EVOLUTION

Q1. Earth was supposed to have been formed about :

(1) 4.5 million years back (2) 4.0 billion years back
(3) 3.5 billion years back (4) 4.5 billion years back
Q2. According to cosmozoic theory origin of life occurs on earth by :
(1) Abiogenesis (2) Biogenesis
(3) It came from other planets in the form of spores (4) Superpower
Q3. Who finally disaproved theory of spontaneous generation:
(1) Miller (2) Urey (3) Fox (4) Louis Pasteur
Q4. Organs which are similar in function and different in origin are:
(1) Homologous organs (2) Analogous organs
(3) Vestigeal organs (4) None
Q5. Given diagrams are variety of beaks of finches, it is used for explanation of:

(1) Natural selection (2) Mutation (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Both (1) and (3)
Q6. Seeded ferns give rise:
(1) Cycad's (2) Conifers (3) Ginkgos (4) All of these
Q7. The eye of Octopus and eye of Cat shows different patterns of structure, yet they perform
similar function. This is an example of :
(1) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(2) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(3) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(4) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
Q8. Miller and Urey created an atomosphere containing:
(1) H2, NH3, N2 and water vapour (2) H2, CH4, NH3 and water vapour
(3) H2, O2, NH3 and CH4 (4) H2, CH4, N2 and water
Q9. Assertion (A): Life originated by chance coming together of Necessary chemical
through a series of chemical reactions is called abiogenesis.
Reason (R): Abiogenesis has not experimentally proved
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q10. Assertion: Those who are better fit in environment, leave more progeny than other
Reason: More reproducing organism will servive more and hence are selected by nature.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q11. During his journey, Darwin went to :
(1) Galapagos Island (2) Hawai Island
(3) Santosa Island (4) Koala Island
Q12. Who write an essay on population:
(1) T.R. Malthus (2) Lamarck (3) De Vries (4) Charles Darwin
Q13. Theory of evolution by Mutation was proposed by
(1) Lamarck (2) Darwin (3) De Vries (4) Urey
Q14. Which ancestor man first start ceremonial burial :
(1) Australopithecus (2) Homo erectus
(3) Neanderthal man (4) Homo habilis
Q15. Match the following with respect to evolution of different group of organism/other:
a) 4000 years old i) Sea weeds existed
b) 2000 million years ago ii) Earth is formed according to
conventional religious literature
c) 500 million year ago iii) First cellular form of life appeared on
earth
d) 350 million year ago iv) Invertebrates formed
e) 320 million years v) Jawless fish evolved
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i (2) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(3) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v, e-i
Q16. Louis pasteur's view on the origin of life is that:
(1) Life originated within six days
(2) Life originated spontaneously from the living organisms only
(3) Life originated spontaneously from the substance nonliving
(4) Life came from other planet
Q17. Formation of which complex molecules was noticed by Urey and miller when they
subjected substances to electric discharge :
(1) O2 (2) H2SO₄ (3) HCN (4) Amino acids
Q18. Arrange the periods of different eras in ascedning order in a geological time scale:
(1) Jurassic → Cretaceous → Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian
(2) Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian → Jurassic → Triassic
(3) Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian → Jurassic → Triassic
(4) Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian → Triassic → Jurassic
Q19. Tasmanian wolf is a marsupial while Asian wolf is placental mammal. This shows:
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Divergent evolution
(3) Parallelism (4) Inheritance of acquired characters
Q20. Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of _____ :
(1) Lamarckian theory of evolution (2) Darwin's theory of evolution
(3) Weismann theory (4) Oparin and Haldane theory
Q21. Five factors are known to affect Hardy-weinberg equilibrium. These five factors in
given list:
a. Genetic drift b. Natural selection c. Adaptive evolution d. Mutation
e. Convergent evolution f. Gene migration g. Genetic recombinantion
h. Branching descent
(1) a, b, c, d, e (2) a, b, d, e, f
(3) a, c, d, g, h (4) a, b, d, f, g
Q22. Correct order is:
(1) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic
(2) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Proterozoic
(3) Palaeozoic → Archeozoic → Coenozoic
(4) Archoeozoic → Palaeozoic → Proterozoic
Q23. Dinosaurs became extinct during:
(1) Jurassic (2) Triassic (3) Permian (4) Cretaceous
Q24. The scientific name of Java man is :
(1) Homo habilis (2) Asustralopithecus
(3) Homo erectus erectus (4) Homo sapiens neanderthalendsis
Q25. Darwin finches are related to which of the following evidences:
(1) Fossils (2) Anatomy
(3) Embryology (4) Geographical distribution
Q26. Which of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man:
(1) Java man (2) Homo habilis
(3) Neanderthal man (4) Australophithecines
Q27. Flippers of penguins and dolphins are:
(1) Homologous (2) Analogous (3) Vestigeal (4) Divergent
Q28. Which phenomenon is represented by this diagram:

(1) Natural selection (2) Artificial selection

(3) Inheritance of aquired character (4) Mutation
Q29. Match the following with respect to discovery and experiments associated years.
a) 1938 i) Fossil discovered in Java
b) 1920 ii) S.L Miller created closed flask
experiment
c) 1850s iii) A fish cought in South Africa
d) 1953 iv) More dark winged moths in the same
area of England observed
e) 1891 v) Collection of moth before industrilization
(1) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii (2) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-i (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
Q30. Origin of universe explained by:
(1) Big Bang theory (2) Oparin theory
(3) Biogenesis theory (4) Haldane theory
Q31. Hugo De Vries worked on:
(1) Evening Primrose (2) Garden Pea (3) Chick Pea (4) Finches
Q32. Agriculture came into existence around
(1) 75,000 years back (2) 50,000 years back
(3) 10,000 years back (4) None
Q33. Given diagramatic representation shows:

(1) Stabilising natural selection (2) Directional natural selection

(3) Distruptive natural selection (4) 2 and 3 both
Q34. Eye of the octopus and mammals show:
(1) Analogy (2) Homology (3) Atavism (4) Vestigeal organ
Q35. The biggest land reptile were:
(1) Turtles (2) Ichthyosaurs (3) Tyrannosaurus rex (4) Tortoises
Q36. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that
(1) Fishes evolved from frog like ancestors (2) Frogs will have gills in future
(3) Frogs have evolved from gilled ancestors (4) Fishes were amphibious in the past
Q37. Statement I: The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and
anaerobes.
Statement II: The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released
oxygen.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q38. A number of Marsupials, each different from the other, evolved from an ancestral stock
but all within the Australian island continent is the example of
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Homologous with divergent evolution
(3) Analogous with convergent evolution (4) Saltation
Q39. Evolutionary convergence is development of
(1) common set of characters in group of different ancestry
(2) dissimilar characters in closely related groups
(3) common set of characters in closely related groups
(4) random mating
Q40. Spotted cuscus is marsupial while Lemur is a placental mammal. This represents:
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Divergent evolution
(3) Parallelism (4) Inheritance of acquired characters
Q41 Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) New life comes from only pre-existing life.
(B) Spontaneous generation of life under present environmental conditions on earth is
possible.
(C) Non-spontaneous generation of life under present environmental conditions on earth in
not possible
(D) Louis Pasteur disapproved the theory of spontaneous generation of life.
Select the correct option:
(1) A, B & C (2) A, C & D (3) B, C & D (4) A & D
Q42. Mark the incorrect statement:
(1) According to Charles Darwin, the fitness of the individuals, means reproductive fitness.
(2) Homology in vertebrates brain indicates their common ancestry.
(3) The idea of survival of fittest of Alfred Wallace was based on his studies on Galapagos
Islands.
(4) All of the above.
Q43 Read the following statement and choose incorrect one-
(1) Human can create new breeds that differ from other breed by intensive breeding
programme
(2) Eye of octopus and eye of mammals shows similarity due to the convergent evolution
(3) Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Lamareckian theory
of evolution
(4) Work of Thomas Malthus on populations influenced Darwin
Q44. "Darwin's finches" refers to:
(1) Fossil of birds collected by Darwin at Galapagos islands
(2) A type of birds present on Galapagos islands
(3) Migratory birds of Africa collected by Darwin at Galapagos islands
(4) Fossils of reptiles collected by Darwin at Galapagos island
Q45. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to:
(1) Intra specific competition
(2) Competition within unrelated species
(3) Competition within closely related species
(4) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species
Q46. According to Lamarck, a giraffe has a long neck because:
(1) a creator designed it that way.
(2) catastrophes eliminated short-necked forms.
(3) its ancestors stretched their necks to get food.
(4) ancestral giraffes with slightly longer necks than others got more food and left more
surviving offspring.
Q47. In our modern understanding of natural selection, the fittest individuals are those who:
(1) Produce many offsprings, but a few survive upto sexual maturity
(2) Leave many living descendants
(3) Are best adapted to the environment
(4) Are best equipped to cope with the special environment conditions
Q48. The Finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of:
(1) biogeographical evolution (2) special creation
(3) evolution due to mutation (4) retrogressive evolution
Q49. Natural Selection theory of Darwin is objected because it:
(1) Stresses upon slow and small variations
(2) Stresses upon interspecific competition
(3) Explains that natural calamities causes a high number of deaths annually
(4) Explains, adaption of certain inherited characters
Q50. Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of :
(1) Lamarckian theory of evolution (2) Darwin's theory of evolution
(3) Weismann theory (4) Oparin and Haldane theory
Q51. Among the human ancestors, the brain size was more than 1000 cc in:
(1) Homo erectus (2) Ramapithecus
(3) Homo habilis (4) Neanderthal man
Q52. Industrial melanism was highlighted by :
(1) Mimosa pudica (2) Triticum aestivum
(3) Biston (Moth) (4) Rock python
Q53. Australopithecines probably lived in:
(1) East African grasslands (2) East and central Asia
(3) South African grasslands (4) West African grasslands
Q54. The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is
(1) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis
(2) Homo erectus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis
(3) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
(4) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
Q55. Which one of the following is not the mesozoic era: periods of
(1) Cretaceous (2) Triassic (3) Jurassic (4) Devonian
Q56. Which one of the following is the example of evolution by anthropogenic action:
(1) Antibiotics resistance microbes (2) Marsupial radiation
(3) Adaptive radiation (4) All of these
Q57. No organic compounds are synthesized in direction of origin of life now-a-days due to :
(1) High conc. of SO2 (2) High temperature
(3) High conc. of O2 (4) High conc. of N2
Q58. Which fossils discovered in Java :
(1) Neanderthal man (2) Homo erectus
(3) Australopithecines (4) Homo sapiens
Q59. According to Hardy-Weinberg's law, if the frequency of non-tasters of PTC paper in a
population, is 16%, then find out the frequency of dominant allele. Also calculate the
percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population.
(1) Frequency of dominant allele 0.4, % of heterozygous individuals 16%
(2) Frequency of dominant allele 0.4, % of heterozygous individuals 60%
(3) Frequency of dominant allele 0.6, % of heterozygous individuals 60%
(4) Frequency of dominant allele 0.6, % of heterozygous individuals 48%
Q60. In 1938 a coelacanth fish which was thought to be extinct was caught in:
(1) India (2) Australia (3) South Africa (4) America
Q61. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing at around:
(1) 15 million years back (2) 30 million years back
(3) 100 million years back (4) 1000 million years back
Q62. Assertion (A): Man can not creat new breed over billions of year.
Reason (R): Nature can creat new breed over billions of year.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q63. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Tyranosaurus evolved from Triceratops
Statement-ll : Triceratops evolved from Stegosaurus.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Q64. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Lobefins evolved into first amphibian that lived on both land and water.
Statement-II: Amphibian evoleved into reptiles.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Q65. Cranial capacity of Homo erectus was
(1) 900 cc. (2) 1400 cc. (3) 1600 cc. (4) 1100 cc.
Q66. Neanderthal man had a brain size of :
(1) 900 cc. (2) 500 cc. (3) 1400 cc. (4) 1600 cc.
Q67. Which one is example of homologous organ:
(1) Wings of butterfly and bird
(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
(3) Contractile vacuole of amoeba and kidney of rabbit
(4) Chloragogen cell of annelids and liver of rabbit
Q68. Different types of modified beaks according to their food habits in Darwin finches of
galapagos islands show phenomena of:
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Parallel evolution
(3) Adaptive convergence (4) Analogy
Q69. Marsupials mammals only found in australia because:
(1) Genetic drift (2) Continental drift
(3) Gene flows (4) None of the above
Q70. Which one is not an examples of evolution by anthropogenic action:
(1) Evolution of DDT resistant mosquito
(2) Evolution of antibiotic resistant bacteria
(3) Evolution of archaeopteryx
(4) Both 1 & 3
Q71. After industralisation flourishing of melanic form of Biston betularia show which type
of natural selection:
(1) Disruptive selection (2) Directional selection
(3) Diversifying selection (4) Stablising selection
Q72. In a diploid population the frequency of dominant allele is 0.2 then what is the % of
heterozygous individual in this population :
(1) 6 (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 48
Q73. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Dryopithecus was more man like while Ramapithecus was more ape-like.
Statement II: Evolution by mutation are random and directionless.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Q74. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Homohabilis probably did not eat meat.
Statement-II: Homo erectus probably ate meat.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Q75. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Australopithecines probably lived in east african grasslands.
Statement-II: Australopithecines ate fruits.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Q76. Which one of the following is the period of paleozoic era:
(1) Cretaceous (2) Triassic (3) Jurassic (4) Carboniferous
Q77. In which of the following animal True placenta is absent:
(a) Koala (b) Sugar glider (c) Numbat (d) Lemur (e) Flying squirrel
(1) Only a, b, c (2) Only a, b
(3) a, b, e (4) a, c, d
Q78. Which one of the following is the correct match
(a) H.M.S beagle (I) Simulation experiment
(b) S.L. miller (II) Light years
(c) Stellar distances (III) Darwin
(d) Oparin (IV) Chemical evolution
(1) a-lll, b-l, c-II, d-IV (2) a-l, b-Ill, c-IV, d-II
(3) a-IV, b-ll, c-l, d-III (4) a-l, b-ll, c-III, d-IV
Q79. Match the following concepts of evolution in List- I with List ll and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-l List-II
a. Mutation i. Changes in population's allele frequencies
due to chance alone.
b. Gene flow ii. Differences in survival and reproduction
among variant individuals
c. Natural selection iii. Immigration, emigration change allele
frequencies
d. Genetic iv. Source of new alleles drift
(1) a : i, b : ii, c : iii, d : iv (2) a : iv, b : ii, c : iii, d : i
(3) a : iii, b : i, c : iv, d : ii (4) a : iv, b : iii, c : ii, d : i
Q80. Which one of the following is the correct match:
(1) Wombat - True Placenta (2) Bandicoot - True Placenta
(3) Lemur - True Placenta (4) Darwin finches - Convergent evolution
Q81. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens)
from his ancestors:
(1) Shortening of jaws (2) Increasing cranial capacity
(3) Binocular vision (4) Upright posture
Q82. Match the hominids with their correct brain size:
a. Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
b. Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc
c. Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
d. Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
Select the correct option.
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Q83. The classical example of adaptive radiation is/ are:
(1) Darwin's finches (2) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Marsupials of Australia (4) None of these
Q84. Which one of the following is the incorrect match:
(1) Universe- 20 billion years old (2) Miller experiment - 1958
(3) Earth-4.5 billion years old (4) Bigbang theory - Origin of universe
Q85. Assertion (A): Resistant organisms/cells are appearing in a time scale of months or
year and not centuries.
Reason (R): Rate of evolution due to anthropogenic action is more faster than nature.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q86. Recognise the figure and choose correct option according to figure:

(1) Thorn and tandril are analogous (2) Thorn and tandril are Homologous
(3) Both represent convergent evolution (4) 2 and 3 both
Q87. Which one of the following is incorrect match:
(1) Condoms - Barriers (2) Cervical caps - Implants
(3) Lippes loop - IUDS (4) Coitus interruptus - Contraceptive method
Q88 A colourblind man (XCY) has a colourblind sister (XC XC) and a normal brother (XY).
What is genotype of father and mother:
(1) XCY , XCXC (2) XCY , XCX (3) XY , XCXC (4) XY , XCX
Q89. Which one of the following is correct with reference to RNA: statement
a. More reactive than DNA b. Less stable than DNA
c. Mutate at a faster rate than DNA. d. Mutate at a slower rate than DNA.
(1) a, d (2) a, b, c (3) Only a, c (4) b, d
Q90. Spermatogonia, secondary spermatocyte and sperm have ploidy:
(1) All n (2) 2n, n, n (3) 2n, 2n, n (4) 2n all