08-02-2026

2302CMD303031250019 MD

PHYSICS

1)

2 kg ice at – 20°C is mixed with 5 kg water at 20°C. Then final amount of water in the mixture would
be;
Given specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/g°C,
Specific heat of water = 1 cal/g°C,
Latent heat of fusion for ice = 80 cal/g.

(1) 6 kg
(2) 5 kg
(3) 4 kg
(4) 2 kg

2) An ideal gas is initially at temperature T and volume V. Its volume is increased by ΔV due to an
increase in temperature ΔT, pressure remaining constant. The quantity δ = ΔV/(VΔT) varies with
temperature as-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3) The equation of state for 5g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T occupying a volume V,
will be.

(1) PV = 5 RT
(2) PV = (5/2) RT
(3) PV = (5/16) RT
(4) PV = (5/32) RT

4) A cyclic process ABCA is shown in PT diagram. When presented on PV, it would :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) When a system is taken from state 'a' to state 'b' along the path 'acb', it is found that a quantity of
heat Q = 200 J is absorbed by the system and a work W = 80J is done by it. Along the path 'adb', Q =

144J. The work done along the path 'adb' is

(1) 6J
(2) 12J
(3) 18J
(4) 24J

6) The springs in fig. A and B are similar but length in A is three times each of that in B. The ratio of

time period TA/TB is :-

(1)
(2) 1/3
(3) 3
(4)

7) The equation of motion of a particle executing SHM is + 25 x = 0. The time period of the
particle will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A pendulum is suspended in a lift and its period of oscillation when the lift is stationary is T0. What
must be the acceleration of the lift for the period of oscillation of the pendulum to be T0/2 ?

(1) 2g downward
(2) 2g upward
(3) 3g downward
(4) 3g upward

9) The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by :-

y = 3 sin (50 t – x),

where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave
velocity is :-

(1) 3π

(2)
π
(3) 2π

(4)
π

10) A tuning fork produces 4 beats/s with another fork of frequency 288 cps. A little wax is placed on
the unknown fork and it then produces
2 beats/s. The initial frequency of the unknown fork is-

(1) 286 cps

(2) 292 cps
(3) 294 cps
(4) 288 cps

11) A travelling wave pulse is given by

where x and y are in metre and t is in second. The velocity of wave is :-

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 8 m/s
(4) 12 m/s

12) 8 charged drops of mercury each of same radius and surface charge density σ are combined to
form a new drop. The new surface charge density becomes

(1) 8 σ
(2) 4 σ
(3) 2 σ
(4) σ

13) The correct formula for potential energy in the electric field of an electrical dipole body is, when

the angle of the electric dipole is θ with the electric field :

(1) U = –pE cos θ

(2) U = +pE cos θ

(3)

(4)

14) The work done to carry a charge of –5.0 C from A to B is 10 Joule. The relation of potential
between the two points and potential difference will be :-

(1) B is at higher potential than A by 2 volt

(2) A is at higher potential than B by 2 volt
(3) A has potential 50 volts greater than that of B
(4) B has potential 50 volts greater than that of A

15) A charged hollow metal sphere has a radius r. if the potential difference between its surface and
a point at distance 3r from the centre is V, the the electric intensity at a distance 3r from the centre
is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Two metals plates are placed in parallel. If capacitance of capacitor is C then what will be

potential energy stored in the region between two plates :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

17) For the circuit shown in the figure, the charge on 4μF capacitor is :

(1) 30 μC
(2) 40 μC
(3) 24 μC
(4) 54 μC

18) If A is connected with C and B is connected with D. How much charge flows in the circuit:

(1) 10 µC
(2) 12 µC
(3) 14 µC
(4) 16 µC

19) Find the potential difference (Va – Vb) between a and b in the given circuit

(1) 14 V
(2) 17 V
(3) 12 V
(4) –14V

20) Two cells of same emf E but internal resistance r1 and r2 are connected in series to an external
resistor R. What should be the value of R so that the potential difference across the terminals of the
first cell becomes zero -
(1)
(2) r1 + r2
(3) r1 – r2
(4) Zero

21)

If velocity of a body varies with time as V = (t2 – t) the correct graph for velocity-time will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The resultant of two vectors and is perpendicular to one vector , also , then the
angle between vector and vector is:-

(1)
rad

(2)
rad

(3)
rad

(4)
rad
23) The motion of a body is given by the equation where v is the speed in m s–1 and t is
time in s. The body is at rest at t = 0. The speed varies with time as :-

(1) v = (1 – e–3t)
(2) v = 2(l –e–3t)
(3) v = (1 + e–2t)
(4) v = 2(1 + e–2t)

24) One body is dropped while a second body is thrown downwards with an initial velocity of 2 m/s
simultaneously. The separation between them is 18 metres after a time:

(1) 9 s
(2) 4.5 s
(3) 18 s
(4) 9.8 s

25) The trajectory of a projectile in a vertical plane is y = ax – bx2, where a, b are constant, and x
and y are respectively the horizontal and vertical distances of the projectile from the point of
projection. The maximum height attained is ......... and the angle of projection from the horizontal is
........ :-

(1) a2/4b, tan–1 a

(2) b2/4a, tan–1 a
(3) b2/4a, tan–1 b
(4) a2/4b, tan–1 b

26) A particle moves on circular path of radius 5 m with constant speed 5 m/s. Find the magnitude of
its average acceleration when it completes half revolution.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

27) The displacement (x) of a particle depends on time (t) as .

Column -
Column - I
II

i. The particle will be at its starting point after time p.

ii. The particle will be at rest at time q.

 The average velocity of particle from t = 0 to t = t0 is
iii. equal to its instantaneous velocity at time t = t0. The r.
value of t0 is equal to

No net force will act on the particle at time t is equal

iv. s.
to
Now match the given columns and select the correct option from the codes given below.
(1) i - q, ii - s, iii - r, iv - p
(2) i - q, ii - p, iii - s, iv - r
(3) i - s, ii - r, iii - p, iv - q
(4) i - r, ii - q, iii - s, iv - p

28) A force of 100 N is applied on a block of mass 3 kg as shown in the figure. The coefficeint of

friction between the surface and the block is µ = . The frictional force acting on the block is :-

(1) 15 N downward
(2) 25 N downward
(3) 20 N downward
(4) 30 N downward

29) At the instant when the 15 kg mass has acceleration of 6 m/sec2 then acceleration of 30 kg mass
will be :

(1) 2 m/sec2
(2) 3 m/sec2
(3) 4 m/sec2
(4) 6 m/sec2

30) A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance d with constant downward

acceleration . Work done by the cord on the block is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) Mgd

31) The speed v reached by a car of mass m, driven with constant power P, is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A car is going on an overbridge of radius R, maintaining a constant speed. As the car is
descending on the overbridge from point B to C, the normal force on it :

(1) increase
(2) decreases
(3) remains constant
(4) first increases then decreases.

33) A particle moving along a circular path. The angular velocity, linear velocity, angular
acceleration and centripetal acceleration of the particle at any instant respectively are , , , c .
Which of the following relation is/are correct :–
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) a,b,d
(2) b,c,d
(3) a,b,c
(4) a,c,d

34) A body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 6 m/s strikes Perfectely inelastically another body
of same mass at rest. The amount of heat evolved during collision is. (e = 0)

(1) 36J
(2) 18J
(3) 9J
(4) 3J

35) A man of mass 80 kg stands on a plank of mass 50 kg. The plank is lying on a smooth horizontal
floor. Initially both are rest. The man starts walking on the plank from left to right after walking a
distance of 13 m on the plank :-
(1) The plank will not shift
(2) The plank will shift towards right by 5 m
(3) The plank will shift towards left by 5 m
(4) The plank will shift towards left by 8 m

36) If torque on a body is zero, then which is conserved:

(1) force
(2) linear momentum
(3) angular momentum
(4) angular impulse

37) Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and 2I respectively about their axis of rotation. If
their kinetic energies of rotation are equal, their angular momentum will be in the ratio :–

(1) 1 : 2
(2)
(3)
(4) 2 : 1

38) The moment of the force, at (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) Two solid sphere of radii r and 2r, made of the same material, are kept in contact. The mutual
gravitational force of attraction between them is proportional to :

(1)

(2)

(3) r2
(4) r4

40) Acceleration due to gravity on a planet is 10 times the value on the earth. Escape velocity for the
planet and the earth are Vp and Ve respectively Assuming that the radii of the planet and the earth
are the same, then

(1) VP = 10 Ve
(2) VP = Ve

(3)
(4)

41)

The dimensions of two wires A and B are the same. But their materials are different. Their load-
extension graphs are shown. If YA and YB are the values of Young's modulus of elasticity of A and B
respectively then

(1) YA > YB
(2) YA < YB
(3) YA = YB
(4) YB = 2YA

42) The main scale of a vernier calliper has n divisions/cm. n divisions of the vernier scale coincide
with (n –1) divisions of main scale. The least count of the vernier calliper is,

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A thin soap film formed between a U-shaped wire and a light slider supports a weight of 1.5 ×
10–2 N (see figure). The length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight is negligible. The surface tension

of the liquid film is :

(1) 0.0125 Nm–1

(2) 0.1 Nm–1
(3) 0.05 Nm–1
(4) 0.025 Nm–1

44) The diagram (fig.) shows venturimeter through which water is flowing. The speed of water at X
is 2 cm/s. Find the speed of water at Y.
(taking g = 1000 cm/s2).

(1) 16 cm/s
(2) 32 cm/s
(3) 8 cm/s
(4) 4 cm/s

45) A student measured the diameter of a rod by using screw gauge with pitch 1 mm and 200 div on
circular scale. In observation the main scale reading is 5 mm and 50 division above the reference
level of circular scale then the correct diameter of ball is:

(1) 5.25 mm
(2) 5.20 mm
(3) 5.200 mm
(4) 5.250 mm

CHEMISTRY

1) If 2 moles of SO2 reacts with 3 moles of O2 then

(1) 2 moles of SO3 will be formed

(2) total volume is 89.6L at STP present in mixture.
(3) O2 will be left
(4) all of these

2) Enthalpy of neutralization of HCl by NaOH is –55.84 kJ/mol and by NH4OH is –51.34 kJ/mol. The
enthalpy of ionization of NH4OH is

(1) –107.18 kJ/mol

(2) 107.18 kJ/mol
(3) 4.5 kJ/mol
(4) –4.5 kJ/mol

3) In an adiabatic system, if the work is done by the system, the temperature must :

(1) Decrease
(2) Increase
(3) First increase then decrease
(4) Decrease then increases

4) Standard entropies of A2, B2 and A2B3 are 50, 20 and 60 JK–1 mol–1 respectively.
For the reaction

ΔH° = – 7.5 KJ, to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be

(1) 375 K
(2) 350 K
(3) 450 K
(4) 475 K

5)

The IUPAC name of the following compound :-

(1) 4-Bromo-3-cyano phenol

(2) 2-Bromo-5-hydroxy benzonitrile
(3) 2-Cyano-4-hydroxy bromo benzene
(4) 6-Bromo-3-hydroxy benzonitrile

6)

Correct IUPAC name of

(1) 2-Amino pent-4-enoic acid

(2) 3-Amino pent-4-enoic acid
(3) 3-Amino pent-3-enoic acid
(4) 2-Amino pentanoic acid

7) Assertion (A):– CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 is a planar compuond.

Reason (R):– It has 9 σ bonds and 2 π bonds.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

8) Match the column

 Column-I
Column-II
(Common
(Structural Formula)
Name)

(A) Acetone (p) CH3 – CHO

(B) Acetaldehyde (q)

(C) Crotonaldehyde (r) CH2 = CH – CHO

(D) Acrylaldehyde (s) CH3–CH = CH–CHO

(1) A–q; B–p; C–r; D–s
(2) A–q; B–p; C–s; D–r
(3) A–p; B–s; C–r; D–q
(4) A–q; B–r; C–s; D–p

9) For the reaction PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 : Kp is the equilibrium constant, P is the total pressure and x is
the degree of dissociation. Show that x2P would be equal to :-

2
(1) Kp(1 + x )
(2) KP(1 – x)
2
(3) Kp(1 – x )
2
(4) Kp(1 + x)

10) Species that can act as a bronsted acid as well as bronsted base both.

–
(1) HSO4
(2) Na2CO3
+
(3) NH4
(4) O–2

11) pH of a saturated solution of Ba (OH)2 is 12. The value of solubility product (KSP) of Ba (OH)2 is:

(1) 4.0 × 10–6

(2) 5.0 × 10–6
(3) 3.3 × 10–7
(4) 5.0 × 10–7

12) The KE of electron in He+ will be maximum in ?

(1) 3rd orbit

(2) 2nd orbit
(3) 1st orbit
(4) n = ∞
13) An electron in excited hydrogen atom falls from fifth energy level to first energy level, in which
of the following regions, the spectrum line will be observed and it is the part of which series of
atomic spectrum ?

(1) Visible, Balmer

(2) Ultraviolet, Lyman
(3) Infrared, Paschen
(4) Infrared, Brackett

14) Which of the following set of quantum numbers belong to highest energy ?

(1)
n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(2)
n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(3)
n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 1, s = +

(4)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = +

15) and are :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Position isomer
(3) Metamer
(4) Ring-chain isomer

16) How many structural isomers of C4H8 are possible :

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 6

17) Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (Geometrical isomerism) :-

(1) 2-Butene
(2) Butanol
(3) 2-Butyne
(4) All of these

18) At room temperature, the eclipsed and staggered forms of ethane cannot be isolated because :-

(1) they interconvert rapidly

(2) both the conformers are equally stable
(3) the energy difference between the conformers is large
(4) there is a large energy barrier of rotation about the σ-bond

19) Meso isomer is optically inactive due to :-

(1) Intramolecular neutralisation

(2) Molecular symmetry
(3) Internal compensation
(4) All

20) Which reaction does not represent disproportionation reaction :-

– – –
(1) Cl2 + OH → Cl + ClO3 + H2O
(2) 2H2O2 → H2O+O2
(3) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu
(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O

21) On the basis of structure the oxidation state of two Cl atoms in CaOCl2 respectively are :-

(1) –1 and +1
(2) +2 and –2
(3) –2 and +2
(4) –1 and +3

22) Which one of the following is wrong :-

(1) Conductivity increases on dilution

(2) Conductivity decreases on dilution
(3) Equivalent conductivity increases on dilution
(4) Molar conductivity increases on dilution.

23) The standard electrode potential and are respectively +0.54 V, –1.09 V
and 0.44 V. On the basis of above data which of the following process is non-spontaneous

– –
(1) Br2 + 2I → 2Br + I2
2+ –
(2) Fe + Br2 → Fe + 2Br
2+ –
(3) Fe + I2 → Fe + 2I
– –
(4) I2 + 2Br → 2I + Br2

24) What is the correct sequence of osmotic pressure of 0.01 M aqueous solution of :
(i) Al2(SO4)3 (π1) (ii) Na3PO4 (π2)
(iii) BaCl2 (π3) (iv) Glucose (π4)

(1) π4 > π2 > π3 > π1

(2) π3 > π4 > π2 > π1
(3) π3 > π1 > π2 > π4
(4) π1 > π2 > π3 > π4

25) Which of the following forms maximum boiling azeotrope ?

(1) CHCl3 + CH3COCH3

(2) C6H6 and C6H5–CH3
(3) CCl4 + C6H6
(4) C2H5OH + H2O

26) The rate equation for the reaction;

2A + B → C is rate = K [A] [B].
The correct statement about this is :

(1) K is independent of [A] and [B]

(2) t1/2 is constant
(3) Unit of K is s–1
(4) Rate of formation of C is twice the rate of disappearance of A

27) Reaction, 2A + B + 2C → D follows three steps in its mechanism

2A + B → X (slow)
X + C → Y (fast)
Y + C → D (fast)
What is the molecularity of the rate determining step and the overall order of the reaction ?

(1) 3, 2
(2) 3, 3
(3) 5, 2
(4) 5, 3

28) Which species has the same shape as NH3 :-

2–
(1) SO3
2–
(2) CO3
–
(3) NO3
(4) SO3

29) Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) The dipole moment of NF3 is zero

(2) The dipole moment of NF3 is less than NH3
(3) The dipole moment of NF3 is more than NH3
(4) The dipole moment of NH3 is zero

30) In , O2 & number of antibonding electron's respectively are -

(1) 3, 2, 4
(2) 7, 6, 7
(3) 7, 6, 8
(4) 8, 6, 8

31) Highest covalent character is found in :-

(1) CaF2
(2) CaCl2
(3) CaI2
(4) CaBr2

32) Select the incorrect match :-

(1) O-nitrophenol > P-nitrophenol ⇒ Vapour pressure

(2) O-nitrophenol < P-nitrophenol ⇒ Boiling point

(3)

⇒ Viscosity
(4) H2O < HF ⇒ Boiling point

33) Amphoteric oxide is ?

(1) CO2
(2) Al2O3
(3) CaO
(4) SiO2

34) Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C and D are given below :

(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p4
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p5
Which of the following is the correct increasing order of ionization energy:

(1) A < C < B < D

(2) A < B < C < D
(3) C < B < D < A
(4) D < A < B < C

35) Which is most stable :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Correct order of stability is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All of these

37) Which of following orders is correct for heat of

hydrogenation of these compounds ?

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > III > I
(4) III > I > II

38) Which of the following has two equivalent resonanting structures ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)

Correct order of –I effect is :

(1) > –COOH > –Cl > NO2
(2) –COOH > –Cl > –OH > –C ≡ N

(3) –NO > – > –Cl > Ph

2

(4) –COOH > – Br > –OH > –NH2

40) Which among the following compound/ion is not aromatic :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Which of the following compound will not undergo tautomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42)

The correct order of acidic strength is :-

(1) Chloroacetic acid > Acetic acid > Fluoroacetic acid

(2) Chloroacetic acid > Fluoroacetic acid > Acetic acid
(3) Fluoroacetic acid > Chloroacetic acid > Acetic acid
(4) Acetic acid > Fluoroacetic acid > Chloroacetic acid

43) The correct order of acid strength of the following molecules is

C2H5OH < H2O < CH3COOH <

(1)

(2)
C2H5OH < H2O < < CH3COOH

(3)
H2O < C2H5OH < < CH3COOH

(4)
H2O < < C2H5OH < CH3COOH

44) The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is :-

(1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N

(2) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
(3) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N

45) Given : = – 0.72 V, = – 0.42V. The potential for the cell,

3+ 2+
Cr(s) | Cr (aq) (0.1 M) || Fe (aq) (0.01 M)|Fe(s) is

(1) 0.26 V
(2) 0.339 V
(3) – 0.339 V
(4) – 0.26 V

BOTANY

1) Chromosomes are composed of :-

(1) DNA, RNA, Histones, Non histones

(2) DNA and Histones only
(3) DNA and RNA only
(4) DNA, RNA and Histones only

2) Which face of Golgi apparatus receives vesicles from endoplasmic reticulum ?

(1) Cis-face
(2) Trans-face
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Face associated with ribosome

3) Eukaryotes have 80S, while prokaryotes have 70S ribosomes in cytoplasm. Here "S":-
(a) denotes sedimentation coefficient
(b) is an indirect measure of density
(c) is an indirect measure of size

(1) a only
(2) a and b only
(3) b and c only
(4) a, b and c

4) Find incorrect statement with regard to centrosome and centrioles :-

(a) Cristae are found in mitochondria.
(b) In centrosome, both centrioles lie parallel to each other in which each has an organisation like
the cartwheel
(c) Centrioles are made up of nine unevenly spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin
(d) Hub is the central proteinaceous part of centriole
(e) Proteinaceous radial spokes connect hub to peripheral triplets

(1) a,b, e
(2) only b
(3) b, c
(4) All are correct

5) Which of the following statement is correct regarding chloroplast ?

(1) A number of organised flattened membranous sacs called cristae, present in stroma.
(2) Its outer membrane is less permeable.
(3) The stroma contains enzymes required for the carbohydrates synthesis.
(4) Its ribosomes are larger than the cytoplasmic ribosomes.

6) Synaptonemal complex is a nucleoprotein structure. It is visible or found from-

(1) zygotene to pachytene

(2) leptotene to diplotene
(3) zygotene to metaphase
(4) pachytene to diplotene

7) If in a diploid plant cell the 'n' value is 16 then what is possible in metaphase - I of meiosis ?

(1) 32 Bivalents
(2) 64 Bivalents
(3) 16 Bivalents
(4) 8 Bivalents

8) In which stage of mitotic division, cells do not show Golgi complex, ER, nucleolus and nuclear
envelope ?

(1) Metaphase
(2) Late prophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) All of these

9) Match the following -

(a) Prophase (I) Decondensation of chromosome

(b) Metaphase (II) Division of centromere

Attachment of spindle fibres on kinetochores

(c) Anaphase (III)
of chromosomes

(d) Telophase (IV) Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle

Options :-
(1) a (IV) b (III) c (I) d (II)
(2) a (IV) b (III) c (II) d (I)
(3) a (III) b (IV) c (II) d (I)
(4) a (III) b (IV) c (I) d (II)

10) Which of the following is / are not correctly matched?

Common Name Genus Family

(i) Man Homo Hominidae

(ii) Housefly Diptera Muscidae

(iii) Mango Mangifera Anacardiaceae

(iv) Wheat Triticum Poaceae

(1) i & ii
(2) only i
(3) only ii
(4) iii & iv

11) All the categories used in classification of organism constitute :-

(1) Taxonomy
(2) Systematics
(3) Taxonomic hierarchy
(4) Taxonomic affinity

12) The relation of solanaceae and convolvulaceae with polymoniales is similar to the relation
occuring in:-

(1) Felidae and canidae with carnivora

(2) Primata and carnivora with mammalia
(3) Amphibia and reptilia with chordata
(4) Solanum and Petunia with solanaceae

13) Which organisms have silica in their cell wall ?

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Slime mould
(3) Diatoms
(4) Euglenoids

14) Citrus canker is a _____ disease.

(1) Bacterial
(2) Viral
(3) Fungal
(4) Mycoplasmal

15) Zoospores and aplanospores are common asexual spores …A… formed in members of …B… .
What are A and B respectively?

(1) Exogenously and Phycomycetes

(2) Endogenously and Phycomycetes
(3) Exogenously and Ascomycetes
(4) Endogenously and Ascomycetes

16) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-I: In addition to proteins, a virus also contains DNA along with RNA.
Statement-II: Viruses can reproduce only within living cells and are obligatory intracellular
parasites.

(1) Only statement-I is correct.

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both statements-I and II are correct
(4) Both statements-I and II are incorrect

17) Assertion :- Aerobic respiration yields more energy than anaerobic respiration.
Reason :- In aerobic respiration there is complete oxidation of pyruvic acid with release of all
hydrogen and CO2.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Which of the following is the energy yielding step of glycolysis?

(1) Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate

(2) BPGA → PGA
(3) Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate → PGAL
(4) Phosphoglycerate → phosphoenolpyruvate

19) After entry of pyruvic acid in mitochondrial matrix, which of the following does not take place?

(1) oxidation
(2) decarboxylation
(3) oxidative - decarboxylation
(4) Fermentation

20) FADH2 produced in Kreb's-cycle from –

(1) Isocitrate
(2) α - ketoglutarate
(3) succinate
(4) malate

21) How many NADH. H+ will be produced inside the mitochondria when one glucose is completely
oxidised in the cell ?

(1) Four
(2) Eight
(3) Twelve
(4) Sixteen

22) During the production of one sucrose from Calvin cycle how many ATP are required for the
continuity of cycle after the formation of triose phosphate (PGAL) ?

(1) One ATP

(2) Eighteen ATP
(3) Six ATP
(4) Twelve ATP

23) If 5 CO2 enter into the Calvin cycle then what will be the difference in number of ATPs utilise in
reduction and regeneration steps ?

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Ten
(4) Eighteen
24) By using the bell jar, which of the following showed that sunlight is essential to plant process
that purifies the air ?

(1) Joseph priestley

(2) Julius Von Sachs
(3) T.W. Engelmann
(4) Jan Ingenhousz

25) Read the following four statements, A, B, C and D and select the right option having both correct
statements.
Statements :
(A) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only.
(B) Only PSI is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation
(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH(H+)
(D) Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP reductase

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) B and D

26) Identify the correct statements regarding chemiosmotic hypothesis :

(a) Splitting of the water molecule takes place on the inner side of the membrane. (b) Protons
accumulate within the lumen of the thylakoids.
(c) Primary acceptor of electron transfers the electrons to an electron carrier.
(d) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane.
(e) Protons increase in number in stroma.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) a, c & e
(2) a, b & d
(3) b, c & d
(4) b, c & e

27) Read the following statements (a – e) and answer the question which follows them.
(a) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free living
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous
(c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Allbugo is oogamous
(d) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(E) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

28) Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in :-

(1) Sphagnum
(2) Mustard
(3) Castor
(4) Pinus

29) Which of the following statement is correct regarding the diagram given below :

(1) Main plant body is haploid and lack true roots, stem or leaves.
(2) It provides peat that have long been used as fuel.
(3) It does not possess vascular tissues-xylem and phloem.
It produces two kinds of spores, macro (large) and micro (small) spores, are known as
(4)
heterosporous.

30) The floral formula is that of :-

(1) Tobacco
(2) Tulip
(3) Soyabean
(4) Sunnhemp

31) Tetradyanamous conditions occur in :–

(1) Cruciferae
(2) Malvaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Lilliaceae

32) Correct position of floral parts over thalamus in mustard plant is :

(1) Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the other parts are situated below it.
Margin of the thalamus grows upward, enclosing the ovary completely, and other parts arise
(2)
below the ovary.
(3) Gynoecium is present in the centre and other parts cover it partially.
Gynoecium is situated in the centre, and other parts of the flower are located at the rim of the
(4)
thalamus, at the same level.
33) Identify the correct features of Mango and Coconut fruits.
(i) In both fruit is a drupe
(ii) Endocarp is edible in both
(iii) Mesocarp in Coconut is fibrous, and in Mango it is fleshy
(iv) In both, fruit develops from monocarpellary and superior ovary
Select the correct option from below :

(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i) and (iv) only
(4) (i) and (ii) only

34)

Find out the correct sequence of labelling.

A B C

Guard
Subsidiary Epidermal
(1)
cells cells
cells

Subsidiary Guard Epidermal

(2)
cells cells cells

Epidermal Guard Subsidiary

(3)
cells cells cells

Subsidiary Epidermal
(4) Guard cells
cells cells
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) The hypodermis present in maize stem is -

(1) Parenchymatous
(2) Collenchymatous
(3) Sclerenchymatous
(4) Meristematic
36) The transverse section of a plant part showed polyarch, radial and exarch xylem, with
endodermis and pericycle. The plant part is identified as :

(1) Monocot root

(2) Dicot root
(3) Dicot stem
(4) Monocot stem

37) Spraying sugarcane crop with gibberellins increases the length of the stem, thus increasing the
yield by as much as :-

(1) 30 tonnes per acre

(2) 40 tonnes per acre
(3) 20 tonnes per acre
(4) 50 tonnes per acre

38) One single maize root apical meristem can give rise to more than .............. new cells per hour :-

(1) 1750
(2) 10750
(3) 17500
(4) 175000

39) Apical dominance can be overcome by application of :–

(1) Auxin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Florigen

40) Which of the following increases the tolerance of plants to various kind of stresses ?

(1) ABA
(2) Ethylene
(3) Auxin
(4) Cytokinin

41) Match the following :

(A) Cytokinin (i) Weed free lawns

(B) Auxin (ii) Brewing industry

(C) Abscissic acid (iii) Root hair formation

(D) Ethylene (iv) Overcome apical dominance

(E) Gibberellin (v) Stress hormone

(1) A - iv, B - i, C - v, D - ii, E - iii
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - v, D - iii, E - iv
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - v, D - i, E - ii
(4) A - iv, B - i, C - v, D - iii, E - ii

42) In majority of angiosperms :

(1) reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells

(2) a small central cell is present in the embryo sac
(3) egg has a filiform apparatus
(4) there are numerous antipodal cells

43) In angiosperms the correct sequence of events in formation of female gametophyte in the ovule
is :
(A) 3 successive free nuclear divisions in functional megaspore.
(B) Degeneration of 3 megaspores.
(C) Meiotic division in megaspore mother cell.
(D) Migration of 3 nuclei towards each pole.
(E) Formation of wall resulting in seven celled embryosac
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

(2) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
(3) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)
(4) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

44) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In monocotyledons, the cotyledon is called scutellum and is situated laterally on the
embryonal axis.
Statement II: The portion of the embryonal axis below the level of attachment of scutellum is the
epicotyl, which has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure, the
coleoptile. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.'

45) In following three diagram identify A, B, C and D respectively and find out the correct match

among the following set of options :-

A B C D
 Shoot apical
(1) Hypocotyl Scutellum Endosperm
meristem
Shoot
(2) Hypocotyl apical Scutellum Endosperm
meristem
Shoot apical
(3) Scutellum Hypocotyl Endosperm
meristem
Shoot apical
(4) Endosperm Scutellum Hypocotyl
meristem
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

ZOOLOGY

1)

The name given below, select how many of these are mammals :

Whale, Dolphin, Pteropus, Elephant,

Hippopotamus, Sea cow, Kangaroo.
(1) Seven
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

2) Which of the following group of animals belongs to the same phylum?

(1) Earthworm, filarial worm, tapeworm, Hookworm

(2) Prawn, scorpion, Locusta, Bombyx
(3) Silverfish, starfish, Cuttlefish, Jellyfish
(4) Sea anemone, sea pen, sea fan, sea hare

3) There are some nucleic acids that behaves like enzymes and are called-

(1) DNase
(2) Aptamers
(3) Endonuclease
(4) Ribozymes

4) Identify the correct statement.

(1) Dog fish is a bilaterally symmetrical animal covered with placoid scales
(2) Saw fish is a bilaterally symmetrical animal covered with ctenoid scales
(3) Silver fish is a radially symmetrical animal covered with silvery cycloid scales
(4) Angle fish is a radially symmetrical animal covered with ganoid scales
5) In the graphical representation of Michaelis-Menten kinetics X represents :-

(1)
Concentration of substrate at which the rate of reaction is Vmax

(2)
Concentration of enzyme-substrate complex at which the rate of reaction is Vmax

(3)
Concentration of product at which the rate of reaction is Vmax

(4)
Concentration of enzyme at which the rate of reaction is Vmax

6) Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
paralysis of skeletal muscle is :-

(1) Muscular dystrophy

(2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Gout
(4) Osteoporosis

7) Name the type of joint between following :-

(A) Between atlas and axis ?
(B) Between carpals ?
(C) Between cranial bone ?
(D) Between femur and Acetabulum cavity ?
Choose the correct option :

(1) Pivot, Hinge, Suture, Ball and Socket

(2) Pivot, Elipsoid, Fibrous, Gliding
(3) Pivot, Gliding, Suture, Ball and Socket
(4) Gliding, Pivot, Suture, Ball and Socket

8) Insulin stimulates :-
(A) Gluconeogenesis
(B) Cell permeability for glucose
(C) Lipogenesis
(D) Glycogenesis

(1) A, C, D
(2) C, D, E
(3) B, C, E
(4) B, C, D

9) Sliding filament theory can be best explained as :-

After intracellular increase of Ca++ ion concentration, actin & myosin filaments shorten & slide
(1)
pass each other
After intercellular increase of Mg++ ion concentration, actin & myosin filaments slide pass each
(2)
other but do not shorten
After intracellular increase of Ca++ ion concentration, actin & myosin filaments slide pass each
(3)
other but do not shorten
After intracellular decrease of Na+ ion concentration, actin & myosin filaments slide pass each
(4)
other but do not shorten

10) The given figure shows reabsorption and secretion of major substances at different parts of the
nephron. The movement of which of the following substances is wrongly depicted ?

(1) NaCl and K+ at DCT

(2) NaCl and NH3 at PCT
(3) NaCl at ascending limb of loop of Henle
(4) H2O at descending limb of loop of Henle

11) Which of following is not a correct statement/function about RAAS :-

(1) Fall is GFR activates J.G. cells to release renin

(2) Angiotensin-II activates adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
(3) Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ & H2O from DCT
(4) ADH also has vasoconstrictory effect on blood vessels so ADH can increase blood pressure/GFR

12) Given below is a female reproductive system of frog labelled as A, B, C and D

Find out the incorrect one :-

(1) In male frog labelled C act as urinogenital duct

(2) In female frog labelled C and A open separately in the cloaca
(3) Labelled D is urinary bladder which is present ventral to rectum
(4) Labelled B is functionally opening in kidney directly.

13) Assertion: Female frog croaks more loudly than male frog
Reason : During copulation, the female frog clasps male with the help of forelimbs.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

14) Assertion (A) :- Ionic balance of ions is related with adrenal medulla hormone. Reason (R) :-
Adrenal cortex hormone secretion is under control of posterior pitutary gland.

(1) Assertion & Reason both are correct and Reason is explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason both are correct but Reason is not a explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect.

15)
Identify letter in given figures :-

(1) x-parathyroid gland, a-adrenal gland

(2) y-PTH, b-Cortisol
(3) x-thyroid gland, b-thyroxine
(4) y-calcitonin, b-glucagon

16) Identify the gland (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f) shown below and select the option with correct

combination of the gland with their hormone and metabolic effect?

Gland Hormone Metabolic effect

(1) (a) Thyroid Parathormone Stimulates Lipolysis

Stimulates
(2) (c) Pancreas Insulin
glycogenolysis

stimulates
(3) (d) Adrenal Cortisol
gluconeogenesis

(4) (f) Ovary Androgen Protein catabolism

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a ...'B'... state whereas high temperature destroys
enzymatic activity because proteins are ...'A'... by heat. Choose the correct option:-

(1) A = temporarily inactive, B = denatured

(2) A = temporarily inactive, B = temporarily inactive
(3) A = permanently inactive, B = denatured
(4) A = denatured, B = temporarily inactive

18) Observe the following flow chart and choose right statement :-
(1) cause release of and inhibits secretion of (normally)
(2) causes release of and concentrates inside the seminiferous tubule
(3) is GnRH, is ICSH and is FSH
(4) is GnRH, is LH and is FSH

19) Correct sequence of abundance of compounds in the cell is :-

(1) Water > Lipid > carbohydrate > Protein > Ions
(2) Lipid > Nucleic acid > Protein > Carbohydrate > Ions
(3) Water > Protein > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate > Ions
(4) Ions > Protein > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate > lipid

20) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(a) Vaults (i) Made up of rubber

Cut and tieup

(b) IUDs (ii)
Vas deferens

Phagocytosis of sperms
(c) Vasectomy (iii)
within the Uterus

(d) Tubectomy (iv) Cut and tieup oviduct

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Lipids are generally water insoluble.
(b) The R group could be a methyl (–CH3) or ethyl (–C2H5) or higher no. of –CH2 group (1 carbon to
19 carbon) in fatty acids
(c) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including the carboxyl carbon.
(d) Arachidonic acid has 21 carbon atom including the carboxyl carbon.
Option

(1) Statement (a), (b) and (c)

(2) Statement (a), (b) only
(3) Statement (c), (d) only
(4) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

22) Given below the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of polysaccharide identify the parts
labelled A, B, C, D and select the right option about them :-

Part A Part B Part C Part D

α(1–4) glycosidic α(1–6) glycosidic

(1) Linear chain Branching chain
linkage linkage

α(1–6) glycosidic α(1–4) glycosidic

(2) Branching chain Linear chain
linkage linkage

α(1–6) glycosidic α(1–4) glycosidic

(3) Branching chain Linear chain
linkage linkage

α(1–6) glycosidic α(1–4) glycosidic

(4) Linear chain Branching chain
linkage linkage

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Match the column I and II, and choose the correct option :-

Column -I Column-II

a Unipolar Neuron 1 Cerebral cortex

b Bipolar Neuron 2 Embryonic stage

c Multipolar neuron 3 Retina

(1) a-1, b-2, c-3
(2) a-2, b-3, c-1
(3) a-3, b-1, c-2
(4) a-2, b-1, c-3

24) Match the column–I with column–II regarding ECG.

 Column–I Column–II

(a) P-wave (i) depolarisation of ventricles

(ii) depolarisation of atria

(iii) Repolarisation of atria

(b) QRS-complex (iv) repolarisation of ventricles

(v) excitation of atria

(c) T-wave (vi) excitation of ventricles

(vii) contraction of both the atria

(viii) end of systole.

(1) (a–ii, v, vii), (b–i, vii), (c–iv)
(2) (a–iii, v, vii), (b–iv), (c–i, vi)
(3) (a–ii, v, vii), (b–i, vi), (c–iv, viii)
(4) (a–ii, vii), (b–iv), (c–iv, viii)

25) Match column I with column II.

Column–I Column–II

I. Serum A. Cell fragments

II. Basophils B. Allergic reactions.

III. Eosinophil's C. Inflammatory reactions

Plasma without the

IV. Thrombocytes D.
clotting factor
(1) I–D, II–B, III–C, IV–A
(2) I–D, II–C, III–B, IV–A
(3) I–A, II–C, III–B, IV–D
(4) I–A, II–B, III–C, IV–D

26) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

Heart muscle is suddenly damaged by

(A) Heart failure I.
inadequate blood supply.

Chest pain due to inadequate

(B) Cardiac arrest II.
O2 reaching the heart muscles.

(C) Heart attack III. Atherosclerosis.

Coronary
Heart not pumping blood effectively
(D) Artery Disease IV.
enough to meet the needs of the body.
(CAD)

(E) Angina pectoris V. Heart stops beating

(1) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-III, E-II
(3) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III, E-I

27) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) In amphibia and reptiles incomplete double circulation present.
(B) In arthropods and molluscs open circulatory system present.
(C) In joint diastole stage semilunar valves are closed.
(D) The hepatic portal vein carries blood from intestine to the kidney.
How many of the above statements are wrong?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

28) Select the hormone-releasing intra-uterine devices

(1) Vaults, LNG-20

(2) Multiload 375, Progestasert
(3) Progestasert, LNG-20
(4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

29) Read the given statements :

(a) At puberty about 60000-80000 primary follicles are present in both ovaries and of these only few
mature as Graafian follicles.
(b) Generally one ovum is released during the middle of menstrual cycle.
(c) Lack of menstruation is not always are indicative of pregnancy.
How many statements are correct :-

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0

30) During depolarisation of nerve :-

(1) Na+ VGC – Close, K+ VGC – open

(2) Na+ VGC – Open, Na+-K+ pump – on
(3) K+ VGC – Close, Na+-K+ pump – off
(4) Na+ VGC – Open, K+ leak channel close

31) Match the column-I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II
 a Myelinated nerve fibre 1 Somatic neural system

b Unmyelinated nerve fibre 2 Autonomic neural system

3 Cranial nerves

4 Spinal nerves
(1) a-1, 2 ; b-3, 4
(2) a-3, 4 ; b-1, 2
(3) a-1, 3 ; b-2, 4
(4) a-2, 4 ; b-1, 3

32) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

a-axon, b-synaptic cleft, c-pre synaptic membrane, d-synaptic vesicle, e-receptor, f-post synaptic
(1)
membrane
a-axon terminal, b-synaptic vesicles, c-presynaptic membrane, d-synaptic cleft,
(2)
e-receptor, f-neurotransmitters
a-synaptic vesicles, b-axon terminal, c-post synaptic membrane, d-neurotransmitter, e-
(3)
presynaptic membrane, f-receptor
a-axon terminal, b-synaptic vesicles,
(4)
c-presynaptic membrane, d-synaptic cleft, e-post synaptic membrane, f-receptors

33) Foetal movement starts usually from

(1) II month of pregnancy

(2) III month of pregnancy
(3) IV month of pregnancy
(4) V month of pregnancy

34) Which method of contraception has high failure rate ?

(1) Natural method

(2) Sterilization
(3) I.U.D.
(4) Barrier method

35) Statement-I : Leydig cells synthesis and secretes hormones called androgens.
Statement-II : Leydig cells also known as interstitial cells.

(1) Both statement-I and II both are false.

(2) Both statement-I and II both are true.
(3) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true.

36) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
A. Head I. Enzymes
B. Middle piece II. Sperm motility
C. Acrosome III. Energy
D. Tail IV. Genetic material
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

37) Assertion :- Ovulation occurs on the 14th day of menstrual cycle in a human female.
Reason :- The high level of estrogen is controlled 2 or 3 days before this event due to negative feed
back.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion & Reason are true But Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both Assertion Reason are false

38) In which duration menstrual cycle both LH & FSH attain a peak level

(1) In last week

(2) Middle of cycle
(3) Initial days of cycle
(4) 4th day of cycle

39) The signals for parturition originate from

(1) Fully developed foetus

(2) Placenta
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Uterus

40) How many sperm and ovum are formed from 50 primary spermatocyte and 50 primary oocyte?

(1) 200 sperms and 50 ova

(2) 200 ova and 50 sperms
(3) 50 sperms and 50 ova
(4) 100 sperms and 200 ova

41) Select the wrong statement :-

(1) Respiratory volumes and capacities can be used in clinical diagnosis.

(2) Oxygen is transported mainly as oxyhaemoglobin.
(3) Chemosensitive area is situated in pons.
(4) None of these.

42) Assertion - Respiratory rhythm is maintained by respiratory rhythm centre situated in medulla
oblongata.
Reason - Chemosensitive area is situated in pons region.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

43) Given below are four contraceptive methods and their modes of action in achieving
contraceptive.
Select the correct matching

Method Mode of action

(A) Oral pill (I) Prevents sperm reaching cervix
(B) Condom (II) Reduces sperm motility
(C) Vasectomy (III) Prevents ovulation
(D) Copper-T (IV) Semen contains no sperms
(1) A-I, B –III, C –IV, D-II
(2) A-II, B – III, C –I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B –I, C –IV, D-II
(4) A-IV, B –I, C –II, D-III

44) Read the following statements and mark the correct option
(i)The problems of infertility lies always with the female partner
(ii) Amniocentesis has been banned due to illegal MTPs
(iii) The reasons for infertility are due to disease only
(iv) MTP(amendment) act,2017 was enabled by government of India to reduce incidence of maternal
mortality and morbidity

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iii)
45) Identify the parts labelled A, B and C in given diagram :-

(1) A = Actin, B = Myosin, C= Troponin

(2) A = Troponin, B = Tropomyosin, C = F-actin
(3) A = Actin binding site, B = Troponin, C = Cross arm
(4) A = Actin binding site, B = ATP binding site, C = Cross arm
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 4 3 4 3 2 4 4 2 1 3 4 2 1 2 3 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 2 4 2 4 3 3 4 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 4 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 1 2 1 1 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 4 4 1 1 2 1 2 3 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 2 1 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 4 3 3 1 3 4 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 1 4 4 2 4 1 4 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 3 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 4 4 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 2 4 1 1 2 3 4 3 4 4 4 4 4 3 3 4 2 3 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 3 3 3 2 4 4 1 2 1 3 2 3 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 2kg ice at – 20°C + 5 kg water at 20°C

Qgain = Qlost

M = 1 kg
Water = 5 + 1 = 6 kg

2)

PV = μRT

3) 1. Explanation Question:
We need to determine the equation of state for 5g of oxygen at pressure P, temperature T, and
volume V using the ideal gas law.

2. Concept: This question based on Ideal gas equation.

3. Formula:
Ideal Gas Equation: PV = nRT

Moles Calculation:
For oxygen , molar mass = 32 g/mol

4. Brief Calculation
Given mass of oxygen: 5g

Moles of oxygen:

Substituting in the ideal gas equation:

Correct answer: Option 4

4) Question Explanation :
In this question we have to choose the correct P-V diagram for the given cyclic process ABCA
which is represent on a P-T diagram.

Concept:

A. The equation of state for an ideal gas: PV=nRT

 B. A PT diagram does not directly show volume changes, but we can infer them using the ideal
gas law.

Formula:

A. V =
B. Using this, we analyze how pressure and volume vary in each step of the cycle.

Solution :
We know that the ideal gas equation is [PV = nRT]
Let interpretate each part separately
(1) From A to B :-
P = constant ∴ V α T ( PV = nRT)
If T↓ V↓
Therefore on P-V graph it is represented by strait in horizontal line with volume decreasing from A
to B.
(2) From B to C

T = constant (isothermal process) ∴ (hyperbola curve)

P↓ V
Therefore from B to C it is represented by a curve with pressure decreasing and volume increasing
(3) From C to A
T is increasing and P is also increasing
∴ P α T (Since it is a straight line)
∴ V = constant ( PV = nRT)
∴ on P-V diagram it with be represent by straight vertical line
So the correct diagram will be

Final Answer :
Option (3)

5)

(ΔU)acb = (ΔU)adb [ΔU = Q – W]

200 – 80 = 144 – Wadb
Wadb = 24 J

6) For A, if spring const. = K, then for B, spring const. for each = 3K

TA = 2π

TB = 2π ( Keq = 9K, for B)

⇒

7) + 25 x = 0

ω2 = ⇒ω= ⇒T= s

0
8) T = 2π

= 2π

g + a = 4g
a = 3g upward

9) Maximum particle velocity = Aω

wave velocity =

in equation

y = 3 sin

y = 3 sin
Compare it with
y = A sin (ωt – kx)

AK =

11)
 12)

Question Explanation : We need to find the surface charge density of big drop, that forms
when 8 identical small drops of given surface charge density coalesce.

Concept : This question is based on Redistribution of charges in case of conductors.

Solution : As given, in Question, 8 smaller drops will form 1 big drop.

Qbig = 8 qsmaller = charge density on a small drop

Qbig = 8 σ (4πr2) ----- (i)
Rbig = (8)1/3r
Rbig = 2r ------ (ii)

then, charge density on the bigger drop.

From eq. (i) and (ii)

Final Answer: option (3)

13) U = U1 + U2 = – pEcosθ +

= – pEcosθ –

14)

w = qΔv = q [VB - VA]

10 = - 5 (VB - VA ]
VA - VB = 2
= A is at higher potential than B by 2 volt.

15) ⇒ KQ =

E=

16) Explanation question:

The problem asks for the electrostatic potential energy stored in the region between two large
parallel metal plates.
Concept:
Potential energy is stored in a parallel plate capacitor.

Solution:

Energy store between two plates. =

where q = charge on capacitor.
∴ q = 3Q

So, energy store =

Final Answer: option (2)

17) Explain Question: Asking about the charge on 4μF capacitor as shown circuit.

Concept: Circuit having air capacitor only.

Solution:
Effective circuit will be

Q4 = CV4 → 4 × 6 ⇒ 24μC

Final answer: option (3)

18) Explain the question : Asking about the charge flown in the circuit after connecting the
two charged capacitors.
Concept : This question is based on charge sharing & switching between the capacitors.
Solution :
Let potential of B and D is zero and common potential on capacitors is V, then at A and C it
will be V.
By charge conservation,
(Q1 + Q2)final = (Q1 + Q2)initial
3V + 2V = 40 + 30
5V = 70
V = 14 volt
Then charge flow ⇒ ΔQ = (Q2)final – (Q2)initial
= C2[(V1)final – (V1)initial]
ΔQ = (3µF) [(14) – (10)] volt
ΔQ = 12 µC
Final answer : Option (2)

19) Va – 6 – 5 + 3 – 6 = Vb
Va – Vb = 14 V

20) Explanation -

In this question the have to find the value of external resistance 'R' so that the potential
difference across the first cell is zero.

Given-
emf of cell-1 and cell-2 = E

Internal resistances of cell -1 and cell-2 = r1 and r2

External resistance = R

Concept - combination of cells and its charging and discharging

Formula - ∈equivalent = ∈1 + ∈2 (for series) -(1)

---(2)

V = ∈ - Ir --(3)

Visual Aid -
∈net = ∈1 + ∈2 = E + E = 2E

--(1) (Rnet = R+r1+r2)

now the potential difference across the first cell would

⇒ VA - VB = E - Ir, = 0

⇒ OR ---(2)

From eqn (1) and eqn (2)

Conclusion -

The option given in Q.B. is option -3 which is correct. The correct answer is option -3

Time - 2min

Level - Medium

21) Because v = t2 – t, Hence (v – t) graph will be a parabola concave upwards.

22) α = 90°
 .........(1)

A2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB (–A/B)

2A2 = B2 ⇒ .....(ii)
from (i) and (ii)

23)

at t = 0, C = 0

t=

–3t =ℓn

e–3t =
v = 2(1 – e–3t)

24) S1 – S2 = (u1 – u2)t

18 = (2 – 0)t
t=9s

25) y = ax – bx2 ...(1)

& y = x tan θ – ...(2)

Comparing both tanθ = a ⇒ θ = tan–1(a)

& u2 cos2 θ =

Now H = ...(1)
u2sin2θ = u2cos2θ × tan2θ

=
Put value in (1)

H= =

compose it with y = x tanθ

So R = a/b now tanθ =

a=

26)

∵
t = π sec.

27)
(i) x = 0 =

(i) - q
(ii)

(ii) - p

(iii)

...(i)

...(ii)
(i) = (ii)

(iii) - s
(iv)

(iv) - r
28)

29)

30) Question Explanation: Find work done by cord on block lowered with constant
acceleration.
Concept: Newton's second law and work done.
Solution:

by Newtons second law

Fnet = ma

Mg – T = (T = tension in cord)

W = Fs Cos θ

Final answer : option (3)

31) P = FV
P = mav

P=mv v
 ⇒

32) Explain Question: A car moves at constant speed down an overbridged of radius R;
determine how the normal force changes between points B and C.

Concept: Normal force varies with vertical component of weight and required centripetal
force.

Solution:
Let the car looses the contact at angle θ with vertical

mg cosθ – N = ⇒ N = mg cosθ – During descending on overbridged θ is increase.

So cosθ is decrease therefore normal reaction is decrease.

Final Answer : Option (2)

33) Explain question: Check which vector directions among ω, v, α and ac are mutually
perpendicular in circular motion.
Concept: In circular motion: velocity is tangential, centripetal is radial, ω is axial, a is
tangential.

Solution:

(a) → true (axis vs tangent)

(b) → true (axis vs tangential)
(c) → true (tangent vs radial)
(d) → true (axis vs radial)
Thus correct relations are a, c, d.

Final answer: Option (4)

34)
 35)
Let x = displacement of plank in positive x direction
50x + 80 (13 + x) = 0
50x + 1040 + 80x = 0

36) Question Explanation:

A body experiences zero torque; we need to identify the conserved quantity.

Concept:

Rotational motion

Solution:

Torque is the rate of change of angular momentum: .

A. If = 0 , then .

B. Therefore, angular momentum L remains constant.

Final Answer:

Option 3: angular momentum

37) Question Explanation:

Two bodies have different moments of inertia but equal rotational kinetic energy. Find the
ratio of their angular momenta.

Concept:

Rotational motion

Solution:

Rotational kinetic energy: K =

Let I1 = I , I2 = 2I , and K1 = K2
 Angular momentum: L = Iω

Final Answer:

Option 3:

38) Explain Question:

Find the moment (Torque) of a given force vector about a point.

Concept:
This Question is based on
Cross product.

Solution:
Here and
=

Final Answer:
Option (4)

39) and m2 = π(2r)3 r = 8 × πr3r

= 8 m1

40) Question Explanation : Find escape velocity of planet if gP = 10 ge

Concept : This question is based on escape velocity.

Solution :
Given Re = RP ; gP = 10 ge

escape velocity for planet

VP =

VP = Ve [∴ ]

Final answer : Option (2)

41)

From graph

Slope =

also Y =

Slope = =Y
⇒ more slope more Y
So YA > YB

42) n VSR = (m –1) MSR

1 VSR =

Given : 1 MSR =
∴ LC = 1 MSR – 1 VSR

43)

Mg = 2Tℓ
1.5 × 10–2 = 2 × T × 30 × 10–2

T= = 0.025

44)

v2 = 32 cm/s

45) Explain Question:

 Calculate the diameter of a rod using screw gauge parameters (pitch, circular scale divisions,
and readings).

Concept:
Diameter = Main Scale Reading + (Circular Scale Division × Least Count)

Solution:
Least Count = Pitch / Number of circular scale divisions
Least Count = 1 mm / 200
Least Count = 0.005 mm
Diameter = MSR + (CSD × Least Count)
Diameter = 5 mm + (50 × 0.005 mm)
Diameter = 5 mm + 0.250 mm
Diameter = 5.250 mm

​Final Answer: Option (4)

CHEMISTRY

46) Solution :

1. For SO2 :

For O2 : Since 1.0 < 3.0, SO2 is the L.R. and O2 is in excess.
2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3
given 2 mol 3 mol –
(L.R.)
after
reaction 2 – 2 3 – 1 2 mol
= 0 = 2 mol
2. Check options :
Option 1 : 2 moles of SO3 are formed (True).
Option 2 : Total moles at end = 0 + 2 + 2 = 4 moles. Volume at STP = 4 mol × 22.4 L mol–1 =
89.6 L. (True).
Option 3 : 2 moles of O2 will be left (True).
Final Answer : 4

47)

Question explanation: Compare heat released in strong vs weak base neutralization.

Concept: Enthalpy of neutralization
Solution:
Neutralization of strong acid + strong base = −55.84 kJ/mol.
Neutralization of strong acid + weak base (NH₄OH) = −51.34 kJ/mol.
ΔHionisation = ΔHneut + magnitude of ΔHneut of SASB
= –51.34 + 55.84 = 4.5 kJ
Final answer: Option (3)
48)

Question Explanation: We must determine how temperature changes in an adiabatic

system when work is done by the system.

Concept: First Law: ΔU = q − w, Adiabatic process

Solution:
Adiabatic process: q = 0 → ΔU = −w
If work is done by the system, w is positive → ΔU is negative → temperature decreases.
Final Answer: Option 1

49) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page No.

186

50)

51)

Question Explanation : The correct IUPAC name of given compound is.

Concept: IUPAC naming of functional group containing compounds.
Solution:

Final Answer: Option (2)

52) Question Explanation :

Two statements are given, find that they are true or not and reason is correct explantion or
not.

Concept : This question is based on In general a molecule having sp2 or sp or both hybridised
C-atom is a planner molecule.
Solution :
Assertion :
 is a planner molecule or compound
Reason :
Both are true but R is not correct explanation of A.

Hence,
Option (2) is correct : Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A)

53)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 331

54) Question Explanation: For the equilibrium PCl₅ ⇌ PCl₃ + Cl₂, the equilibrium constant
Kp is written using partial pressures. The
degree of dissociation x helps relate mole fractions to partial pressures. We derive the relation
between x²P and Kp.
Concept: Degree of dissociation, Kp = (p(PCl₃)·p(Cl₂)) / p(PCl₅).
Solution:
Start with 1 mol PCl₅.
At equilibrium : PCl₅ = 1 − x, PCl₃ = x, Cl₂ = x, total = 1 + x.
Partial pressures: p(PCl₅) = (1 − x)/(1 + x)·P
p(PCl₃) = x/(1 + x)·P
p(Cl₂) = x/(1 + x)·P
Kp = [x/(1 + x)·P]·[x/(1 + x)·P] / [(1 − x)/(1 + x)·P]
= x²P / (1 − x²).
Thus, x²P = Kp(1 − x²).
Final Answer : Option (3)

55)

Solution :
HSO4– → can donate H+ to form SO42– (acid) and accept H+ to form H2SO4 (base) → amphiprotic.
Na2CO3 → only accepts H+ (base).
NH4+ → only donates H+ (acid).
O2– → only accepts H+ (base).
Final Answer : 1

56)

Ba(OH)2 Ba+2 + 2OH–

S 2S
H OH
p = 12 ⇒ p = 2
[OH–] = 10–2 M = 2S

∴S=
Now for Ba(OH)2 Ksp = 4S3
 =4 = 5 × 10–7

57) Question Explanation :

We are to find the orbit where the kinetic energy (KE) of an electron in He+ is maximum.

Concept :
Bohr's modal : KE α 1/n2.

Solution :
In Bohr's model :
KE α 1/n2
→ As n decreases, KE increases
→ Minimum n (n = 1) gives maximum KE.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

58) Explain the Question :

The question asks in which region of the electromagnetic spectrum the spectral line is
observed when an electron in an excited hydrogen atom falls from the fifth energy level (n = 5)
to the first energy level (n = 1), and which series of atomic spectrum this transition belongs to.
Concept : This question is based on
Hydrogen Spectrum :
Solution :
Lyman Series: Transitions to n = 1 (ultraviolet region).
Balmer Series : Transitions to n = 2 (visible region).
Paschen Series : Transitions to n = 3 (infrared region).
Brackett Series : Transitions to n = 4 (infrared region).
Pfund Series : Transitions to n = 5 (far infrared region).
The transition is from n = 5 to n = 1.
Transitions to n=1 belong to the Lyman series.
The Lyman series falls in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Final answer : 2

59) Question Explanation : Identify the quantum numbers corresponding to the highest
every electron.
Concept : Energy is determined by the (n + ℓ) rule; higher (n + ℓ) means higher energy
Solution : The energy of an electron is determined by the (n + ℓ) value. Calculate (n + ℓ) for
each option.
Option (1) (4 + 0) = 4
Option (2) (2 + 0) = 2
Option (3) (3 + 1) = 4
Option (4) (3 + 2) = 5 (highest (n + ℓ) value so higher energy)
Final Answer : Option (4)
60) No. of carbon in parent chain is different.

61)

C4H8
D.U. = 1

CH3–CH2–CH=CH2

CH3–CH=CH–CH3

62)
Cis–2–Butene Trans–2–Butene

63)

they interconvert rapidly

64)

All

65)

Explanation Question : Identify which reaction is not a disproportionation (same element

both oxidized and reduced).
Concept : This question is based on disproportionation reaction identification.
Explanation :
1. Cl2 (0) → Cl– (−1) and ClO3– ( O.N of Cl = +5) ⇒ same element oxidized and reduced so,
disproportionation.
2. 2H2O2 : O in H2O2 (−1) → O in H2O (−2) and O in O2 (0) ⇒ same element oxidized and
reduced so, disproportionation.
3. 2Cu+ → Cu2+ (+2) and Cu (0) ⇒ same element oxidized and reduced so, disproportionation.
4. (NH4)2Cr2O7: N (−3) → N2 (0) oxidation; and Cr(+6) → Cr2O3 (+3) reduction ⇒ different
elements undergoes oxidation and reduction⇒ not disproportionation.
Final answer : 4 (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O

67) Conductivity (κ) ∝

 On dilution ⇒ No. of ions per cm3↓ ⇒ k↓

68) Explanation the Question: Convert the given electrode potentials to standard reduction
potentials and determine which listed reaction is non-spontaneous.
Concept: This question is based on = E°(reduction at cathode) − E°(reduction at anode);
reaction is non-spontaneous if < 0 (ΔG°>0).
Solution:

A. Br₂ + 2I⁻ → 2Br⁻ + I₂

E°cell = E°(Br₂/Br⁻) − E°(I₂/I⁻) = 1.09 − 0.54 = +0.55 V (spontaneous).
B. Fe + Br₂ → Fe²⁺ + 2Br⁻
E°cell = E°(Br₂/Br⁻) − E°(Fe²⁺/Fe) = 1.09 − (−0.44) = +1.53 V (spontaneous).
C. Fe + I₂ → Fe²⁺ + 2I⁻
E°cell = E°(I₂/I⁻) − E°(Fe²⁺/Fe) = 0.54 − (−0.44) = +0.98 V (spontaneous).
D. I₂ + 2Br⁻ → 2I⁻ + Br₂
E°cell = E°(I₂/I⁻) − E°(Br₂/Br⁻) = 0.54 − 1.09 = −0.55 V (non-spontaneous)

Final Answer: Option 4

69) π = iCRT
for same concentration and temperature
π∝i
For Al2(SO4)3, i = 5
For Na3PO4, i = 4
For BaCl2, i = 3
For Glucose, i = 1

70)

Question Explanation :
The question asks to identify which of the provided binary solutions forms a maximum boiling
azeotrope, a mixture with a boiling point higher than either of its pure components.
Concept:
This question is based on Maximum boiling azeotropes are formed by non-ideal solutions that
show a negative deviation from Raoult's law.
Solution:
A maximum boiling azeotrope is a result of a negative deviation from Raoult's law.
1. CHCl3 + CH3COCH3: Chloroform and acetone form intermolecular hydrogen bonds. This
leads to a negative deviation from Raoult's law and the formation of a
maximum boiling azeotrope.
2. C6H6 + C6H5CH3: This mixture is nearly ideal and does not form an azeotrope.
3. CCl4+ C6H6: This mixture shows a slight positive deviation from Raoult's law.
4. C 2 H 5 OH + H 2 O: This mixture shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law, forming a
minimum boiling azeotrope.
Final Answer: Option (1)

72)

Question Explanation: Find the molecularity of the rate-determining step and the overall
 order for the given mechanism of the reaction.

Concept: Molecularity of an elementary step = number of species colliding in that step.

If the RDS is elementary, rate law follows directly from its stoichiometry.

Solution:
RDS: 2A + B → X ⇒ three molecules collide ⇒ molecularity = 3 (termolecular).
Rate = k [A]2 [B] ⇒ overall order = 2 + 1 = 3.

Molecularity = 3, Overall order = 3

Final Answer: Option 2

73)

NH3 and both have pyramidal shape.

74)

Explain Question: Compare dipole moments of NF₃ and NH₃ molecules.

Concept: Bond polarity and molecular geometry

Solution: In NH₃, N–H and lone pair dipoles act in the same direction, increasing μ.
In NF₃, N–F and lone pair dipoles act in opposite directions, reducing μ.

Final Answer: Option (2)

75) Explanation -
The question asks you to determine the number of antibonding electrons present in the
molecular orbitals of three oxygen species
Concept - (Number of antibonding electron in O2, O⊖2 & O22–)
O2- : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (σ2pz)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (π*2px)2 (π*2py)1

A. Antibonding electrons: 7

O2 : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (σ2pz)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (π*2px)1 (π*2py)1

A. Antibonding electrons: 6

O22- : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (σ2pz)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (π*2px)2 (π*2py)2

A. Antibonding electrons: 8

Final Answer - Option (3)

76)

Question explanation: This question is asking about which ionic compound has the highest
covalent character.

Concept: Fajan’s rule

Solution: Covalent character increases with:

A. Small cation (Ca2+)

B. Large, easily polarizable anion

Anion size order: F– < Cl– < Br– < I– → largest polarisation in CaI2 → highest covalent
character.

Final Answer: Option (3)

77)

Explain Question: Identify which pair of compounds is incorrectly matched with its property.
Concept: This question is based on Hydrogen bonding and molecular interactions
Solution:
o-Nitrophenol forms intramolecular H-bond → higher vapour pressure, lower boiling point (1
& 2 correct).
Glycerol has higher viscosity (3 correct).
But H2O > HF in boiling point due to more H-bonds per molecule → so (4) is incorrect.
Final Answer: Option (4)

78) Explain Question: Identify Amphoteric oxide

Concept: Nature of oxides
Solution:
CO2, SiO2 → acidic
CaO → basic
Aℓ2O3 → Amphoteric oxide
Final Answer (2)

79)

Explain the Question : Order elements by increasing first ionization energy based on
configuration.
Concept : This question is based on Ionization Energy.
Solution : Sodium (C) is lowest as its electron is in the 3rd shell. Neon (A) is highest due to its
stable octet. Within period 2, fluorine (D) is higher than oxygen (B). Generally with in the same
period ionization energy increases across a period ( left to right – O < F < Ne ) and decreases
down the group.
Final answer : 3
80) Question Explanation :
Question is asking about most stable carbocation.

Concept :
This question is based on Stability of carbocation α Back bonding (complete octet)

Solution :

(1) (Complete octet pπ-pπ back bonding)

(2) (Complete octet pπ-pπ back bonding) (α-C-H = 1)

(3) (α-C-H = 7)

(4) (α-C-H = 1)
Overall stability of carbocation = (2) > (1) > (3) > (4)

Final Answer :
Option (2)

81)

Explain the Question :- Identify which of the given stability order statements is correct.

Concept :-This question is based on Anion Stability, Carbanion Stability, Radical Stability,
Resonance, Hybridization, Hyperconjugation

Solution :- We must evaluate the correctness of each statement:

(1) CH3-COO⁻ > C6H5-O⁻: Correct. In acetate (CH3-COO⁻), the negative charge is delocalized
over two identical, highly electronegative oxygen atoms (equivalent resonance). This is more
stable than phenoxide (C6H5–O⁻), where the charge is delocalized over one oxygen and the less
electronegative carbons of the ring.

(2) : Correct. The allyl carbanion ( ) is highly

stabilized by resonance. The vinyl carbanion ( ) has its negative charge on a more
2
electronegative sp carbon but lacks resonance, making it less stable than the allyl carbanion.

(3) : Correct. The ethyl radical (sp³) is stabilized by

hyperconjugation. The vinyl radical (sp²) is unstable because the electron-deficient radical
center is on a more electronegative sp² carbon.
Since statements (1), (2), and (3) are all Correct, The final answer is (4).

Final Answer: Option (4)

 82)

Explain Question: The correct order of heat of hydrogenation of the given compounds.

Concept: Heat of HYDROGENATION [HOH] ∝

→ stability of Alkene ∝ Resonance ∝ Number of α- H.

Solution:

Given compounds Remark

α - H ⇒ 10

α-H⇒4

α-H⇒6

∴ stability of Alkene :- (I) > (III) > (II)

order of HOH is :- (II) > (III) > (I)
Final answer: 3

83) Explain the question : Identify which of the following has two equivalent resonating
structure.
Concept: This question is based on resonating structure.
Solution : Equivalent resonating structure have same no. of bonds and same charge on same
atom in all structures. They contribute equally to resonance hybrid.

(1) non eq. R.S.

(2) equivalent RS

(3) Non eq. R.S.

(4) No resonance
So carboxylate ion has two equivalent resonating structure.

Final Answer: Option (2)

84)

Ncert-Class 11th, Part-2, [Link] Edition-2023-24

85) is not aromatic because cyclic resonance is absent.

86) Question Explanation:

Identify the compound that will not undergo tautomerism.

Concept :
Keto - enol tautomerism

Solution :
Tautomerism requires the presence of atom

Compound 4th will not undergo tautomerism

Final answer : option (4)

 87)

88)

Explain Question : The correct order of acid strength of the given molecules is.

Concept : This question is based on Acidic strength (Ka) ∝ ∝ Stability of

conjugated base.
Solution :

Most stable. Negative charge is

Acetate ion
CH3COOH delocalized over two equivalent
(CH3​COO−)
resonating structures.

Moderately stable. Negative charge is

Phenoxide ion
C6​H5​OH delocalized into the benzene ring by
(C6​H5​O−)
resonance.

Least stable of the oxygen anions the

Hydroxide ion
H2​O negative charge is localized on a single
(HO−)
oxygen atom.

Least Stable. The negative charge is

Ethoxide ion (C2 localized on the oxygen, and the electron-
C2​H5​OH
H5​O−) donating ethyl group destabilizes the
negative charge.

∴ Acidic strength = C2H5OH < H2O < < CH3COOH

Final answer : Option (2)

89)

Fact

90) 2Cr + 3Fe+2 → 3Fe + 2Cr+3

Ecell = – log

= (–0.42 + 0.72) – log

= 0.30 – log 104

BOTANY

91)

Explain Question :The question asks for the components of chromosomes

Concept : Chromosome
Explanation : All four components – DNA, RNA, Histones, Non-histones – are present in
chromosomes.
Final answer :Option (1)

92)

Question Explanation:: The question asks about the face of Golgi apparatus which receives
vesicles from endoplasmic reticulum.

Concept:Golgi complex.

Solution:

Cis or convex or forming face of the Golgi apparatus receives proteins and lipids vesicles from
the endoplasmic reticulum.

So, the correct answer is: 1.

Final answer: 1

93)

Answer:
4. a, b and cSolution:

The "S" in the context of ribosome measurements refers to the sedimentation coefficient,
which is an indirect measure of density and size. It indicates how fast a particle, such as a
ribosome, sediments when subjected to centrifugal force. Larger and denser particles tend to
have higher "S" values. The S value is not directly related to the molecular weight but reflects
the overall shape, size, and density of the ribosomal subunits. Thus, all three statements (a, b,
and c) are correct.

94)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 138

95)

Explain Question: The question asks: Which statement about chloroplasts is correct?
Concept : This question is based on Chloroplast
Explanation : Chloroplast structure:
● Contains thylakoids, not cristae (cristae are in mitochondria).
● Outer membrane is freely permeable, inner membrane is selectively permeable.
● Stroma contains enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis (Calvin cycle).
Final answer : 3

96)

SOLUTION—

The synaptonemal complex, a nucleoprotein structure, is visible or found from the zygotene to
pachytene stages of meiosis I.

The correct answer is:OPTION(1)zygotene to pachytene

97)

SOLUTION—

In a diploid (2n) organism, n = 16, so the total number of chromosomes = 2n = [Link]

metaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up to form bivalents (also called
tetrads).Each bivalent consists of two homologous chromosomes (one from each parent), so
the number of bivalents = n = 16.

The correct answer is:OPTION(3)16 Bivalents

98)

SOLUTION—

Late prophase: The nuclear envelope breaks down, the nucleolus disappears, and the Golgi
and ER start to fragment.

Metaphase: These structures are not visible, and chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase
plate.

Anaphase: The cellular machinery is focused on chromatid separation, and those organelles
remain dispersed.

The correct answer is:OPTION(4)All of these

99)

SOLUTION—

During metaphase, each chromatid is connected to a single spindle fiber from the opposite
pole, not both poles.

The correct answer is:OPTION(1)Each chromatid remains connected by one spindle fiber from
both poles
 100)

The correct answer is 3. only ii.

Explanation:

A. (i) Man: The genus Homo is correct, and the family is Hominidae. This is a correct match.
B. (ii) Housefly: The genus is Musca (not Diptera, which is an order). So, this is not a correct
match.
C. (iii) Mango: The genus Mangifera and family Anacardiaceae are correctly matched.
D. (iv) Wheat: The genus Triticum and family Poaceae are also correctly matched.

101)

The correct answer is 3. Taxonomic hierarchy.

Explanation: Taxonomic hierarchy refers to the arrangement of categories (like species,
genus, family, order, class, etc.) used in the classification of organisms, from the most specific
to the most general. This system helps in organizing and understanding the relationships
among different organisms.

102)

The relationship of Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae with Polymoniales is one of family to order
within the taxonomic hierarchy. In the taxonomic system:
• Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae are families.
• Polymoniales is an order that includes these families.
Let's analyze the options:
1. Felidae and Canidae with Carnivora
• This represents a family to order relationship (Felidae and Canidae are families, Carnivora is
the order).
• Correct analogy.
2. Primata and Carnivora with Mammalia
• This represents an order to class relationship (Primata and Carnivora are orders, Mammalia
is the class).
• Not analogous.
3. Amphibia and Reptilia with Chordata
• This represents a class to phylum relationship (Amphibia and Reptilia are classes, Chordata
is the phylum).
• Not analogous.
4. Solanum and Petunia with Solanaceae
• This represents a genus to family relationship (Solanum and Petunia are genera, Solanaceae
is the family).
• Not analogous.

103)

Explain Question : The question asks which group of organisms possesses siliceous (silica-
impregnated) cell walls.

Concept : Biological Classification→ Chrysophytes (Diatoms)

Solution : Diatoms have cell walls made of silica, forming two overlapping halves called
frustules.

Diatoms → cell wall contains silica

Final answer: (3)

104)

Question Explanation – The question asks for the disease citrus canker .

Concept – Based on economic importance of bacteria

Solution – Citrus canker is caused by Xanthomonas bacteria, affecting citrus [Link] is a

bacterial disease.

Final answer – Bacterial

105)

Explain Question: Question is asking about zoospores and aplanospores are common asexual
spores …A… formed in members of …B… . What are A and B respectively.

Concept: Class-Phycomycetes.

Solution:

In the members of phycomycetes asexual reproduction takes place by zoospores (motile) or by

aplanospores (non-motile). These spores are endogenously produced in sporangium

Final answer: Option (2)

106) NCERT-XI, Page # 20

Statement-I is incorrect
In addition to proteins, viruses also contain genetic material, that could be either RNA or DNA.

107)

Ncert Pg No: 231

108) Explanation: This step refers to: 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (BPGA) → 3-Phosphoglycerate

(PGA)
In this step, 1 ATP is generated per molecule. It's a substrate-level phosphorylation —
meaning ATP is directly synthesized.
Correct Answer: 2. BPGA → PGA

109) Because after pyruvate enters the mitochondrial matrix, it undergoes oxidation,
decarboxylation, and oxidative decarboxylation, but no ATP is used for phosphorylation at this
stage.
Answer: 4. ATP mediated phosphorylation

110) Explanation: During the Krebs cycle (also known as the citric acid cycle or TCA cycle),
FADH2 is produced in step 6, where the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the
oxidation of succinate to fumarate. In this reaction, FAD (Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide) is
reduced to FADH2.
The correct option is 3. succinate.

111) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 232

112) For the continuity of Calvin cycle, regeneration of RUBP (Ribulose 1, 5 bisphosphate) is
essential, During one Calvin cycle one ATP is required in regeneration step {NCERT XI
(E) Page 217 Figure 13.8} For the formation of one sucrose twelve Calvin cycles are
required [Six for one glucose and six for one fructose]

113)

NCERT XI Eng. Pg # 216, 217

For 1 CO2 reduction step = 2ATP,
regeneration step = 1 ATP
Difference is 1 ATP

114)

Explaining the Question :-

The question asks which scientist used a bell jar to show that sunlight is essential for the plant
process that purifies air
Concept :- Early experiments
Solution :-
Jan Ingenhousz used the bell jar to prove that sunlight is necessary for plants to release
oxygen.
Final Answer :- Option (4) Jan Ingenhousz

115) Soln/Explanation :-
(A) Z-hence of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI, PSII not only PSI
(B) Only PSI if functional in cyclic photophosphorylation
(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP only, i.e. both ATP + NADP are
not synthesised
(D) Stroma lamellae lave PSII as well as NADP reductase only B and D are correct .
Thus correct answer is option -4

116) Incorrect Statements:(c) & (d)

 (c) The primary acceptor located towards the outer side of the membrane transfers its electron
to an H+ carrier.
(e) Protons do not increase in the stroma, they increase in the lumen.

117) Correct Answer: Option 4: Three

(a) In liverworts, mosses, and ferns, gametophytes are free-living. Correct.
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous. Correct.
(c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox, and Albugo is oogamous. Correct.
(d) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses. Incorrect, Mosses
have a more elaborate sporophyte.
(e) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious. Incorrect. Pinus is dioecious, but Marchantia is
typically monoecious.

118) Question Explanation : The question asks to identify a plant where both the male and
female gametophytes are independent and free-living.
Concept : This question is based on Mosses
Solution : The gametophytes of bryophytes (Sphagnum) are independent and free-living."
Final Answer : Option (1)

119)

Explain Question : The question asks to analyze the diagram of the plant and select the
correct statement from the given options that accurately describes its characteristics
Concept : This question is based on Pteropsida
Explanation : It produces two kinds of spores, macro (large) and micro (small) spores, are
known as heterosporous: correct.
Salvinia is a heterosporous fern, meaning it produces two distinct types of spores: megaspores
(macro) that develop into female gametophytes and microspores (micro) that develop into male
gametophytes.
Final answer : 4

120) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Solution:
The floral formula is a shorthand representation of the structure of a flower, using symbols to
indicate the number, arrangement, and fusion of floral parts.
The provided formula breaks down as follows:

A. indicates actinomorhic (radially symmetrical) flower.

B. indicates bisexual flower.
C. K(5) means 5 fused sepals (calyx).
D. C(5) means 5 fused petals (corolla).
E. A5 means 5 free stamens (androecium).
F. G(2) means 2 fused carpels (gynoecium), superior ovary.

The correct answer, "Tobacco," is highlighted in green, indicating it has been selected.

121) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Solution:
Tetradynamous condition refers to a staminal arrangment where there are six stamens, with
 four long and two short. This condition is characteristic of the Cruciferae (Brassicaceae)
family, which includes plants like mustard (Brassica).

The correct answer is : Cruciferae

122) 1. Asking About floral parts over thalamus in mustard plant.

2. Soln/ Explanation ovary / gynoecium is superior in mustard plant So it occupies the highest
position, while other floral parts are situated below it.

123)

Solution-

In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as a drupe .They develop from monocarpellary
superior ovaries and are one seeded. In mango the pericarp is well differentiated into an outer
thin epicarp, a middle fleshy edible mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp. In coconut
which is also a drupe, the mesocarp is fibrous and edible part is endosperm.
The correct answer is -(1)

124)

NCERT Pg. No. 72

125) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Here it is asked about, In hypodermis of maize stem which type of tissue is present.
Sclerenchyma :
Cells of sclerenchyma are generally long, narrow, thick walled, lignified without protoplasts
and dead (Cells become dead at maturity).

A. Sclerenchyma is found in the hypodermis of monocot stem.

B. It provides mechanical support/mechanical strength to plant organs.

Final answer: Sclerenchymatous

126)

Solution-

Polyarch condition, vascular bundles radial type and exarch xylem, with endodermis and
[Link] characteristic feature of monocot roots

The correct answer is: (1)

127)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 176

128)
Explain Question -

The question asks how many new cells a single maize root apical meristem can produce per
hour.

Concept -

Growth Is Measurable

Solution -

maize root apical meristem produces more than 17,500 new cells per hour.

Final answer -

Option 3

129) Explanation :
Apical dominance is caused by auxin produced in the apical (top) bud, which suppresses the
growth of axillary (lateral) buds. Applying cytokinin can overcome apical dominance by
promoting the growth of axillary buds, even in the presence of auxin.

Final Answer : (3)

130)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which plant hormone helps plants survive and
tolerate different types of environmental stresses such as drought, salinity, or extreme
temperatures.

Underlying Concept: Abscisic acid (ABA) is a plant hormone that plays a key role in helping
plants respond to stress conditions. ABA helps plants by closing stomata to reduce water loss,
signals stress responses, and enhances tolerance to unfavorable environmental conditions.
Other hormones listed, such as Ethylene, Auxin, and Cytokinin, have different roles related to
growth and development but are not primarily involved in stress tolerance.

Tips and Tricks: Remember 'ABA' stands for Abscisic Acid, and it is often called the 'stress
hormone' of plants because of its vital role in stress tolerance.

Common Mistakes: Confusing ABA with other hormones like Ethylene, which is involved in
fruit ripening and leaf fall, or Auxin which is involved primarily in growth and cell elongation.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Ethylene mainly regulates processes like fruit ripening
and leaf abscission, not stress tolerance. Auxin primarily influences cell growth and
differentiation, and Cytokinin encourages cell division and shoot formation. These hormones
do not increase stress tolerance like ABA does.
 131)

Matching Explanation: (A) Cytokinin → (iv) Overcome apical dominance

(B) Auxin → (i) Weed free lawns
(C) Abscisic acid → (v) Stress hormone
(D) Ethylene → (iii) Root hair formation
(E) Gibberellin → (ii) Brewing industry

132)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the correct statement regarding the
reproductive process in most angiosperms.

Concept : Embryo Sac and Megasporogenesis

Explanation: Reduction division (meiosis) occurs in the megaspore mother cell, leading to the
formation of haploid megaspores.

Final answer : Option (1)

133)

The question asks about the correct sequence of events in the formation of the female
gametophyte in the ovule of angiosperms.
Explanation: The process of female gametophyte formation (or embryo sac development)
involves several stages:

A. Meiotic division in the megaspore mother cell (C): The megaspore mother cell undergoes
meiosis to form four megaspores, one of which is functional.
B. Degeneration of 3 megaspores (B): Three of the four megaspores degenerate, and only the
functional megaspore remains.
C. 3 successive free nuclear divisions in the functional megaspore (A): The functional
megaspore undergoes three rounds of mitotic division without cytokinesis, resulting in 8
nuclei.
D. Migration of 3 nuclei towards each pole (D): The nuclei arrange themselves, with 3 nuclei
migrating towards the micropylar end and 3 nuclei towards the chalazal end. One nucleus
remains in the center.
E. Formation of wall, resulting in a seven-celled embryo sac (E): After the migration of
nuclei, cell walls form around the nuclei, resulting in the formation of the 7-celled embryo sac,
including the egg cell and surrounding cells.

Correct Answer: 4. (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

134)

Explain Question : The question asks to evaluate statements defining the scutellum and
epicotyl in a monocot embryo.

Concept : Monocot Embryo Structure.

Solution :
 A. Statement I: The monocot cotyledon is the scutellum, situated laterally on the axis.
(True)

B. Statement II: The portion below the scutellum (radicle/root cap) is enclosed in the
coleorhiza, and the portion above is the epicotyl (enclosed in coleoptile).
(False)

Final Answer : Option (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.'

135)

NCERT Page No 21

ZOOLOGY

137) Prawn, scorpion, Locusta, Bombyx belongs to Arthropoda phylum.

138)

Ribozymes

139)

Dog fish is a bilaterally symmetrical animal covered with placoid scales

140)

NCERT Pg. # 116

141) Question Explanation: Identify an autoimmune neuromuscular disorder.

Concept: Autoimmune neuromuscular disease

Solution: Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune disorder. In this condition, the body's
immune system attacks and destroys the receptors for acetylcholine at the neuromuscular
junction. This prevents proper nerve signal transmission to the muscles, leading to muscle
weakness, fatigue, and paralysis.

Final Answer: Myasthenia gravis

143)

Pg. No. 387, 388_XI NCERT

144)
 Question Explanation:
The sliding filament theory is the widely accepted explanation for how muscles contract.

A. Calcium Ion Increase: When a nerve impulse reaches a muscle fiber, it triggers the
release of calcium ions (Ca++) within the muscle cell.

B. Actin-Myosin Interaction: Calcium ions bind to a protein called troponin, which causes a
shift in another protein called tropomyosin. This exposes the binding sites on actin
filaments. Myosin heads, which are part of the myosin filaments, then bind to these
exposed sites on actin.

C. Sliding and Shortening: Myosin heads pull on the actin filaments, causing them to slide
past each other. This sliding movement, while the filaments themselves don't actually
shorten, results in the overall shortening of the muscle fiber, which is what we perceive
as muscle contraction.

Final Answer:

The correct answer to the question is Option 3 (After intracellular increase of Ca++ ion
concentration, actin & myosin filaments shorten & slide pass each other).

145)

Ncert Page 295.

146) Question Explanation: The question asks which statement/function is not correct about
the RAAS (Renin–Angiotensin–Aldosterone System).

Concept: The question is based on RAAS.

Solution: The statement is not correct about RAAS is given in option 4.

A. Fall in GFR activates JG cells to release renin → Correct.

B. Angiotensin-II activates adrenal cortex to release aldosterone → Correct.
C. Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na⁺ & H₂O from DCT → Correct.
D. ADH also has vasoconstrictory effect on blood vessels so ADH can increase blood
pressure/GFR → Incorrect. ADH increases blood pressure mainly by water reabsorption, but it
is not part of RAAS. Vasoconstriction is mediated by Angiotensin-II, not ADH.

Final Answer: Option 4

147) NCERT Pg # 118, 119

149) Question Explanation: Evaluate the validity and relationship between two statements
about adrenal gland function.

Concept: The question is based on adrenal gland.

 Solution: The correct answer is option 3 because:

A. Assertion is incorrect: Ionic balance (especially sodium and potassium) is regulated by

aldosterone, a hormone from the adrenal cortex, not the adrenal medulla.

B. Reason is incorrect: Adrenal cortex is regulated by ACTH from the anterior pituitary, not
the posterior pituitary.

Final answer: 4

150)

Explain Question:
The question asks to identify the labelled structures in the figure.

Concept:
Endocrine glands and their hormones

Solution:
• x = Thyroid gland – SECRETE THYROCALCITONIN (y) – increase calcium in bone
• a = Thyroid gland – secrete b = Thyroxine – its deficiency causes stunted growth of body

Final answer: Option (3)

151)

Question Explanation: Identifying glands and their correct hormonal effects.

Concept: Human Endocrine System.

Solution:

A. (1) (a) Thyroid - Parathormone - Stimulates Lipolysis: The thyroid gland (a) produces
thyroid hormones not parathormone (produced by the parathyroid glands). So this is
incorrect.
B. (2) (c) Pancreas - Insulin - Stimulates glycogenolysis: The pancreas (c) produces insulin,
but insulin inhibits glycogenolysis. So this is incorrect.
C. (3) (d) Adrenal - Cortisol - Stimulates gluconeogenesis: The adrenal cortex produces
cortisol, which stimulates gluconeogenesis. This is correct.
D. (4) (f) Ovary - Androgen - Protein catabolism: (f) Appears to be the testis in a female. So
this is incorrect.

Final Answer: 3

152)

Question: Fill in the blanks

Concept: This question based on Factors affecting Enzymatic activity.
Solution:
A. Low temperature: At low temperatures, enzymes are not permanently damaged but their
activity is greatly reduced. They are temporarily inactive.
B. High temperature: High temperature causes proteins to denature, which is an irreversible
change in their structure, leading to permanent loss of enzymatic activity. The protein's
structure is disrupted and cannot return to its original form.

Therefore, 'A' is denatured and 'B' is temporarily inactive.

Final Answer : (4) - A = denatured, B = temporarily inactive.

153)

Question Explanation: Interpret the hormonal flow chart and identify the correct sequence
and roles of each labeled component.

Concept: The question is based on hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.

Solution: The correct answer is option 2.

Correct identification is as follows:

A. (a) = GnRH (Gonadotropin-releasing hormone)-Secreted by the hypothalamus,

stimulates the anterior pituitary to release gonadotropins.

B. (b) = LH /ICSH-Acts on Leydig cells to stimulate production of (e) = testosterone.

C. (c) = FSH (Follicle-stimulating hormone)-Acts on Sertoli cells, promoting secretion

of (d) = Androgen Binding Protein (ABP).

D. (d) = ABP-Binds and concentrates ⓔ = testosterone within the seminiferous tubules to

support spermatogenesis.

E. (e) = Testosterone-Essential for sperm maturation and male secondary sexual

characteristics.
 So, (FSH)causes release of (ABP) and (ABP) concentrates (Testosterone) inside
the seminiferous tubule.

Final answer: Option (2)

154)

Question Explanation : Cell composition-abundance

Concept : This question is based on Cell composition analysis.

Solution : Water > Protein > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate > Ions.

Final Answer : option (3)

155) Option (2)

156)

Question Explanation : Correct statement

Concept : This question is based on Lipids

Solution :

A. Lipids- water insoluble

A. R-Group –CH3, –CH2 , –C2H5
B. Palmitic Acid - 16C
A. A, B, C are correct

Final Answer : option (1)

157) Explain Question:

This question asks to identify the parts of a branched polysaccharide shown in the diagram,
including linear and branching chains and the types of glycosidic linkages.
 Concept:
polysaccharides.

Solution: In branched polysaccharides like glycogen or starch:

A. The linear chain is formed by α(1–4) glycosidic linkages.

B. The branching points are formed by α(1–6) glycosidic linkages.

Thus:

A. Part A → Linear chain

B. Part B → Branching chain
C. Part C → α(1–4) glycosidic linkages.
D. Part C → α(1–6) glycosidic linkages.

The correct identification of all parts matches option 1

Final answer: Option (1)

158) Explanation: Since unipolar neurons are seen in embryos, bipolar neurons in the retina,
and multipolar neurons in the cerebral cortex, Option 2 is correct.

Correct Answer: Option 2 (a-2, b-3, c-1)

159)

Question Explanation: Matching ECG waves with all associated cardiac events.

Concept: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

Solution:

A. (a) P-wave: Represents depolarization of atria (ii), which is the electrical excitation of
atria (v), leading to the contraction of both atria (vii).

B. (b) QRS-complex: Represents depolarization of ventricles (i), which is the electrical

excitation of ventricles (vi).

C. (c) T-wave: Represents repolarization of ventricles (iv) and marks the end of systole
(viii).
This combination correctly links the electrical event to its description and mechanical
consequence.
Final Answer: 3

160) XIth NCERT Page No. – 279 & 280

161)

NCERT XI Page No. # 288

 162) Question Explanation: Identifying the incorrect statement about different circulatory
patterns.

Concept: Types of circulation.

Solution: The statement that the hepatic portal vein carries blood from the intestine to the
kidney is incorrect. The hepatic portal vein is a unique vascular connection that carries blood
from the digestive tract to the liver before it is delivered to the systemic circulation.

Final Answer: The hepatic portal vein carries blood from intestine to the kidney.

163)

Explain Question:
The question asks to identify intra – uterine devices that release hormones among the given
options.

Concept:
Hormone – releasing intra – uterine devices

Solution:
Hormone – releasing IUDs slowly release progesterone or its derivatives to prevent pregnancy.
Progestasert and LNG–20 releases levonorgestrel.

Final answer: Option (3)

164) NCERT, Pg. # 32,33

165)

K⁺ VGC – Close → True during depolarization (they open during repolarization).

Na⁺-K⁺ pump – off →The pump is not active in depolarization, so this is also correct.

Final Answer : option (3) K⁺ VGC – Close, Na⁺-K⁺ pump – off

166)

Question explanation: Match myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibres with the
correct parts of the nervous system.

Concept: Nervous system – nerve fibre types

Solution: The correct answer is Option 2.

A. Myelinated fibres mainly occur in cranial and spinal nerves → (a → 3, 4).

B. Unmyelinated fibres are common in somatic and autonomic neural systems → (b

 → 1, 2).

Final answer: Option 2

167) Question Explanation : Identify parts of a synapse

Concept: Neural Transmission : Structure of a Synapse

Solution:
The figure represents a synapse, the junction between two neurons where communication
occurs.
a-axon terminal: The enlarged end of the presynaptic neuron's axon.
b-synaptic vesicles: Small membrane-bound sacs containing neurotransmitters.
c-presynaptic membrane: The membrane of the axon terminal that releases
neurotransmitters.
d-synaptic cleft: the narrow gap between the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes.3
e-postsynaptic membrane: The membrane of the receiving neuron that contains receptors.
f-receptors: Proteins on the postsynaptic membrane that bind to neurotransmitters.

Final Answer : 4

168)

Question Explanation: Foetal movement starts usually from ?

Concept : Pregnancy and Embryonic development.

Solution : The first movement of foetus are usually observed during the fifth month.

Final Answer : option (4). V month of pregnancy

170) NCERT Pg. # 27

172)

Assertion is true but the reason is false

173)

Middle of cycle

174)

Both (1) & (2)

175)
 200 sperms and 50 ova

177)

Question Explanation: Determine the truth of the assertion about respiratory rhythm and
the reason given.

Concept: Regulation of respiration

Solution: The correct answer is option 3

A. The respiratory rhythm center is in the medulla oblongata (true), but the
chemosensitive area is also in the medulla, not in the pons (Reason is false).

Final Answer: Option 3

178)

A-III, B –I, C –IV, D-II

179)

(ii) and (iv)

180)

Question explanation
The question is asking to identify the correctly labelled parts A, B, and C in the given diagram
of a myosin molecule.

Concept
Structure of Contractile Proteins.

Solution
In the myosin filament, the head region has an actin binding site and an ATP binding site. The
cross arm connects the head to the tail, helping in cross-bridge formation during contraction.
Hence A is actin binding site, B is ATP binding site, and C is cross arm.

Final answer
A = Actin binding site, B = ATP binding site, C = Cross arm