08-03-2026

1001CMD303056250124 MD

PHYSICS

1) The width of central fringe of a diffraction pattern is 5.8 mm on a screen at a distance 2m. If light
source has wavelength 5800 Å then the slit width :-

(1) 0.2 mm
(2) 0.4 mm
(3) 0.8 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

2) In Young's double slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path

difference is λ is I . The intensity of light at a point where the path difference becomes
0
is :-

(1) I0

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which of the following waves cannot be polarised?

(1) Microwaves
(2) X-ray
(3) Gamma ray
(4) Sound waves

4) The amplitude of light depends upon the distance of the point from the axis of a cylinderical
source as follows -

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

5) In Young's experiment, monochromatic light is used to illuminate the two slits A and B.
Interference fringes are observed on a screen placed in front of the slits. Now if a thin glass plate is
placed normally in the path of the beam coming from one slit :-

(1) The fringes will disappear

(2) The fringe width will increase
(3) The fringe width will decrease
(4) There will be no change in the fringe width but the pattern shifts

6) The equations of two interferring waves are Y1 = b cos ωt and Y2 = b cos (ωt+ϕ) respectively.
Destructive interference will take place at the point of observation for the following value of ϕ :–

(1) 0°
(2) 360°
(3) 180°
(4) 720°

7) If two coherent sources are placed at a distance 3λ from each other symmetric to the centre of the
circle shown in the figure, then number of fringes shown on the screen placed along the

circumference is:

(1) 16
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 24

8) At what angle should an unpolarised beam be incident on a crystal of μ = , so that reflected

beam is polarised :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 0°

9) Light of wavelength λ is incident on a slit of width d and distance between screen and slit is D.
Then width of central maxima and width of slit will be equal if D is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) What will be the angular width of central maxima in Fraunhofer diffraction when light of
wavelength 6000Å is used and slit width is 12 × 10–5 cm ?
(1) 2 rad
(2) 3 rad
(3) 1 rad
(4) 8 rad

11) In Young's double slit experiment the two slits are d distance apart. Interference pattern is
observed on a screen at a distance D from the slits. A dark fringe is observed on the screen directly
opposite to one of the slit. The wavelength of light is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) If ratio of amplitude of two interferring source is 3 : 5. Then ratio of intensity of maxima and
minima in interference pattern will be :-

(1) 25 : 16
(2) 5 : 3
(3) 16 : 1
(4) 25 : 9

13)

Find the magnetic field induction at 'O' due to the given current carrying wire in diagram :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
14) A solid cylinderical wire of radius 'R' carries a current 'I'. The magnetic field is 5μT at a point,
which is '2R' distance away from the axis of wire. Magnetic field at a point which is R/3 distance
inside from the surface of the wire is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A long insulated copper wire is closely wound as a spiral of ‘N’ turns. The spiral has inner radius
‘a’ and outer radius ‘b’. The spiral lies in the X-Y plane and a steady current ‘I’ flows through the
wire. The Z-component of the magnetic field at the center of the spiral is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Three wires are carrying same current i in direction as shown. Four loops enclosing the wires in
different manners are shown. The direction of is shown in the figure :
 List-I List-II

(P) Along closed Loop-1 (1)

(Q) Along closed Loop-2 (2)

(R) Along closed Loop-3 (3)

(S) Along closed Loop-4 (4)

(1) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 1

(2) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 2
(3) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 4
(4) P → 4;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 3

17) In given figure, X and Y are two long straight parallel conductors each carrying a current 2A.
The force on each conductor is F newton. When the current in each is changed to 1 A and reversed

in direction, the force on each is now :-

(1) F/4 and unchanged in direction

(2) F/2 and reversed in direction
(3) F/2 and unchanged in direction
(4) F/4 and reversed in direction

18) Magnetic field at point O is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
19) Two identical bar magnets each of magnetic moment 10 A m2 are arranged such that their axial
lines are perpendicular to each other and their centres be along the same straight line in a

horizontal magnetic field at a point midway between them is-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an uniform magnetic field B directed along positive
z axis. The direction of induced current as seen from the z axis will be :-

(1) Clockwise of the +ve z axis

(2) Anticlockwise of the +ve z axis
(3) Zero
(4) Along the magnetic field

21) In the branch AB of a circuit, as shown in the figure, a current I = (t + 2) A is flowing, where t is

the time in second. At t = 0, the value of (VA – VB) will be :-

(1) 3V
(2) –3V
(3) –5V
(4) 5V

22) In a transformer, there are 500 turns in primary coil and 5000 turns in secondary coil. A source
of 80V and 50 Hz has been connected to it. Then what will be potential and frequency in the
secondary coil ?

(1) 80 V and 25 Hz
(2) 80 V and 50 Hz
(3) 8 V and 50 Hz
(4) 800 V and 50 Hz

23) A variable voltage V = 2t is applied across an inductor of inductance L = 2 Henry as shown in

figure. Choose incorrect option.

(1) current versus time graph is a parabola
(2) energy stored in magnetic field at t = 2s is 4 joule
(3) potential energy at time t = 1 s in magnetic field is increasing at a rate of 1 J/s
(4) energy stored in magnetic field is zero all time

24) Statement-1 : When a magnet is made to fall freely through a closed coil, its acceleration is
always less than acceleration due to gravity.
Statement-2 : Current induced in the coil opposes the motion of the magnet, as per Lenz's law.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

25) The equation of a wave is represented by

y = 10–4 sin . Where t is in second and y, x is in meter. The velocity of the wave will be :-

(1) 100 m/s

(2) 250 m/s
(3) 750 m/s
(4) 1000 m/s

26) A transverse wave is travelling along a string from left to right. The adjoining figure represents
the shape of the string at a given instant. At this instant, among the following, choose the wrong

statement :

(1) Points D, E and F have upwards positive velocity

(2) Points A, B and H have downwards negative velocity
(3) Points C and G has zero velocity
(4) Points A and E have minimum velocity

27) For a given medium find intensity ratio I1 : I2 .

(1) 4 : 5
(2) 5 : 4
(3) 16 : 25
(4) 25 :16

28) Two waves represented by ;

and

,
are superposed. The resultant wave has an amplitude equal to :-

(1) zero
(2) 2a
(3) a
(4)

29) In a resonance tube, the first resonance with a tuning fork occurs at 16 cm and second at 49 cm.
If the velocity of sound is 330 m/s, the frequency of tuning fork is (Hz) :-

(1) 500
(2) 300
(3) 330
(4) 165

30) Two loudspeakers, as shown in fig. below separated by a distance 3 m, are in phase. Assume
that the amplitudes of the sound from the speakers is approximately same at the position of a
listener, who is at a distance 4.0 m in front of one of the speakers. For what frequency does the
listener hear minimum signal ? Given that the speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1.

(1) 165 Hz
(2) 300 Hz
(3) 400 Hz
(4) 600 Hz

31) 25 tunning forks are arranged in series in the order of decreasing frequency. Any two successive
forks produce 3 beats/sec. If the frequency of the first tunning fork is the double of the last fork,
then the frequency of the 21st fork is :-

(1) 72 Hz
(2) 288 Hz
(3) 84 Hz
(4) 87 Hz

32) Two tuning fork P and Q when set vibrating, give 4 beats/s. If a prong of the fork P is filed, the
beats are reduced to 2 beat/s. What is frequency of P, if that of Q is 250 Hz ?

(1) 246 Hz
(2) 250 Hz
(3) 254 Hz
(4) 252 Hz

33) A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of known frequency
250 Hz. The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when
sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is

(1) 260 Hz
(2) 254 Hz
(3) 246 Hz
(4) 240 Hz

34) If co-ordinates of position of object are (–60 cm, 6 cm) then co-ordinates of image will be :-

(1) (–120 cm, 12 cm)

(2) (–120 cm, –12 cm)
(3) (–60 cm, –12 cm)
(4) None of these

35) For shown concave mirror, velocity of images will be correctly represented by
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) For real object match the corresponding entries of column-1 with column-2 (where m is the
magnification produced by the mirror) :-

Column-1 Column-2

A m = –4 a Convex mirror

B m = –1/4 b Concave mirror

C m = +3 c Real image

D m = +1/3 d Virtual image

(1) A-a and c, B-a and d, C-a and b, D-c and d
(2) A-a and d, B-b and c, C-b and d, D-b and d
(3) A-c and d, B-b and d, C-b and c, D-a and d
(4) A-b and c, B-b and c, C-b and d, D-a and d

37) Statement-1 : The formula connecting u, v and f for a spherical mirror is valid only for mirrors
whose sizes are very small compared to their radii of curvature.
because
Statement-2 : Laws of reflection are strictly valid for plane surfaces, but not for large spherical
surfaces.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

38) The image formed after two reflection (first at x then at y) will be :-

(1) Erect and enlarged 2 times

(2) Inverted and enlarged 2 times
(3) Erect and diminished 2 times
(4) Inverted and diminished 4 times

39) AB and CD are two parallel slabs. The medium between the slabs has refractive index 2. Find the
minimum angle of incidence at Q, so that the ray is totally reflected by both the slabs :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 53°

40) In the figure shown, for an angle of incidence of 45° at the top surface, what is the minimum

refractive index for total internal reflection at the vertical face :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

41) The position of final image from 2nd lens :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 80 cm

42) Find the position of the final image formed by the lens combination as given in fig :-

(1) 30cm to the right of third lens

(2) 30cm to the left of third lens
(3) 5cm to the right of second lens
(4) 5cm to the left of second lens

43) For combination of two thin lenses are given in List-I. The radius of curvature of all curved
surfaces is r and the refractive index of all the lenses is 1.5. Match lens combination in List-I with
their focal length in List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-

List-I List-II

(P) (1) 2r

(Q) (2) r/2

(R) (3) –r
 (S) (4) r

(1) (P–1), (Q–2), (R–3), (S–4)

(2) (P–2), (Q–4), (R–3), (S–1)
(3) (P–4), (Q–1), (R–2), (S–3)
(4) (P–2), (Q–1), (R–3), (S–4)

44) If the focal length of objective and eye lens are 1.2 cm and 3 cm respectively and the object is
put 1.25 cm away from the objective lens and the final image is formed at infinity. The magnifying
power of the microscope is :-

(1) 150
(2) 200
(3) 250
(4) 400

45) A myopic person can not see objects lying beyond 2 m. The focal length and power of the lens
required to remove this defect will be :-

(1) 1 m & 0.5 D

(2) – 2m & – 0.5 D
(3) 0.5 m & 0.5 D
(4) – 0.5 m & 0.5 D

CHEMISTRY

1) The velocity of electron in the 2nd orbit of H-atom is V cm/sec. Its velocity in 5th Bohr's orbit would
be

(1) 5 × V cm/sec

(2)
V× cm/sec

(3)

(4)

2) The KE of electron in He+ will be maximum in ?

(1) 3rd orbit

(2) 2nd orbit
(3) 1st orbit
(4) n = ∞
3) A particle X moving with a certain velocity has a debroglie wavelength of 10 Å. If particle Y has a
mass of 25% that of X and velocity 75% that of X, de-Broglie wavelength of Y will be :-

(1) 3Å
(2) 53.3 Å
(3) 6.88 Å
(4) 48 Å

4) The wave number of the spectral line in the emission spectrum of hydrogen will be equal to
times the Rydberg's constant if the electron jumps from :-

(1) n = 3 to n = 1
(2) n = 10 to n = 1
(3) n = 9 to n = 1
(4) None of these

5) If shortest wavelength of He+ ion in Balmer series is X metres then longest wavelength in Paschen
series of Li+2 ion is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The number of possible lines of paschen series when electron jumps from seventh excited state to
ground state in hydrogen atom is :-

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

7) Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct codes given below :-

List-I List-II

Orbital angular
A a
momentum

No. of orbitals in a
B b n
sub-shells

No. of sub-shells in
C c 2ℓ + 1
a shell
Codes :
A B C

(1) a c b

(2) b c a

(3) a b c

(4) c a b
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Total number of electrons having n + ℓ = 3 in 24Cr atom in its ground state is :-

(1) 8
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 6

9) Which of the following is not constant for an electron in an atom:

(1) Orbital angular momentum

(2) Spin angular momentum
(3) Mass
(4) Charge

10) A graph between |ψ|2 and r (radial distance) is shown below this
represents :

(1) 1s orbital
(2) 2s orbital
(3) 3s orbital
(4) 3p orbital

11) Which of the following is correct order of energy of atomic orbitals for H-atom.

(1) 2s = 2p
(2) 3d < 4s
(3) 3s < 3p
(4) Both (1) & (2)
12) Which of the following statement is incorrect :

The effect of Heisenberg uncertainty principle is significant only for motion of microscopic
(1)
objects and is negligible for that of macroscopic objects.
In multi-electron atom, energies of the orbitals in the same subshell decrease with increase in
(2)
the atomic number.
(3) 2s subshell have 2 spherical nodes.
The negative electronic energy for hydrogen atom means that the energy of the electron in H-
(4)
atom is lower than the energy of a free electron at rest.

13) What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at 0°C and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1L of
propane gas (C3H8) measured under the same conditions:-

(1) 5 L
(2) 10 L
(3) 7 L
(4) 6 L

14) Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density =1 gcm–3) is :-

(1) 3.0 × 10–23 cm3

(2) 5.5 ×10–23 cm3
(3) 9.0 × 10–23 cm3
(4) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3

15) A sample of calcium carbonate is 80% pure. 25 g of this sample is treated with excess of HCl.
How much volume of CO2 will be obtained at N.T.P. ?
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

(1) 2.24 L
(2) 5.6 L
(3) 11.2 L
(4) 4.48 L

16) 50 kg of N2(g) and 10 kg of H2(g) are mixed to produce NH3(g). Calculate the NH3(g) formed and
identify the limiting reagent in the production of NH3 in this situation.

(1) 28.1 kg NH3, L. R. = N2

(2) 56.7 kg, NH3, L. R. = H2
(3) 56.1 kg NH3, L.R. = N2
(4) 28.1 Kg NH3, L.R. = H2

17) In a hydrocarbon, 92.3% C is present. Its molecular weight is 78. The molecular formula of
compound will be :-

(1) C2H2
(2) C5H18
(3) C6H6
(4) C4H8

18) Correct order of polarisation is

(1) AgF < AgCl < AgBr < AgI

(2) PbO < PbS
(3) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
(4) All are correct

19) Correct order of dipole moment is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

20) Which of the following order is correct bond length for Cl–O bond in ClO4–, ClO3–, ClO2–, Ion-

– – –
(1) ClO4 < ClO3 < ClO2
– – –
(2) ClO4 > ClO3 > ClO2
– – –
(3) ClO3 > ClO2 > ClO4
– – –
(4) ClO4 = ClO3 = ClO2

21) Which of the following is correct for XeO2F2 and PCl5

(1) Both have same hybridisation and shape

(2) Both have same hybridisation but different electronic geometry
(3) Both have same hybridisation but different shape
(4) None of these

22) Which of the following pair are exist :

(1)
(2)
(3) SH6, IH7, XeH2
(4) ClF7, SCl6

23) Which of the following molecule show s–p mixing?

(1) O2
(2) C2
(3) N2
(4) Both (2) and (3)

24) The stability of ionic crystal principally depends on :

(1) high electron affinity of anion forming species

(2) the lattice energy of crystal
(3) low Ionisation energy of cation forming species
(4) low heat of sublimation of cation forming solid

25) Choose incorrect match.

(1) o-Nitrophenol > p-Nitrophenol – Volatility

(2) Ethanol > Glycol – Vapour pressure
(3) Methanol > Glycerol – Viscosity
(4) H2SO4 > HNO3 – Boiling point

26) When N2 convert in N2+ then :-

(1) Bond order decrease

(2) N–N bond length increase
(3) Magnetic moment increase
(4) All are correct

27) Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their
catalytic activity :-

(1) High enthalpy of atomization

(2) Paramagnetic behavior
(3) Colour of hydrated ions
(4) Variable oxidation states

28) The product of I– with MnO4– in alkaline medium is :-

(1) I2
–
(2) IO3
(3) IO–
 –
(4) IO4

29) The yellow colour solution of Na2CrO4 changes to orange red on passing CO2 gas due to the
formation of :-

(1) CrO5
(2) CrO3
(3) Na2Cr2O7
(4) Cr2O3

30)

Consider the following reaction

2Cu2+ + 4X– → Cu2X2(s) + X2(g) then X– can be

(1) F–
(2) Cl–
(3) Br–
(4) I–

31) Which of the following order of electrode potential is correct for M+3 → M+2 change :-

(1) Sc > V
(2) Fe > Mn
(3) Mn > Zn
(4) Zn > Sc

32) Which of the following chlorides produce chromyl chloride vapour when heated with conc. H2SO4
and K2Cr2O7 :-

(1) BaCl2
(2) AgCl
(3) Hg2Cl2
(4) PbCl4

33) Select the incorrect statement about K2Cr2O7 :-

(1) the bond angle of Cr– –Cr > 109.5

(2) shape around Cr is tetrahedral
(3) two types of Cr–O bond length are present
(4) It does not produce O2 on heating

34) 2A B, A C. B and C may be :-

(1) H2S2O7 and H2S2O6

(2) H4P2O7 and HPO3
(3) HPO3 and H4P2O7
(4) H3PO4 and H3PO3

35) Which is correctly matched ?

(1) NO → coloured diamagnetic gas

–
(2) B2H6 → 2C – 3e bond
(3) NO2 → Diamagnetic gas

(4) → Diamagnetic linear cation

36) Which of the following species give strongest reducing agent on hydrolysis :

(1) AlN
(2) Ca3P2
(3) Mg3As2
(4) Mg3Bi2

37) Order of relative stability of +1 oxidation state in Boron family :-

(1) Aℓ < Ga < In < Tℓ

(2) Aℓ > Ga > In < Tℓ
(3) Aℓ = Ga = In = Tℓ
(4) Aℓ < Ga > In < Tℓ

38) Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) (CH3)3 COH is less acidic than (CH3)3 SiOH.

(2) Like CO, its analogue of Si is not stable.
Θ
(3) Bond length [B – F] BF3 < BF4
(4) GeO2 is amphoteric oxide

39) Which phosphorous oxy acid shows 2 or > 2 P–OH bond :-

(1) Phosphinic acid and pyrophosphorous acid

(2) Orthophosphoric acid and Hypophosphorous acid
(3) Pyrophosphorous acid and Cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid
(4) Polymetaphosphoric acid and Hypophosphorous acid

40) Which shown pπ-dπ bonding :-

(1) Graphite
(2) Dimethylamine
(3) Trisilylamine
(4) Fullerene

41) Which of the following sulphate is insoluble in water

(1) CuSO4
(2) CdSO4
(3) PbSO4
(4) Bi2(SO4)3

42) Which of the following give methane gas on hydrolysis :-

(1) Al4C3
(2) Mg2C3
(3) CaC2
(4) None

43) Which of the following anions is not easily removed from aqueous solution by precipitation ?

(1) Cl–
2–
(2) SO4
–
(3) NO3
2–
(4) CO3

44) The metal that does not give the borax bead test is :

(1) Cr
(2) Ni
(3) Pb
(4) Mn

45) Lead has been placed in qualitative group analysis 1 and 2 because :

(1) it shows the valency one and two

(2) it forms insoluble PbCl2
(3) it forms lead sulphide
(4) it is partially soluble in water

BIOLOGY

1) Human urine is usually acidic because :-

(1) hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the filtrate.

the sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in peritubular
(2)
capillaries.
(3) excreted plasma proteins are acidic
(4) potassium and sodium exchange generates acidity

2) How many are reabsorbed and secreted by DCT of nephron ?

(I) Na+ (II) H2O
(III) (IV) H+
(V) K+ (VI) NH3

Rabsorbed Secreted

(1) I, II and III IV, V and VI

(2) IV, V and VI I, II and III

(3) I, II and V III, IV and V

(4) III, IV and VI I, II and V

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Reabsorption of NaCl is maximum from PCT

(2) Reabsorption of salts is maximum in ascending limb of loop of Henle.
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

4) 70-80% of electrolytes are reabsorbed in which segment of nephron ?

(1) DCT
(2) PCT
(3) Bowman's capsule
(4) Collecting duct

5) The filtration membrane is composed of :-

(1) The endothelium of glomerular blood vessels

(2) Epithelium of Bowman's capsule
(3) Basement membrane
(4) All of the above

6) What portion of the nephron does not absorb water passively by osmosis ?

(1) proximal convoluted tubule

(2) descending limb of nephron loop
(3) distal convoluted tubule
(4) All of these portions absorb water passively by osmosis
7) Which one does not filter out from blood to Bowman's capsule in glomerular ultrafiltration?

(1) Amino acids

(2) Polypeptide
(3) Glucose
(4) Na+

8) Parts A, B, C and D of a nephron are shown in the diagram select the option which represent their

incorrect function :-

(1) A-70-80% water reabsorption

(2) B- Permeable to salts
(3) C-Selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions and maintenance of pH
D-allows passage of small amount of urea into the medullary interstitium and helps in
(4)
producing concentrated urine

9) Reabsorption and secretion of major substances at different parts of the Nephron are shown in
the given figure. In this figure A, B, C, D are?

–
(1) HCO3 , Nutrients, Urea, NaCl
+ –
(2) NaCl, Urea, K , HCO3
–
(3) NaCl, Urea, HCO3 , Ammonia
–
(4) H2O, Urea, NaCl, HCO3

10)

Match the following ?

Column-I Column-II

A PCT i Conditional reabsorption of Na+

 B DCT ii 70-80 percent of electrolytes and water reabsorbed

C Loop of Henle iii Allow passage of small amount of urea

D Ascending limb iv Concentration of urine

E Collecting duct v Permeable to salts

(1) A-i ; B-ii ; C-iii ; D-iv ; E-v
(2) A-i ; B-iii; C-iv ; D-ii ; E-v
(3) A-ii ; B-i ; C-iv ; D-v ; E-iii
(4) A-ii ; B-iii ; C-iv ; D-v ; E-i

11) Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all correct :-
(A) Henle's loop plays a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary
interstitial fluid.
(B) Collecting duct plays a role in the maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood by the selective
secretion of H⊕ and K⊕ ions
(C) Conditional reabsorption of Na⊕ and water takes place in PCT.
(D) Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70-80 percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed
by PCT.

(1) Statements (A), (B), (D)

(2) Statements (A), (C), (D)
(3) Statements (B), (C)
(4) Statements (C), (D)

12) Which one of the following not take place in Nephron?

(1) Filtration
(2) Reabsorption
(3) Ornithine cycle
(4) Both (1) & (2)

13) Which of the following can activate the chemosensitive area situated adjacent to the rhythm
centre ?

+
(1) Less CO2, less H ion concentration.
+
(2) Less CO2, high H ion concentration.
(3) High CO2 and high hydrogen ion concentration
(4) High CO2 concentration, less hydrogen ion concentration
14) Choose the correct labelling from the given diagram :-

(1) A-Larynx, B-Plenural membrane, C-Trachea

(2) A-Trachea, B-larynx, C-Pleural membrane
(3) A-Epiglottis, B-Trachea, C- Pleural membrane
(4) A-Trachea, B-Plural membrane, C-Larynx

15) Assertion :- O2 can bind with hemoglobin in a irreversible manner to form oxyhemoglobin.
Reason :- Each haemoglobin molecule can carry maximum of four molecule of O2.

(1) A & R are true but R does not explain A.

(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) A & R are true but R explain the A correctly.

16) Respiratory process is regulated by certain specialized centres in the brain. One of the following
listed centres can reduce the inspiration duration upon stimulation-

(1) Medullary inspiratory centre

(2) Pheumotaxic centre
(3) Chemosyntheitc centre
(4) Apheustic cente.

17) Which of the following is entirely made of cartilage and produces sound :

(1) Nasal septum

(2) Larynx
(3) Glottis
(4) Trachea

18) If expiratory reserve volume is 1100 ml residual volume is 1200 ml and tidal volume is 500 ml,
what shall be the functional residual capacity–

(1) 1600 ml
(2) 2800 ml
(3) 2300 ml
(4) 1200 m
19) Match the disorders given in column I with symptoms under column II. Choose the answer which
gives the correct combination of alphabets with numbers–

Column I Column II

(a) Asthma (i) Occupational respiratory disorder

(b) Bronchitis (ii) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchiole

(c) Silicosis (iii) Damaged alveoliar wall

(d) Emphysema (iv) Inflammation of bronchi

(v) Cough with blood strained sputum

(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – v, d – i
(2) a – v, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
(3) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(4) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii

20) Assertion A : Occupational respiratory disorder causing serious lung damage.

Reason R : In this disorder long exposure with dust and coal can given rise to inflammation leading
to fibrosis.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

21) 'Among vertebrates A use gills whereas B respire through lungs'. Fill the blanks (A and B)
in above statement by choosing correct option from below ?

A B

(1) Molluscs Birds

(2) Aquatic arthropods Reptiles

(3) Fishes Birds

(4) Molluscs Mammals

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Volume of air which does not take part in gaseous exchange is ?

(1) 3200 ml (approx.)

(2) 500 ml (approx.)
(3) RV + ERV
(4) 150 ml (approx.)
23) Inspiration on occur when :-

(1) Intra pulmonary pressure (IPP) is less than atmospheric pressure

(2) IPP is more than atmospheric pressure
(3) IPP is equal to atmospheric pressure
(4) All of the above

24) Due to which factors the air from outside move into the lungs.
(i) An increase in pulmonary volume
(ii) Decrease the intra-pulmonary pressure
(iii) Reduction in thoracic volume

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

25) Chief muscle of inspiration is :-

(1) EICM
(2) Diaphragm
(3) IICM
(4) Abdominal muscle

26) Which of the following respiratory volume or capacity can differentiate live born or dead born
child ?

(1) TV
(2) RV
(3) IRV
(4) VC

27) Find out partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in oxygenated blood ?

(1) Po2 = 104 mmHg Pco2 = 40 mmHg

(2) Po2 = 159 mmHg Pco2 = 0.3 mmHg
(3) Po2 = 40 mmHg Pco2 = 45 mmHg
(4) Po2 = 95 mmHg Pco2 = 40 mmHg

28) Match the column I with column II

Column-I Column-II

A Tracheal tubes I Arachnida

B Gills II Frog

C Moist skin III Cockroach

 D Book lungs IV Fishes

A B C D

1 III IV II I

2 III I IV II

3 IV III II I

4 IV II I III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Expiration can occur if :-

(a) intrapulmonary pressure is higher than the atmospheric pressure.
(b) intrapulmonary pressure and atmospheric pressure are equal.
(c) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure.
(d) muscles of diaphragm relax.

(1) a, d
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) a, b

30)

Identify the wrong differences between inspiration and expiration :-

Inspiration Expiration

a EICM Contract Relax

b Size of thoracic cavity Decreases Increases

c Shape of diaphragm Dome Flat

d Movement of air Atmosphere to lungs Lungs to atmosphere

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) b, d
(4) c, d

31) In which of the following respiratory volume/capacity is correctly matched with its value ?

Volume/Capacity Value (in ml)

1 IRV 3500-4500

2 ERV+RV 2100-2300
 3 TV 1100-1200

4 TLC 15000
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32)

Identify the type of pulmonary volume/capacity on the basis of quantity of air present in the lungs
given below.
(I) 1100 ml to 1200 ml
(II) 500 ml
(III) 5000 ml to 6000 ml
Choose the correct option ?

I II III

1 Vital capacity FRC Residual volume

2 Residual volume Tidal volume TLC

3 Expiratory capacity Inspiratory capacity Residual volume

4 Tidal volume IRV ERV

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Oxygen dissociation curve of hemoglobin is:-

(1) Sigmoid
(2) Hyperbolic
(3) Linear
(4) U-shaped

34) By the contraction in diaphragm the volume of thoracic chamber increases in the :

(1) Dorso-ventral axis

(2) Antero-posterior aixs
(3) Antero-ventral axis
(4) Dorso-posterior axis

35)

Correct by match the following columns.

 Column-I Column-II

(A) Neutrophils (1) 20-25% of WBC

(B) Basophils (2) 2-3% of WBC

(C) Monocytes (3) 6-8% of WBC

(D) Eosinophils (4) 0.5-1% of WBC

(E) Lymphocytes (5) 60-65% of WBC

(1) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2, E-5
(2) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1
(3) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2, E-3
(4) A-5, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-1

36) In which of the following situation, there is a risk for the first child :

(1) Mother is Rh -ve and Father is Rh -ve

(2) Mother is Rh +ve and Father is Rh +ve
(3) Mother is Rh -ve and Father is Rh +ve
(4) None of these

37)

Observe the diagrame carefully and choose the answer about given marking :-

(1) This wave represents only excitation of atria

(2) This wave represent only repolarisation of atria
(3) This wave represent only repolarisation of ventricles
(4) This wave represent only depolarisation of ventricle

38) Assertion : Thrombins are formed from inactive substance present in the plasma called
prothrombin
Reason : thrombokinase is formed by a series of linked enzymic reactions

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

39) Given below two statements.

Statement I : Lymph contains large amount of CO2.
Statement II : Platelets are absent in lymph so clotting time is more comparatively blood.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

40) Identify the correct option which includes correct statements for the diagram given below

related to human lymphatic system : (A) P →

Lymphatics which carries lymph from interstitial space to the lymph node
(B) Q → Lymph node
(C) R → Lymphatics, drain lymph in thoracic duct
(D) S → thoracic duct → opens into vein

(1) A, B only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) A, B, D only
(4) A, B, C, D all

41)

In the case of a premature delivery (8th-month) of a male baby the testis are situated in :-

(1) Scrotal Sac

(2) Abdominal cavity
(3) Descending pathway
(4) Come into scrotal sac but not attached properly.

42) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
a. Each breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes
b. A functional mammary gland is characteristic of all females in mammals
c. Clitoris lies at the upper junction of two labia majora
d. In human female uterus is single and called as womb

(1) Statement (a), (b) & (c)

(2) Statetment (b), (c) & (d)
(3) Statement (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(4) Statements (a), (b) & (d)

43) The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by :-

(1) Movement of foetus

(2) Listening to the heart sound carefully through the stethoscope
(3) Appearance of hair on head
(4) Formation of limbs
44) Read the following statements and choose option having correct statements :-
(a) By the end of the second month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits.
(b) By the end of 24th week the body is covered with fine hair.
(c) The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound through the
stethoscope.

(1) a, b
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, b, c

45) Read the following sentences and select correct option having all true statements:-
(a) During parturition, oxytocin induces intense contractions in the uterus
(b) After parturition oxytocin stimulate milk let-down.
(c) The labour pain during child birth is due to oxytocin
(d) Oxytocin is secreted from placenta and ovary

(1) b,c,d
(2) a,b,c
(3) c & d
(4) a & c

46) The graph below shown different phases of menstruation cycle's hormones. Select the option
giving correct identification together with its secretion :-

(1) A – LH, secrete by posterior pituitary

(2) B – FSH, secrete by developing follicles
(3) C – Estrogen, secrete by developing follicle & corpus luteum
(4) D – progesterone, secrete by mature graffian follicle

47) Which of the following statement is incorrect

(1) The male germ cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation
(2) The functions of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by the testicular hormones
(3) In fact, the presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity
(4) Sperm and ovum formation ceases around the age of fifty years.

48) Read the following four statement (A–D)

(A) Fimbriae help in collection of ovum after ovulation.
(B) The uterus opens into vagina through a narrow cervix.
(C) Inner glandular layer of uterus is called endometrium.
(D) The last part of oviduct ampulla has a narrow lumen and it joins the uterus.
How many of the above statement are correct.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

49) Identify the correct match from Column I, II and III.

Column-I Column- II Column-III

(A) Ovulatory phase (a) 5 -13 day (i) Breakdown of endomentium
th th

(B) Menstruation phase (b) 15th-28th day (ii) Release of secondary oocyte
(C) Secretory phase (c) 14th day (iii) Development of mature follicle
(D) Follicular phase (d) 1 -5 day (iv) Formation of corpus luteu
st th

(1) A-c-i, B-d-ii, C-a-iii, D-b-iv

(2) A-c-ii, B-a-i, C-b-iii, D-d-iv
(3) A-d-i, B-a-iv, C-d-iv, D-c-ii
(4) A-c-ii, B-d-i, C-b-iv, D-a-iii

50) The figure below show four stage (a, b, c, d) of human development. Select the option giving
correct identification together with site of occurance ?

Figure Developmental stage Site of occurrence

Isthmus part of fallopian
(1) (a) Fertilised egg
tube
(2) (b) Zygote End part of fallopian tube
Starting point of Fallopian
(3) (c) Morula
tube
(4) (d) Blastocyst Uterine cavity
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51)

Read the following statements carefully.

The .......(A)...... present on the inside wall of .....(B)..... multiply by .....(C)..... division. A .....(D).....
completes the .....(E)..... division leading to formation of two equal, haploid cells called .....(F)..... .
Which one of the following options gives the correct filling of A, B, C, D, E and F?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

A Spermatogonia Primary Spermatocyte Spermatogonia Spermatogonia
B Seminiferoustubule Sertoli Cell Sertoli Cell Seminiferous tubule
C Mitotic Mitotic First meiotic First meiotic
D Primary Spermatocyte Secondary Spermatocyte Secondary Spermatocyte Spermatid
E First meiotic First meiotic Second meiotic Second meiotic
F Secondary Spermatocyte Spermatid Spermatid Second meiotic Sper
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system. Identify common duct which
form fusion of terminal end of vas deferens and duct of seminal vesicle :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) C

53) Which of the following part of spermatozoan aries from centriole ?

(1) Apical cap

(2) Head
(3) Middle piece
(4) Tail

54) Extraembryonic membranes which participate in the formation of placenta in human are:

(1) Chorion and Allantois

(2) Chorion and Amnion
(3) Amnion and Allantois
(4) Amnion and Yolk sac

55) Select the incorrect statement :

(1) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis

(2) LH triggers ovulation in ovary
(3) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
(4) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells

56) Statement I : In a woman after hysterectomy (removal of uterus) the ovarian cycle is stopped.
Statement II : This is due to stoppage of FSH secretion.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

57)

Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed there after:-
(A) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) during second trimester is generally safe.
(B) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast feeds the infant upto 6 months.
(C) Intrauterine devices like copper–T are effective contraceptives.
(D) Contraception pill administration of progestogens or progestogen–estrogen combinations.
Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) A,B,D
(2) A,C,D
(3) A,B
(4) B,C,D

58) Select the correct option regarding the contraceptive methods and one of their property :

(1) Coitus interruptus – is a natural method of contraception with a very low failure rate
Condoms – are made up of latex which also provide protection against sexually transmitted
(2)
diseases
(3) Saheli – is a hormonal contraceptive pill which is taken weekly
(4) IUDs – are generally made up of copper and they prevent ovulation

59) Inability of male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm count in the
ejaculate, this disorder could be corrected by using :-

(1) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)

(2) Artificial insemination (AI)
(3) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(4) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)

60) An emergency contraceptive pill is given to the female who is 4 weeks pregnant. This will lead
to:-

(1) Termination of pregnancy

(2) Deformity and teratogenicity of foetus
(3) Rather it will support pregnancy
(4) Degeneration of corpus luteum due to negative feedback LH.

61) If a person suffers from very low sperm counts, which ART could be used?

(1) ZIFT
(2) AI
(3) IUT
(4) GIFT

62)

Which of the following contraceptive methods correctly matches with its mode of action?

Contraceptive
Mode of action
method

(1) Vasectomy Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation

(2) Condoms Inhibit ovulation and implantation

(3) Diaphragm Spermicidal and increases phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus

(4) IUDs Increase phagocytosis of sperm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63)

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Statutory ban on ammniocentesis for sex-determination to legally check increasing
menace of female foeticides.
Statement-II : In aminocentesis some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus is taken to
analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

64) ICSI is a specialised procedure to form ___A___ in the laboratory in which a ___B___ is directly
injected into the avium.

(1) A - Embryo, B - Semen

(2) A - Embryo, B - Sperm
(3) A - Foetus, B - Semen
(4) A - Foetus, B - Sperm
65) Match the column I with column II :-

Column-I Column-II
A Nephridia I Crustaceans (Prawn)
B Malpighian tubules II Annelids (Earthworm)
C Antennal gland or Green glands III Insects (Cockroach)
(1) A -I, B - II, C - III
(2) A - III, B - II, C -I
(3) A - II, B - III, C -I
(4) A - II, B - I, C - III

66) Each kidney of an adult human measures-

Length Width Thickness Weight

(1) 10-12 cm 5-7cm 2-3 cm 120-170 gm

(2) 10-20 cm 10-12 cm 6-12 cm 40-50 gm

(3) 2-6 cm 10-12 cm 6-12 cm 40-50 gm

(4) 10-12 mm 5-7 mm 2-3 mm 120-170 gm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Match the terms given in column-I with their physiological processes given in column-II and
choose the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II
Formation of
(A) PCT (i) concentrated
urine
Filtration of
(B) DCT (ii)
blood
Reabsorption
(C) Henle's loop (iii) of 70-80%
electrolytes
Counter
(D) current (iv) Ionic balance
mechanism
Maintenance
Renal of
(E) (v)
corpuscles concentration
gradient
(1) A-iii, B-v, C-iv, D-ii, E-i
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-v, E-ii
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-v, E-iv
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-v, E-ii

68) How many characters belongs to human kidney :-

(a) length is 10-12 cm & width is 5-7 cm
(b) right kidney upper then to left kidney.
(c) mesonephric kidney present
(d) kidney are reddish brown, bean shaped
(e) human's nephron has two parts – glomerulus & renal tubules.

(1) a, b, d, e
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) a, d, e
(4) a, b, d

69) Statement-I : Peritubular capillaries present around the PCT & DCT & vasa recta present
around loop of henle.
Statement-II : Above arrangements of cpellaries especially present in cortical nephron.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

70) Which segment is not the part of nephron but help in selective secretion of H+ & K+ :

(1) Collecting duct

(2) Loop of henle
(3) PCT
(4) DCT

71) Find out the correct sequence of B, C, D in the given figure of nephron :-

(1) Efferent arteriole, Proximal convoluted tubule, Descending limb

(2) Efferent arteriole, Distal convoluted tubule, Ascending limb
(3) Bowman's capsule, Descending limb, Proximal convoluted tubule
(4) Afferent arteriole, Proximal convoluted tubule, Ascending limb

72) Osmoreceptor in the body are activated by :-

(I) blood change in volume
(II) body fluid change in volume
(III) Ionic change in concentration
(IV) high blood pressure
(V) High concentration of sugar
(VI) dopamine neurotransmitter

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) I, II, III V
(4) All of them

73) Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine ?

(1) Caffeine
(2) Renin
(3) Alcohol
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor

74) Read the following statements carefully :-

(a) Urine is hypertonic in DCT
(b) Urine is isotonic in PCT
(c) Urine becomes hypotonic as it passes through ascending limb of loop of henle
(d) Normally urine becomes hypotonic when it passes through collecting duct
Option :

(1) a, b, c, d are correct

(2) a, b, d are correct
(3) b, c, d are correct
(4) b, c are correct

75) Which of the following is a correct pathway for passage of urine in human ?

(1) Collecting tubule → Ureter → Bladder → Urethra

(2) Renal vein → Renal ureter → Bladder → Urethra
(3) Renal Pelvis → Medulla → Bladder → Urethra
(4) Cortex → Medulla → Bladder → Ureter

76) Observe the following figure ? Identify A to D structure -

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Which of the following statement in incorrect regarding excreation?

(1) Mammals have the ability to producet a diluted urine

(2) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes place in D.C.T.
Collecting duct plays a role in maintenance of pH and ionic balance of body by selective
(3)
secretion of H+ and K+ ions.
(4) Mammals have the ability to produced a concentrated urine.

78) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a nephron. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D

and select the correct option about then ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) Assertion A : Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in cortical nephrons.

Reason R : The loop of Henle's in cortical nephrons is too short and extends only very little into the
medulla.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

80) Uric acid gets deposited in small joints to produce:

(1) Rheumatoid arthritis

(2) Gout
(3) Osteoarthritis
(4) All of the above

81) Diabetes insipidus is a condition in which a person is unable to produce sufficient levels of the
hormone ADH. The hormone increases the permeability of water of the second (distal) convoluted
tubule and collecting duct in the kidney nephrons. What is produced as a result?

(1) Large volumes of concentrated urine

(2) Large volumes of dilute urine
(3) Small volumes of concentrated urine
(4) Small volumes of dilute urine

82) "Columns of Bertini" in the kidney of mammals are formed as the extension of:

(1) Medulla into cortex

(2) Cortex into medulla
(3) Medulla into pelvis
(4) Pelvis into ureter

83) Out of the four parts given below, which parts plays significant role in forming concentrated
urine in human?
(i) Loop of Henle (ii) Glomerulus
(iii) Bowman's capsule (iv) Vasa recta

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)

84) Read the statement and select the correct option.

Statement-A : Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filration is responsible for the formation of
concentrated urine.
Statement-B : During summer, when body loses a lot of water by evoporation, then the release of
anti-diuretic hormone is suppressed from hypothalmus.
(1) Both statement A and B are correct
(2) Both statement A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Only statement B is incorrect

85) Assertion A : The concentrated filtrate passes upward in the loop of henle, and it gets more
concentrated.
Reason R : The ascending limb is impermeable to water but allows the transport of electrolytes
actively or passively.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

86) Dialysis unit contains a fluid which is almost same an plasma except that it has

(1) High glucose

(2) High urea
(3) No urea
(4) High uric acid

87) Match the term given in column I with their physiological process given in column II and choose
the correct answer

Column-I Column-II

(A) P.C.T (I) Ionic balance

(B) C.D (II) Reabsorption of 70 – 80% of electrolytes

(C) Henle loop (III) Formation of concentrated urine

(1) A – II, B – I, C – III
(2) A – I, B – II, C – III
(3) A – III, B – I, C – II
(4) A – II, B – III, C – I

88) The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in human is synthesised ___ :-

(1) In kidney but eliminated mostly through liver

(2) In kidney as wall as eliminated by kidney
(3) In liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
(4) In liver but eliminated mostly through kidneys

89) If renal blood flow (RBF) is 'x' renal plasma flow (RPF) is 'y' and glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
is 'z' then find out correct formula to calculate "filtration fraction' is :-

(1) z/y
(2) z/x
(3) y/x
(4) y/z

90) Which condition causes more Na+ in blood plasma ?

(1) Hypersecretion of ADH

(2) Low level of aldosterone
(3) More level of ANF
(4) High level of angiotensin II
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 4 4 4 3 4 2 4 3 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 4 1 4 4 3 4 1 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 3 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 4 3 1 1 4 2 3 4 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 4 2 3 4 4 2 3 4 4 1 4 2 4 4 1 4 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 3 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 2 2 4 4 2 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 1 1 2 2 4 1 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 4 3 2 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 2 4 2 3 4 1 4 4 1 2 4 1 3 4 3 2 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 4 1 3 1 3 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 4 2 4 3 1 4 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Width of central maxima in diffraction :-

[given λ = 5800Å, D = 2 m, Δy = 5.8 mm]

⇒
⇒ d = 4 × 10–4 m = 0.4 mm

2) Imax = I0

3)

Only transverse waves can be polarised.

Light waves (microwaves, X-rays, gamma rays) are electromagnetic transverse waves, so they
can be polarised.
Sound waves are longitudinal waves, hence cannot be polarised.

4)

For Cylindrical source

Intensity , I =
where I = kA2 P → power

kA2 =

⇒A∝

5)

By placing the slab only the pattern shifts, no change in width of fringe.

6)

When Δϕ = (2n – 1)π then destructive interference take place.

7)
Bright fringes = 12
Dark fringes = 12
number of fringes = 12 + 12 = 24

8)

Based on Brewster's law

θB = 60°

9)

D=

10) Angular width =

11)

Since, dark fringe is directly opposite to one of the slits,

∴ Distance of the dark fringe from central maxima =

Position of nth dark fringe =

or

⇒λ=

⇒ For n = 1, λ = .
12) A1 = 3A and A2 = 5A

13)

14) r = 2R, 5µT =

At distance from surface means from centre

=
Final Answer : The correct option is (2)

15)

16) loop = 1

loop = 2

loop = 3

loop = 4

17) Direction will remain same. But magnitude reduces to

18)

19)

20)

No induced current because change in flux = 0

21) Explain Question : We need to find the potential difference across points A and B .
Concept : This question is based on inductor circuit .

Solution : VA –IR – L + 10 = VB ⇒ VA – VB= –3V

Final Answer : option (2)

22)

For transformer

⇒ ES = E P ×

⇒ ES = 80 ×
ES = 800 V
and frequency remain 50 Hz

23) V = ⇒ 2t = 2 ×

C+ =i⇒i=
(A) is correct i ∝ t2
 = 4 joule
(B) is correct

= 1 j/s
(C) is correct

24) explanation is correct by definition

25)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Now, using the formula for the wave velocity v.

Substituting the values of w = 100 rad/s and k = rad/m.

= 100 × 10 – 10 = 1000 m/s

The velocity of the wave is 1000 m/s.
Final Answer:(4)

26)

27)

I ∝ a2n2

28) A =
A=
A=

29) λ = 2[0.49 – 0.16]

λ = 2[0.33]
30) The distance of the listener from the second speaker = = = 5 m path
difference = (5 – 4.0) m = 1 m
For fully destructive interference 1 m = (2m + l)λ/2
Hence λ = 2/(2m + 1) m
The corresponding frequencies are given by
n = [330 × (2m + 1)]/2 s–1, for m = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ....................
= 165 (2m + 1) s–1, for m = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ...........
Therefore the frequencies for which the listener would hear a minimum intensity 165 Hz, 495
Hz, 825 Hz, ..............

31) Frequency of first = f Frequency of last = f – (25–1)3 = f – 72

f = 2 [f – 72] (Given)
f = 144 Hz
Frequency of 21st tunning fork = f – (21 – 1) × 3
= 144 – 20 × 3 = 84 Hz

32) There are four beats between P and Q therefore, the possible frequencies of P are 246 or
254.(i.e, 250 ± 4)Hz.
When the prong of P is filed, its frequency becomes greater than the original frequency.
The beats between P and Q will be more than 4 But it is given that the beats are reduced to 2,
therefore, 254 is not possible.
Therefore, the required frequency must be 246 Hz.
(This is true, because on filing the frequency may increase to 248, giving 2 beats with Q of
frequency 250 Hz.)

33)
Answer is 254 Hz

34) Question Explanation: Object is at coordinates (–60,6) in front of a convex mirror of focal
length f = 40 cm. We must find the image coordinates using the mirror formula and
magnification.
Concept: For a convex mirror, f is taken negative, and the image distance is given by

Solution: Object distance: u = –60 cm

Focal length of convex mirror: f = –40 cm
 Magnification :
Image height :
So image coordinates are : (–120, –12)
Final Answer: Option (2)

35)

Object O1 is between F & C and moving towards mirror, So image of it beyond C (Real) and
move away from mirror (size↑) object O2 is between Pole and F, its image is virtual and move
towards mirror (size↓)

36)

For real object :

(A) m = –4 Image is real, inverted and enlarged it is possible in concave mirror only.

(B) Image is real, inverted and small in size it is possible in concave mirror only.

(C) m=+3 Image is virtual, errect and enlarged it is possible in concave mirror only.

(D) Image is virtual, errect and diminished it is possible only in convex mirror.

37) Question Explanation: To find out correct statement as per given question.
Concept : validation of laws of reflection and mirror formula.

Formula :

Solution : Statement-I mirror formula , valid for small mirrors, because of paraxial
rays do not produce aberration, for large mirror this is not application.
Statement-I Correct
Statement-II Laws of reflection and valid for all reflecting surface depends on position of
normal incorrect.
Final Answer : option (3)

38) For concave mirror

u = +120 cm
f = –60 cm

v= = –40 cm

mII = –
For convex mirror :
u = +(40 – 15) = +25 cm
f = +30 cm

m2 = = +6

mnet = m1 × m2 = × 6 = +2

39)

Critical angle at the surface of slab AB

θc = 45°
Critical angle of the surface of slab CD

θc = 60°
so minimum angle of incidence at θ = 60°

40)
For TIR At vertical

Face AD sin C =
Shell's law at surface AB
1 . sin 45° = µ . sin (90° – C)

1× = µ cos C

=µ ⇒µ=

41) Explain Question: The question asks for the position of the final image formed by a
system of two lenses.
Concept: Image formation by combination of lenses.
Solution: For the first lens: using the lens formula:

v1 = 20 cm
For the second lens: the image from first lens becomes the object for seconds lens at distance
10 cm (30 – 20 = 10cm)

v2 = –50 cm
Final answer: option (3)

42) u1 = –30 cm, f1 = 10 cm

v1 = 15 cm
1st image is formed 15 cm to the right of lens L1
The image I1 acts as virtual object for the second lens (L2). The distance from L2 to I1
u2 = +(15 – 5) cm = 10 cm. focal length of L2 is f2 = –10 cm

v2 = ∞
The image is formed by the second lens (I2) is at ∞
Now, u3 = –∞
f3 = +3 cm

final image is formed 30 cm to the right of the 3rd lens

43) Explain the question : We are given four lens combinations (List-I), each made of
surfaces with radius r and refractive index µ = 1.5. We must match each with its focal length
from List-II.
Concept : This question is based on use lens maker's formula for thin lenses:

For combinations, net power is additive.

Solution :

(P)

(Q)

(R)

(S)

Final answer : 2

44)
 f0 = 1.2 cm, fe = 3 cm
u0 = – 1.25 cm

v0 = 30 cm

0
m =
final image is formed at infinity

So,
magnifying power of microscoe

0
M = m me = – 24 ×

45)

u = ∞, V = –2m

P = –0.5D

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

In Bohr's model :
KE α 1/n2
→ As n decreases, KE increases
→ Minimum n (n = 1) gives maximum KE.

48)

49)

RH = RH × 1
and n1 = 1, n2 = 3

50)
51)

No. of possible lines = n2 – 3

(n2 = 8) = 8 – 3 = 5

52) Orbital angular momentum =

Number of orbitals in a sub-shells = 2ℓ + 1
Number of sub-shells in a shell = n.

53) Cr : 1s22s22p63s23p64s13d5
n+1=3
so the combinations are 2p, 3s. So 8 electrons.

54)

1. Orbital angular momentum depends on orbital quantum number ℓ, so it varies → not

constant
2. Spin angular momentum depends on spin quantum number s (= 1⁄2), fixed → constant
3. Mass of electron is constant
4. Charge of electron is constant

55) Solution:
∎ The graph starts with a high |Ψ|2 value at r = 0→ It's an s-orbital (eliminates 2p).
∎ The graph shows one radial node where |Ψ|2 becomes zero once → Number of radial nodes
=1.
Hence, the graph corresponds to the 2 s orbital.

56)

In H-atom, energy of subshell depend on only n → all subshells with same n have equal energy,
regardless of ℓ and h higher the the value of n higher is the energy of subshell.
So :
• 2s = 2p (correct)
• 3d and 4s : n = 3 vs 4 → 3d has lower energy (correct)
• 3s < 3p : incorrect, both have same n, so equal energy
• Both (1) and (2) is correct.

57)

False - The number of spherical (radial) nodes in an orbital is given by:

n–l–1
For 2s orbital: n = 2, l = 0
So, radial nodes = 2 – 0 – 1 = 1, not 2.

58)

Combustion reaction : C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O

1L of C3H8 requires 1 × 5 = 5 L of CO2

59)

3.0 × 10–23 cm3

60)

CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

100 g 22.4 L

∴ Volume of CO2 =

61) NCERT XI, Page No. # 19, Q. No. 1.5

62) % %/A

C 92.3 92.3/12 = 7.7

H 7.7 7.7/1 = 7.7
MF = 6 × (CH)=C6H6

63)

[Polarisation ∝ Size of anion]

64)

μ order
0>m>p

65)

B.L
66)

PCl5 and XeO2F2

→ same hybridisation sp3d but different shape.

67)

only and exist

68)

C2 and N2 show s-p mixing.

69)

Stability of ionic crystal mainly depend upon lattice energy.

70)

Glycerol has more viscosity than methanol so option (3) is incorrect

71)

B.O. of N2 = 3
BO of = 2.5

⇒
→ Para
N2 ⇒ Dia
⇒ All options are correct.

72)

Catalytic property is due to variable oxidation state.

73)

Page-227, NCERT-XII, Part-I

74)

75)
2Cu2+ + 4I– → Cu2I2 + I2

76)

Zn has highest value of E° M+3/M+2

So option 4 is correct.

77)

Only ionic chloride give chromyl chloride test

78)
⇒ K2Cr2O7 produce O2 on heating
⇒ So option (4) is incorrect.

79)

80)

NO → Colourless, para
B2H6 → 3C – 2e– Bond
NO2 → Paramagnetic gas

81)
NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3 (Reducing power)

82)

Stability of O.S. Aℓ+ < Ga+ < In+ < Tℓ+

83)

(CH3)3C – OH is less acidic as its anion is not stabilised by back bonding

→ SiO exists only at very high temperature
→ has more (B – F) bond length due to absence of back bonding
→ GeO2 is acidic

84)

pyrophosphorous acid
 ⇒ H4P2O5
No. of O – H bond = 2
Cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid
⇒ H3P3O9
No. of O – H bond O = 3

85)

(SiH3)3N
has dπ – pπ back bonding.

86)

PbSO4 its insoluble in water.

87)

Al4C3 CH4 ↑
Mg2C3 C3H4 ↑
CaC2 C2 H 4 ↑

88)

All are water soluble

⇒ so they do not form precipitate

89)

Pb does not give borax bead test

90)

Lead has been placed in qualitative group analysis 1 and 2 be cause it is partially soluble in
water

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 210

92) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 295

93)

Explain Question : Choose the incorrect statement.

Concept : This question is based on Mechanism of urine formation.

Solution :
Most NaCl reabsorption occurs in the PCT; although the ascending limb actively reabsorbs
NaCl, it does not have the maximum salt reabsorption.

Final Answer : option (2) Reabsorption of salts is maximum in ascending limb of loop of
Henle.

94)

Explain Question : 70–80% of electrolytes are reabsorbed in which segment of nephron.

Concept : This question is based on Mechanism of urine formation.

Solution : About 70–80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed in the PCT.

Final Answer : option (2) PCT

95)

Explain Question : The filtration membrane is composed of.

Concept : This question is based on Structure of nephron.

Solution :
The filtration membrane of nephron is formed by fenestrated endothelium of glomerular
capillaries, basement membrane, and podocyte epithelium of Bowman’s capsule.

Final Answer : option (4) All of the above

96)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 210

97)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 209

98) B- Permeable to salts: B likely represents the descending Loop of Henle, The
descending loop is permeable to water and not permeable to salts. This statement is incorrect.

99)

Pg. No. 295_XI NCERT

100)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 209

101)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 209

102)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 205

103) NCERT Pg. # 189

104)

Explain the Question : Choose the correct labelling from the given diagram.
Concept : This question is based on human respiratory system.
Solution : A-Epiglottis, B-Trachea, C- Pleural membrane.
Final answer : 3

105) NCERT Pg. # 189

106) NCERT Pg. # 190

107)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 184

108)

A. Question: If expiratory reserve volume is 1100 ml, residual volume is 1200 ml, and tidal
volume is 500 ml, what shall be the functional residual capacity?
B. Given Data: Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) = 1100 ml, Residual Volume (RV) = 1200 ml,
Tidal Volume (TV) = 500 ml
C. Concept: Lung volumes and capacities, specifically Functional Residual Capacity (FRC).
D. Explanation: Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) is the volume of air remaining in the lungs
after a normal, passive exhalation. It is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) and
the residual volume (RV). The tidal volume is irrelevant to the calculation of FRC.
FRC = ERV + RV
FRC = 1100 ml + 1200 ml
FRC = 2300 ml

E. Final Answer: 3. 2300 ml

109)
 A. Question: Match the disorders given in Column I with symptoms under Column II. Choose
the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets with numbers.

B. Given Data:

Column I (Disorders): (a) Asthma (b) Bronchitis (c) Silicosis (d) Emphysema

Column II (Symptoms): (i) Occupational respiratory disorder (ii) Inflammation of bronchi

and bronchiole (iii) Damaged alveolar wall (iv) Inflammation of bronchi (v) Cough with blood-
stained sputum

C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of respiratory disorders and their associated
symptoms.

D. Explanation:

A. Asthma: Asthma is characterized by inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles, leading to

difficulty breathing, wheezing, and coughing. So, (a) matches with (ii) and (iv) as both describe
inflammation of the bronchi.
B. Bronchitis: Bronchitis involves inflammation of the bronchi. So, (b) matches with (iv). While
(ii) also mentions bronchioles, (iv) is a more direct and specific match for bronchitis.
C. Silicosis: Silicosis is an occupational respiratory disorder caused by inhaling silica dust, which
damages the lungs. So, (c) matches with (i).
D. Emphysema: Emphysema involves damage to the alveolar walls, the tiny air sacs in the lungs
responsible for gas exchange. This damage reduces the lung's capacity to exchange gases. So,
(d) matches with (iii).

Therefore, the correct answer is 4 : a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. 276

111)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 183

112)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 186

113)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 185

114)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 185

115)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 185

116)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 187

117)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 187

118)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 183

119)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 185

120)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 185

121)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 187

122)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 187

123)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 189

124)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 185

125)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 194

126)

Question Explanation : This question asks in which parental Rh combination there is a risk
for the first child.

Concept : Rh incompatibility
 Solution : The correct answer is option 4.

A. Although risk of Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother is Rh –ve and father is Rh +ve, the
first child is usually not affected because antibodies are formed only after exposure during the
first pregnancy.

Final answer : Option 4

127)

Question Explanation: Asks to choose the answer about the given marking.

Concept: Electrocardiogram (ECG).

Solution: The wave marked 'T' in the ECG represents the repolarisation of the ventricles. This
is the electrical recovery of the ventricular muscles after they have contracted.

Final Answer: 3

128)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 196

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 282

130)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 197

131)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 27

132)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 30

133)

Explanation: Fetal Heartbeat: The fetal heartbeat can typically be detected using a Doppler
ultrasound device around 6-8 weeks of pregnancy. This is often the first noticeable sign of a
growing fetus.
The correct answer is 2. Listening to the heart sound carefully through the stethoscope.

134)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 38

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg. 54

136)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 34

137)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 32

138)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 29

139)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 34

140)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 36

141)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 28

142)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 27

143)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 32

144)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 53

145)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 49

146)
NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 51

147)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 52

148)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 49

149) NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 54

150)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 52

151) NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 64

152)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 51

153) NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 47

154) NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 54

155)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 205

156)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 206

157)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 208

158) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 292, Para-4 & 5

159)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 207

 160) NCERT Pg. # 295, Para-12,13

161) NCERT Pg. # 295

162) NCERT Pg. # 297, Para-15,16

163)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 212

164)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 211

165)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 206

166) Question Explanation: The question asks to identify structures A–D in the human
excretory system diagram.
Concept: The question is based on human excretory system
Solution:

A. A = Ureter → Tube carrying urine from kidney to bladder.

B. B = Inferior vena cava → Large vein carrying deoxygenated blood to the heart.
C. C = Dorsal aorta → Major artery carrying oxygenated blood (pure blood).
D. D = Urethra → Tube carrying urine from bladder to outside.

Final Answer: Option 3

167)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 211

168)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 207

169) NCERT Pg. # 293

170)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 214

171)
NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 214

172)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 208

173)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 211

174)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 213

175)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 211

176) NCERT-XI Pg.# 298

177)

NCERT - XI, Pg. # 294

178)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 205

179)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 209

180)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 212