13-07-2025

9610WMD802125250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) A vernier callipers has 20 division on vernier scale which coincide with 18 division on main scale
of 1mm each the least count of the instrument is–

(1) 0.1 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.01 mm
(4) 0.02 mm

2) What is the reading of micrometer screw gauge shown in figure – [L.C. = 0.01 mm]

(1) 3.30 mm
(2) 2.29 mm
(3) 2.36 mm
(4) 2.41 mm

3) A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire.
Main scale reading : 0 mm.
Circular scale reading : 42 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions of the circular scale. The diameter of
wire from the above data is :-

(1) 0.026 cm
(2) 0.004 cm
(3) 0.42 cm
(4) 0.042 cm

4) The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and pitch of 2mm. Find the measured value
of thickness of a thin sheet.

(1) 3.41 mm
(2) 6.41 mm
(3) 3.46 mm
(4) 3.51 mm
5) The diagram shows part of vernier scale on a pair of calipers. Which reading is correct?

(Least count = 0.01 cm)

(1) 2.74 cm
(2) 3.10 cm
(3) 3.26 cm
(4) 3.64 cm

6) Two equal point charges are fixed at x = –a and x = +a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is
placed at the origin. The resultant electrical force on Q, when it is displaced by a small distance x
along the x-axis, is approximately proportional to :-

(1) x
(2) x2
(3) x3

(4)

7) The density of charge at point P on the conductor is σ C/m2. The resultant electric field near P

(just outside) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The net electric field on two sides of a large charged nonconducting sheet kept in an external
electric field is shown in the figure. The charge density on the sheet in S.I. Units is given by (ε0 is the
Permittivity of free space in S.I. Units) :-

(1) 2ε0
(2) 4ε0
(3) 10ε0
(4) Zero

9) In a cuboid of dimension , a charge q is placed at the centre of the surface ‘S’ having
area of 4 L2. The flux through the opposite surface to ‘S’ is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A charge 'q' is placed at one corner of a cube as shown in [Link] flux of electrostatic field

through the shaded area is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Four charges Q1, Q2, Q3 and Q4 of same magnitude are fixed along the x axis at x = –2a, –a, +a
and +2a, respectively. A positive charge q is placed on the positive y axis at a distance b > 0. Four
options of the signs of these charges are given in List I. The direction of the forces on the charge q is
given in List II. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists.

List-I List-II

(P) Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4 all positive (1) +x

(Q) Q1, Q2 positive ; Q3, Q4 negative (2) –x

(R) Q1, Q4 positive ; Q2, Q3 negative (3) +y

(S) Q1, Q3 positive ; Q2, Q4 negative (4) –y

(1) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(2) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(3) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(4) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

12) The magnitude of electric field strength E such that an electron placed in it would experience
force equal to its weight is given by :

(1) mge
(2) mg/e
(3) e/mg
(4) e2g/2m

13) Which electric field is responsible for the proton’s trajectory as shown below ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) Two objects are rubbed against each other, the nature of electric force, when they are placed at
some distance is :

(1) Attractive
(2) Repulsive
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Either (1) or (2)

15) Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges +10μC and –20μC respectively &
when placed at a distance R from each other experience force . If they are brought in contact and
separated to the same distance, they experience force . The ratio of | | to | | is :-

(1) 1 : 8
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

16) Electric field at a distance 'r' from an infinitely large conducting sheet is proportional to :-

(1) r–1
(2) r–2
(3) r–3/2
(4) r°

17) A solid sphere of radius R, is charged uniformly with a total charge Q. Then the correct
expression for electric field is (r = distance from centre) :–

(1)
, where r < R

(2)
, where r > R
(3) it is zero, at all points
(4) (1) and (2) both

18) A cube is placed inside an electric field, . The side of the cube is 0.5 m and is placed
in the field as shown in the given figure. The charge inside the cube is :
(1) 3.8 × 10–11 C
(2) 8.3 × 10–11 C
(3) 3.8 × 10–12 C
(4) 8.3 × 10–12 C

19) If two charges q1 and q2 are separated with distance ‘d’ and placed in a medium of dielectric
constant K. What will be the equivalent distance between charges in air for the same electrostatic
force ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) Charges Q, 2Q and 4Q are uniformly distributed in three dielectric solid spheres 1, 2 and 3 of
radii R/2, R and 2R respectively, as shown in figure. If magnitudes of the electric fields at point P at
a distance R from the centre of spheres 1, 2 and 3 are E1, E2 and E3 respectively, then

(1) E1 > E2 > E3

(2) E3 > E1 > E2
(3) E2 > E1 > E3
(4) E3 > E2 > E1

21) Find out collision time of projectile A & B in given figure. When they are projected

simultaneously from ground -

(1) 5 s
(2) 6 s
(3) 7 s
(4) 8 s

22) A particle is dropped from a hot air balloon. Balloon is rising up with uniform speed 10 m/s. If
particle reaches to ground in 7s. Find out height from where particle is dropped.

(1) 100 m
(2) 125 m
(3) 150 m
(4) 175 m

23) Assertion : To projectiles are thrown simultaneously at different angles. Path of one projectile
with respect to other projectile is straight line.
Reason : Acceleration of one projectile with respect to other is zero.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

24) A car moving with speed (ν) on a straight road can be stopped with in distance (d) on applying
brakes. If the same car is moving with speed (3ν) and brakes provide half retardation, then car will
stop after travelling distance :-

(1) 3d
(2) 6d
(3) 9d
(4) 18d

25) Select the incorrect statement :

(1) For uniform motion, acceleration is zero and x-t graph is a straight line.
The zero velocity of a particle at any instant does not necessarily imply zero acceleration at that
(2)
instant.
(3) It particle moving with constant velocity then |average velocity| = average speed.
(4) A particle in one-dimensional motion with positive value of acceleration must be speeding up.

26) A coin is released inside a lift at a height of 2m from the floor of the lift. The height of the lift is
10m. The lift is moving with an acceleration of 9 m/s2 downwards. The time after which the coin will
strike with the floor lift is (g=10m/s2)

(1) 4s
(2) 2s

(3)

(4)
27) Water droplets are falling in a regular interval of time from a tap held at a height of 18m from
ground. When the first drop reaches ground the fourth drop is just leaving tap find the height of
second drop from ground at this instant.

(1) 5 m
(2) 15 m
(3) 25 m
(4) 10 m

28) A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity 20 m/s from the top of a tower of height 20 m. It
strikes the level ground through the foot of the tower at a distance x from the tower. The value of x
is :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 30 m

29) A particle is projected with from ground. Then match the two columns (in
respective units)

Column-I Column-II

(A) Time of flight P. 2

(B) Maximum height Q. 20

(C) Range R. 60

(D) Horizontal velocity at t = 3s. S. 8

T. 4
(1) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-P
(2) A-P, B-Q, C-T, D-T
(3) A-T, B-Q, C-S, D-P
(4) A-T, B-R, C-S, D-T

30) Ram moves in east direction at speed of 6 m/s and shayam moves 30° east of north at speed 6
m/s the magnitude of their relative velocity is :-

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) m/s
(4) m/s

31) A ball is projected vertically upward from ground with speed 100 m/s. Another ball is dropped
simultaneously from height 50 m. Then find out time when they cross each other.

(1) 0.5s
(2) 1s
(3) 2s
(4) 5s

32) A particle starts from rest with uniform acceleration, then the value of will be :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

33) A ball is projected with a velocity 10 ms–1, at an angle of 60° with the verticle direction. Its speed
at the highest point of its trajectory will be :-

(1)
(2) 5 ms–1
(3) 10 ms–1
(4) Zero

34) A body is projected vertically upwards if t1 and t2 be the times at which it is at height h above the
projection while ascending and descending respectively then h is-

(1)
g t1t2
(2) g t1t2
(3) 2g t1t2
(4) 2 hg

35) If two bodies are projected at 30° and 60° respectively, with the same magnitude of velocity,
then :-

(1) Their ranges are same

(2) Their heights are same
(3) Their times of flight are same
(4) All of these

36) A gun of mass 10kg fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20 g and the velocity of
the bullet when it leaves the gun is 300 ms–1. The average force required to hold the gun while firing
is

(1) 6 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 240 N

37) A particle of mass m is fired with velocity v from a point P making an angle 45° with horizontal.
Neglecting air resistance, the magnitude of change in momentum between the Points P and arriving
on ground at Q is

(1) Zero

(2)
mv
mv
(3)

(4) 2 mv

38) A force F1 acts on a particle so as to accelerate it from rest to a velocity v . The force F1 is then
replaced by F2 which decelerates it to rest-

(1) F1 must be equal to F2

(2) F1 may be equal to F2
(3) F1 must be unequal to F2
(4) None of these

39) In the figure given below, the position-time graph of a particle of mass 0.1 kg is shown The
impulse at t = 4 sec is:

(1) Zero
(2) –2 N-sec
(3) 2 N-sec
(4) –20 N-sec

40) One of the rectangular components of velocity of 80 kmh–1 is 40 kmh–1. What is the other
component ?

(1) 40 kmh–1
(2) 69.28 kmh–1
(3) 89.44 kmh–1
(4) 120 kmh–1

41) A particle moves from position m to m due to uniform force of

It the displacement in meters, then work done will be

(1) 100 J
(2) 200 J
(3) 300 J
(4) 250 J

42) If then the value of is -

(1)

(2) A + B
(3)
(4) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2

43) List-I List-II

(I) (P) 3

(II) (Q) 7

(III) (R) 5

(IV) (S) 1

(1) I → Q; II → S; III → P; IV → R
(2) I → P; II → Q; III → R; IV → S
(3) I → S; II → P; III → R; IV → Q
(4) I → P; II → R; III → Q; IV → S

44) Unit vector along is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Given . Also, the magnitude of , and are 12, 5 and 13 units respectively. The
angle between and is :

(1) 0°
(2)
radian

(3)
radian
(4) π radian

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?

(1) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = + 1/2
(2) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 3, s = – 1/2
(3) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = – 1/2
(4) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = – 1/2

2) The following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbital n = 3, l = 2, m = +2 ?

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

3) The number of spherical nodes in 3p orbitals are

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) None of these

4) The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l :

(A) n = 4, l = 1
(B) n = 4, l = 0
(C) n = 3, l = 2
(D) n = 3, l = 1
can be placed in order of increasing energy as :

(1) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A)

(2) (D) < (B) < (C) < (A)
(3) (B) < (D) < (A) < (C)
(4) (A) < (C) < (B) < (D)

5) Which of the following graph correspond to one node

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle is violated is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Match the columns

Column-I Column-II
(Rules) (Statements)
 No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four
(A) Hund's Rule (p)
quantum numbers

(B) Aufbau Principle (q) Half-filled and completely filled orbitals have extra stability.

Pairing of electrons in the Principle orbitals belonging to the same

(C) Pauli Exclusion (r)
subshell does not take place until each orbital is singly occupied.

Heisenberg's
It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact
(D) Uncertainty (s)
momentum of a subatomic particle simultaneously
Principle

In the ground state of atoms, orbitals are filled in the order of their
(t)
increasing energies.
(1) A – (r), B – (p), C – (t), D – (s)
(2) A – (r), B – (t), C – (s), D – (p)
(3) A – (r), B – (t), C – (p), D – (s)
(4) A – (t), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)

8) In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainity
with which the position of the electron can be located is ( h = 6.6 × 10–34 kg m2s–1, mass of electron,
me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)

(1) 5.10 × 10–3 m

(2) 1.92 × 10–3 m
(3) 3.84 × 10–3 m
(4) 1.52 × 10–4 m

9) Match the columns.

Column-I(Quantum number) Column-II(Information provided)

(A) Principal (p) orientation of the orbital
(B) Azimuthal (q) energy and size of orbital
(C) Magnetic (r) spin of electron
(D) Spin quantum (s) shape of the orbital
(1) A–(q), B–(s), C–(p), D–(r)
(2) A–(s), B–(q), C–(p), D–(r)
(3) A–(q), B–(p), C–(s), D–(r)
(4) A–(q), B–(s), C–(r), D–(p)

10) Assertion (A): The electronic configuration of nitrogen atom is represented as:

and not as:

Reason (R): The electronic configuration of the ground state of an atom is the one which has the
greatest multiplicity.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

11) The correct decreasing order of priority of functional groups in naming an organic compound as
per IUPAC system of nomenclature is :

(1) —COOH > —CONH2 > —COCl > —CHO

(2) —SO3H > —COCl > —CONH2 > —CN
—COOR > —COCl > —NH2 >
(3)

(4) —COOH > —COOR > —CONH2 > —COCl

12) The correct structure of 2-Ethyl 4-Methyl hexa-1, 4-diene :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) I.U.P.A.C. name of compound :-

(1) 3-Bromo-4-chloro cyclohex-2-en-1-ol

(2) 5-Bromo-4-chloro cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
(3) 5-Bromo-6-chloro cyclohex-1-en-3-ol
(4) None of these

14) The IUPAC name of

(1) 4-methoxy-1-methyl chloro benzene
(2) 2-chloro-1-methoxy-4-methyl benzene
(3) 1-methoxy-2-chloro-4-methyl benzene
(4) 4-methyl-2-chloro anisole

15) Which of the following is the correct structure for 4-cyano-2, 6-dimethyl benzaldehyde ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(1) 2,2–dimethyl-4-oxohexanenitrile
(2) 4-cyano-4-methyl-2-hexanone
(3) 2-cyano-2-methyl-4-oxohexane
(4) 4-cyano-4-methyl-2-oxopentane

17) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I:-
IUPAC name of compound A is 4-methyl-1 3-dinitrobenzene:

Statement-II:-
IUPAC name of compound B is 4-ethyl-2-methylaniline.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

18) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:

(1) 5-chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
(2) 2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
(3) 3-chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
(4) 2-methyl-5-nitro-1-chlorobenzene

19) IUPAC name of following hydrocarbon (X) is:

(1) 2-Ethyl-3,6-dimethylheptane
(2) 2-Ethyl-2,6-diethylheptane
(3) 2,5,6-Trimethyloctane
(4) 3,4,7-Trimethyloctane
20) Given below are two statements
Statement-I:- IUPAC name of HO—CH2—(CH2)3—CH2—COCH3 is 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one.
Statement-II:- 2-oxoheptan-7-ol is the correct IUPAC name for above compound.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

21) Identify structure of 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) According to IUPAC system, the compound

is named as

(1) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol
(2) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
(3) Cyclohex-1-en-2-ol
(4) 1-Hydroxyhex-2-ene

23) IUPAC name of following compound (P) is:

(1) 1-Ethyl-5, 5-dimethylcyclohexane
(2) 3-Ethyl-1, 1-dimethylcyclohexane
(3) 1-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexane
(4) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane

24) The IUPAC name for the following compound is:

(1) 2, 5-dimethyl-5-carboxy-hex-3-enal
(2) 2, 5-dimethyl-6-carboxy-hex-3-enal
(3) 2, 5-dimethyl-6-oxo-hex-3-enoic acid
(4) 6-formyl-2-methyl-hex-3-enoic acid

25) The correct nomenclature for the following compound is:

(1) 4-Hydroxyhept-6-enal
(2) 4-Hydroxyhept-6-enoic acid
(3) 4-Hydroxyhept-7-enal
(4) 4-Hyxroxyhept-7-enoic acid

26) Assertion :- are metamers.

Reason :- There are different alkyl groups with respect to ketone.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

27) Which shows metamerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Minimum number of carbons to show metamerism in ketone are

(1) 3C
(2) 4C
(3) 5C
(4) 6C

29) Which are functional isomers ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) GI is shown by :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31) Statement-I :- are position isomers

Statement-II :- There is different position of methyl group.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

32) are-

(1) Conformations
(2) Position isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) not conformations

33)

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) Functional isomers

(B) (Q) Position isomers

(C) (R) Chain isomers

Correct match is
(1) A→P ; B→Q ; C→P
(2) A→P ; B→R ; C→Q
(3) A→R ; B→P ; C→Q
(4) A→Q ; B→P ; C→R

34) Which is/are correct ?

(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) b and d
(4) All

35) Which is correct statement regarding conformations of n-Butane

(1) Gauche form has minimum steric strain

(2) Staggered form has maximum torsional strain
(3) Eclipsed form has maximum steric strain and minimum torsional strain
(4) Staggered form has minimum steric strain and torsional strain both.

36) are-

(1) Conformations
(2) Position isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) not conformations
37) Statement-I :- Maximum stable conformation of Butane-2, 3-diol is

Statement-II :- is called staggered conformation

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

38) Which are incorrect pairs

(1)

are chain isomers

(2)
are geometrical isomers
(3) CH3—O—CH2—CH2—CH3 and CH3—CH2—O—CH2—CH3 are metamers
(4) All of these

39) Statement-I : are chain isomers.

Statement-II : In chain isomers PCC is different and functional group may same.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

40) Assertion (A) : are position isomers

Reason (R) : There is different position of –OH only.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

41) Number of structural isomers possible from C4H8O (only cyclic ether)

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 3

42) In which structure all halogens are in same plane

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which shows cis-trans isomerism

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3—CH=CH—COOH
(4)

44) Which are geometrical isomers

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

45) Which of the following is not an isomer of 3-methylbut-1-yne ?

(1) Pent-1-yne
(2) Buta-1, 3-diene
(3) Pent-2-yne
(4) Penta-1, 3-diene

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statements about the filament of a stamen is correct?

(1) Its distal end is attached to the thalamus or petal.

(2) Its proximal end is attached to the anther.
(3) Its proximal end is attached to the thalamus or petal.
(4) It is generally a short and broad stalk.

2) Read the following statements:

1. Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a potential pollen mother cell.
2. Microsporogenesis is the process of microspore formation from a pollen mother cell through
mitosis.
3. Microspores, once formed, are arranged in a cluster of four cells called a microspore tetrad.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) 1 and 2 only

(2) 1 and 3 only
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) 1, 2 and 3

3) Read the following statements:

1. The attachment point of the filament of a stamen (thalamus or petal) can vary, contributing to the
"large variation in size seen in nature" of stamens.
2. The process of microsporogenesis ensures that the ploidy of the potential pollen mother cell
remains same in microspore through the formation of microspores.
3. The ubiquitous occurrence of Parthenium in India, leading to pollen allergy, is a direct
consequence of its deliberate introduction for its beneficial properties.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 1 and 3 only
(4) 2 and 3 only

4) Assertion (A): A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8-nucleate but 7-celled.
Reason (R): The two polar nuclei are situated in the large central cell without being surrounded by
individual cell walls.
Choose the correct options given below-

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

5) Match column A with column B -

Column A Column B
Are typically not very colorful and do not produce
A Cleistogamous flowers I
nectar.
Often possess well-exposed stamens and large,
B Geitonogamy II
feathery stigma.
Transfer of pollen from anther to the stigma of a
C Xenogamy III
different plant of same species.
Transfer of pollen from anther to the stigma of
D Wind-pollinated flowers IV
another flower on the same plant.
E Water Pollinated Flowers V Ensures assured seed-set even without pollinators.
(1) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-V
(3) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-I, E-II
(4) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-II, E-I

6) Which of the following structures in a monocotyledonous embryo encloses the shoot apex and a
few leaf primordia?
(1) Scutellum
(2) Coleorrhiza
(3) Radicle
(4) Coleoptile

7) The gynoecium may consist of a single pistil called A. Identify A.

(1) Multicarpellary
(2) Monocarpellary
(3) Syncarpous
(4) Apocarpous

8) Generative cell of pollen grain

(1) Is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm

(2) Floats in the nucleoplasm of the vegetative cell
(3) Is diploid
(4) Is larger than vegetative cell

9) Select the correct statements among them -

(i) True fruit are developed from the ovary.
(ii) When fruit is developed from thalamus including ovary called false fruit.
(iii) True fruits are result of fertilisation.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii)

10) Pollen grains of different species show characteristic difference in :-

(1) Shape, size & colours only

(2) Exine & ploidy only
(3) Shape, size, colour and design only
(4) Ploidy only

11) Which of the following is not correct :

(1) Integument – Protection

(2) Chalaza – Main part of ovule
(3) Micropyle – Entry of pollen tube
(4) Nucellus – Mass of cells

12) Tassels of corn-corb which wave in the wind to trap pollen grains are ____and ____

(1) Stigma, Thalamus

(2) Style, Pedicle
(3) Stigma, Style
(4) Stigma, Ovary

13) Before the fertilization which event is more crucial after the gamete transfer.

(1) Microsporogenesis
(2) Megasporogenesis
(3) Pollen pistil interaction
(4) Double fertilization

14) Flower with feathery and sticky stigma, numerous light pollens, colourless petals are
characteristically :-

(1) Bird pollinated flower

(2) Bat pollinated flower
(3) Wind pollinated flower
(4) Insect pollinated flower

15) Which one of the following option gives the correct characterisation of layers of anther wall
(A,B,C) according to their nature or function :

A B C
Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum

(1) Hygroscopic Callose bands Ubisch body

(2) Protection Ephemeral Dehiscence

(3) Hygroscopic Storage of food granules Nourishes

(4) Ephemeral Nourishes Storage of food granules

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Identify P, Q, R, S in the given figure :

P Q R S
 (1) Endosperm Scutellum Radicle Fruit wall

(2) Endosperm Plumule Coleoptile Seed coat

(3) Coleoptile Scutellum Plumule Endosperm

(4) Endosperm Scutellum Plumule Aleurone layer

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Intine of pollen grain is a :-

(1) Thick, continuous layer made up of cellulose and lignin

(2) Thin, continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin
(3) Thin, discontinuous layer made up of cellulose only
(4) Thin, discontinuous layer made up of cellulose and Pectin

18) Meiosis occur in :

(1) Archesporial cell

(2) Microspore
(3) Megaspore
(4) Megaspore mother cell

19) Identify the most closely related terms in the given sets:

(1) Megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule

(2) Microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovule
(3) Megasporangium, megaspore, pollen grain, ovule
(4) Microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary

20) The pollen viability in some cereals like wheat and rice is for :-

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 30 seconds
(3) 30 Hours
(4) 30 Days

21) Statement I: Protists are eukaryotic and primarily aquatic organisms.

Statement II: All protists are photosynthetic in nature.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.
22) Statement I: Fungi reproduce only asexually through spores.
Statement II: Some fungi also reproduce sexually via gamete fusion and meiosis.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

23) Statement I: Red tides occur due to the excessive multiplication of Chrysophytes.
Statement II: Red tides are often caused by the red dinoflagellates.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

24) Statement I: Sporozoans like Plasmodium do not have locomotory structures and exhibit an
infectious spore-like stage in their life cycle.
Statement II: Plasmodium moves actively using flagella during its entire life cycle.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

25) Read the following statements and select the correct ones among them :
I. Fungi are exclusively autotrophic in nature.
II. Fungi can reproduce by vegetative, asexual, and sexual means.
III. The dikaryophase is found in some fungi like basidiomycetes.
IV. Mainly fungal cell walls are made of cellulose.
V. Yeast is a multicellular fungus.

(1) II, III

(2) I, IV, V
(3) II, III, IV
(4) I, II, V

26) Read the following statements and select the correct ones among them:
I. Slime moulds are parasitic protists.
II. Under favourable conditions, slime moulds form an aggregation called plasmodium.
III. Slime mould spores are dispersed by air currents and have resistant walls.
IV. Slime moulds are prokaryotic in nature.
V. Plasmodium formed by slime moulds is a static, rigid structure.

(1) I, II, IV
(2) II, III
(3) I, IV, V
(4) III, IV, V

27) Read the following statements and select the correct ones among them:
I. Chrysophytes include diatoms and desmids.
II. Diatoms possess cell walls made of cellulose.
III. Diatoms leave behind gritty deposits known as diatomaceous earth.
IV. Diatomaceous earth is used in polishing and filtration industries.
V. Desmids are multicellular organisms.

(1) I, III, IV
(2) II, IV, V
(3) I, II, IV
(4) III, IV, V

28) Assertion (A): Euglenoids are considered both autotrophic and heterotrophic.
Reason (R): Euglenoids lack chloroplasts and hence depend entirely on external food sources.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect.

29) Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct answer for it.

Column-I Column-II

I. Diatoms A. Pellicle present

II. Dinoflagellates B. Red tides

III. Euglenoids C. Siliceous cell wall

IV. Slime moulds D. Plasmodium formation

(1) I–C, II–B, III–A, IV–D
(2) I–B, II–C, III–D, IV–A
(3) I–A, II–D, III–B, IV–C
(4) I–D, II–A, III–C, IV–B

30) Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct answer for it.

Column-I Column-II

I. Basidiomycetes A. Only asexual reproduction

II. Ascomycetes B. Conidia in ascus

III. Deuteromycetes C. Mushrooms and smuts

IV. Phycomycetes D. Aseptate, coenocytic hyphae

(1) I–A, II–B, III–C, IV–D
(2) I–B, II–C, III–A, IV–D
(3) I–C, II–B, III–A, IV–D
(4) I–D, II–B, III–A, IV–C

31) Steps in sexual reproduction of phycomycetes are -

(1) Plasmogamy
(2) Karyogamy
(3) Meiosis
(4) All of these

32) Aflatoxins is a type of carcinogenic substance produce by fungi which is member of-

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Phycomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

33) Which fungal class includes the common bread mould Rhizopus?

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Phycomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

34) Bovine pleuropneumonia disease is caused by ?

(1) Rickettsia
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Virus
(4) Lactobacillus

35) Which class of fungi is called "imperfect fungi" due to absence of sexual reproduction?

(1) Basidiomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Phycomycetes

36) Which protist is shown in the figure with cilia and an oral groove?
(1) Amoeba
(2) Euglena
(3) Plasmodium
(4) Paramoecium

37) Identify this common edible fungus?

(1) Aspergillus
(2) Rhizopus
(3) Agaricus
(4) Puccinia

38) Statement 1: Mushrooms, puffballs, and smuts belong to basidiomycetes.

Statement 2: Basidiomycetes reproduce mainly through conidia.

(1) Both statements are correct, and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(2) Both statements are correct, but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

39) Coenocytic mycelium is found in :-

(1) Rhizopus
(2) Mucor
(3) Penicillium
(4) Both (1) and (2)

40) Which of the following is a parasite on mustard?

(1) Albugo
(2) Puccinia
(3) Yeast
(4) Ustilago

41) Statement 1: Amoeboid protozoans use pseudopodia for movement.

Statement 2: Pseudopodia are flagella used for photosynthesis.

(1) Both statements are correct, and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(2) Both statements are correct, but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

42) Statement 1: Yeast is a multicellular member of ascomycetes.

Statement 2: All fungi are multicellular organisms.

(1) Both statements are correct, and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(2) Both statements are correct, but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

43) Statement 1: Slime moulds can form a large, multinucleated, moving mass called plasmodium.
Statement 2: Plasmodium is the spore of slime moulds used for reproduction.

(1) Both statements are correct, and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(2) Both statements are correct, but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

44) I. It includes unicellular as well as multicellular fungi.

II. In multicellular forms hyphae are branched and septate.
III. Conidiophore producers conidia (spores) exogenously in chain.
IV. Sexual spore are ascospores produced endogenously in ascus.
These all characters are shown by :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Sac fungi
(3) Club fungi
(4) Fungi imperfecti

45) Identify the following in sequence :-

(1) Mucor, Trypanosoma

(2) Mucor, Aspergillus
(3) Agaricus, Puccinia
(4) Albugo, Euglena

46) Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given -

Column-I Column-II
A Saprophytic protists i Trypanosoma
B Golden algae ii Plasmodium
C Malarial parasite iii Desmids
Sleeping sickness is
D iv Slime moulds
caused by
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i

47) Which of the following is not 'sac fungi' ?

(1) Morels
(2) Truffles
(3) Mushrooms
(4) Claviceps

48) Assertion: Alternaria solani cause early blight of potato.

Reason: Phytophthora infestans cause late blight of potato.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

49) Given below are two statements :

Statement-1 :- Mushrooms are the commonly known examples of basidiomycetes.
Statement-2 :- Fungus grow on dung are known as coprophilous fungi.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statement-I and II both are correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

50) Find the incorrect statement about fungi -

(1) They show a great diversity in morphology and habitats.

(2) Fungi are cosmopolitan and occur in air, water, soil and as parasites too.
(3) Dikaryophase occur in Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes.
(4) Rhizopus belongs to group basidiomycetes.

51)

Match the column :-

 Column-I Column-II

A. Diatoms (i) Cell wall less

B. Mycoplasma (ii) Indestructible cell wall

C. Blue-green algae (iii) Pellicle

D. Euglena (iv) Peptidoglycanic cell wall

(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)
(2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (iii)
(3) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)
(4) A - (i), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (ii)

52) Find incorrect match with respect to possession of nucleic acid material by viruses :-

(1) Plant virus – usually ss-RNA

(2) Animal virus – ds-DNA/ss-RNA/ds-RNA
(3) Plant virus – usually ds-DNA
(4) Bacteriophages – usually ds-DNA

53)

Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

A Chief producers in the oceans 1 Diatoms

B Bioluminescence 2 Dinoflagellates

C Connecting link between plants and animals 3 Euglenoids

D Physarum 4 Slime moulds

(1) A - 2 B-3 C-4 D-1
(2) A - 1 B-2 C-3 D-4
(3) A - 3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(4) A - 4 B-1 C-2 D-3

54) Identify the given figure and select the correct statements regarding it ?

(i) Paramoecium, mixotrophic nutrition.

(ii) Euglena, one functional flagellum.
(iii) Euglena, pigments identical to higher plants.
(iv) Paramoecium, ciliated protozoan.

(1) (i) & (iv)

(2) only (i)
(3) only (iii)
(4) (ii) & (iii)

55) How many of the following are not sexual spores formed by fungi.
Oospore, Zoospore, Ascospores, Conidia, basidiospores, Aplanospore, Zygospore :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

56) Which of the following pair of spore are endogenous in origin :-

(1) Conidia and zoospore

(2) Ascospore and basidiospore
(3) Sporangiospore and ascospore
(4) None of these

57) The cell wall of fungi are composed of :-

(1) Chitin and cellulose

(2) Cellulose and polysaccharides
(3) Chitin and polysaccharides
(4) Chitin, polysaccharides and Glycogen

58) How many of the following statements are correct:-

(A) Protists reproduce asexually and sexually and have flagella or cilia.
(B) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
(C) The cell wall of dinoflagellates has stiff silicated plates on outer surface.
(D) Diatoms float passively with water currents
(E) The pigments of euglenoids are identical to those present in higher plants.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

59) An infectious agent that is smaller than virus, made up of only low molecular weight RNA and
does not have protein coat, it is :-

(1) Viroid
(2) Virion
(3) Prion
(4) Virus

60) Lichens are :-

(1) Made up of phycobiont and mycobiont
(2) Found in polluted areas
(3) Placed in kingdom-plantae according to the R.H. Whittaker
(4) All of these

61) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

i Bacilli a Spherical

ii Soap box b Virus

iii Plasmodium c Diatoms

Inert crystalline structure

iv d Favourable condition
outside the living cell

e Unfavorable condition

f Rod-shaped
(1) i-f, ii-c, iii-e, iv-b
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-e, iv-b
(3) i-f, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(4) i-f, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b

62) Two kingdom system that include all plants and animals, that did not distinguish between.
(a) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(b) Multicellular and unicellular.
(c) Green algae and fungi.
(d) Photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic.

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

63) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

i Monera a Unicellular, Prokaryotes

ii Fungi b Organ system level of body organisation

iii Protista c Cell wall is absent in some member

iv Plantae d loose tissue level of body organisation

v Animalia e Photosynthetic mode of nutrition

(1) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-e, v-b
(2) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-e, v-b
(3) i-c, ii-b, iii-c, iv-e, v-d
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-e, v-d

64) Diatomaceous earth is used for all except :-

(1) Polishing
(2) Filteration of oils and syrups
(3) Making sound proof rooms
(4) Biogas production

65) Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (A, B, C, D)

correctly identified.

A B C D

Tail
(1) Head Collar Sheath
fibres

(2) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath

Tail
(3) Sheath Collar Head
fibres

Tail
(4) Sheath Head Collar
fibres
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) Who among the following called the extract of infected plant as “Contagium vivum fluidum” :-

(1) Ivanowsky
(2) Posteur
(3) Beijerinck
(4) Stanley

67) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

i Thermoacidophiles a Endogenously

ii Heterocysts b Exogenously
 iii Chief producers c Diatoms

iv Ascospores d Hot-spring

e Nostoc
(1) i-d, ii-e, iii-c, iv-b
(2) i-e, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
(3) i-d, ii-e, iii-c, iv-a
(4) i-a, ii-e, iii-b, iv-d

68) Which statements are wrong with respect to Euglenoids.

(a) Mostly found in fresh water.
(b) It has two flagella of equal length.
(c) Pellicle in cell wall makes their body flexible.
(d) They are photosynthetic.

(1) Only (c)

(2) (a), (d)
(3) (b), (c)
(4) (b), (d)

69) The protozoan which is parasitic having flagella and cause sleeping sickness is :-

(1) Entamoeba
(2) Trypanosoma
(3) Paramoecium
(4) Plasmodium

70) Dinoflagelletes have.

(a) Cell wall stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface.
(b) Form diatomaceous earth.
(c) Red dinoflagelletes i.e Gonyaulax.
(d) Causes red tide.
How many statement(s) is/are not incorrect for dinoflagelletes.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

71) Assertion : Bacteria also reproduces by sort of sexual reproduction by adopting a primitive type
of DNA transfer from one bacterium to another.
Reason : Cholera, typhoid, tetanus are caused by bacteria.

(1) Both assertion reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Only assertion is correct.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.

72) Mycoplasma are a member of bacteria which have -

(1) Cell wall outside the plasma membrane.

(2) Pathogenic activity in plants only.
(3) No mechanism for survival without oxygen.
(4) No effect of antibiotics like penicillin.

73) Statement-I : In phycomycetes asexual reproduction take place by zoospores or aplanospores.

Statement-II : Colletotrichum is known as imperfect fungi because only the asexual or vegetative
phases of these fungi are known.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

74) The mycelium of deuteromycetes is :

(1) Aseptate and branched

(2) Aseptate and unbranched
(3) Septate and branched
(4) Septate and unbranced.

75) Which statement is wrong among them.

(1) Basidiomycetes grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps.

(2) Sexual spores of Puccinia are endogenous.
(3) In Basidiomycetes fruiting bodies is called as basidiocarps.
(4) Sex organs in basidiomycetes are generally absent.

76) Select the correct one among them.

(1) Agaricus - Mushroom

(2) Alternaria - Smut
(3) Aspergillus - Parasitic fungi on mustard
(4) Mucor - Rust fungus

77) Which fungus is used most extensively for biochemical and genetic work.

(1) Claviceps
(2) Neurospora
(3) Rhizopus
(4) Albugo
78) The Ascomycetes are :-

(1) Saprophytic
(2) Decomposers
(3) Parasitic or coprophilous
(4) All of the these

79) Assertion :- In earlier classification Chlamydomonas and Chlorella were placed in algae with
plants now placed in kingdom protista.
Reason :- This kind of changes will take place in future too depending on the improvement in our
understanding of characteristics and evolutionary relationships.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

80) Statement-I : In ascomycetes and basidiomycetes an intervening dikaryotic stage (n + n)

occurs.
Statement-II : In the fruiting bodies of fungi pericarp is differentiated into three layers.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect only
(4) Statement-I is correct only

81) Assertion : White spots seen on mustard leaves are due to a parasitic fungi.
Reason : Those fungi that depend on living plants and animals are called parasites.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

82) Statement I: In binomial nomenclature, the first word denotes the genus, and the second word
denotes the species.
Statement II: In the binomial name Mangifera indica, indica denotes the genus.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

83) Match the following organisms with their respective Class:

Column A (Organism) Column B (Class)

 A. Housefly i. Insecta

B. Mango ii. Dicotyledonae

C. Man iii. Mammalia

D. Wheat iv. Monocotyledonae

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

84) Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Phylum → Kingdom

Which of the following statements is true about the pattern in this hierarchy?

(1) The number of shared characteristics increases as we move from species to kingdom.
(2) Species is the broadest category and kingdom the narrowest.
(3) Similarities decrease as we move from species to kingdom.
(4) Genus includes several unrelated species.

85) Assertion (A): Scientific names are written in italics and are generally in Latin.
Reason (R): Latin was a universal language during the time of Linnaeus.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

86) Assertion (A): Species is the basic unit of classification in the taxonomic hierarchy.
Reason (R): A genus can have multiple species with similar morphological features.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

87) Assertion (A): The family Felidae includes animals like lions, tigers, and cats.
Reason (R): Members of the same family share a higher number of similarities than members of the
same genus.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

88) Assertion (A): Classification helps in the study of organisms by grouping them based
on similarities.
Reason (R): Classification avoids confusion caused by local names of organisms.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

89) Assertion (A): Systematics includes classification, nomenclature, and identification.

Reason (R): Systematics deals only with the external morphology of organisms.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

90) Statement 1: Binomial nomenclature was introduced by Ernst Mayr.

Statement 2: Binomial nomenclature uses two names – the genus and the specific epithet.

(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct

(2) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 4 2 1 1 3 2 4 2 1 2 3 1 2 4 4 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 1 4 4 2 4 3 3 2 1 1 1 1 1 3 3 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 1 2 2 2 3 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 1 4 4 2 3 4 2 4 2 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 3 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 1 1 4 2 1 4 3 2 3 3 3 3 4 2 4 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 4 3 1 2 1 3 1 3 4 1 3 2 3 4 3 3 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 4 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 2 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 2 3 4 4 1 3 2 1 2 4 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 1 3 2 2 3 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining : Find least count of vernier callipers

Concept : This question is based on L.C. = 1 MSD - 1 VSD
MSD Main Scale Division
VSD Vernier Scale Division
Solution :
20 VSD = 18 MSD

LC = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

= 0.1 mm
Final Answer : (1)

2) Explaining : Find reading of screw gauge

Concept :
Reading = (n × pitch + f × L.C.)
n = main scale reading
f = circular scale reading
Solution :
n=3
pitch = 1mm
f = 30
L.C. = 0.01 mm
Reading = 3×1mm + 30×0.01 mm = 3.30 mm
Final Answer : (1)

3) Explaining : Reading of Screw guage

Concept :
Reading = (n × pitch + f × L.C.)
n = Main Scale reading
f = Circular Scale reading
Solution :

Least count = = .01 mm

diameter of wire = 0 + 42 (.01) = 0.42 mm
= 0.042 cm
Final Answer : (4)

4) Explaining : Final thickness of a thin sheet using screw guage

Concept :
Reading = (n×pitch) + (f×L.C.) - Z.E.
Solution :

Z.E. = + (5×0.01) = +0.05 mm

Reading = (3 × 2) + (46 × 0.01) - 0.05
Reading = 6.41 mm
Final Answer : (2)

5) 1. Asking About:
The problem requires determining the measurement displayed by the Vernier calipers.
2. Concept:
A Vernier caliper has a main scale and a Vernier scale. The measurement is determined by:
• Main Scale Reading (MSR): The value just before the O mark of the Vernier scale on the
main scale.
• Vernier Scale Reading (VSR): The Vernier scale division that aligns perfectly with any
division on the main scale.
• Least Count (LC): The smallest measurable value, given as 0.01 cm in this problem.
Total Reading is calculated as:
Total Reading= MSR + (VSR x LC)
3. Formula:
Total Reading= MSR + (VSR x LC)
4; Solution / Explanation:
• From the diagram:
• Main Scale Reading (MSR) =·2.7 cm (value just before the 0 mark on the Vernier scale).
• The Vernier Scale Reading (VSR) corresponds to the 4th division on the Vernier scale that
aligns perfectly with the main scale divisions.
• Least Count {LC) = 0.01 cm.
Substituting these values into the formula:
Total Reading = 2. 7 + (4 x 0.01)
Total-Reading= 2.7 + 0.04 = 2.74cm
5. Final Answer:
The correct reading is 2.74 cm (Option 1).

6) Explaining : Given - Three discrete paint charges on a line

AKS → Net force on third charge due to remaining two-
Concept : This question is based on

key- (1)
(2) superposition principle

(3) Approximation for x << a

Solution :
For very small x << a as given in question.
=
Since a2 – b2 (a – b) (a + b)

for x < < a.

Final Answer : (1)

7) Explaining : Given - A charged conductor

ASk - Field just out side the conductor

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

Resultant field near surface of conductor is .

Final Answer : (3)

8) Explaining : Given : Net electric field on two sides of large non conducting sheet.
Ask : charge density on the sheet.
Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

E0 – E = 8
E0 + E = 12
∴ 2E = 4

σ = 4ε0
Final Answer : (2)

9) Explaining : Given : 'q' is placed at the center of the surface of a cuboid.

ASK : Flux through a particular surface.

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

Flux passing through shaded face =

Final Answer : (4)

10) Explaining : Given- 'q' is placed at the corner of a cube

ASK → Flux through a shaded area.

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
flux through cube =
flux through surfaces ABEH, ADGH, ABCD will be zero

ϕ (EFGH) = ϕ (DCFG) = ϕ (EBCF) = =

Final Answer : (2)

11) Explaining : Given : Four discrete point charges

AKS : Direction of net force on 5th point charge.
Concept : This question is based on
(1)
(2)
Solution :
When all are positive net field is along +y axis
P→3

when Q1, Q2 positive Q3, Q4 negative

Q→1

When Q1, Q4 positive and Q2, Q3 negative

R→4

Final Answer : (1)

12)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking for the strength of an electric field that would
exert a force on an electron equal in magnitude to the electron's weight (gravitational force
acting on it). Essentially, it wants to find the electric field where the electric force balances the
electron's weight.
Underlying Concept: The problem involves the concept of forces acting on charged particles.
Two main forces are considered here: gravitational force (weight) and electric force. The
gravitational force acting on the electron is due to its mass and gravity, while the electric force
arises from the electron's charge in an electric field. By equating these two forces, we can find
the electric field strength required to balance the weight.

Relevant Formulas: The key formulas used are:

Weight (gravitational force) on electron:

Electric force on electron in an electric field:

where = mass of electron, = acceleration due to gravity, = charge on electron, and =
electric field strength.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Write the gravitational force acting on the electron as

. 2. Write the electric force on electron as . 3. Set these forces

equal to balance the electron's weight: 4. Solve for the electric field :
This means the required electric field strength is .

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the force exerted by an electric field on a charge is simply
the product of the charge magnitude and the electric field strength. Also, keep track of units
and signs - the magnitude question means only absolute values are considered.

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is mixing up the variables or not equating the forces
correctly. For example, some might write instead of , which leads to
incorrect results.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like 'mge' incorrectly multiply all terms instead
of dividing by the charge. 'e/mg' and 'e^{2} g/2m' do not properly represent the balancing
condition between electric and gravitational forces, so they are incorrect.

13)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which type of electric field causes a proton to follow a
curved or parabolic path shown in the image. It involves understanding how the electric field
affects the motion of a charged particle.

Underlying Concept: A proton, being positively charged, experiences a force when placed in
an electric field, given by . A uniform electric field exerts a constant force perpendicular
to the proton's initial velocity, causing it to accelerate in that direction and follow a curved,
parabolic trajectory similar to projectile motion under gravity.

Relevant Formulas: where is the force on the charge, is the charge of the proton,
and is the electric field vector.
Tips and Tricks: Remember that uniform electric fields have parallel and equally spaced field
lines, and they cause constant acceleration of charged particles in a direction perpendicular to
their initial motion.

Common Mistakes: Assuming the electric field is non-uniform or not constant, which would
produce non-parabolic or erratic trajectories. Another mistake is confusing electric force
direction with magnetic force effects.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options showing non-uniform or radial electric fields
would not produce a smooth parabolic trajectory because the force magnitude and direction
change, causing irregular motions, unlike the uniform field scenario.

14)

When two objects are rubbed against each other, they undergo triboelectric charging, where :
One object gains electrons – becomes negatively charged (– q)
The other object loses electrons – becomes positively charged (+ q)
Since they acquire opposite charges, they will experience an attractive force due to
electrostatic interaction.

According Coulomb's Law, the electrostatic force between two point charges is

F=
where :
k is Coulomb's constant,
q1 and q2 are the charges on the objects,
r is the separation distance.
since q1 and q2 are of opposite signs, the force is attractive.
As per given condition, one object is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
Opposite charges always attract, meaning the nature of the force is attractive.

Correct Answer is 1

15) Explaining : Given : Two identical sphere having different charge on it exerts a force F1
ASK : New force if they are brought in contact and separated
Concept : This question is based on

(1)

(2)
Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

16) Explain : The question asks how the electric field varies with distance r from an infinitely
large conducting sheet, focusing on its proportional relationship.
Concept : For an infinite conducting sheet, the electric field is uniform and does not depend
on distance from the sheet due to tis symmetry and infinite size.
Formula :

E= for a conducting sheet

(σ = surface charge density ε0 = vacuum permittivity)
Calculation : Since E is independent of r, the electric field remains constant at all points
away from the sheet.
Final Correct Ans. option (4)

17) Question explain

A uniformly charged solid sphere generates an electric field that varies inside and outside it.
We need to find the electric field as a function of distance
from the center.
Concept based
Use Gauss's Law. Inside the sphere, only charge enclosed within radius r contributes. Outside,
the whole charge acts as if concentrated at the center.
Formula used

Inside:

Outside:
Calculation

For r < R , use charge enclosed in radius r : Qenc =

Apply Gauss's Law to get

For field is like point charge:

Final Answer option (4)
(1) and (2) both

18) Explaining : Given : A cube is placed inside an electric field

ASK : Charge inside the cube.
Concept : This question is based on

Key : (1) ϕ =

(2) ϕC.S =
Solution :
As electric field is in y-direction so electric flux is
only due to top and bottom surface
Bottom surface y = 0
⇒E=0⇒ϕ=0
Top surface y = 0.5 m

⇒ E = 150 (.5)2 =

Now flux ϕ = EA =

By Gauss’s law

× 10–11 C
Option (2)
Final Answer : (2)

19) Explaining : Given - Two charges q1 & q2 separated by distance d

ASK - Separation if it is placed in a medium to experience the same amount of force.
Concept : This question is based on

Key - (1)

(2) Fmedium = where K = dielectric constant.

Solution :

F = FAir

Final Answer : (1)

20) Explaining : Given : Three uniformly charged solid sphere

ASK : Electric field at different location.
Concept : This question is based on
Key :

Solution :
E2 > E1 > E3
Final Answer : (3)

21) Explaining : Calculate time of collision.

Concept : This question is based on when relative acceleration is zero then for the collision of
two particles the direction of relative velocity is along the line joining of particles.
Solution :
along the joining line
VBA = 30 m/s

t= =7s
Final Answer : (3)

22) Explaining : Find height of balloon from ground

Concept : This question is based on When particle is dropped from moving object then its
initial velocity is equal to velocity of moving object at the instant of drop.
Solution :

S = 10(7) – (10) (7)2

S = 70 – 5(49)
S = –175

Final Answer : (4)

23) Explaining :
Concept : This question is based on when relative acceleration is zero it means velocity of 1
object with respect to other is constant.
Solution : when relative - velocity is constant then path of 1 w.r.t. other is straight line.
Final Answer : (1)

24) Explaining : Find distance

Concept : Apply 3rd equation of motion
V2 = U2 + 2as
Solution :
V2 = U2 + 2as
O = U2 – 2as
Final Answer : (4)

25) Explaining : Select incorrect statement

Concept :
Solution :
(1) slop of x-t graph is velocity if velocity is constant then acceleration is zero.
(2) At top most point of vertical motion under gravity v = 0 but a = g
(3) For constant velocity, | average vel | = average speed
(4) If velocity & acceleration both have opposite sign the speed reduces.
Final Answer : (4)

26) Explaining : Find time taken by coin to reach at floor

Concept : This question is based on Apply concept of relative motion
Solution :

t= = 2 sec
Final Answer : (2)

27) Explaining : Calculate height of 2nd drop from ground.

Concept : Apply galileo's law of odd numbers
Solution :

9x = 18
x = 2m
from ground height of second drop = 5x
= 5 × 2 = 10 m
Final Answer : (4)

28) Explaining : Calculate horizontal range (x)

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
Final Answer : (3)

29) Explaining : Match the column

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

= 4 sec.

= 20 m

=8m
& Hz. velocity remains constant.
Final Answer : (3)

30) Explaining : Find magnitude of their relative velocity

Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

= = 6 m/s
Final Answer : (2)

31) Explaining : Calculate the time after which the balls will cross rach-other
Concept : This question is based on when arel = O then apply

Solution :
Srel = 50 m
Urel = 100 m/s
arel = 0

Final Answer : (1)

32) Explaining : Find the ratio

Concept : This question is based on S = Ut +

&
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

33) Explaining : Find speed of particle at highest point of trajectory

Concept : This question is based on at highest point of parabolic trajectory vertical
component of velocity become zero only horizont component of velocity will be present.
Solution :

θ = 30° from horizontal

At highest point speed = U cos θ
= U cos 30°

=
=
Final Answer : (1)

34) Explaining : Calculate height h

Concept : This question is based on time of flight T = tA + tD =

& apply S = Ut +
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

35) Explaining : Select the correct option

Concept : This question is based on when two particles are projected with same speed at
complementary angles of projection then range attained by both is same
Solution :
when two particles are projected with same speed at complementary angles of projection then
range attained by both is same
Final Answer : (1)

36) Explaining : Find average fore

Concept : This question is based on F = Nmv [N = number of bullets/sec]
Solution :
F = Nmν
= 4 × 20 × 10–3 × 300
= 24 N
Final Answer : (3)

37) Explaining : Find magnitude of change in momentum

Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
Since there is no resistance, the trajectory of motion will be parabolic, and as a result, the
angle of projection will be equal to the angle of striking the ground. Also, we know that the
horizontal component of velocity remains unaffected throughout the motion. So, it will not
contribute to the change in momentum. The components contributing to the change in
momentum will be the vertical components.
Initial vertical momentum component is mv sin45° (upwards) and the final vertical momentum
component is mv sin45°(downwards) .
Change in momentum (downwards) –2 mv sin45°
Final Answer : (3)

38) Explaining : Select correct statement

Concept : Conceptual
Solution :
It is not mentioned that time taken by particle to move from o to speed v and speed v to rest is
same. So it is not clear that F1 & F2 must be equal.
Final Answer : (2)

39) Explaining : Find Impulse at t = 4 sec.

Concept : This question is based on
& slope of x - t graph gives velocity
Solution :
velocity just before 4 sec = 0 m/s
velocity just before 4 sec = tan (–θ)
= – tan θ

= – 20 m/s

Final Answer : (2)

[Link]

40) Explaining : Calculate rectangular component of velocity

Concept : This question is based on If

Solution :
V = 80 km/h, If Vx = 40 km/h
but ⇒ 802 = 402 +
⇒
⇒ = 69.28 km/h
Final Answer : (2)

41) Explaining : Calculate work done

Concept : This question is based on work done ⇒
= force
= Displacement
Solution :

=(4 × 11 × 1 × 11 + 3 × 15) = 100 J

Final Answer : (1)

42) Explaining : Find value of

Concept : This question is based on magnitude of resultant =
& = AB cosθ
 = AB sinθ
Solution :

AB AB cos θ ⇒
∴ θ = 60°
Now,

= = (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2
Final Answer : (4)

43) Explaining : Match the column

Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

(I)

(II)

(III) =3

(IV) =5
Final Answer : (1)

44) Explaining : Find unit vector

Concept : This question is based on, Let vector is
So its unit vector is defined as

Solution :

Unit vector = =

=
Final Answer : (1)

45) Explaining : Find angle between two vector

Concept : This question is based on for addition of two vector are can apply triangle law of
vector addition
Solution :

the angle between is adian

 Final Answer : (3)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explaining : Possible set of quantum no. ?

Concept : This question is based on n → 1 to
ℓ → 0 to n–1
m → –ℓ to +ℓ
s = +1/2 or –1/2
Solution : Value of m cannot be less than –2
Final Answer : (2)

47)

Explaining : The following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbital n = 3, ℓ = 2,
m = +2 ?
Concept : This question is based on ℓ → 0 to n–1
m → –ℓ to +ℓ
n, ℓ , m assigned to only one orbital.
Solution : One orbital.
Final Answer : (1)

48)

Explaining : The number of spherical nodes in 3p orbitals are

Concept : This question is based on No. of spherical mode = n–ℓ–1
for 3p : n = 3 ; ℓ = 1
no. of radial mode = 3 – 1 – 1 = 1
Solution : -
Final Answer : (1)

49)

Explaining : The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l :

(A) n = 4, l = 1
(B) n = 4, l = 0
(C) n = 3, l = 2
(D) n = 3, l = 1
can be placed in order of increasing energy as :
Concept : This question is based on Higher the n+ℓ, higher the energy level, if n+ℓ is same
then higher the n, higher the energy.
(D) 3+1=4 < (B) 4+0=4 < (C) 3+2=5 < (A) 4+1=5
Solution : (D) < (B) < (C) < (A)
Final Answer : (2)

50)

Explaining : Analyse graph

Concept : This question is based on Point of intersection at x–axis is radial node but origin
should not considered as node.

Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

51)

Explaining : The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle is violated is :

Concept : This question is based on, firstly lower energy level filled, then electrons move to
higher energy level (Aufbau principle)
In option - (1) (Hund's rule violation)
(2) Aufbau principle (2s filled before 2p)

Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

52)

Explaining : Definition
Concept : This question is based on-
Pauli's Rule – No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers
Aufbau Rule – In the ground state of atoms, orbitals are filled in the order of their increasing
energies.
Hund's Rule – Pairing of electrons in the Principle orbitals belonging to the same subshell does
not take place until each orbital is singly occupied.
Heisenberg's principle – It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum
of a subatomic particle simultaneously.
Solution : A – (r), B – (t), C – (p), D – (s)
Final Answer : (3)

53)

Explaining : me = 9.1×10–31 kg ; V = 600 m/s ; ΔV = 0.005 %

Δx = ? ΔV = = 0.03 m/s
Concept : This question is based on m.ΔV.Δx = ;
9.1 × 10 × 0.03 × Δx 0.527 × 10
–31 –34

Solution : Δx = 0.527 × 10–34 / (9.1 × 10–31 × 0.03) = 1.93×10–3 m

Final Answer : (2)

54)

Explaining : Definition
Concept : This question is based on
n → energy of shell and size.
ℓ → shape of orbital
m → orientation of orbital
s → spin of electron
Solution : A–(q), B–(s), C–(p), D–(r)
Final Answer : (1)

55)

Explaining : Hund's rule.

Concept : This question is based on according to Hund's rule, pairing should not be done in
degenerated orbitals. all such orbitals are half filled with same spin.
Solution : Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Final Answer : (1)

56)

Explaining : Identify correct order of functional group.

Concept : This question is based on priority of functional group.
Solution :
—SO3H > —COCl > —CONH2 > —CN
Final Answer : (2)

57)

Explaining : Correct structure of given name.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC name of hydrocarbon.
Solution :

2-Ethyl-4-methyl hexa-1,4 diene

Final Answer : (1)

58)

Explaining : Identify correct name of given compound.

Concept : This question is based on Numbering of substituent.
Solution :

5-Bromo-4-chlorocyclohex-2-en-1-ol
Final Answer : (2)

59)

Explaining : Correct IUPAC name.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC naming of hydrocarbon.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

60)

Explaining : Identify correct structure.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC naming of aromatic compound.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

61)

Explaining : Correct IUPAC name.

Concept : This question is based on priority of functional group.
Solution :

is 2,2-dimethyl-4-oxopentanenitrile.
Final Answer : (1)

62)

Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC naming of aromatic compound.
Solution :
Statement-1 is incorrect

Correct IUPAC name is 1-methyl-2, 4-dinitrobenzene.

Final Answer : (2)

63)

Explaining : Correct IUPAC name.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC naming of aromatic compound.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

64)

Explaining : Correct IUPAC name.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC naming of hydrocarbon.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

65)

Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on naming of functional group.
Solution :
7-Hydroxyheptan-2-one is correct IUPAC name.
Final Answer : (1)

66)

Explaining : Correct structure of given name.

Concept : This question is based on selection of PCC.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

67)

Explaining : Correct IUPAC name.

Concept : This question is based on numbering of PCC..
Solution :
The given compound has a six-membered ring with a double bond and a hydroxyl group.

IUPAC Name = cyclohex-2-en-1-ol.

Final Answer : (2)

68)

Explaining : Correct IUPAC name.

Concept : This question is based on numbering of PCC.
Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

69)

Explaining : Correct IUPAC name.

Concept : This question is based on priority of functional group.
Solution :

2,5-dimethyl-6-oxo-hex-3-enoic acid
Final Answer : (3)

70)

Explaining : Identify correct IUPAC name.

Concept : This question is based on more than two functional group.
Solution :

4-Hydroxyhept-6-enoic acid
Final Answer : (2)

71)

Explaining : Assertion-reason type question.

Concept : This question is based on metamerism.

Solution :
Compound which have same M.F. same functional group but different alkyl group attached to
polyvalent functional group are called metamer.
Final Answer : (1)

72)

Explaining : Identify the compound which show metamerism.

Concept : This question is based on different alkyl group attached to polyvalent functional
group.
Solution :
Different alkyl group around polyvalent functional group.

Final Answer : (3)

73)

Explaining : No. of carbon atom to show metamerism.

Concept : This question is based on metamerism.
Solution :

Minimum 5 carbon are required to show metamerism in ketone.

Final Answer : (3)

74)

Explaining : Identify correct relation.

Concept : This question is based on functional group isomer.
Solution :

Both same M.F. and degree of unsaturation.

Final Answer : (4)

75)

Explaining : Which compound show G.I.

Concept : This question is based on condition of G.I.
Solution :

(1)
2 sp3 carbon have 2 different group in a ring so it show G.I

(2)
No G.I.

(3) will not show G.I

Minimum two sp³ carbon having different group are required so show G.I

(4)
No, G.I. Minimum two sp3 carbon required with different group.
Final Answer : (1)

76)

Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on position isomers.

Solution :
∴ Both compound are identical.
Final Answer : (4)

77)

Explaining : Relation between compound.

Concept : This question is based on conformation based.

Solution : Conformation of
Final Answer : (4)

78)
Explaining : Column based question.
Concept : This question is based on Functional, position and chain isomers.
Solution :

A. → Functional isomers

B. → Chain isomers

C. → Position isomers
Final Answer : (2)

79)

Explaining : Correct matching between molecules.

Concept : This question is based on definition.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

80)

Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on conformation definitation.
Solution :
Final Answer : (4)

81)

Explaining : Relation between compound.

Concept : This question is based on position isomers.
Solution :

Both are position isomers.

Final Answer : (2)

82)

Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on stability of conformer.

Solution :
Intramolecular H-bonding and minimum repulsion in between two –CH3

Final Answer : (4)

83)

Explaining : Identify incorrect pair.

Concept : This question is based on relation between compounds.
Solution :

(1)
Both are chain isomer.

(2)
Both are different compounds.
(3) CH3—O—CH2—CH2—CH3 and CH3—CH2—O—CH2—CH3
Both are metamers.
Final Answer : (2)

84)

Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on chain isomerism.
Solution :

Both are identical, because same chain length and molecular formula.
Final Answer : (4)

85)

Explaining : Assertion-Reason type question.

Concept : This question is based on position isomer relation.
Solution :

Different position of —OH group and double bond.

Final Answer : (3)

86)

Explaining : No. of structural isomer.

Concept : This question is based on total no. of structural isomer of cyclic ether.
Solution :
Total = 6
Final Answer : (1)

87)

Explaining : Which structure have all halogen atom same plane.

Concept : This question is based on planarity of compound.
Solution :

(1)
Maximum 3 atom in are plane

(2)
Not all halogen in same plane.

(3)
All halogen in same plane.
Final Answer : (3)

88)

Explaining : Identify which can show cis-trans isomerism.

Concept : This question is based on connectivity of group or atom connected to double bonds.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

89)

Explaining : Identify geometrical isomer.

Concept : This question is based on relation between G.I.
Solution :
 (1)
Both are different compound.

(2)
Both are different compound.

(3)
Both are G.I.
Final Answer : (3)

90)

Explaining : Identify correct isomer.

Concept : This question is based on Molecular formula and Degree of unsaturation.
Solution :
1, 3-Butadiene (CH2=CHCH=CH2) has only four carbon atoms while all others have five carbon
atoms.
Final Answer : (2)

BIOLOGY

91) Explaining :
Concept : Androecium
Solution : NCERT PAGE NO. 5
A typical stamen has long and slender stalk called the filament, and the terminal generally
bilobed structure called the anther.
The proximal end of the filament is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower.
Final Answer : (3)

92) Explaining :
Concept : Microsporogenesis
Solution : NCERT PAGE NO. 6
Statement 2 is incorrect because microsporogenesis involves meiosis, not mitosis.
Final Answer : (2)

93) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT PAGE NO. 5, 7
Statement 2 - Microsporogenesis involves meiosis, which reduces the ploidy from diploid
(2n) in the PMC to haploid (n) in the microspores.
 Statement 3- Parthenium "came into India as a contaminant with imported wheat," not for
deliberate beneficial properties.
Final Answer : (1)

94) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT PAGE NO. 11
Assertion (A) is true, directly stated in the text. Reason (R) is also true and provides the direct
explanation for why there are 8 nuclei but only 7 cells – six nuclei form individual cells, while
the two polar nuclei share a common cytoplasm within the large central cell, thus not forming
separate cells. Therefore, Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

95) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT PAGE NO. 12,13

Column A Column B
Ensures assured seed-set even without
A Cleistogamous flowers I
pollinators.
Transfer of pollen from anther to the
B Geitonogamy II stigma of another flower on the same
plant.
Transfer of pollen from anther to the
C Xenogamy III
stigma of a different plant of same species.
Often possess well-exposed stamens and
D Wind-pollinated flowers IV
large, feathery stigma.
Are typically not very colorful and do not
E Water Pollinated Flowers V
produce nectar.
Final Answer : (1)

96) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT PAGE NO. 20
1) Scutellum is the single cotyledon in monocotyledons, located laterally.
2) Coleorrhiza is an undifferentiated sheath that encloses the radicle and root cap.
3) Radicle is the root tip, located at the lower end of the embryonal axis.
4) Coleoptile is stated as the structure enclosing the shoot apex and leaf primordia.
Final Answer : (4)

97) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : In monocarpellary condition gynoecium have single carpel.
Final Answer : (2)

98) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT XII Pg. # 07
The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.
Final Answer : (1)

99) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : All statements are correct.
Final Answer : (4)

100) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Pollen grains of different species show characteristic difference in shape, size,
colour and design only.
Final Answer : (3)

101) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Chalaza – Basal part of ovule.
Final Answer : (2)

102) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Tassels of corn-corb which wave in the wind to trap pollen grains are stigma and
style.
Final Answer : (3)

103) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Pollen pistil interaction is more crucial event before fertilization.
Final Answer : (3)

104) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Anemophilous flowers have feathery sticky stigma numerous light pollens and
colourless petals.
Final Answer : (3)

105) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : A - Hygroscopic, B - Storage of food granules, C - Nourishes
Final Answer : (3)

106) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : P - Endosperm, Q - Scutellum, R - Plumule, S - Aleurone layer.
Final Answer : (4)

107) Solution : Intine of pollen grain is a thin, continuous layer made up of cellulose and
pectin.
Final Answer : (2)

108) Solution : In angiosperm plants meiosis occurs in microspore mother cell and megaspore
mother cell to form respective spores.
Final Answer : (4)

109) Solution : Megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule are related terms.

Final Answer : (1)

110) Solution : The pollen viability in some cereals like wheat and rice is for 30 minutes.
Final Answer : (1)

111) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : While Protists are aquatic and eukaryotic, not all are photosynthetic—many are
heterotrophic like protozoans.
Final Answer : (2)

112) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Fungi reproduce by both asexual and sexual means, including plasmogamy,
karyogamy, and meiosis.
Final Answer : (4)

113) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Red tides are caused by rapid multiplication of red dinoflagellates (e.g.,
Gonyaulax), not Chrysophytes.
Final Answer : (4)

114) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Sporozoans, such as Plasmodium, are characterized by the absence of locomotory
structures and have a spore-like infectious stage. Statement II is incorrect because
Plasmodium does not use flagella for movement throughout its life cycle.
Final Answer : (3)

115) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : I is wrong – Fungi are heterotrophic, not autotrophic.
II is correct – Fungi reproduce in all three ways.
III is correct – Dikaryophase occurs in ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
IV is wrong – Fungal walls are made of chitin, not cellulose.
V is wrong – Yeast is unicellular.
Final Answer : (1)

116) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : I is wrong – Slime moulds are saprophytic, not parasitic.
II is correct – They form plasmodium when conditions are suitable.
III is correct – Spores are air-dispersed and resistant.
IV is wrong – They are eukaryotic.
V is wrong – Plasmodium is dynamic, not static.
Final Answer : (2)

117) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : I is correct – Chrysophytes include diatoms and desmids.
II is incorrect – Diatom cell walls are siliceous, not cellulose.
III is correct – Diatoms leave diatomaceous earth.
IV is correct – For Polishing and filtration industries diatomaceous earth is used
V is incorrect – because desmids are unicellular organisms.
Final Answer : (1)

118) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Euglenoids are mixotrophic — they photosynthesize using chlorophyll pigments
when light is available, and switch to heterotrophy in the dark. The reason is incorrect because
they do have chloroplasts.
Final Answer : (3)

119) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Diatoms → Siliceous cell wall
Dinoflagellates → Red tides
Euglenoids → Pellicle (no cell wall)
Slime moulds → Plasmodium (mass of protoplasm)
Final Answer : (1)

120) Explaining :
Concept : Fungi
Solution : Basidiomycetes → Mushrooms, smuts
Ascomycetes → Ascospores, conidia
Deuteromycetes → Only asexual stage known
Phycomycetes → Aseptate/coenocytic hyphae
Final Answer : (3)

121) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : There are three steps in sexual reproduction of phycomycetes i.e. Plasmogamy,
Karyogamy and Meiosis.
Final Answer : (4)

122) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Aspergillus is member of ascomycetes which produce aflatoxin.
Final Answer : (1)

123) Explaining :
Concept : Monera
Solution : Rhizopus is a member of Phycomycetes
Final Answer : (3)

124) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Animal disease: Bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma.
Final Answer : (2)

125) Explaining :
Concept : Fungi
Solution : Deuteromycetes are known as imperfect fungi
Final Answer : (3)

126) Explaining :
Concept : Protista
Solution : The presence of cilia and a gullet identifies it as Paramoecium.
Final Answer : (4)

127) Explaining :
Concept : Fungi
Solution : Agaricus is the common mushroom, an edible basidiomycete.
Final Answer : (3)

128) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Statement 1 is correct; however, Basidiomycetes do not reproduce via conidia, but
through basidiospores.
Final Answer : (3)
 129) Explaining :
Concept : Phycomycetes
Solution : The(mycelium) of the fungi included in the class Phycomycetes are coenocytic,
aseptate and branched. Eg : Rhizopus and Mucor .
Final Answer : (4)

130) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : . Albugo candida - It causes "White rust or white spots disease" in the
members of cruciferae family eg . Mustard .
Final Answer : (1)

131) Explaining :
Concept : Protozoans
Solution : Statement 1 is correct – amoeboid protozoans move with pseudopodia, but
pseudopodia are not flagella and are not used for photosynthesis
Final Answer : (3)

132) Explaining :
Concept : Fungi
Solution : Yeast is unicellular, which contradicts the incorrect generalization in Statement 2.
Final Answer : (4)

133) Explaining :
Concept : Protista
Solution : Plasmodium is the vegetative phase, not a spore; spores are formed later during
reproduction.
Final Answer : (3)

134)

Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Statement Breakdown:

A. It includes unicellular as well as multicellular fungi.

A. This is a feature of Sac fungi (Ascomycetes).
B. In multicellular forms, hyphae are branched and septate.
A. This is characteristic of Sac fungi (Ascomycetes).
C. Conidiophore produces conidia (spores) exogenously in chains.
A. This is a feature of Sac fungi (Ascomycetes). .
D. Sexual spores are ascospores produced endogenously in ascus.
A. This is also a key feature of Sac fungi (Ascomycetes).

Conclusion : The characteristics described here apply to Sac fungi (Ascomycetes).Correct

answer: (2)Sac fungi (Ascomycetes).
Final Answer : (2)
135) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : First is Mucor and second is another fungus Aspergillus.
Final Answer : (2)

136) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Saprophytic protists - Slime moulds
Golden algae - Desmids
Malarial parasite - Plasmodium
Sleeping sickness is caused by - Trypanosoma
Final Answer : (3)

137) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Mushrooms belong to class basidiomycetes (club fungi).
Final Answer : (3)

138) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Phytophthora belongs to class phycomycetes and Alternaria belong to class
deuteromycetes.
Final Answer : (2)

139) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Mushrooms - It is a fleshy, spore bearing fruiting body of basidiomycetes fungi.
coprophilous fungi grows on dung.
Final Answer : (3)

140) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Rhizopus belongs to group phycomycetes.
Final Answer : (4)

141) Solution : Diatoms - Indestructible cell wall

Mycoplasma - Cell wall less
Blue-green algae - Peptidoglycanic cell wall
Euglena - Pellicle
Final Answer : (2)

142) Explaining :
Concept : Viruses
Solution : Plant viruses generally have ss-RNA.
Final Answer : (3)
143) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Chief producers in the oceans - Diatoms
Bioluminescence - Dinoflagellates
Connecting link between plants and animals - Euglenoids
Physarum - Slime moulds
Final Answer : (2)

144) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Correct statement -
(ii) Euglena, one functional flagellum.
(iii) Euglena, pigments identical to higher plants.
Final Answer : (4)

145) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Zoospore, Conidia, & Aplanospore are asexual spores.
Final Answer : (2)

146) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Sporangiospore and ascospore are endogenous in origin.
Final Answer : (3)

147) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : The cell wall of fungi are composed of chitin and polysaccharides.
Final Answer : (3)

148) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Only statement 3rd is incorrect because the cell wall of dinoflagellates have stiff
cellulose plates on the outer surface.
Final Answer : (2)

149) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Viroids have low molecular weight RNA and it lake protein coat.
Final Answer : (1)

150) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Lichens are symbiotic association of algae (Phycobiont) and fungi (Mycobiont).
Final Answer : (1)
151) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Bacilli - Rod-shaped.
Soap box - Diatoms.
Plasmodium - Favourable condition.
Inert crystalline structure outside the living cell - Virus.
Final Answer : (3)

152) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : All points are draw backs of two kingdom system of classification.
Final Answer : (4)

153) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Monera - Unicellular, Prokaryotes.
Fungi - loose tissue level of body organisation.
Protista - Cell wall is absent in some member.
Plantae - Photosynthetic mode of nutrition.
Animalia - Organ system level of body organisation.
Final Answer : (2)

154) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Diatomaceous earth is not used for biogas production.
Final Answer : (4)

155) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : A - Collar, B - Tail fibres, C - Head, D - Sheath
Final Answer : (2)

156) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : M.W. Beijerinck called the extract of infected plant as “Contagium vivum fluidum”.
Final Answer : (3)

157) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Thermoacidophiles - Hot-spring
Heterocysts - Nostoc
Chief producers - Diatoms
Ascospores - Endogenously
Final Answer : (3)

158) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : They have one long and one short flagella.
They lack cell wall.
Final Answer : (3)

159) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma.
Final Answer : (2)

160) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Correct statements are (a), (c) and (d).
Final Answer : (3)

161) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Both are correct but reason is not directly explaining assertion.
Final Answer : (4)

162) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Mycoplasma lack cell wall hence penicillin do not work on it.
Final Answer : (4)

163) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Both statements are correct.
Final Answer : (1)

164) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : The mycelium of deuteromycetes is septate and branched.
Final Answer : (3)

165) Explaining :
Concept : Fungi
Solution : Sexual spores of Puccinia are exogenous.
Final Answer : (2)

166) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Agaricus - Is an edible mushroom.
Final Answer : (1)
167) Explaining :
Concept : Fungi
Solution : Neurospora is used most extensively for biochemical and genetic work.
Final Answer : (2)

168) Explaining :
Concept : Fungi
Solution : NCERT -XI, Page # 17
Final Answer : (4)

169) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Both are correct but reason is not directly explaining assertion.
Final Answer : (2)

170) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Fruiting bodies of fungi are not called pericarp.
Final Answer : (4)

171) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Both are correct but reason is not directly explaining assertion.
Final Answer : (2)

172) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Mangifera is the genus and indica is the specific epithet (not genus), so
only Statement I is correct.
Final Answer : (2)

173) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Housefly - Insecta
Mango - Dicotyledonae
Man - Mammalia
Wheat - Monocotyledonae
Final Answer : (1)

174) Explaining :
Concept : Taxonomic Hierarchy
Solution : As we move up the hierarchy (from species to kingdom), similarities decrease,
and classification becomes broader.
Final Answer : (3)
175) Explaining :
Concept : Binomial system
Solution : Scientific names are written in Latin and italics, but the reason they are in Latin
is not solely because Latin was universal in Linnaeus’s time. Latin is also unchanging
and descriptive.
Final Answer : (2)

176) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Both statements are correct but the reason does not directly explain why species
is the basic unit of classification.
Final Answer : (2)

177) Explaining :
Concept : Taxonomic Categories
Solution : Assertion is true, but Reason is false because genus-level members share
more similarities than family-level members
Final Answer : (3)

178) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Classification does help avoid confusion caused by local names, and this
directly supports the usefulness of classification.
Final Answer : (1)

179) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Assertion is true as systematics includes identification, nomenclature,
and classification. The Reason is false because systematics also considers evolutionary
relationships, not just morphology.
Final Answer : (3)

180) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Binomial nomenclature was given by Carolus Linnaeus, not Ernst Mayr. Statement
2 is correct.
Final Answer : (4)