pre-synaptic membrane
(c) Nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through junctions called synapses.

(d) Synapse is formed by the membrane of a pre-synaptic neuron, and post synaptic neuron which
may or may not be separated by a gap called synaptic cleft.
(1) a, b, c, d are correct
(2) b, d are correct
(3) a, b are correct
(4) a, b, d are correct

35) Ultimate e– donor and last e– acceptor in non cyclic photophosphorylation is respectively :

(1) PS-I and PS-I

(2) H2O and NAD
(3) H2O and NADP
(4) PS-I and NADP

36)

Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) and choose the correct option.
(i) Cilia help in locomotion in Paramecium
(ii) Hydra uses tentacles for capturing of prey and also for locomotion
(iii) Female reproductive tract in humans exhibit flagellar movement to propel the ovum
(iv) Macrophages and leucocytes of humans are specialised cells that exhibit amoeboid movement by
forming pseudopodia
i ii iii iv
(1) T T F F
(2) T F T F
(3) T T F T
(4) T T T F

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Cytokinin was identified & crystalised by:-

(1) Miller
(2) E-kurosawa
(3) H.H. Cousins
(4) F.W. Went

38) A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of :-

(1) Atrial natriuretic factor
(2) Aldosterone
(3) ADH
(4) Renin

39) Chemiosmosis needs :

(1) a membrane
(2) a proton pump
(3) a proton gradient and ATP synthase
(4) all of these

40) The Pyruvic acid formed in glycolysis is oxidized to CO2 and H2O in a cycle called :-

(1) Calvin cycle

(2) Hill reaction
(3) Krebs cycle
(4) Nitrogen cycle

41) Which one is correct for C4 plants?

Mesophyll cell Bundle seath cell

(1) PEPcase OAA RuBisCO PGA

(2) PEPcase PGA RuBisCO OAA

(3) RuBisCO OAA PEPcase OAA

(4) RuBisCO PGA PEPcase PGA

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Read column-I, II & III and identify their correct match –

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Occurs in No O2 is
(A) Carboxylation (P) (i)
stroma lamella evolved

Regeneration RUBP binds

(B) Reduction (Q) (ii)
of RUBP to CO2

ATP and
Multistep
(C) Regeneration (R) (iii) NADPH are
reactions
used

Cyclic photo- Most crucial 1 ATP is

(D) (S) (iv)
phosphorylation step required
(1) (A)-(P)-(i), (B)-(Q)-(ii), (C)-(R)-(iii), (D)-(S)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(S)-(ii), (B)-(R)-(iii), (C)-(Q)-(iv), (D)-(P)-(i)
(3) (A)-(S)-(ii), (B)-(Q)-(iv), (C)-(R)-(iii), (D)-(P)-(i)
(4) (A)-(P)-(i), (B)-(S)-(iv), (C)-(Q)-(iii), (D)-(R)-(ii)

43) Identify the incorrect statement regarding the following graph ?

(1) B → limiting factor is changing

(2) C→ saturation phase for light
(3) E→ maximum rate of photosynthesis
(4) A → Light intensity is not a limiting factor

44) Cyclic photophosphorylation produces :-

(1) NADPH
(2) ATP & NADPH
(3) ATP, NADPH & O2
(4) ATP only

45) Limbic system is consist of :-

(1) Amygdala and thalamus

(2) Amygdala and Hippocampus
(3) Hippocampus and hypothalamus
(4) Thalamus and olfactory lobe

46) In ETS the final hydrogen acceptor is -

(1) NAD+
(2) Oxygen
(3) UQ
(4) Cyt a, a3

47) Which of the following parameter is not generally use to measure to the growth
(1) Increase in fresh weight
(2) Increase in protoplasm
(3) Increase in dry weight
(4) Increases in cell Number

48) Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism ?

(1) Glucagon
(2) Cortisol
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Insulin

49)

In the given diagram for respiratory process inside mitochondria, correctly identify 'A', 'B' and 'C'

(1) A=ATP, B=Oxaloacetic acid, C=CO2

(2) A=ATP, B=Fumaric acid, C=CO2
(3) A=CO2, B=Fumaric acid, C=CoA
(4) A=CO2, B=Oxaloacetic acid, C=CO2

50) In the Absence of oxygen, the primary purpose of fermentation is to :

(1) Generate proton gradient for ATP synthesis

(2) Regenerate NAD+ from NADH+H+ allowing glycolysis to continue.
(3) The complete oxidation of pyruvate
(4) Transfer electrons to electron carriers of ETS.

51) Which of the following pigment shows yellow green colour on paper chromatography.

(1) Chlorophyll-a
(2) Chlorophyll-b
(3) Xanthophyll
(4) Carotenoids

52) Rapid spasm in museles due to low Ca++ in body fluid know as.

(1) Tetany
(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Arthntis

53) Find out incorrect statement

(A) T-Lymphocyte provide antibody mediated immunity.
(B) Hyposecretion of adrenal cortex hormones lead to Addison's disease.
(C) Adrenal cortex hormone Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline called emergency hormones.
(D) Corticoids involve in carbohydrate metabolism are called glucocorticoids.

(1) A and B only

(2) A and C only
(3) A,B,C only
(4) A and D only

54) Direction : Refer the given diagrammatic representation of an electron micrograph of a section

of chloroplast to answer the question. Select the option

which correctly depicts the structure/functions of parts X and Y :-

X Y

(1) Dark reaction Light reaction

(2) Grana Starch granules

(3) Dark reaction Lipid storage

Carbohydrate
(4) Fat storage
synthesis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
55) Which of the following is correct regarding given graph?

(1) Graph is showing only action spectrum of photosynthesis

Graph is showing action spectrum of photosynthesis mainly depends upon absorption spectrum
(2)
of chlorophyll-a
(3) Graph is only showing absorption spectrum
Graph is showing action spectrum of photosynthesis only depends upon absorption spectrum of
(4)
chlorophyll-a

56) Insulin stimulates :-

(A) Gluconeogenesis
(B) Cell permeability for glucose
(C) Lipogenesis
(D) Glycogenesis

(1) A, C, D
(2) C, D only
(3) B, C only
(4) B, C, D

57) Statement-I :- The layer of cells which covers the cerebral hemisphere is called cerebral cortex
and is thrown into prominent folds.
Statement-II :- Fibres of the tracts are covered with the myelin sheath, which constitute the inner
part of cerebral hemisphere.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

58) Assertion : Pons containing fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain.
Reason : Pons is the major co-ordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling.

(1) Assertion and Reason both false.

(2) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but the reason is true
(4) Assertion and Reason both true.

59) Each sarcomere has a central A made of B and two half C made of thin actin
filaments, either side of sarcomere, it is marked by D :-
 A B C D
(1) M-band Thin myosin H-band H-lines
Thick myosin
(2) A-band I-band Z-lines
filaments
Thin actin
(3) Z-line H-zone M-line
filament
Thin actin
(4) M-Line Z-lines H-zone
filament
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Cytokinin were discovered as kinetin (a modified form of adenine, a purine) from

(1) Oat see ding

(2) Infected rice see ding
(3) Herring sperm DNA
(4) Spinach

61) Given below are two statements :-

Statement - I : Adrenaline and Noradrenaline are commonly called as emergency hormone.
Statement - II : Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis and inhibit
cellular uptake and utilisation, of amino acid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Statements-I and statement-II both are false.

(2) Statements-I is true but statement-II is false.
(3) Statements-I and statement-II both are true.
(4) Statements-II is true but statement-I is false.

62) Plant hormone hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples and accelerates abscission
in flowers and fruits (thinning of cotton, cherry, walnut)

(1) Ethylene
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Auxin
(4) Gibberellin

63) Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect of the hormone and its function?

(1) Thyrocalcitonin regulates the blood calcium level

(2) Parathyroid is regulated by circulating levels of sodium ions.
(3) In males FSH and androgens regulate spermatogenesis
(4) Adrenalin increases the rate of heart beat

64) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : During muscle contraction, length of 'I' band decreases but length of 'A' band do not
changes.
Reason (R) : During muscle contraction, actin filaments contract but myosin filaments do not
contract in length.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are correct and 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'.
(2) A is correct but R is incorrect
(3) A is incorrect but R is correct
(4) Both 'A' and 'R' are correct and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'.

65) Half leaf experiment proves that :-

(1) Light is essential for photosynthesis.

(2) CO2 is essential for photosynthesis.
(3) O2 release during photosynthesis.
(4) Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.

66) Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each
other?

(1) Parathormone – Calcitonin

(2) Insulin – Glucagon
(3) Aldosterone – Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(4) Relaxin – Estrogen

67)

Match column-I & Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Meristematic zone (a) Increased vacuolation

(ii) Elongation zone (b) Maximal size of wall thickening

(iii) Maturation zone (c) Possess large conspicuous Nucleus.

(1) (i)-c ; (ii)-a ; (iii)-b
(2) (i)-a ; (ii)-b ; (iii)-c
(3) (i)-b ; (ii)-a ; (iii)-c
(4) (i)-a ; (ii)-c ; (iii)-b

68) Which of the following phytohormone is responsible for growth of apical bud and inhibition of
lateral buds

(1) GA
(2) ABA
(3) Cytokinin's
(4) Auxin

69) Carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis, this fact can be proved by using :-

(1) KOH, a bell jar and a mouse.

(2) A test tube or a jar, KOH and a leafy plant.
(3) KOH and purple sulphur bacteria.
(4) A bell jar, candle and a mouse.

70) The breaking of the C–C bonds of complex compounds through oxidation within the cells, leading
to release of considerable amount of energy is called?

(1) Photosynthesis
(2) Respiration
(3) Photorespiration
(4) Digestion

71) Which type of joint occurs between Atlas and Axis vertebrae ?

(1) Hinge joint

(2) Pivot joint
(3) Glinding joint
(4) Saddle joint

72) Nerve cell do not divide because they do not possess :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Golgi body
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Centriole

73) Read the following roles of plant hormones carefully

(A) It acts as an antagonist to GAs.
(B) It acts as a general plant growth inhibitor and an inhibitor of plant metabolism.
(C) It promotes seed germination.
(D) It stimulates the closure of stomata.
How many above related with ABA

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

74) Assertion : Neural organisation is very simple in lower invertebrates.

Reason : The vertebrates have more developed neural system.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true

75) In C4 plants, C3 cycle/Calvin cycle occur in bundle sheath cells because :-

(1) The walls of bundle sheath cells are not permeable for gases.
(2) CO2 fixed only in bundle sheath cells.
(3) CO2 fixing enzyme RuBisCO is present in bundle sheath cells.
(4) Primary acceptor of CO2 for C4 plants is present in bundle sheath cells.

76) Statement-I : Excess secretion of growth hormone in adults especially in middle age can result
in severe disfigurement called Acromegaly. Statement-II : Under production of hormones by the
adrenal cortex alters carbohydrate metabolism causing acute weakness and fatigue leading to a
disease called Addison's disease.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II are correct

77) Which technique is proved that O2 released from water?

(1) Carbon dating technique

(2) Iodine test technique
(3) Radio isotope technique
(4) Bubbling technique

78) Statement-I: Plant follows different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to
form different kind of structure.
Statement-II: In cotton, leaves of juvenile phase plant are different in shape from those in mature
plant.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

79) Observe the following diagram related to aerobic respiration major pathways :

In the diagram given here, X and M are respectively :-

(1) X – NADH + H+, M – ATP
(2) X – ATP, M – NADH + H+
(3) X – ATP, M – Pyruvic acid
+
(4) X – CO2, M – NADH + H

80) Assertion :- Thyroid hormone play an important role in the regulation of the basal metabolic
rate.
Reason :- Thyroid hormone control the metabolism of carbohydrate, proteins and fats.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explaination of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not a correct explaination of Assertion
(4) Assertion is true and Reason is false

81) The medulla of the brain is connected to the ..........

(1) Cerebellum
(2) spinal cord
(3) Hippocampus
(4) Thalamus

82) Photosynthesis is a/an :-

(1) Endergonic process

(2) Anabolic process
(3) Life saving process
(4) All of these

83) During resting condition the membrane of Axon is :-

(1) Permeable to Na+ ions

(2) Impermeable to Na+ ions
(3) Nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
(4) Always impermeable to Na+ ions

84) Association areas are present in which structure of brain?

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Cerebral cortex
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Mid brain

85) Assertion : The immune response of old person becomes weak.

Reason : Thymus is degenerated in old individuals resulting in a decreased production of thymosins.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

86) (I) C2H4 promotes leaf senescence

(II) C2H4 speed up the ripening of fruits
(III) C2H4 causes apical hook formation
(IV) C2H4 promotes horizontal growth of seedling and swelling of axis
(V) C2H4 promotes male flowers in cucumber, thereby increasing the yield
Which one is false ?

(1) All of these

(2) II and IV
(3) I and V
(4) V

87) Which of the following correct about cellular respiration.

A. Fermentation accounts for only a partial breakdown of glucose.
B. Glucose is the favoured substrate for respiration.
C. The respiratory quotient depends upon the type of respiratory substrate used during respiration.
D. When carbohydrates are used as substrate, the RQ will be 0.7.
E. When fats are used in respiration, The RQ s less than 1.
Choose the correct answer from options given below :

(1) A, B, C, D only
(2) B, C, D, E only
(3) A, B, C, E only
(4) D and E only

88) RQ value of tripalmitin is -

(1) 1
(2) 0.7
(3) 0.9
(4) ∞

89) Name the microbiologist who study purple and green bacteria and proved that during
photosynthesis the oxygen evolved by the green plant comes from H2O, not from carbon-dioxide :

(1) Cornelius Van Niel

(2) T.W. Engelmann
(3) Julius Von Sachs
(4) Jan Ingenhousz

90) Which of the following hormones increase alertness, piloerection and sweating ?

(1) TCT
(2) Catecholamines
(3) Cortisol
(4) Thymosins
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 3 3 4 1 1 2 3 4 1 1 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 1 2 2 2 3 4 2 1 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 3 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 3 4 4 4 2 3 1 2 4 4 2 3 3 1 1 4 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 3 1 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 4 4 1 1 3 3 3 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 2 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 1 3 4 3 1 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 4 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 4 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 3 3 1 1 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 4 4 2 2 2 3 4 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 2 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 2 2 2 4 1 4 2 2 2 4 2 1 3 1 3 3 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 3 2 1 4 3 2 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 6000 × 1 × (40 – 20)

= m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 40)
12 × 104 = m × 600
⇒ m = 2 × 102 = 200 gm

2)

Change in tension = ΔT
∴ 2 ΔT sin 37° = Δmg

ΔT =

Δl =
But Δl = LαΔθ

∴ = LαΔθ
⇒ Δm = α Δθ × A × Y × 2 sin 37°/

g= = 12
Δm = 12 = N
N/3 = 12/3 = 4

3)

We have
Vflask = VHg + Vair
As (ΔV)air = 0
∴ (ΔV)flask = (ΔV)Hg
∵ Cavity having same expansion co-efficient for material
∴ Vf gf ΔT = VHg γHg ΔT

∴
∴ Volume of flask = 2000 cm3

4)
T' = 2T
P' = 16 P
5)
may increase or decrease
Q] Fraction of a solid immersed in water

initially
on putting value

So it depends on and
Q-4 R-4
(S) Time period of pendulum

6) Rate of heat flow in BC

= rate of heat flow in CA

W = KX
7)
F = PA = mg + P0A
P × 0.1 × 10–4 = 100 × 10–3 × 10 + 105 × 10–4 × 0.1
P = 2 × 105

T2 =T1 =
T2 = 600 K
T2 = 600 – 273 = 327ºC or 600 K

8)

Area of ΔDEF =

9)

∴
m is the slop of straight line
⇒ VT = constant
⇒ PV2 = constant = k (say)

= –nRΔT
Thus ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW
⇒ nCΔT = nCvΔT – nRΔT
⇒ C = Cv – R

⇒C= R–R=

10) WAB = –2P0V0

WCD = +12P0V0
WEF = –4P0V0
WGH = 3P0V0
WBC = WDE = WRQ = WHA = 0
Total work done = 9P0V0 = 2NP0V0
N = 4.50
11)

Line DB appear to pass through origin

P0 = PB – Isobaric
B → C volume constant
T decreasing P-decreasing
PC < PB = PD
A → B T-constant V - increasing
P – decreasing PB < PA

12)

For adiabatic expansion

Ti = 300 Vi = V2 Tf = ? Vf = 2 V2
TiViγ – 1 = TfVfγ – 1
300(v2)2/3 = T2( )2/3

T2 = = 150 K

13)

T1 = 57 + 273 = 330 K
T2 = 27 + 273 = 300 K
P1 = 10 atm, P2 = 5 atm, m1 = 28 gm(n1 = 1 mol)

mleaked = m1 – m2 = 28 – 15.4 = 12.6 gm = gm

14)

where temperature T is in k

(speed)
15)

= 250J

16) At n is total no. of molecule 20% are broken.

Hence Now 0.8 N are diatomic and 0.4 N are monoatomic.
Since volume is constant

17)
Since the temperature (T) and the molecular mass (M) are unchanged, the rms speed will
remain the same even if the pressure changes.
The rms speed of helium molecules is 900 m/s at 27°C and 2 atm pressure.

18) ΔQ = W + ΔU
ΔQ = nCPΔT = 500 ..(i)
at constant pressure

W = nRΔT = ...(2)
From equation (1) & (2)

⇒ ⇒ ⇒ f=4

19) The number of moles remains constant

∴ P = 7 × 105 Pa

20) x = 3 sin 2t + 4 cos 2t. From given equation

a1 = 3, a2 = 4, and ϕ =

∴ a= =5
⇒ vmax = aω = 5 × 2 = 10

21) amax. = g = ω2A

⇒ ω2 =

⇒ ω=

or f=

22)

Explain Question : We have to find ratio of P.E and K.E in SHM at position x.
Concept : This question is based on energy in SHM.
Solution :

P.E. = V =

K.E. = T =

Final answer : 3

23)

ω= rad/s
For y-projection,
y = A cos ωt
⇒ y = 3 cos

24) 3mg = kxi

mg = kx0
maximum speed is at equilibrium = Aω

25) Total energy of SHM (After impulse) =

where A1 is new amplitude

26)

E = Total energy =

At

27) Velocity of system after collision v1 = = let amplitude of SHM be a then Ka2

= (2m) ⇒a=v

28)
T' = 3T

29)

In parallel combination Keq = K + K = 2K

T=

T=
30) Put –x in place of x,
phase will be differ by π

amplitude will become

y = 0.06 sin 8π [t+ ]

y = – 0.06 sin 8π

31)

Aω =

Aω =
Aω = 1
10–3ω = 1
ω = 103

⇒
V = fλ

λ = 2π × 10–2 m

32) y = cos 2πt sin 2πx, k = 2π

λ = 1m
So, minimum length of string = λ/2 = 0.5 m

33) = 8 m/s = 0.1 sec.

34) The equations for A, B, C and D are

35)

⇒ λ2 = 0.12 metre
 36)
95f + 95 × 6 = 100 f – 600
570 + 600 = 5f
f = 234 Hz

37) T1 = m2g
T2 = (m1 + m2)g

Velocity ∝ (n = const.)
⇒λ∝

38)

ℓ = ℓ1 + ℓ2 + ℓ3

39)

If fundametal frequency f0 = 1500 Hz overtones are

3f0 = 3 × 1500 = 4500 Hz
5f0 = 5 × 1500 = 7500 Hz
7f0 = 7 × 1500 = 10500 Hz
9f0 = 9 × 1500 = 13500 Hz
11f0 = 11 × 1500 = 16500 Hz
13f0 = 13 × 1500 = 19500 Hz
A normal person can hear 20 Hz to 20 kHz
So maximum 6 overtones.

40)
 41)

42) odd number of half loop are required for unison.

43) The tuning fork whose frequency is being tested produces 2 beats with oscillator at 514
Hz, therefore, frequency of tuning fork may either be 512 or 516. With oscillator frequency
510 it gives 6 beats/sec, therefore frequency of tuning fork may be either 516 or
504. Therefore, the actual frequency is 516 Hz which gives 2 beats/sec with 514 Hz and 6
beats/sec with 510 Hz.

44)

45) ℓ2 – ℓ1 = λ/2 ⇒ λ = 2(77.4 – 25.4)

λ = 104 cm

v = nλ = 325 × = 338 m/s

CHEMISTRY

46) In , circled carbon forms two σ bonds and two π bonds. So, it is sp
hybridised.
Hence, Option (3) is correct : CH3CH2CN

47)

(A) Alkyne (C≡C) CnH2n–2

(B) Alkanol (ROH) CnH2n+2O

(C) Alkanal CnH2nO

(D) Carboxylic acid CnH2nO2

48)

Fact Based

49)

Select longest C-chain

50)

51)

Based on IUPAC rules

52)

53)

Due to different structural formula

54)

Position of double bond is different So position isomers

55)

56) Concept : Conformational isomers and their stability.

Answer Explanation -

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Option 4 : The two phenyl (C6H5) group are anti (180° apart). This minimizes steric strain
between the phenyl groups.
Therefore, the most stable conformation is the one where the two phenyl groups are anti.
Final Answer: Option 4

57)
Since both are neither mirror image nor they are superimpossible are diastereomers.

58)

According rules of R, S system.

59)

Don't show stereo isomerism.

60)

Fact Based

61)

Structural formula is different.

62)

Localised I.P.

63)

Due to structure of –OH.

64) About Question:

order of enol content of given compound.
Concept:
Proton transfer or stability of anion.
Solution:

The order of enol content is II > III > I

Final Answer:Option (3)

65) H.O.H. ∝ no of double bond in alkene and

66)

Due to acid base reaction.

67)

Basic strength ∝ easy availability of lone pair.

68) 1 M of 10 ml H2SO4 = 1 M of 20 ml NH3 1000 ml of 1 M ammonia contains 14g nitrogen

20 ml of 1 M Ammonia contains

nitrogen

% of nitrogen = = 56%

69)

Nucleophilicity

70)

Aromatic is most stable.

71)

β-Hydroxy carbonyl compound fastly dehydrated.

72)

(A)
(B)

73)

74)

75)

(A)
M.K.R. Addition

(B)
(Anti MKR Addition of H2O)

76)
[More stable C⊕]

77)

Kolbe electrolysis

78)

Excepts isobutane all three compounds are obtained.

79)
NCERT XI Hydrocarbon reactions of Alkanes

80)

81)

82)

CH3–CH2–CHCl2 CH3–C≡CH

83)

84)
In product, chiral centre absent, so it is an optically inactive compound.

85)
Due to more stable carbocation

86)

Baeyer's reagent results is syn addition of 'OH' & form's syn diol.
In presence of O2/Ag, it results in Anti addition of 'OH'.
 87)

Carbonyl group can be reduce to alkane by HI/P, Zn–Hg|HCl or NH2–NH2|OHϴ|ethylene glycol.

88)

89)

Molar mass of BaSO4 = 137 + 32 + 64

= 233g
∵ 233 g BaSO4 contains = 32 gS

∴ 0.4813 g BaSO4 contains =

% of S =

90)

Deactivating groups are m-directing.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg#74

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138)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 245

139) Explanation
In the diagram
• A is CO2 released during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl - CoA
• B is Oxaloacetic acid, which combines with acetyl- CoA to form citric acid
• C is released during the conversion of alpha ketoglutarate to succinyl -CoA in the critic acid
cycle.
Correct Ans. (4)

140)

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141) NCERT XI Pg No. # 137

142) NCERT Pg. # 227

143) NCERT, Pg. # 243, 244

144) Explaining the Question: This asks which option correctly states the functions of parts
X and Y in a chloroplast diagram.
Concept: chloroplast
Solution: In the usual diagram:
• X = Grana
• Y = Starch granules
Final Answer: Option 2 – Grana and Starch granules

145)

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