08-03-2026

1001CMD303052250100 MD

PHYSICS

1) Express which of the following setups can be used to verify Ohm's law :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Three cylindrical rods A, B and C of same length and same cross-sectional area are joined in
series and connected to an ideal cell as shown in figure. The resistivities of rods are in ratio of 1:2:3
respectively. The veriation of potential at any point P at a distance x from the left end of combined

rods is most appropriatly shown in figure :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Power generated across a uniform wire connected across a supply is H. If the wire is cut into n
equal parts and all the parts are connected in parallel across the same supply, the total power
generated in the wire is

(1)

(2) n2H
(3) nH

(4)

4) What is the electron drift speed at the 3 mm diameter end (the left end) of the wire in figure.

(1) 0.055 × 10–4 m/s

(2) 4.5 × 10–4 m/s
(3) 0.055 × 10–3 m/s
(4) 4.5 × 10–3 m/s

5) If n,e,τ,m, are representing electron density, charge, relaxation time and mass of an electron
respectively then the resistance of wire of length ℓ and cross sectional area A is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3) ne2τA

(4)
6) In experiment of measurement of internal resistance of a cell the reading of ammeter is 2A when
load resistance (R1) is 3Ω. If load resistance is 6 Ω the reading of ammeter is 1.25A. What will be
reading of ammeter when load is 8Ω?

(1) 1A

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Five conductors are meeting at a point x as shown in the figure. What is the value of current in
fifth conductor :-

(1) 3 A away from x

(2) 1 A away from x
(3) 4 A away from x
(4) 1 A towards x

8) Three copper wires A,B,C of length ratio 2 : 3 : 4 and mass ratio 1 : 3 : 2 are connected in series
then find ratio of potential drop across wires :-

(1) 3 : 4 : 8
(2) 4 : 3 : 8
(3) 2 : 3 : 4
(4) 1 : 1 : 5

9) A wire of resistance R is bent in form of a circle. Find net resistance between two points A and B
on circumference of this circle where arc AB substandes π/3 angle at centre :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
10)
Find out potential difference between point A and B.

(1) 3.5 V
(2) 3 V
(3) 4 V
(4) 5 V

11) Three charges Q, + q and + q are placed at the vertices of a right – angled isosceles triangle as
shown. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero if Q is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3) –2q
(4) +q

12) Positive and negative charges of equal magnitude lie along the symmetry axis of a cylinder. The
distance from the positive charge to the left end-cap of the cylinder is the same as the distance from

the negative charge to the right end cap. The sign of the flux through
the right end-cap of the cylinder is :

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) There is no flux through the right end-cap.
(4) None of these

13) The electric field is 100 V/m, at a distance of 20 cm from the centre of a dielectric sphere of
radius 10 cm. Then E at 3 cm distance from the centre of sphere is :–

(1) 100 V/m

(2) 125 V/m
(3) 120 V/m
(4) zero

14) A charged soap bubble of radius r is in equilibrium with air pressure inside and outside equal. If
T is the surface tension of soap solution, then potential of the soap bubble is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) none of these

15) Assertion (A) : Two concentric conducting spherical shells are charged. The charge on the
outer shell is varied keeping the charge on inner shell constant, as a result the electric potential
difference between the two shells does not change.
Reason (R) : In the situation of Assertion, the electric field in the region between both the shells
depends only on the charge existing on the inner shell. :-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

16) Consider system X of 3 bodies A, B and C. If charge on C is 2C and charge on system X is 10C
then charges of A and B can be :-

(1) A = 2C, B = 4C
(2) A = 3C, B = 6C
(3) A = –4C, B = –4C
(4) A = –4C, B = 12C

17) Two similar spheres having +q and –q charge are kept at a certain distance. F force acts
between them. If in the middle of two spheres, another similar sphere having +q charge is kept, then
it experience a force in magnitude and direction as :-

(1) Zero having no direction

(2) 8F towards +q charge
(3) 8F towards –q charge
(4) 4F towards +q charge

18) Point charges +4q, –q and +4q are kept on the x-axis at point x = 0, x = a and x = 2a
respectively, then :-

(1) Only –q is in stable equilibrium

(2) None of the charges are in equilibrium
(3) All the charge are in unstable equilibrium
(4) All the charges are in stable equilibrium

19) Surface charge density of a thin disc having radius R varies with distance r from centre as σ =

, (r ≠ 0) then total charge of disc is :-

(1) 2πσ0R
2

(2)
(3)

(4)

20) A charged spherical shell of diameter 4 cm has a charge density of 10–4 coulomb/cm2. The work
done in joule when a charge of 40 nano-coulombs is moved from infinity to a point which is at a
distance of 2 cm from the surface of the sphere is :-

(1) 14.4 π
(2) 28.8 π
(3) 144 π
(4) 288 π

21)

Find equivalent resistance between A & B.

(1)

(2)

(3) R
(4) 4R
22) The temperature coefficient of resistivity of a material is 4 × 10–4/K. When the temperature of
material is increased by 50°C, its resistivity increases by 2 × 10–8 Ωm. The initial resistivity of
material (in ohm-metre) is :

(1) 50 × 10–8
(2) 90 × 10–8
(3) 100 × 10–8
(4) 200 × 10–8

23) Find the reading of ideal ammeter :-

(1) 0.8 A
(2) 0.25 A
(3) 1.95 A
(4) 0.05 A

24) A galvanometer has an internal resistance of 50 Ω and current required for full scale deflection
is 1mA find the series resistance (R1 & R2) required to use it as a voltmeter with range as indicated

in figure :-

(1) 950 Ω, 9 kΩ
(2) 950 Ω, 10 kΩ
(3) 9950 Ω, 90 kΩ
(4) None of these

25) Vx – Vy will be ?

(1) 10
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 0
26) In the given figure, all the batteries are ideal.

List-I List-II

(P) Potential of point A is (1) –5V

(Q) Potential of point B is (2) 1V

(R) Potential of point C is (3) –3V

(S) Potential of point D is (4) 2.5V

(1) P→1; Q→2; R→3; S→4
(2) P→4; Q→1; R→2; S→3
(3) P→2; Q→3; R→4; S→1
(4) P→3; Q→1; R→4; S→2

27) In the given circuit, on pressing the key K, if bulb are identical, then

(I) Bulb-1 glows brighter than bulb-2

(II) Bulb-2 glows brighter than bulb-1
(III) Reading of ammeter become twice
(IV) Reading of voltmeter remains same

(1) I & III

(2) II & IV
(3) III & IV
(4) I, III & IV

28) Two identical charged balls each of mass m are suspended from a common point. Length of each
string is ℓ. In equilibrium distance between balls is r then what will be tension force in string :-

(1)

(2)

(3) mg

(4)

29) Two point charges –q and +q are kept at points (0, 0, –a) and (0, 0, a). Find the electric potential
at point (0, 0, z) where z > a :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Lines of a electrostatic field can't have sudden break in charge free region, because :-

(1) It can't formed closed loop

(2) It is imaginary line
(3) Gauss's theorem will not be true
(4) These line can't exist in charge free region

31) A short electric dipole is placed at origin of coordinate system as shown in figure, find the

electric field at point P(0, y) :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Amount of work done in moving a charge q0 from centre of ring to an axial point at x = will
be, if charge given to ring is Q and ‘a’ being the radius:-

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

33)

The equipotential surfaces due to a point charge q, whose potentials differ by a constant amount
(say 1.0 volt) are :

(1) equally spaced

(2) unequally spaced, separation increasing as one goes away from q
(3) unequally spaced, separation decreasing as one goes away from q
(4) none of the above

34) Two large conducting plates are placed parallel to each other with a separation of d between
them. An electron starting from rest near one of the plates reaches the other plate in time t. If e is
the charge on the electron and m is its mass, then the surface charge density on the inner surface is
:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

35) An electric dipole of length 1 cm is placed with the axis making an angle of 30° to an electric
field of strength 104 NC–1. If it experiences a torque of Nm, the potential energy of the dipole
is :

(1) –0.245 J
(2) 0.245 J
(3) 24.5 J
(4) –24.5 J

36) A meter bridge is used with a standard 12 Ω resistor to determine the resistance of a coil of 1
meter long unknown wire. The balance point is obtained at 60 cm along the meter bridge wire. If the
area of cross-section of unknown wire is 0.2 × 10–6 m2, the resistivity of this unknown wire is (in Ω –
m) :

(1) 1.6 × 10–6

(2) 4 × 10–6
(3) 8 × 10–5
(4) 12 × 10–6

37) During meter bridge experiment the null point was obtained at distance of 40cm from terminal A
(begining of scale) when known Resistance R is connected to left gap near A. When a resistance of
10Ω is connected parallel to unknown resistance X in right gap near to terminal B. It was found that
null point shifted to 60cm. The value of unknown resistance X is :

(1) 7.5 Ω
(2) 9.0 Ω
(3) 10.5 Ω
(4) 12.5 Ω

38) The plates S and T of an uncharged parallel plate capacitor are connected across a battery. The
battery is then disconnected and the charged plates are now connected in a system as shown in the
figure. The system shown is in equilibrium. All the strings are insulating and massless. The
magnitude of charge on one of the capacitor plates is : [Area of plates = A]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance of 2 µF. A dielectric slab of constant K = 5 is
inserted between the plates and the capacitor is charged to 100 V and isolated. If the dielectric slab
is now removed then the new potential difference will be :-

(1) 250 V
(2) 500 V
(3) 100 V
(4) 20 V

40) There are six parallel plates of equal area A are arranged as shown in figure (d<<A). The

equivalent capacitance between points 2 and 5, is . Then find the value of α.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Three capacitor A, B and C are connected to a battery of 25 volt as shown in the figure. The ratio
of charges on capacitors A, B and C will be :-

(1) 5 : 2 : 3
(2) 5 : 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 5 : 3
(4) 2 : 3 : 5

42) In the circuit shown, calculate the potential drop (in volt) across the capacitor.

(1) 9 V
(2) 12 V
(3) 3 V
(4) 0 V

43) In a charged capacitor, the energy store:

(1) At positive charge plate

(2) At both the positive and negative charge plates
(3) In field between the plates
(4) Around the edge of the capacitor plates

44) Find equivalent capacitance between A and B:-

(1) 3 C
(2) 5 C
(3) 4 C
(4) 2 C

45) The condenser shown in the circuit is charged to 5V and left in the circuit, in 12s the charge on
the condenser will become (Where e = 2.718)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) The enthalpies of neutralization of a weak base AOH and a strong base BOH by HCl are –12250
cal/mol and –13000 cal/mol respectively. When one mole of HCl is added to a solution containing 1
mole of AOH and 1 mole of BOH, the enthalpy change was –12500 cal/mol. In what mole ratio the
acid neutralise base AOH and BOH ?

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 3 : 2

2) Statement-I : In the preparation of As2S3 sol by passing H2S gas through a solution of As2O3, the
resulting colloidal particles carry a negative charge.
Statement-II : The negative charge on As2S3 colloidal particles is due to the preferential adsorption
of sulphide ions (S–2) from the ionisation of H2S.

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.

3) For a reaction of iodide ion with hydrogen peroxide at room temperature, what will be the order
of reaction concerning iodide ion :

(1) I order
(2) Zero order
(3) II order
(4) III order

4) To find strength of given solution of KMnO4 by ferrous ammonium sulphate :

(a) Oxidation of Iron
(b) Oxidation of Mn2+
(c) KMnO4 is used as indicator.
(d) Mohr's salt is reducing agent.
Which is correct ?

(1) a, c
(2) a, b, d
(3) b, d
(4) a, c, d

5) If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 s–1, how much time does it take for 7.2 mol L–1
concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L–1 ? (Given : log 2 = 0.301)

(1) 69.3 s
(2) 23.1 s
(3) 210 s
(4) 21.0 s

6) A graph between log t1/2 and log a {a = initial concentration of reactant A} for reaction A →

product is given, rate law is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) For a reaction A → 2B + C the half lives are 100s and 50s when the concentration of reactant A is
0.5 and 1.0 mol L–1 respectively. The order of the reaction is ________.

(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

8) Assertion : Rate constant determined from Arrhenius equation are fairly accurate for simple as
well as complex molecules.
Reason : Reactant molecules undergo chemical change irrespective of their orientation during
collision.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
(4) Assertion is true and Reason is wrong

9) Correct matching of column-I with column-II is :

Column-I Column-II (unit)

(i) G* (a) V

(ii) κ (b) m–1

(iii) λeq (c) S cm2 eq–1

(iv) Ecell (d) S cm–1

(1) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
(4) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

10) The minimum mass of NaOH required to be added in right hand side to consume all the
H+ present in right hand side of the cell of emf, 0.70V at 25°C before its use
Zn | Zn+2(0.01M) || HCl (V = 500ml) | H2(1bar) | Pt

Given: ,

(1) 2.0 g
(2) 4.0 g
(3) 0.2 g
(4) 0.4 g

11) If 6.43 × 105C of electricity is passed through on electrical cell containing NaClO3, 245 g
NaClO4 are produced at the anode at the end of electrolysis. Anode efficiency is :

(1) 30%
(2) 60%
(3) 80%
(4) 95%

12) For a strong electrolyte, a plot of molar conductivity against (concentration)1/2 is a straight line,
with a negative slope, the correct unit for the slope is

(1) S cm2 mol–3/2 L1/2

(2) S cm2 mol–1 L1/2
(3) S cm2 mol–3/2 L
(4) S cm2 mol–3/2 L–1/2

13) Eo of some elements are given as :

I2 + 2e– → 2I⊝ ; Eo = 0.54 V
Fe+3 + e– → Fe+2 ; E° = 0.77 V
Sn+4 + 2e– → Sn+2 ; E° = 0.1 V
Among these elements strongest reductant is :

(1) Sn+2
(2) Fe+2
(3) Mn+2
(4) I–

14) The molar conductivity of acetic acid at infinite dilution is 390.7 S cm2 mol–1 and for 0.01 M
acetic acid is 3.907 S cm2 mol–1. Calculate pH of solution :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 3.5
(4) 4

15) Assertion (A): Molar conductivity of a weak electrolyte at infinite dilution cannot be determined
experimentally.
Reason (R): Molar conductivity decreases with dilution.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

16) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

Cd(s) + 2Ni(OH)3(s) → CdO(s) +

(A) (I) Primary battery
2Ni(OH)2(s) + H2O(l)

Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Discharging of

(B) (II)
Hg(l) secondary battery

2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) → Pb(s) +

(C) (III) Fuel cell
PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(aq)

Charging of secondary
(D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) (IV)
battery
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

17) Given :
Calcuate for NH4OH :

(1) 225 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 235 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 190 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 200 S cm2 mol–1

18) Equivalent conductivity of BaCl2, H2SO4 and HCl, are x1, x2 and x3 S cm2eq–1 at infinite dilution. If
conductivity of saturated BaSO4 solution is x S cm–1, then Ksp of BaSO4 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Consider the following statements and select the correct option :
Statement-I :- If the standard electrode potential of an electrode is negative then its reduced form
is more stable compared to hydrogen gas.
Statement-II :- To measure resistance of solution, DC source is used.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

20) Two half cell reactions are given below

Fe+2(aq.) → Fe+3(aq.) + e– ;
2I–(aq.) → I2(s) + 2e– ;
then E°cell of cell with feasible redox reaction is :

(1) 1.31 V
(2) –0.23 V
(3) 0.23 V
(4) 1 V

21) For a cell reaction involving a two mole electron change, the standard EMF of the cell is found to
be 0.295V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25°C will be.
(1) 1 × 1010
(2) 1 × 10–10
(3) 29.5 × 10–2
(4) 2 × 1010

22) How much will the potential of a hydrogen electrode change when its solution having 0.1M HCl
is diluted by 100 times?

(1) Increase by 0.18 V

(2) Decrease by 0.18 V
(3) Increase by 0.12 V
(4) Decrease by 0.12 V

23) is 1.69 V and is 1.40V than will be :

(1) 0.19 V
(2) 2.945 V
(3) 1.255 V
(4) –1.255 V

24) The mechanism of the reaction

2NO + O2 → 2NO2 is

NO + NO N2O2 (fast)
N2O2 + O2 2NO2 (slow)
The rate expression is :-

(1) R = k3 [N2O2] [O2]

(2)
R= [NO]2 [O2]2
(3) R = k1k3 [NO] [O2]

(4)
R= [NO]2 [O2]1

25) In the following graphs, which graph(s) belong to first order

(i)
(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (i), (iii), (iv)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (i) only
(4) (iii), (ii), (iv)

26) What would be the rate equation of the reaction

A + B → Products
If following data is collected experimentally?

Conc. Conc. Initial rate

Exp.
initial [A] initial [B] (r)

1 0.1 M 1.0 M 2.1 × 10–3

2 0.2 M 1.0 M 8.4 × 10

–3

3 0.2 M 2.0 M 8.4 × 10–3

(1) r = k[A]2
(2) r = k[B]2
(3) r = k[A]2 [B]1
(4) r = k[A]1 [B]1

27) Statement-I : Rate law for any reaction can be predicted by merely looking at the balanced
chemical equation.
Statement-II : The sum of powers of the concentration of the reactants in the rate law expression is
called the molecularity of that chemical reaction.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.

(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
28) The following data were obtained during the first order gaseous reaction at constant volume :
(starting with A only)
2A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g)

[Link]. Time(sec.) Total pressure (atm)

1. 0 2

2. 100 2.5
Calculate the rate constant.
(1) 8 × 10–2 s–1
(2) 7.5 × 10–4 s–1
(3) 6.93 × 10–3 s–1
(4) 6.2 × 10–2 s–1

29) Consider the following reaction that goes from A to B in three steps as shown below:-

Choose the correct

Number of Rate
Number of
Activated determining
intermediates
complex step

1 3 2 II

2 2 3 II

3 2 3 I

4 2 3 III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) When cells of skeletal vacuoles of a frog were placed in a series of NaCl solution of differenent
concentration solution at 25°C, it was observed microscopically that they remained unchanged in
0.7% solution, shrank in a more concentrated and swelled in more dilute solutions, water freezes
from the 0.7% salt solution at –0.406°C. What is the osmotic pressure of the cell cytoplasm at 25°C.
(Kf = 1.86 kg mol–1 K)

(1) 0.29 atm

(2) 2.81 atm
(3) 3.79 atm
(4) 5.34 atm
31) If 0.2 m aqueous solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] is 100% ionised, then the freezing point of the solution
will be (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)

(1) –3.21°C
(2) –1.86°C
(3) –1.86 K
(4) –3.21 K

32) Assertion (A) : The osmotic pressure of 0.1 M urea solution is less than 0.1 M NaCl solution.
Reason (R) : Osmotic pressure is not a colligative property.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

33) Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two componant A and B
exhibiting negative deviation from ideal behaviour?

(1) Δmix H ≥ 0 at constant T and P

(2) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B
(3) Δmix V ≥ 0 at constant T and P
(4) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are weaker than those between A-B

34) Density of 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/mL. The molality of the solution is :

(1) 3.28 mol kg–1

(2) 2.28 mol kg–1
(3) 0.44 mol kg–1
(4) 1.14 mol kg–1

35) Compound PdCl4.6H2O is a hydrated complex ; 1 molal aqueous solution of it has freezing point
269.28 K. Assuming 100% ionization of complex, calculate the molecular formula of the complex (Kf
for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1) :

(1) [Pd(H2O)6]Cl4
(2) [Pd(H2O)4Cl2]Cl2.2H2O
(3) [Pd(H2O)3Cl3]Cl.3H2O
(4) [Pd(H2O)2Cl4].4H2O

36) The correct observation is

(1) Vapour pressure of solution I is lowest
(2) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is maximum in III
(3) Freezing point is maximum for III
(4) Boiling point is minimum for II

37) Molar solubility of helium, nitrogen and oxygen are plotted against partial pressure of the gas at

constant temperature. Henry's law constant for these gases will lie in
following sequence ?

(1) O2 < N2 > He

(2) O2 < N2 < He
(3) O2 = N2 = He
(4) O2 > N2 < He

38) At a given temperature, total vapour pressure (in Torr) of a mixture of volatile components A and
B is given by
PTotal = 120 – 75 XB
hence, vapour pressure of pure A and B respectively (in Torr) are

(1) 120, 75
(2) 120, 195
(3) 120, 45
(4) 75, 45

39) Match list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

68% nitric acid and 32% water by

(A) (I) Minimum boiling azeotrope
mass

Solution showing large positive

(B) deviation from Raoult's law may (II) Ideal solution
form

(C) n-hexane and n-heptane (III) Maximum boiling azeotrope

Two solutions having same

(D) osmotic pressure at a given (IV) Isotonic solution
temperature
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-IV
(2) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
(3) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II
(4) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-II, (D)-IV

40) Consider the Fig. and mark the correct option.

water will move from side (A) to side (B) if a pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied
(1)
on piston (B).
water will move from side (B) to side (A) if a pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied
(2)
on piston (B).
water will move from side (B) to side (A) if a pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied on
(3)
piston (B).
water will move from side (A) to side (B) if pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied on
(4)
piston (A).

41) 1L of 1M HCl and 1L of 1M H2SO4 are completely neutralized with NaOH separately. The heat
liberated in two cases are x and y calories respectively. Then which of the following relation is
correct ?

(1) x = y
(2) x > y
(3) x << y
(4) y = 2x

42) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : 2F electricity is required for the oxidation of 1 mole H2O to O2.
Statement II : To get 40.0 g of Aluminium from molten Al2O3 required electricity is 4.44 F.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

43) Mass of Cu which deposits at cathode during electrolysis of CuSO4 (aq.) solution, if 1.12 L O2 (g)
is evolved at anode at 1 atm and 273 K under similar conditions -
(Atomic weight of Cu = 63.5 amu)

(1) 1.12 g
(2) 2.24 g
(3) 6.35 g
(4) 63.5 g

44) Three moles of electrons are passed through three aqueous solutions in succession containing
AgNO3, CuSO4 and AlCl3, respectively. The molar ratio of amounts of cations reduced at cathode will
be:-

(1) 6 : 3 : 2
(2) 2 : 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) 6 : 3 : 0

45) For Arrhenius equation when a graph is plotted between log K Vs slope obtained is –0.5. The
activation energy is given by :-

(1) 5.9 cal

(2) 7.9 cal
(3) 1.2 cal
(4) 2.3 cal

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statement is incorrect about apomixis ?

(1) It is a type of sexual reproduction, which mimics asexual reproduction.

(2) It is a type of asexual reproduction but mimics sexual reproduction.
(3) It is a type of reproduction which produce seed without fertilization.
(4) This type of reproduction does not leads to variation in progeny.

2) Select the incorrect statement -

(1) Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.

(2) Embryo develops at micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated.
(3) In dicot embryo, the root tip is covered with coleorhiza.
(4) The embryo may enter a state of inactivity called dormancy.

3) Select the incorrect statement -

The zygote gives rise to the proembryo and subsequentially to the globular heart shaped and
(1)
mature embryo
(2) Endosperm in castor is completely consumed during embryo development.
(3) Embryo of monocotyledons posses only one cotyledon.
(4) In dicot embryo, the root tip is covered with root cap.

4) Assertion (A) : Each cell of sporogenous tissue in microsporangium is potential pollen or

microspore mother cell.
Reason (R) : Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) Both (A) & (R) true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(4) Both (A) & (R) true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

5)

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as (A) Assertion an other is Reason (R).
Assertion : Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
Reason : The primary endosperm cell divides repeatedly and forms a triploid endosperm tissue.
Select the correct option for above statements.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

6) Select the correct option in which labelled parts (A, B) correctly identified ?

(1) A-Thalamus, B-Achene

(2) A-Mesocarp, B-Endocarp
(3) A-Achene, B-Mesocarp
(4) A-Cotyledon, B-Seed coat

7) In angiosperms the correct sequence of events in formation of female gametophyte in the ovule is
:
(A) Three sequential mitotic divisions.
(B) Degeneration of 3 megaspores.
(C) Production of four megaspore through meiosis.
(D) Three cell grouped together to form egg apparatus.
(E) 8-nucleate, 7-celled matured embryo sac.
Choose the correct answer :

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

(2) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
(3) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)
(4) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
8) Few events of male gametophyte development in angiosperm are shown in figure given below.
Arrange the diagram in ascending order of their occurrence and select the correct order from

options given below

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) i, iv, iii, ii
(3) i, ii, iv, iii
(4) iv, i, iii, ii

9) How many pollen grains are produced by single flower in Solanum nigrum ? (If each
microsporangium have 98 microspore mother cells) :-

(1) 5840
(2) 7840
(3) 9840
(4) 58400

10)
What are A, B and C are

A B C
Definitive
(1) X-body Embryogeny
nucleus
Synergid
(2) Zygote Megasporogenesis
cell
Primary
(3) Synergid endosperm Syngamy
Nucleus
Primary
Secondary
(4) endosperm Embryogeny
nucleus
nucleus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Read the following statement and find out which one is not correct ?

(1) When a flower has both androecium and gynoecium, it is called bisexual.
(2) In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as a drupe.
(3) Sterile stamen is called staminode
(4) Dianthus and primrose are not example of free central placentation.

12) Some characters are given below, which of the following is not correct about seeds of maize?
(A) Seed coat is membranous and generally fused with fruit wall.
(B) The outer covering of endosperm separates embryo by aleurone layer.
(C) The plumule and radicle are not covered with coleoptile and coleorhiza respectively.
(D) Embryo consists of two large shield shaped cotyledons known as scutellum.

(1) A and B
(2) only C
(3) only D
(4) C and D

13) Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of six plants according to the
type of placentation (a,b,c) they give out ?

(a) (b) (c)

Axile Basal Parietal

China rose, Mustard, Sun flower,

(1)
lemon wheat Argemone

Sun flower, China rose, Mustard,

(2)
lemon wheat Argemone

China rose, Sun flower, Mustard,

(3)
Argemone wheat lemon

China rose, Sun flower, Mustard,

(4)
lemon marigold Argemone
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) How many plants in the given below have petals with twisted aestivation ?
Calotropis, Mustard, China rose, Soyabean, Cotton, Petunia, Tulip, Lady finger, Cassia, Gulmohar

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Three

15) Match the following and choose correct option.

Group A Group B

Monoadelphous
(A) (i) Lily
androecium

Diadelphous
(B) (ii) Brinjal
androecium

Epipetalous
(C) (iii) Pea
stamens

Epiphyllous
(D) (iv) China rose
stamens
Option :-
A B C D

(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Which one of the plant groups contain modified adventitious root ?

(1) Mustard, Banyan, Wheat

(2) Monstera, Banyan, Grass
(3) Carrot, Grass, Mustard
(4) Mustard, Grass, Banyan

17) The stem develops from

(1) hypocotyl
(2) epicotyl
(3) radicle
(4) plumule

18) The two sketches A and B given below represents two different types of leaves. Select the option
in which both are correctly identified :-

A B
(1) Simple leaf Compound leaf
(2) Compound leaf Simple leaf
Pinnately compound Palmately compound
(3)
leaf leaf
Palmately compound Pinnately compound
(4)
leaf leaf
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Sheathing leaf base is found in :-

(1) Legumes
(2) Monocots
(3) Dicots
(4) All Angiosperms

20) Which of the following character is not related to racemose inflorescence?

(1) The main axis continues to grow

(2) Flowers are borne laterally
(3) Acropetal succession present
(4) Main axis terminates in a flower

21) The following diagram represents the position of ovary in which plant:-

(1) Brinjal
(2) Guava
(3) Rose
(4) Mustard

22) Statement- I : Mustard is an example of hypogynous flower.

Statement- II : Mustard is an example of inferior ovary.

(1) Both Statements I and II are correct

(2) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

23) Ovules are attached on central axis in unilocular ovary in :-

(1) Axile placentation

(2) Parietal placentation
(3) Free central placentation
(4) Marginal placentation

24) Match the column-I to column-II, III and find out correct option.

Column-I
Column-II Column-III
Ovary
Chinarose,
I Hypogynous A half S
brinjal
inferior
Overy Guava,
II Perigynous B T
superior cucumber
Overy Plum,
III Epigynous C U
inferior peach
(1) I-B-S, II-A-U, III-C-T
(2) I-A-S, II-B-T, III-C-U
(3) I-C-U, II-A-S, III-B-T
(4) I-A-S, II-C-U, III-B-T

25) Select correct combination of column I, II & III.

Column I Column II Column III

(1) Sunflower,
(A) Marginal
Marigold
(I)

(2) Dianthus,
(B) Axile
Primrose
(II)

(3) Mustard,
(C) Parietal
Argemone
(III)
 (4) China rose,
(D) Free Central Tomato,
Lemon

(IV)

(E) Basal (5) Pea

(V)

(1) A-V-(5); B-II-(4); C-I-(3); D-III-(2); E-IV-(1)

(2) A-I-(5); B-II-(4); C-III-(3); D-IV-(2); E-IV-(1)
(3) A-V-(1); B-II-(4); C-I-(2); D-III-(3); E-IV-(5)
(4) A-V-(1); B-III-(2); C-II-(4); D-I-(5); E-IV-(3)

26) Which of the following is not related to the structure of stomata ?

(1) Stomatal aperture

(2) Guard cells
(3) Bulliform cells
(4) Subsidiary cells

27)

How many in the list given below are the part of ground tissue system :

Epidermis, Root hairs, Xylem, Phloem, Cortex, Pericycle, Pith

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

28) Conjoint vascular bundles are common in

(1) Root
(2) Stem
(3) Leaf
(4) Both (2) & (3)

29) The cross section of a plant material shows the following anatomical features under microscope:-

The vascular bundles are radially arranged, eight xylem strands with exarch condition and well
developed pith.
The plant material should be :-
(1) Dicot stem
(2) Monocot stem
(3) Dicot leaf
(4) Monocot root

30) Which of the following is false about monocot stem ?

(I) Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and surrounded by parenchymatous sheath
(II) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous
(III) Ground tissue is differentiated in cortex, endodermis and pith

(1) Only I
(2) I and II
(3) I and III
(4) Only II

31) Which of the following is responsible for leaf rolling and unrolling in monocot :

(1) Bundle sheath

(2) Bulliform cell
(3) Spongy tissue
(4) Palisade tissue

32) Statement-I : The adaxial epidermis of dorsiventral leaf has more stomata than abaxial
epidermis.
Statement-II : In grasses, certain abaxial epidermal cells along the veins are modified into large,
empty and colourless cells known as bulliform cells.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

33) Statement-I : Mesophyll, which possesses chloroplasts and carry out photosynthesis, is made
up of collenchyma.
Statement-II : The tissue between the upper and the lower epidermis is called the mesophyll.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

34) Assertion : In isobilateral leaf stomata are equally present on both the surfaces.
Reason : Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma in monocot leaf.

(1) Both assertion and reason are false.

(2) Assertion is true, reason is false.
(3) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.

35) Which of the following is incorrect about isobilateral leaf ?

(1) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.

(2) Xylem faces adaxial surface while phloem faces abaxial surface.
(3) Parallel venation found in monocot leaves.
(4) Varible sized vascular bundles are present all over leaf.

36)

Which of the following tissue is not a part of stele ?

(1) Pericycle
(2) Vascular bundle
(3) Pith
(4) Endodermis

37) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option given below :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) Dicot root

(B) (Q) Dicot leaf

(C) (R) Monocot leaf

(D) (S) Maize stem

(T) Monocot root

(1) A : Q; B : S; C : T; D : R
(2) A : Q; B : S; C : P; D : R
(3) A : R; B : S; C : T; D : Q
(4) A : R; B : S; C : P; D : Q

38) Which of the following is not part of the inner most whorl of the flower ?
(1) Stamen
(2) Style
(3) Ovary
(4) Stigma

39) Read the statements carefully :-

(A) Flowers are morphological and embryological marvel and the site of asexual reproduction.
(B) Flowering is initiated by several hormonal and structural changes.
(C) The number and length of stamens are variable in flowers of different species.
(D) Four lobes are present in one anther
How many above statements are correct :-

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

40) In a typical stamen the proximal end of the filament is :-

(1) Attached to the thalamus

(2) Generally bilobed structure
(3) Towards the stigma
(4) Pollen grains producing part

41) Which of the following is wrongly matched ?

(1) Pollensacs – Microsporangia

(2) Stamen – Microsporophyll
(3) Pollengrains – Male gametophyte
(4) Ovule – Megasporophyll

42) Viability of pollen grain in rice is

(1) With in 60 min

(2) With in 30 min
(3) With in 30 seconds
(4) With in 30 days

43)

Where the development of dicot embryo occurs at :-

(1) Chalazal end of the embryo sac

(2) Micropylar end of the embryo sac
(3) Centre of embryo sac
(4) Antipodal region of embryo sac
44) Ploidy of endosperm will be ....... if the male & female parents are hexaploid and tetrapoid
respectively :

(1) 8x
(2) 7x
(3) 16x
(4) 10x

45) Identify 'A' in the given diagram :

(1) Cotyledons
(2) Radicle
(3) Hypocotyl
(4) Epicotyl

46) Choose the correct path of milk :-

Mammary alveolus → Mammary tubule → Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous

(1)
duct
Mammary alveolus → Mammary duct → Mammary tubule → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous
(2)
duct
Mammary alveolus → Mammary tubule → Mammary ampulla → Mammary duct → Lactiferous
(3)
duct
Mammary alveolus → Mammary tubule → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Mammary
(4)
duct

47) Choose the incorrect :-

(1) Spermatogonia primary spermatocytes

(2)
Secondary spermatocytes spermatids

(3)
Primary spermatocytes secondary spermatocytes

(4)
Spermatids spermatozoa

48) Among the following identify the structure which is involved in implantation:-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

49) Given below are some statements :-

(A) Oogonia multiplies by mitotic division and increases in numbers after puberty.
(B) Tertiary follicle is characterised by a fluid filled cavity called antrum.
(C) Meiotic division during oogenesis is different from that in spermatogenesis.
(D) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic cell division.
(E) Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids by the process called spermiogenesis
Select the set of correct statements :-

(1) C and D only

(2) A, D and E only
(3) B and C only
(4) B and E only

50) Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

A. Labia minora i. Cushion of fatty tissue

B. Mons pubis ii. Upper junction of labia minora

C. Clitoris iii. Paired fold of tissue

D. Hymen iv. Membrane of mucosal tissue

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

51) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) LH I. Oxytocin

(B) Corpus luteum II. Ovulation

(C) Posterior pituitary III. Relaxin

(D) Placenta IV. Progesterone

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

52) Which of the following structure has erectile tissue ?

(1) Labia minora

(2) Labia majora
(3) Clitoris
(4) Hymen

53) Muscles associated with mammary glands are-

(1) Biceps
(2) Pectoralis majors
(3) Gluteus maximum
(4) Triceps

54) Some factors which help in the process of spermiogenesis are secreted by ?

(1) Leydig cell

(2) Sertoli cell
(3) Interstitial cell
(4) Gonads

55) Which of the following hormone is responsible for secretion of androgens?

(1) F.S.H
(2) L.H
(3) Estrogen
(4) A.B.P
56) Which placental hormone act as LH and maintain the corpus luteum in ovary of a pregnant
female?

(1) Relaxin
(2) hCG
(3) hPL
(4) Progesterone

57) What would be the number of chromosome in spermatids?

(1) 46
(2) 23
(3) 26
(4) 22

58) Which part of sperm is source of energy for swimming?

(1) Head
(2) Neck
(3) Middle piece
(4) Tail

59) The primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division within :-

(1) Graafian follicle

(2) Secondary follicle
(3) Fallopian tube
(4) Tertiary follicle

60) Which hormone is not produced in women only during pregnancy ?

(1) Relaxin
(2) HCG
(3) HPL
(4) Progesterone

61) Meiosis-I of primary oocyte arrested in which stage ?

(1) Metaphase-II
(2) Prophase-II
(3) Prophase-I
(4) Metaphase-I

62) The first movements of foetus are usually observed during the ?

(1) One month

(2) 12 Weeks
(3) Fifth month
(4) Second month

63) Limbs and external genital organs are well developed, by the end of ?

(1) 12 weeks
(2) 2 weeks
(3) 24 weeks
(4) Fifth month

64) Statement-I :- Humans are sexually reproducing & viviparous.

Statement-II :- There are no remarkable difference between the reproductive events in male &
female.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

65) Select incorrect option :-

(1) Ovum and sperm transported to the ampullary region during fertilisatin.
(2) During fertilisation meiotic-II is completed and 2nd bar body is released.
(3) There are 46 chromosomes in human zygote.
(4) Both (1) & (2)

66) Assertion (A) :- The pregnancy continuous even after the ovaries are removed once the
placenta is fully developed.
Reason (R) :- After development of placenta estrogen and progesterone are secreted mainly by the
placenta.

(1) A is true but R is false.

(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

67) Match the column-I with the column-II

Column-I Column-II

Through which milk is sucked out from

A. Ovary i.
mammary gland

B. Seminiferous tubules ii. In which sperms are produced

C. Uterus iii. Produce several steroid hormones

D. Lactiferous duct iv. Site of follicular development

 Inner layer shows cyclical changes
v.
during menstrual cycle

vi. Cells of it influenced by FSH

Options :-
(1) A-iv, ii; B-ii, iii; C-i; D-v
(2) A-iii, iv; B-ii, vi; C-v; D-i
(3) A-iii, iv; B-i; C-v,vi; D-ii
(4) A-iii,iv,vi; B-i; C-v; D-ii

68) Assertion (A) : The placenta facilitate the supply of oxygen and nutrient to the embryo and also
removal of carbon dioxide and excretory/waste materials produced by the embryo.
Reason (R) : The placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord which help in the
transport of substances to and from the embryo.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

69) Statement-I : The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increase gradually during the
follicular phase and stimulates follicular development as well as secretion of high level of
progestrone by the growing follicles.
Statement-II : The corpus luteum secrete large amount of progestrone which is essential for
maintenance of the endocardium of uterus.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect, but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

70) The female external genitalia include :-

(a) Mons pubis
(b) Labia majora
(c) Hymen
(d) Clitoris
(e) Labia minora
(f) Ovary
(g) Uterus

(1) a, b, c, d, e
(2) a, c, d, e, f, g
(3) c, d, e, f, g
(4) a, b, f, g

71) Select the correct sequence of transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system :-

(1) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
 Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens →
(2)
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa deferens → Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal →
(4)
Urethra → Urethral meatus

72) Which of the following statement is correct about testis ?

(1) Testis is circular in shape

(2) Each testis have 300 compartment called testicular lobules.
(3) Length of testis is about 4 to 5 cm width of testis 2 to 3 cm.
(4) Each lobule contain 3 to 5 highly coiled seminiferous tubules.

73) Each ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and the uterus by :-

(1) Tendons
(2) Ligaments
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Areolar tissue

74) Which of the following contraceptive methods can prevent ovulation?

(1) CuT, Condoms

(2) Combination of estrogen and progesterone taken orally
(3) Diaphragms, cervical cap and vaults
(4) Coitus interruptus and lactational amenorrhoea

75) As per the medical termination of pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 - if the pregnancy has
lasted more than 12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, registered medical practitioners must be
of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the required ground exist here X is :-

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

76) If a person suffers from very low sperm counts, which ART could be used?

(1) ZIFT
(2) AI
(3) IUT
(4) GIFT

77) Which of the following function is performed by multiload 375 ?

(1) Inhibit ovulation

(2) Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) Decrease activity of phagocytic cells of uterus
(4) Suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperm

78) Identify the incorrect match:

(1) Saheli – Non steroidal pill

(2) Female condom – Barrier method of contraception
(3) Multiload 375 – Non-medicated IUD
(4) Progestasert – Hormone releasing IUD

79) Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding assisted reproductive technologies:-
(a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomere) transferred into the fallopian tube
(b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the fallopian tube to form an embryo in the laboratory
(c) IUI - The semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced into
the uterus
(d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development
Which two of the above statements are correct?

(1) a & d
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) b & d

80) Assertion : Amniocentesis is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant.
Reason : Statutory Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

81) Identify the contraceptive related to hormones:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
82) If male is impotent and female is fertile then what possible assisted reproductive technology is
used for treating the infertility in particular couple?

(1) GIFT
(2) Intrauterine insemination
(3) ZIFT
(4) Embryo transfer

83) In lactational amenorrhea, ovulation does not occur during the period of intense lactation
because :-

(1) Presence of large amount of IgA in milk

(2) Increase in estrogen and progestrone ratio
(3) High level of prolactin
(4) Synthesis of prostaglandin

84) Which of the following contraceptive devices makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation & the
cervix hostile to the sperms ?

(1) Progestasert
(2) Vault
(3) Condoms
(4) Cervical caps

85) In the given contraceptive methods, how many are Natural methods ? Periodic abstinence, coitus
interrupts, barrier method, lactational amenorrhea, Diaphragms, vaults

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

86) If female undergoing tubectomy, which one of the following event will not occur ?

(1) Menstruation cycle

(2) Ovulation
(3) Fusion of sperm and ovum
(4) Formation of graffian follicle

87) Regarding test tube baby programme, select the correct sequential steps.
(A) Completion of further development of zygote/embryo
(B) Formation of zygote under simulated conditions in the laboratory
(C) Collection of ova from the wife/donor (female) and sperms from the husband/donor (male)
(D) Transfer of zygote/embryo into the fallopian tube/uterus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A, D, C, B
(2) C, B, D, A
(3) B, A, D, C
(4) D, A, C, B

88)

Match the following :

(A) Non-medicated IUDs (a) Cu-T

(B) Copper releasing IUDs (b) Saheli

(C) Hormone releasing IUDs (c) Lippes loop

(D) Non-steroidal pill (d) LNG-20

(1) A – b, B – c, C – d, D – a
(2) A – c, B – a, C – b, D – d
(3) A – c, B – a, C – d, D – b
(4) A – a, B – c, C – d, D – b

89) Implants contain :

(1) Progestogens alone only

(2) Estrogens alone only
(3) Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen
(4) Multi load-375

90)

Which of the following contraceptive methods also helps in preventing STDs ?

(1) Copper-T
(2) Oral pills
(3) Condom
(4) IUD
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 2 1 3 2 4 4 3 3 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 3 1 4 4 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 3 4 1 4 1 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 1 4 1 2 3 3 1 3 2 1 1 4 3 3 2 3 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 4 4 1 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 4 2 3 2 2 3 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 3 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 2 4 2 1 4 4 2 4 4 4 4 4 2 2 4 4 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 3 1 1 3 3 4 4 3 2 4 4 3 4 4 1 1 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 2 2 3 1 4 3 3 2 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 3 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 1 3 2 4 2 1 4 1 2 3 2 2 3 2 4 3 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 3 1 4 3 2 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

To measure current (A) should be in series and to measure potential (V) should be in parallel.

2) E = ρJ ⇒ EA < EB < EC
so magnitude of potential gradient

= magnitude of slope m
Magnitude of slope
mA < mB < mC

3)

H= ; reach = = Rnet =

H1 = = n2 = n2H

4) I = ncAvd

vd ∝ ∝

vd left = = 0.055 × 10–4 m/s

5)

6)

...(1)

...(2)
On solving r = 2Ω, ε = 10 V.

7)

Use KCL
8)

V1 : V2 : V3 = 4 : 3 : 8

9)
2π —— R

1 ——

So for radian =

Similarly for radian =

10)

or V = 3.5 V

11)
12) The sign of flux is positive through right end cap.

13)

1.

2.
Solution :

At r = 20 cm ....(i)

At r' = 3 cm

14)

Here,

and
Since bubble is in equilibrium
Pe = Ps

The potential V of a spherical conductor is given by

15) Electric potential difference between two shells:

Where Q1 is the charge on the inner shell, and R1, R2 are the radii of the inner and outer shells.
The potential difference between the shells depends only on the charge of the inner shell (Q1)
and the radii (R1 and R2). Since the electric field between the shells depends solely on Q1, the
potential difference does not change when the charge on the outer shell is varied.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the
Assertion.

16) A + B + C = X
A + B + 2 = 10
A + B = 8C

17)

F=

Fnet = F1 + F2 towards –θ

18) In electrostatics condition only, any system of charge particles cannot remain in stable
equilibrium.

19) Let us assume an elemental ring of radius 'r' & thickness 'dr', then charge on ring

dQ = σ (Area of shaded region)

= σ (2πrdr)
Hence option (4)

20)

Radius of shell R = 2cm

Total charge on shell Q = σ × 4πR2
= 10–4 × 4π × (2)2
= 16π × 10–4C
The point is at a distance r = R + 2 = 4 cm from the center

Potential at distance r is

Work done W = q × V
= (40×10–9) × (36π×107)
= 1440π × 10–2 J
W = 14.4 π Joule

21) Opening the upper node and removing the two resistors from the middle branches, we get.

Solving we get Req = .

22)

As ρ = ρ0(1 + ∝ΔT)

∝= ⇒ 4 × 10–4 =

0
⇒ ρ =
ρ0 = 10–6 Ω – m

23)
I = I1 – I2 + I3 – I4
= I = –1.95 A, magnitude of current in ammeter is = 1.95 A

24) RS = –G

for 1V range ⇒ Rs = – 50 = 950 Ω

⇒ R1 = 950 Ω

for 10 V range Rs = = 10 × 103 –50

= 9950 Ω
∴ R2 = 9950 – 950 = 9000 Ω = 9kΩ

25)

Req = = 100Ω

Net current I = = 2 Amp.

I2 = I1 = = 1 Amp.
So Vx – Vy = 100 – 100 = 0

26)

VA – 6 × 1/2 + 6 = 0 ⇒ VA = –3V
VB – 4 × 1/2 + 4 = VA = – 3 ⇒ VB = –5V
0 – 2 × 1/2 + 2 – 3 × 1/2 + 3 = VC = 2.5V
0 – 2 × 1/2 + 2 = VD ⇒ VD = 1V

27) Bulbs are identical & connect in parallel so V same but i become twice
28)

29)

30)

By Gauss law :

If electric field line become discontinuous at Gaussian surface than E = 0

Gauss law become wrong

31)

∴ =
32)

Work done in moving a charge equals the change in electric potential energy:
W = q0 (Vf – Vi)
Electric potential on the axis of a charged ring:

Potential at the centre (x = 0):

Potential at

Work done:

33)
∵ ΔV = [Link]
Ex x = Ey y
∵ Ex > E y
⇒ x<y

34) -between plates

SO,
∴ u = 0 so to travel a distance d in time t

35)

τ = P.E. sin30° =
P.E = .....(1)
Now potential energy is given by
U = –PE cos30°

U=–
= –24.5 J

36)

At null point -

Runknown = 8 Ω

ρunknown = 1.6 × 10–6 Ω. m

37) Initially

Later

38)

Tension in string T = mg
or T = Fe

so mg = Fe =

39) C1V1 = C2V2

(KC)100 = CV2
V2 = 100 K = 100 × 5 = 500 V.
 40)
This is balance bridge

α=1

41) Let qA = q, qB = q=

qC =

∴ qA : qB : qC = q : : =5:2:3

42) Net EMF of 9v & 18v cell

ENet =
∴ vc = 12 – 9 = 3V

43) Energy is stored in the space where electric field exits.

44)
CAB = 2C

0 0
45) q = q e–t/RC = CV e–t/RC = 2 × 5e–12/(6×2) =

CHEMISTRY

46) –12250x – 13000 (1 – x) = –12500

750x = 500 ⇒ x = 2/3 and y = 1/3
 So,

47)

Fact based

48) Theory based

49)

Theory based

50) K = 0.03 s–1 (First order reaction)

A0 = 7.2 mol L–1
At = 0.9 mol L–1

51)

log t1/2 = –log a + C

log t1/2 + log a = C
log t1/2 × a = C
t1/2 × a = const

Second order

52)

Explain the Question : Find the order of reaction from half-life dependence on
concentration.
Concept : This question is based on Half-life relation, Reaction order determination.
Solution : Main rule : For nth order, t1/2 ∝ 1/[A]n–1.

[A] (mol L–1) t1/2(s) Relation

0.5 100 –

1.0 50 When [A] doubles, t1/2 halves

t1/2 ∝ 1/[A] this matches second order kinetics.

Final answer : Option (3)

53)
NCERT XII, Pg.# 83, Part-I

54)

NCERT Based

55)

Option (3) 0.2 g

56) Theoretical amount (mass) of NaClO4

W=

% efficiency =

57)
Units of = S cm2 mole–1
Uits of A = S cm2 mole–3/2 L1/2

58) SRP ↓ Reducing power ↑

59)
[H+] = Cα = 0.01 × 0.01 = 10–4
pH = 4

60)

NCERT XII, Part-I, Pg. # 46, 47

61) (a) Cd(s) + 2Ni(OH)3(s) → CdO(s) + 2Ni(OH)2(s) + H2O(l)

Discharge of secondary Battery
(b) Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(l)
(Primary Battery Mercury cell)
(c) 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) → Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(aq)
Charging of secondary Battery
(d) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) - Fuel cell

62)
= 130 + 225 – 120
= 10 + 225 = 235
63) (BaSO4) = x1 + x2 – x3
= 2(x1 + x2 – x3)

BaSO4 AB
Ksp = S2

64) NCERT-XII, Part-I, Pg # 36

65) NCERT-XII, Part-I, Pg. # 43

Given (as written):
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e–, E° –0.77 V
⇒ reduction potential for Fe3+ + e– → Fe2+ is
= +0.77 V.
2I → I2 + 2e–, E° = –0.54 V
–

⇒ reduction potential for I2 + 2e– → 2I– is

= +0.54 V.
The species with the more positive reduction potential is reduced (cathode):
Fe3+ + e– → Fe2+ with = +0.77 V.
–
The other half-cell (I2/I ) will act as anode (oxidation),
so use its reduction potential as = +0.54 V.
= 0.77 – 0.54 = 0.23 V Final Answer : Option (3)

66)

log Keq = 10
Keq = 1010

67)

0.1M HCl → [H+] = 10–1

2H+ + 2e– → H2

= –0.06
100 times dilute ⇒ [H+] = 10–3

= –0.03 log106 = –0.18

∴ Ecell decrease by 0.12 V

68)

69)

r = K3[N2O2][O2]
↑
Intermediate

70)

Theory based

71)

From I & II experiment

[A] → 2 times
rate → 4 times
Order wrt A = 2
From II & III experiment
[B] → 2 times
r → no change
∴ order wrt B = 0

72) Question Explanation

This question tests your understanding of rate law determination and the difference between
molecularity and order of reaction.
Concept
Rate law is determined experimentally, not from the balanced equation. Molecularity refers to
the number of species involved in an elementary step, not the overall rate law.
Solution
Statement-1: False
The rate law cannot be predicted just by looking at the balanced chemical equation unless it's
an elementary reaction. For most reactions, the rate law is determined experimentally.
Statement-II: False
The sum of powers of concentrations in the rate law is called the order of reaction, not
molecularity.
Molecularity is a theoretical concept applied only to elementary steps and is always a whole
number.
Final Answer
Option 3

73)

2A → 2B + C
t=0 2atm 0 0
t = 100s 2–2x 2x x
total pressure = 2–2x + 2x + x
2.5 = 2+x
x = 0.5 atm

= 0.693 × 10–2
k = 6.93 × 10–3 s–1

74)

Theoritical

75)

76)

i=5
273 – Tf = 5 × 1.86 × 0.2
Tf = 271.14 K
Tf = –1.86°C

77) Van't Hoff factor 'i' for urea = 1 and for NaCl = 2
π = iCRT

78)

Theory based

79)
Molarity = 2.05 M → 2.05 moles in 1 L solution.
Mass of solution = 1 × 1.02 × 1000 = 1020 g.
Mass of water = 1020 – (2.05 × 60) = 1020 – 123 = 897 g ≈ 0.897 kg.
Molality = moles ÷ kg solvent = 2.05 ÷ 0.897 ≈ 2.28 mol/kg.
Final answer : 2

80)

ΔTf = i Kf m
273.15 – 269.28 = i × 1.86 × 1
3.87 = i × 1.86
i=2⇒n=2

81)

Relative lowering in vapour pressure ∝ i

(i) 0.1 M urea ⇒ i = 1
(ii) 0.1 M NaCl ⇒ i = 2 (Na+, Cl–)
(iii) 0.1 M CaCl2 ⇒ i = 3 (Ca+2, 2Cl–)
R·L·V·P is maximum in III
• Option 1: Vapour pressure is highest in Urea (Solution I) because it has the fewest
particles to inhibit evaporation.
• Option 2: Relative lowering of vapour pressure is maximum in CaCl2 (Solution III) because
it produces the highest number of particles.
• Option 3: Freezing point is lowest for CaCl2 (Solution III) because higher particle counts
cause greater freezing point depression.
• Option 4: Boiling point is minimum for Urea (Solution I) because it has the lowest elevation
due to having the fewest particles.
Final answer : Option (2)

82)

P = Kh X
P ↑ ⇒ Kh ↑ {Same solubility}

83)

XB → 0 ⇒ PS = PºA
XB → 1 ⇒ PS = PºB

84) Explanation
• (A) 68% nitric acid and 32% water by mass:
This mixture frms a maximum boiling azeotrope. This is because the strong hydrogen bonding
between nitric acid and water leads to a lower vapor pressure than predicted by Raoult's law,
causing a higher boiling point. Therefore, (A) matches with (III).
• (B) Solution showing large positive deviation from Raoult's law may form:
Solution with large positive deviations have weaker intermolecular forces than the pure
components. This leads to higher vapor pressures and thus, minimum boiling azeotropes.
Therefore, (B) matches with (I).
• (C) n-hexane and n-heptane:
These are very similar nonpolar hydrocarbons. Their intermolecular forces are nearly
identical, resulting in an ideal solution where Raoult's law is obeyed. Therefore, (C) matches
with (II).
• (D) Two solutions having the same osmotic pressure at a given temperature:
By definition, solutions with the same osmotic pressure at a given temperature are isotonic.
Therefore, (D) matches with (IV).
Correct Matching:
(A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
Answer option 4.

85)

Theory based

86) 1. For HCI (Heat = x):

• Equivalents of H+ = (1 M × 1) × 1 L = 1 eq.
• So, x = (1 eg) x (Constant Heat per equivalent)
2. For H2SO4 (Heat = y):
• Equivalents of H+ = (1 M × 2) × 1 L = 2 eq.
• So, y = (2 eq) x (Constant Heat per equivalent)
Since y is proportional to 2 equivalents and x is proportional to 1 equivalent y = 2x.
Final Answer: Option (4)

87)

St.-I :- 1 mole
V.F of H2O = 2
g-eq. of H2O = 1 mol × (V.F = 2)
= 2F

St.-2 :- g-eq. of Al =
= 4.44 F
Final answer : 4

88)

w = 6.35 g

89) Ag+ + e– → Ag(1 mole)

3 mole → 3 mole Ag
Cu+2 + 2e– → Cu(1 mole)
 3 mole e– → mole Cu
Al+3 + 3e → Al (1 mole) will not reduced H2O will get reduced. {SRP of water is more than Al}
Molar ratio
Ag : Cu+2 : Al+3

3 : : 0
6 : 3 : 0

90)

log K = log A –

Slope =
Ea = 2.3 × R × 0.5
= 2.3 × 2 × 0.5
Ea = 2.3 cal

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. # 23

92) NCERT Pg.#13,19,20.

93) NCERT Pg.#18,19.

94) NCERT Pg.# 6.

95) NCERT Pg. # 18,19

96) NCERT Page No. 37

97) NCERT Pg.#10-11.

98)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 23 (E), 24 (H)

99)

No. of stamens in flower of solanum ni

100) NCERT Page # 34, 35

101) NCERT Pg. # 72,76,77

102)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 66-67

103)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 65

104)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 64

Chinarose, cotton and lady finger shows twisted aestivation.

105) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 64(E), 63(H)

106)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 58

107)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 59

108)

NCERT Pg. # 60

109)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 60

110)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 61

111)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 62

112) NCERT XI Pg. 63

113)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 65

114) NCERT Page # 73

115)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 65

116)

NCERT XI Pg. # 89

117) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 89

Cortex, Pericycle and Pith are part of ground tissue system.

118) NCERT XI, Pg.# 90

119)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 24

120)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 76

121) NCERT XI Pg # 92

122) NCERT XI Pg # 76, 77

123) NCERT Pg. # 76

124) NCERT Pg # 77

125) NCERT Pg # 94

126)

NCERt (XI) Pg # 74

127)
NCERT XIth Pg.# 74-76

128) NCERT-XII, Page#20

129)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 3, 4
Statement-B and Statement-C are correct.

130)

NCERT XIIth Pg.# 5

131)

NCERT XIIth Pg.# 9

132) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 24

133)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 19

134)

NCERT XIIth Pg.# 18

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 19

136)

NCERT -XII Page No. # 30,31

137)

NCERT, Pg. # 33

138)

NCERT [Link]-36

139) NCERT Pg. # 31,32 (E), 34, 35, 36 (H)

140) NCERT, Pg. # 30

141) NCERT Pg#38,41,42

142) NCERT Pg. # 30

143) NCERT Pg. # 30

144) NCERT Pg. # 31

145) NCERT Pg. # 31

146) NCERT # 37

147) NCERT Pg. 31

148) NCERT Pg. 32

149) NCERT Pg. 32

150)

NCERT, Pg. # 37

151) NCERT Pg. # 32

152) NCERT Pg. # 38

153) NCERT Pg. # 38

154) NCERT Pg. # 26

155) NCERT, Pg. # 35, 36

156) NCERT, Pg. # 37

157) NCERT XII, Pg. # 27,28,31,32

158) NCERT Pg. No. # 53

159) NCERT Pg. No. # 51

160)

NCERT, Pg. # 30

161)

NCERT Pg. # 27

162) NCERT Pg. # 27

163)

NCERT Pg. # 44

164) NCERT(XII) Pg#61/67(H) Para:4.2

165) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 62

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 69

166) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 64, Para-3(E)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 72, Para-1(H)

167) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 60

168)

NCERT, Pg. # 44

169)

NCERT, Pg. # 48

170) NCERT Pg # 58

171) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 44, 45

172)

NCERT, Pg. # 48
173)

NCERT, Pg. # 44

174)

NCERT, Pg. # 44

175) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 5, 1, 59, 60, Para-1

176) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 46

177) NCERT Pg. # 48

178)

NCERT, Pg. # 44

179)

NCERT (XIIth) (E)Pg. # 61, Para-3

180)

NCERT, Pg. # 44