NTA ABHYAS NEET MOCK TEST - 18

PHYSICS
1. Three charges  q, Q and  q are placed at equal distances on a straight line. If the potential energy of
the system of charges is zero, then the ratio Q: q is

1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 3 4) 1 : 4

2. If an alpha particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 1 MeV, then the
ratio of their kinetic energies will be

1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) 4

3. A thin spherical conducting shell of radius r is given a charge q. Another charge Q is placed at the
R
centre of the shell. The electrostatic potential at the point P at a distance from the centre of the shell
2
is

2Q 2q 2Q q (q  Q ) 2 2Q
1)  2)  3) 4)
4 0 R 4 0 R 4 0 R 4 0 R 4 0 R 4 0

4. The power consumed by the 4 V battery is

1) 4 W 2) 8 W 3) 7 W 4) Cannot be calculated

5. The resistance of metal sheet 1 between A and B is R1 and the resistance of sheet 2 between A’ and B’
R1
is R2 . The value of the ratio is
R2

1
1) 1 2) 3) 2 4) 4
2
6. The figure shows three circuits with identical batteries, inductors and resistances. Rank the circuits in
decreasing order, according to the current through the battery just after the switch is closed

1) i2  i3  i1 2) i2  i1  i3 3) i1  i2  i3 4) i1  i3  i2

7. In the arrangement of 3 bulbs of 100 W each as shown in the figure, total power consumption will be

1) 300 W 2) 50 W 3) 150 W 4) 25 W

8. A flux of 103 Wb passes through a strip having an area A  0.02 m2 . The plane of the strip is at an
angle of 600 to the direction of a uniform field B, The value of B is

1) 0.1 T 2) 0.58 T 3) 4.0 mT 4) None of the above

9. A dip needle vibrates in the vertical plane perpendicular to the magnetic meridian. The time period of
vibration is found to be 2s. The same needle is then allowed to vibrate in the horizontal plane, and the
time period is again found to be 2 s. Then the angle of dip is

1) 00 2) 300 3) 450 4) 900

10. A square conducting loop of side length L carries a current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the
loop is

1) Independent of L 2) Proportional to L2

3) Inversely proportional to L 4) Linearly proportional to L

11. If the de – Broglie wavelength is 0 for protons accelerated through 100 V, then the de – Broglie
wavelength for alpha particles accelerated through the same voltage will be

0 0
1) 0 2) 3) 4) None of these
2 2 2
12. Two photons having

1) Equal wavelengths have equal linear momenta

2) Equal energies have equal linear momenta

3) Equal frequencies have equal linear momenta

4) Equal linear momenta have equal wavelengths

13. Heavy water is used as moderator in a nuclear reactor. The function of the moderator is

1) To control the energy released in the reactor

2) To absorb neutrons and stop chain reaction

3) To cool the factor reactor

4) To slow down the neutrons to thermal energies

14. The half life period of a radioactive substance is 140 days. After how much time, 15 g will decay from
a 16 g sample of the substance?

1) 140 days 2) 560 days 3) 420 days 4) 280 days

15. 300 g of water at 250 C is added to 100 g of ice at 00 C . The final temperature of mixture is
0
5 5 0
1)  C 2)  C 3) 5 0C 4) 0 0C
3 4

16. There is a rough black spot on a polished metallic plate. If the plate is heated up to 1400 K
(approximately) and then at once taken in a dark room, then

1) In comparison with the plate, the spot will shine more

2) In camparison with plate, the spot will appear more black

3) The spot and the plate will be equally bright

4) The plate and the black spot cannot be seen in the dark room

17. The temperature gradient in a 0.5 m long rod is 80 0C m1 . If the temperature of the hotter end of the
rod is 300 C , then the temperature of the cooler end is

1) 40 0C 2) 10 0C 3) 10 0C 4) 0 0C
18. A non – viscous liquid is flowing through a horizontal pipe as shown in the figure. Three tubes A, B
and C are connected to the pipe . The radii of the tubes A, B and C at the junction are 2 cm, 1 cm and 2
cm respectively. It can be said that the

1) Height of the liquid in the tube A is maximum

2) Height of the liquid in the tubes A and B is the same

3) Height of the liquid in all the three tubes is the same

4) Height of the liquid in the tubes A and C is the same

19. An object will continue moving uniformly until

1) The resultant force acting on it begins to decrease

2) The resultant force on it is zero

3) The result force is at right angle to its rotation

4) The resultant force on it is increased continuously

20. A gas in an airtight container is heated from 25 0C to 90 0C . The density of the gas will

1) Increase slightly 2) Increase considerably 3) Remain the same

4) Decrease slightly

21. If two tuning forks A and B are sounded together, they produce 4 beats per second. A is then slightly
loaded with wax, they produce 2 beats when sounded again. The frequency of A is 256. The frequency
of B will be

1) 250 2) 252 3) 260 4) 262

22. The superposition takes place between two waves of frequency f and amplitude a. The maximum
intensity

I max  constant  ________

1) a 2) 2a 3) 2a 2 4) 4a 2

23. Which one of the following is a simple harmonic motion?

1) Wave moving through a string fixed at both ends 2) Earth spinning about its own axis

3) Ball bouncing between two rigid vertical walls

4) Particle moving in a circle with uniform speed

24. Two rectangular blocks A and B of different metals have the same length and same area of cross –
section. They are kept in such a way that their cross – sectional areas are in contact. The temperature at
one end of A is 100 0C and that of B at the other end is 0 0C . If the ratio of their thermal conductivity
is 1 : 3, then under steady – state, the temperature of the junction in contact will be

1) 25 0C 2) 50 0C 3) 75 0C 4) 100 0C

25. Equal molecules of two gases are in thermal equilibrium. If Pa , Pb and Va , Vb are their respective
pressures and volumes, then which of the following relation is true?

1) Pa  Pb ; Va  Vb 2) Pa  Pb ; Va  Vb

Pa Pb
3)  a a  PV
4) PV b b
Va Vb

26. A uniform metal rod is used as a bar pendulum. If the room temperature rises by 10 0C , and the
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal of the rod is 2 10 6 0C 1 , the period of the pendulum will
have a percentage increase of

1) 2  103 2) 1 103 3) 2  103 4) 1103

27. Equal masses of water and a liquid of density 2g/cc are mixed together, then the mixture has a density of

2 4 3
1) g / cc 2) g / cc 3) g / cc 4) 3 g/cc
3 3 2

28. Force necessary to pull a circular plate of 5 cm radius from water surface for which surface tension is
75 dynes cm 1 , is

1) 30 dynes 2) 60 dynes 3) 750 dynes 4) 750  dynes

29. When a certain weight is suspended from a long uniform wire, its length increases by 1 cm. If the same
weight is suspended from another wire of the same material and length but having a diameter half of the
first one then the increase in length will be

1) 0.5 cm 2) 2 cm 3) 4 cm 4) 8 cm

30. The mass and diameter of a planet have twice the value of the corresponding parameters of earth.
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planet is

1) 9.8 m s 2 2) 4.9 ms 2 3) 980 ms 2 4) 19.6 ms 2

31. A force acts on a 30 g particle in such a way that the position of the particle as a function of time is
given by

  3t  4t 2  t 3 where  is in meters and t is in seconds. The work done during the first 4 seconds is

1) 5.28 J 2) 450 mJ 3) 490 mJ 4) 530 mJ

32. A pulley fixed with celling carried a string with blocks of mass m and 3m attached to its ends. The
masses of string and pulley are negligible. When the system is released, its centre of mass moves with
acceleration

g g
1) g 2) 3) 4) Zero
5 4

33. A body of mass m collides against a wall with the velocity  and rebounds with the same speed. Its
magnitude of change of momentum is

1
1) 2m  2) m  3) m 4) 0
2

34. Three rings, each of mass P and radius Q are arranged as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of
the arrangement about YY 1 axis will be

7 2 2 2 5
1) PQ 2 2) PQ 3) PQ 2 4) PQ 2
2 7 5 2

35. A bullet of mass m moving with velocity 1 strikes a suspended wooden block of mass M as shown in
the figure and sticks to it. If the block rises to a height y , the initial velocity of the bullet is

mM
1) 1  2 gy 2) 1  2gy
m

M m m
3) 1  2 gy 4) 1  2 gy
M m M
36. A particle is moving along a circular path with a constant speed. The acceleration of the particle is
constant in

1) Magnitude 2) Direction

3) Both magnitude and direction 4) Neither magnitude not direction

37. Check up the only correct statement in the following

1) A body has a constant velocity and still it can have a varying speed

2) A body has a constant speed but it can have a varying velocity

3) A body having constant speed cannot have any acceleration

4) A body in motion under a force acting upon it must always have work done upon it

38. The force required to row a boat over the sea is proportional to the square of the speed of the boat. It is
found that it takes 24 hp to row a certain boat at a speed of 8km hr 1 , the horsepower required when
speed is doubled

1) 12 hp 2) 48 hp 3) 96 hp 4) 192 hp

39. An incompressible liquid flows in a tube, as shown in the figure. The speed of the liquid in the lowest
branch will be

1) 1.0 ms 1 2) 1.5 ms 1 3) 2.5 ms 1 4) 3.0 ms 1

40. A Newtonian fluid fills the clearance between a shaft and a sleeve. When a force of 800 N is applied to
the shaft, parallel to the sleeve, the shaft attains a speed of 2 cm s 1 . If a force of 2.4 kN is applied
instead, the shaft would move with a speed of

1) 2cm s 1 2) 15 cm s 1 3) 6 cm s 1 4) None of these

41. The magnitude of electric field intensity at point B (2, 0, 0) due to a dipole of dipole moment

p  i  3 j kept at origin is (assume that the point B is at a large distance from the dipole and
1
K
4 0

13K 13K 7K 7K
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 4 8 4
42. A particle of mass m is located in a field such that its potential energy is given by U ( x)  U 0 (1  cos ax )
where U 0 and a are positive constants. The period of small oscillations is

U0 mU 0 a0 m
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
ma 2 a2 mU 0 U 0a2

43. An equilateral triangular frame is made of three thin massless rods. Three point masses of mass m each
are fixed at vertices of the frame as shown. The system is rotated with uniform angular speed w about a
fixed axis passing through A and normal to the plane of triangular frame. Neglect the effect of gravity.
The tension in rod connecting mass B and C is

mw2l 3
1) mw l 2
2) 3) mw2l 4) Zero
2 2

44. In the figure, mA  2 kg and mB  4 kg . For what minimum value of force F, A starts slipping over B

 g  10 ms  2

1) 24 N 2) 36 N 3) 12 N 4) 20 N

45. In  decay the kinetic energy of  particle is 48 MeV and Q value of the reaction is 50 MeV. The
mass number of the mother nucleus is (Assume that the daughter nucleus is in the ground state)

1) 96 2) 100 3) 104 4) None of these

 CHEMISTRY
46. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H 2 SO4 by mass and ahs a density of 1.80 g ML1 .
Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H 2 SO4 solution

1) 16.65 mL 2) 22.20 mL 3) 5.55 mL 4) 11.10 mL

47. When copper nitrate is strongly heated the compound obtained is

1) Copper nitrite 2) Copper 3) Copper nitride 4) Copper oxide

2 4
48.  Fe  H 2O 6  and  Fe(CN )6  differ in

1) Geometry, magnetic moment 2) Magnetic moment and colour

3) Geometry and hybridization 4) None of these

49. A gas expands from 3 dm3 to 5 dm3 against a constant pressure of 3 atm. The work done during
expansion is used to heat 10 mole of water at temperature 290 K. Calculate final temperature of water.
Specific heat of water = 4.184 J/g/K

Given : 1 atm  101.33 J 

1) 290. 81 K 2) 290. 61 K 3) 290.41 K 4) 290.21 K

50. Reaction of methyl bromide with aqueous sodium hydroxide involves

1) Racemisation 2) S N 1 mechanism

3) Retention of configuration 4) S N 2 mechanism

51. The polymer melmac is obtained by

1) Addition polymerization of melamine and formaldehyde

2) Free radical polymersation of acrylonitrile

3) Condensation polymerization of melamine and formaldehyde

4) Coordination polymerization of melamine

52. What is the IUPAC name of the following compounds?

1) Trans-hex-3-ene 2) Trans-hex-4-ene

3) Trans-hex-5-ene 4) Trans-hex-6-ene
53. IUPAC name for the compound

1) Methylcyclohexanone 2) 2 – Methylcyclohexanone

3) Heptanone – 2 4) Methylcyclo – hexanone

54. For the reaction

M x   MnO4  MO3  Mn 2  , if 1 mol of MnO4 oxidizes 1.67 mol of M x  to MO3 , then the value of
x n the reaction is

1) 5 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1

55. The equivalent conductances of two strong electrolytes at infinite dilution in H 2O (where ions move
freely through a solution) at 25 0C are given below

 0 CH 3COONa  91.0 S cm2 / equivalent

What additional information / quantity one needs to calculate  0 of an aqueous solution of acetic acid?

What additional information/quantity one needs to calculate  0 of an aqueous solution of acetic acid?

1)  0 of chloroacetic acid  ClCH 2COOH  2)  0 of NaCl

3)  0 of CH 3COOK


4) The limiting equivalent conductance of H  H0  
56. Wrong statement regarding white phosphorus ( P4 ) is

1) It has six P – P single bonds

2) It has four P – P single bonds

3) It has four lone pair of electrons

4) Bond angle around phosphorus is 600

57. 2 – Methylpent – 2 – ene on reductive ozonlysis will give

1) Propanal only 2) Propanal and ethanol

3) Propanone & propanal 4) Propan – 2 – Ol and ethanol

58.

Which of the following statement is true?

1) A is formed by anti – addition and is meso

2) A is formed by syn addition and is meso

3) A is formed by anti – addition and is racemic

4) A is formed by syn addition and is racemic

59. The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule are violated

  
1) 

  
2) 

 
3) 

 
4) 

60. Which one of the following complexes shows optical isomerism?

(en = enthylendiamine)

1) Trans  Co(en)2 Cl2  Cl 2)  Cl ( NH 3 )4 Cl2  Cl

3)  Co( NH 3 )3 Cl3  4) cis Co(en) 2 Cl2  Cl

61. If the bond energies of

H  H , Br  Br , and H  Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol 1

Respectively, the H 0 for the reaction H 2 ( g )  Br2 ( g )  2 HBr ( g ) is

1) 261 kJ 2) 103 kJ 3) 261kJ 4) 103 kJ

62. Which of the following has unpaired electron(s)?

1) O2 2) N 22  3) O22  4) N2

63. The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules of both species is

1) CF4 , SF4 2) XeF2 , CO2 3) BF3 , PCl3 4) PF5 , IF5

64. Choose from the indicated protons, the one that is most acidic

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

65. The products of the following chemical reactions are

i) C2 H 5 NH 2  C6 H 5 SO2Cl 

H 2O
ii) C2 H 5 NH 2  HNO2  

1) (i ) C6 H 5 SO2 NHC2 H 5 ;(ii) C2 H 5Cl

2) (i) C6 H5 SO2 NH 2 ; (ii) C2 H 5OH

3) (i) C6 H 5 SO2 NHC2 H 5 ; (ii) C2 H 5OH

4) None of these

66. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN  ion. Silver is later recovered by

1) Liquation 2) Distillation 3) Zone refining 4) Displacement with Zn

67. For the reaction mechanism of the reaction 2 NO( g )  2 H 2 ( g )  N 2 ( g )  2 H 2O( g )

k1
Step I 2 NO  N 2O2

k2
Step II N 2O2  H 2   N 2 O  H 2O

k3
Step III N 2O  H 2   N 2  H 2O

Expression of rate of reaction is

(Take K eq  k2  k 1 )

2
1) K 1  NO   H 2  2) K 1 N 2O2  H 2  3) K 1 N 2O  H 2  4) K 1 N 2O2

68. The reaction A( g )  B ( g )  2C ( g ) is a first – order reaction with a rate constant of 2.303 10 3 s 1 .
Starting with 0.1 moles of ‘A’ in a 2 litre vessel, find the concentration of A after 301 sec when the
reaction is allowed to take place at constant pressure at 300 K

1) 0.0125 M 2) 0.025 M 3) 0.05 M 4) None of these

69. Which one of the following is an oxide?

1) SiO2 2) KO2 3) BaO2 4) CsO2


Dry ether H3O
70. CH 3MgBr  CO2   Y   Z identify Z from the following

1) Ethyl acetate 2) Acetic acid 3) Propanoic acid 4) Methyl acetate

71. 3 – pentanol on reaction with aluminium tertiary butoxide in the presence of acetone gives

1) 3 – pentanal 2) 2 – pentanal 3) 3 – pentanone 4) 2 – pentanone

72. In fluorite structure  CaF2  

1) Ca 2 ions form ccp & F  ions are present in all the tetrahedral voids

2) Ca 2 ions form ccp & F  ions are present in all the octahedral voids

3) Ca 2 ions form ccp & F  ions are present in half of the octahedral voids and the rest half ions in the
tetrahedral voids

4) None

73. 30 mL of 0.1 M BaCl2 is mixed with 40 mL of 0.2 MAl2 ( SO4 )3 . What is the weight of BaSO4
formed?

BaCl2  Al2 ( SO4 )3  BaSO4 [Molecular] + AlCl3

Mass of BaSO4 = 233]

1) 0.999 g 2) 0.699 g 3) 0.799 g 4) 0.99 g

74. Identify the correct trend given below

( Atomic No  Ti : 22, Cr : 24 and Mo : 42)

2 2 3 2
1)  of Cr ( H 2O)6  and   Mo( H 2O )6   of Ti( H 2O )6   Ti ( H 2O)6 

2 2 3 2
2)  of Cr ( H 2O)6  and   Mo( H 2O )6   of Ti( H 2O )6   Ti ( H 2O6 

2 2 3 2
3)  of Cr ( H 2O)6  and   Mo( H 2O )6   of Ti ( H 2O )6   Ti ( H 2O)6 

2 2 3 2
4)  of Cr ( H 2O)6  and   Mo( H 2O )6   of Ti ( H 2O )6   Ti( H 2O )6 
75. Sewage containing organic waste should not be disposed in water bodies because it causes major water
pollution. Fishes in such a polluted water die because of

1) Large number of mosquitoes

2) Increase in the amount of dissolved oxygen

3) Decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in water

4) Clogging of gills by mud

76. Densities of diamond and graphite are 3.5 and 2.3 g/ml respectively increase of pressure on the
equilibrium

C( diamond )  C( graphite )

1) Favours backward reaction 2) Favours forward reaction

3) Forms 3rd allotrope of carbon 4) Increase the reaction rate

77. Which of the following will reduce Tollen’s reagent?

1)

2)

3) Both of them are correct 4) None of these

78. Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the preparation of alkyl halides?
Anhyd .ZnCl2
I. CH 3CH 2 OH  HCl  

II. CH3CH 2OH  HCl 

III. (CH 3 )3 COH  HCl 

Anhyd .ZnCl2
IV. (CH 3 )2 CHOH  HCl  

1) I and IV only 2) I and II only 3) IV only 4) III and IV only

79. The osmotic pressure of 0.4% urea solution is 1.66 atm and that of a solution of sugar of 3.42% is 2.46
atm. When equal volumes of both the solutions are mixed then the osmotic pressure of the resultant
solution will be?

1) 1.02 atm 2) 2.06 atm 3) 3.04 atm 4) 0.02 atm

80. Pb 2 , Cu 2 , Zn 2 and Ni 2 ions are present in a given acidic solution. On passing hydrogen sulphide
gas through this solution, the available precipitate will contain

1) PbS and NiS 2) PbS and CuS

3) CuS and ZnS 4) CuS and NiS

81. If two molecules of A and B having mass 100 amu and 64 amu respectively and rate of diffusion of A is
12  103 , then what will be the rate of diffusion of B?

1) 15  103 2) 64  103 3) 5  10 3 4) 46  103

82. Which of the following statements is correct?

0 0
1) The bond length in CO is 1.128 A and CO  is 1.115 A because during conversion of

CO to CO  , electron is removed from anti bonding orbital

0 0
2) The bond length in CO is 1.115 A and CO  is 1.128 A because during conversion of

CO to CO  electron is removed from bonding orbital

3) During conversion of Co to CO  bond length does not vary because bond order remain order
0 0
4) The bond length in CO is 1.115 A and CO  is 1.125 A because bond order decreases during

conversion of CO to CO 

83. Tetragonal crystal system has the following unit cell dimensions

1) a  b  c and       900

2) a  b  c and       900

3) a  b  c and       900 a  b  c and     900 and   1200

84. When a 20 mL of 0.08 M weak base BOH is titrated with 0.08 HCl, the pH of the solution at the end
point is 5. What will be the pOH if 10 mL of 0.04 M NaOH is added to the resulting solution? [Given
log 2 = 0.30 and log 3 = 0.48]

1) 5.40 2) 4.92 3) None of these 4) 5.88

85. Which of the following catalyses the conversion of glucose into ethanol

1) Zymase 2) Invertase 3) Maltase 4) Diastase

86. Which of the following statements about water is FALSE?

1) There is extensive intramolecular hydrogen bonding in the condensed phase

2) Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal water

3) Water is oxidized to oxygen during photosynethesis

4) Water can act both as an acid and as a base

87. The buffer system which helps to maintain the pH of blood between 7.26 to 7.42 is

1) H 2CO3 / HCO3 2) NH 4OH / NH 4Cl 3) CH 3COOH / CH 3COO  4) CH 3COONH 4

88. Bakelite is a product of the reaction between

1) Formaldehyde and NaOH 2) Aniline and Urea

3) Phenol and Methanal 4) Phenol and chloroform

89. The first viral disease detected in human being was

1) Cold 2) Influenza 3) Small pox 4) Yellow fever

90. An atom has 26 electrons and its atomic weight is 56. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of the
atom will be

1) 26 2) 30 3) 36 4) 56

BIOLOGY
91. Asexual reproduction in sponges occurs by

1) Parthenogenesis 2) Budding 3) Fragmentation 4) Spores

92. The development of male gametophyte in angiosperms is

1) Partly in – situ in anther and partly ex-situ on stigma 2) Fully in – situ in anther

3) Fully Ex – situ on stigma 4) In – vitro only

93. Which of the following is the correct description of follicular phase of menstrual cycle?

1) Primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature graafian follicle and simultaneously the
endometrium of uterum regenerates through proliferation

2) The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the
endometrium

3) Both LH and FSH attain a peak level about 10th day leading to rupture of Graafian follicle

4) These changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by changes in the levels of adrenal gland
94. A total of 512 seeds are collected from the cross between AaBb  AaBb. Find the number of plants
produced with the genotype AAbb and AaBb

1) 35 2) 350 3) 96 4) 285

95. Modern Homo sapiens arose during ice age between

1) 15, 000 – 5, 000 years ago 2) 5 million years ago

3) 15 million years ago 4) 75,000 – 10,000 years ago

96. A. The condition primitive on earth (before the origin of life) were: low temperature, volcanic storms,
reducing atmosphere containing CH 4 , NH 3 etc.,,

B. Cheetah and humans share similarities in the pattern of bones of forelimbs

C. In a collection of moths made in the 1850s, i.e., before industrialization set in, it was observed that
there were more dark – winged moths on trees than white winged moths.

D. Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution.

E. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400cc lived in east and central Asia 25,000 – 10,000
years ago

Which set of given statements are correct?

1) A, B, E 2) B, D 3) A, C, E 4) B, C, D

97. Select the incorrect information given regarding ascariasis

1) Common name of causative agent round worm

2) Organ in which adult pathogen is found – Colon

3) Symptoms: internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and blockage of the intestinal passage

4) Mode of infection : Contaminated soil, water and plants

98. Fishery is an industry devoted to the catching, processing or selling of fish, shelfish or other aquatic
animals. Some of the very common freshwater fishes include

1) Catla, rohu and common carp 2) Hilsa, common carp and promfrets

3) Catla, rohu and sardine 4) Hilsa, sardines, mackerel and promfrets

99. In biolistic method of gene transfer, the microparticles coated with foreigh DNA are bombarded into
target cells at a very high velocity. These microparticles are made up of

1) Silver or tungsten 2) Arsenic or silver 3) Gold or tungsten 4) None of these

100. The number of death and birth in the last stage of sigmoid growth curve of a population will be

1) Similar to lag phase 2) Unequal with more deaths

3) Unequal with less deaths 4) Equal

101. Which of the following is correct regarding the ecosystem?

1) There is cyclic exchange of materials between living beings and environment

2) The flow of energy is unidirectional

3) It is a self – regulating unit

4) All of these

102. Select the incorrect match from the following

1) Musca domestical : Diptera (order)

2) Mangifera indica : Anacardiaceae (family)

3) Solanum melongena : Polymoniales (order)

103. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct?

1) Viruses possess their own metabolic system

2) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA

3) Viruses are facultative parasites

4) Viruses are readily killed by antibiotics

104. Excretory system is absent in

1) Echinodermata 2) Mollusca 3) Annelids 4) Arthropods

105. In the given table, each phylum is paired with a set of characters. Select the option with an incorrect set
of information about the given phyla of animals

I. P – Radula for feeding; Q water vascular system

Echinodermata

II. R – Compelte alimentary canal with muscular pharynx , S –

Aschelminthes internal fertilization

III. T – internal fertilization, U – sexual reproduction only

1) R, S, T 2) P, T 3) P, S, T 4) P, Q, U

106. In cymose inflorescence

1) Main axis terminates in flower 2) Main axis is of indefinite growth

3) Flower are borne in basipetal order 4) Both 1 & 3

107. As a tree grows very old, which of the following increases more rapidly in thickness?

1) Cortex 2) Heartwood 3) Phloem 4) Pericycle

108. T.S of a plant material shows the following anatomical features

I. Vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheaths

II. Phloem parenchyma is absent

What will you identify it as?

1) Dicot stem 2) Monocot stem 3) Dicot root 4) Monocot root

109. Periplaneta Americans is a very common species of cockroach. It is

1) Ureotellic 2) Uricotellic 3) Ammonotellic 4) Guanotelic

110. Read the following statements

A. Cartilage is present in between atlas and axis

B. In epithelium, cells are compactly arranged with the little in intercellular matrix

C. The simple epithelium consists of a two or more layer of cells

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) All

111. Which of the following cell organelles are involved in the manufacturing of various substances?

1) Lysosome, Vacuole, Ribosome

2) Ribosomes, RER, SER

3) Vacuole, RER, SER

4) SER, Ribosome, Centriole

112. Select the incorrect statement

1) Lipids are insoluble in water 2) Glycerol is trihydoxy propane

3) Lecithin is a glycoprotein 4) Adenosine is a nucleoside

113. The X – shaped structures forms during the largest stage of meiosis – I are called

1) Bivalent 2) Chiasmata

3) Cross – overs 4) More than one option is correct

114. Transpiration has more than one purpose. Which of the following is not the purpose of transportation?

1) Creates transpiration pull for absorption and transport in plants

2) Cools leaf surfaces by evaporative cooling

3) Transports minerals from the soil to all parts of the plant

4) Gives high tensile strength to water column present in xylem

115. Manganese toxicity causes

1) Reduces uptake of magnesium and iron

2) Inhibit translocation of Ca 2 

3) Yellow spots surrounding chlorotic veins

4) Both 1 & 2

116. Effectiveness of different wavelength of light on photosynethsis is measured by

1) Quantum yield

2) Quantum requirement

3) Absorption spectrum

4) Fluorescence

117. Number of oxygen atoms required for oxidation of 2 NADH 2 molecule in ETS is

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

118. Arithmetic growth curve is represented by which of the following equation?

1) Wt  W0 e rt 2) L0  Lt  rt 3) Lt  L0  rt 4) 2 Lt  L0  rt

119. Which of the following disease is the result of the reflex action of medulla oblongata?

1) Indigestion 2) Vomiting 3) Constipation 4) Diarrhoea

120. Which of the following is most suitable description for trachea?

1) Straight tube, extending up to the mid – thoracic cavity and divides at the level of 5th thoracic

vertebra

2) Straight tube, extension up to the mid – thoracic cavity and divides at the level of 3rd thoracic

vertebra

3) Straight tube, extensing upto the neck and divides at the level of 5th cervical vertebra

4) Curved tube, extending upto the mid – thoracic cavity and divides at the level of 5th thoracic

vertebra

121. In which disease does a symptom of acute chest pain appear due to enough oxygen not reaching the

heart muscle?

1) Angina pectoris 2) Atherosclerosis 3) Arteriosclerosis 4) Hypertension

122. Read the following statements about the excretory system in humans

I. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release rennin

II. ADH can also affect the kidney function by its constrictor effects on blood vessels

III. The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta as well as the counter – current in them help
in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the outer medullalry interstitium

IV. Our lungs remove large amounts of CO2 (108 litres/day)

V. Renal calculi are the stone or insoluble mass of crystallized salts like oxalates within the kidney

How many of these are incorrect?

1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three

123. Which of the following organs is not a part of the limbic system?

1) Amygdala 2) Hippocampus 3) Inner partsof cerebral hemispheres

4) Cerebellum

124. Which of the following is not the function of parathormone (PTH)?

1) Increases calcium level in blood

2) Decreases the reabsorption of calcium from the renal tubules

3) Increases the calcium absorption from GIT

4) Decreases the movement of calcium to bones

125. Which of the following sets of elements delays flowering if their concentration in plants is low?

1) N, K, Mg, S 2) N, S, P 3) Ca, Mg, Cu 4) N, S, Mo

126. The part of large intestine which appears as a blind sac and harbours some microorganisms is called

1) Caecum 2) Vermiform appendix 3) Colon 4) Rectum

127. Match the Columns with their respective matches

Column I Column II

P. Inspiratory capacity I. ERV + RV

Q. Expiratory capacity II. TV + ERV

R. Functional Residual III. ERV + TV + IRV

capacity

S. Vital capacity IV. TV + IRV

1) P – III, Q – II, R – IV, S – I 2) P – IV, Q – I, R – III, S – II

3) P – III, Q – IV, R – I, S – II 4) P – IV, Q – II, R – I, S – III

128. Citrus canker is a

1) Bacterial disease 2) Fungal disease

3) Viral disease 4) Prion disease

129. Which of the following is correct about non – living objects?

1) Doesn’t grow 2) Show intrinsic growth

3) Show extrinsic growth 4) Show both extrinsic and intrinsic growth

130. Respiratory organs like gills, book gills, book lungs or tracheal system are found in phylum

1) Arthropoda 2) Aschlminthes 3) Mollusca 4) Chordata

131. Nissl’s granules are located in

1) Cyton and Dendrites 2) Dendrites and Axon

3) Axon and Cyton 4) Axon and Axon terminal

132. Identify parts labelled A – E in the given figure

A B C D E

1) Peripheral Interdoublet Central Radial Central

microtubules bridge macrotubeles spoke sheath

2) Peripheral Intertriplet Central Radial Central

microtubules bridge microtubules spoke sheath

3) Peripheral Interdoublet Central Radial Central

microtubules bridge microtubules spoke sheath

4) Peripheral Intertriplet Central Radial Central

microtubules bridge microtubules spoke sheath

133. Water constitutes __________ % of the total cellular mass

1) 10 2) 30 3) 50 4) 90

134. In mitosis, the centromeres split and chromatids separate during

1) Metaphase 2) Anaphase 3) Prophase 4) Telophase

135. A particular mineral element P activates various enzymes, especially nitrate reductase. Identify P.

1) Cu 2) Mo 3) Mg 4) Mn

136. The serum has all of the following except

1) Ions 2) Glucose 3) Clotting factors 4) Amino acids

137. Which of the following is not a part of renal tubules?

1) Glomerulus 2) PCT 3) DCT 4) Loop of Henle

138. Photosynthesis is a

1) Physico – chemical process 2) Physical process

3) Chemical process 4) Catabolic process

139. In males, FSH stimulates

1) Sertoli cells 2) Spermatogonia

3) Interstitial cells 4) Cells of ejaculatory duct

140. Milk yield is primarily dependent on the

1) Quality of bread 2) Absence of disease

3) Quantity of roughage given to animal 4) Quantity of concentrate give to animal

141. The number of chloroplasts in chlamydomonas is ________ and in a mesophyll cell, it ranges

between ____________

1) 1, 2, - 4 2) 2, 20 – 40 3) 20 – 40, 1 4) 1, 20- 40

142. Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in ascending order or their size and

select the correct option

i) Mycoplasma ii) Ostrich eggs iii) Human RBCs iv) Bacteria

1) (i)  (iv)  (iii)  (ii) 2) (i)  (iii)  (iv)  (ii)

3) (ii)  (i)  (iii)  (iv) 4) (iii)  (ii)  (i)  (iv)

143. Identify parts labelled ‘ A’ and ‘B’ in the given diagram and select the correct option

1) Anbaena – A; Heterocyst, B – Mucilagenous sheath

2) Nostoc – A; Heterocyst, B mucilaginous sheath

3) Azospirillium – A ; - Mucilagenous sheath, B : - Heterocyst

4) Anabeana : A; Mucilagenous sheath, B : - Heterocyst

144. Identify the correct option

Biological Name Family Order Class

Mangifera Indica A B C

Triticum aestivum D E F

1) A – Anacardiaceae, B – Sapindales, C – Monocotyledonae, D – Poaceae, E – Poales,

F – Dicotyledonae
2) A – Anacardiaceae, B – Sapindales, C – Dicotyledonae, D – Poaceae, E – Poales,

F – Monocotyledonae
3) A – Poaceae, B – Sapindales, C – Dicotyledonae, D – Anacardiaceae, E – Poales,
F – Monocotyledonae
4) A – Anacardiaceae, B – Poales, C – Dicotyledonae, D – Poaceae, E – Sapindales,
F – Monocotyledonae
145. Identify the incorrect pair,

1) Trypanosoma – Sporozoan 2) Plankton – Float passively

3) Gonyaulax – Chitinous cells wall 4) Slime moulds – Saprophytic protists
146. Identify the mismatch among the following
1) Reptiles – Cleioic eggs 2) Amphibians – Epidermal scales
3) Mammals – Corpus callosum 4) Aves – Pneumatic bones
147. Which set of characters belongs to the same phylum?
1) First true coelomates and nephridia as the excretory structures
2) Pseudocoelomates and flame cells as the excretory structures
3) Acoelomates and metanephridia cells as the excretory structures

4) Eucoelomates and flame cells as the excretory structures

148. How many of the following statements are not correct?
I. In a flowering plants the substances that would need to be transported are water, mineral
nutrients, organic nutrients and plant growth regulators
II. Over small distances, substances move by diffusion and by cytoplasmic streaming
supplemented only passive transport
III. Organic and mineral nutrients undergo multidirectional transport through the xylem

IV. From the storage organs, organic compounds are later re – exported

V. Phytohormones and other chemical signals are transported to maintain and regulate the plant

functions

1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five

149. Mark out the number of incorrect statement/s

I. Some essential elements can alter the osmotic potential of a cell

II. Nitrogen is required by the meristematic tissues and the metabolically active cells only

III. Mg 2 is needed by several respiratory enzymes

IV. Mo is essential for the water splitting reaction in photosynthesis, a reaction that leads to

oxygen evolution

V. Sulphur is the main constituent of several coenzymes, vitamins (Thiamine, biotin,

coenzyme –and ferredoxin

1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five

150. Which of the following are the structural and functional units of liver?

1) Hepatic peritoneum 2) Hepatic lobules

3) Ligamentum teres 4) Falciform ligament

 A B
151. The most notable diseases caused by prions are commonly called in cattle and its
C
analogous variant in humans

1) A – Cr – Jacob disease; B – Mad cow disease; C – Bovine spongiform encephalophy

2) A – Bovine Spongiform encephalopathy; B – Mad cow disease; C – PSTVd

3) B – Bovine spongiform encephalopathy; B – Mad cow disease ; C – Cr – Jacob disease

4) A – Cr – Jacob disease, B – Mad cow disease; C – PSTVd

152. Select the incorrect statement

1) Jawless fishes have 6 – 15 pairs of gill slits

2) Reptiles have three – chambered heart except crocodile and cleidoic eggs

3) Chordates have a solid dorsal nerve cord & notochord

4) Urochordata and Cephalochordata are often referred to as protochordates

153. Plants with edible roots include

1) Turnip, Banyan, Asparagus 2) Radish, Carrot, Rhizophora

3) Carrot, Turnip, Maize 4) Carrot, Radish, Sweet potato

154. Which of the following is not the feature of cardiac muscle?

1) Communication junctions are intervertebral disc

2) They show branching pattern

3) Stimulation received by one cell is passed to neighbouring cells

4) They are striated in nature

155. Which of the following set represent the members of Solanaceae family?

1) Belladonna, Ashwagandha, Petunia 2) Datura, Indigofera, Tomato

3) Brinjal, Chilli, Sunhemp 4) Potato, Brinjal, Lupin

156. Companion cells are present in the phloem of

1) Pteriophytes 2) Gymnosperms

3) Angiosperms 4) Both 1 & 2

157. Fertilization in cockroach is

1) Internal 2) External, in the water

3) External, in the cocoon 4) Internal, in the cocoon

158. Vessels differ from tracheids in having

1) In being living 2) Presence of perforation plates at both ends

3) Enucleated condition 4) All of the above

159. During muscle contraction, what could be the correct sequence?

A. Release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm

B. Release of Acetylcholine

C. Sliding of actin filaments over each other

D. Break down of ATP to form a cross bridge

1) A D B C 2) A B D C 3) B A C D 4) B A D C

160. Which of the following is correct about metaphase – I ?

1) Bivalents are arranged at equator

2) Univalents are arranged at equator

3) Non – homologues chromosomes forms pair

4) Spindle fibers are attached at chromomere

161. Which of the following is correct about organism develop through parthenogenesis?

1) They show a 50% similarity to father

2) They show a 50% similarity to mother

3) They show a 100% similarity to father

4) They show a 100% similarity to mother

162. Which of the following is an important function of cortisol?

1) Maintains cardio – vascular system as well as the kidney functions

2) Absorption of calcium from gut

3) Absorption of water in PCT

4) Absorption of iron from gut

163. Angiotensin – II will perform all of the following except

1) Vasoconstriction 2) Hypernatremia

3) Increasing GFR 4) Excretion of Na  in urine

164. The human placenta does not secrete which of the following hormone?

1) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

2) Human placental lactogen (hPL)

3) Androgens

4) Progestogens

165. Inner layer of male gametophyte in Angiosphere is mainly composed of

1) Polymer of amino acids

2) Polymer of nucleotide

3) Polymer of Lipid

4) Polymer of carbohydrate

166. During embryonic development of human, limbs, and digits are formed during

1) First month of pregnancy 2) Second month of pregnancy

3) Third month of pregnancy 4) Seventh month of pregnancy

167. Barr body is absent in

1) Klinefelter’s syndrome 2) Turner’s syndrome

3) Normal female 4) Down syndrome in female

168. The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes is

1) Highest if they are recessive

2) Determined by their relative dominance

3) The same as if they were not linked

4) Directly proportional to the distance between them

169. ‘Saheli’ is a contraceptive drug. Select the incorrect statement about it

1) Oral drug 2) Non – steroidal

3) Once a month pill 4) High contraceptive value

170. Experimental proof of theory of chemical evolution of life was given by

1) Hershey and chose 2) Oparin and Haldane

3) Urey and Miller 4) Alfred Wallace

171. Biotic potential refers to

1) Increase of population under optimum conditions

2) Increase of population under given conditions

3) Increase of population under natural conditions

4) Increase of population under climatic conditions

172. Which of the following factors may result in introduction of new variations?

1) Gene – mutation 2) Genetic recombination

3) Stabilizing natural selection 4) Immigration of individuals

173. Identify the correct sequence of stages in the evolution of modern humans

I. Neanderthal man II. Cro – Magnon man III. Australopithecines

IV. Homo habilis V. Homo erectus VI. Moderm human

1) IV, III, V, II, I, VI 2) III, V, IV, II, I, VI 3) III, IV, V, I, II, VI 4) III, IV, V, II, I, VI

174. The female mosquito is the vector for which of the following diseases?

1) Typhoid and Polio 2) Plague and Rabies

3) Common cold and Ringworm 4) Filariasis and Malaria

175. Which of the following statement is not correct?

1) Ecosystem is an open system

2) Ecosystem is self – sustaining and dynamic structure

3) Sun is the ultimate source of energy for any ecosystem

4) In an artificial ecosystem flow of energy is not unifirectional

176. Which of the following is not true about succession?

1) It is a natural process of change in species structure and community with time

2) It is a gradual and predictable change

3) Progressive increase in the amount of living blomass as succession proceeds

4) Food chain relationship becomes less complex as succession proceeds

177. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

1) Muscular dystrophy 2) Gout

3) Myasthenia gravis 4) Osteoporosis

178. How many of the given statements are not incorrect?

I. The plasmid is autonomously replicating circular extra – chromosomal DNA

II. Ligase enzyme belongs to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases

III. DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules

IV. E. coli always has genes encoding resistance to antibiotics such as ampicillin and

chloramphenicol

1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four

179. Mark the incorrect pair

1) Bt cotton – Genes from Agrobacterium

2) SCID – ADA deficiency

3) Rosie -  lactalbumin

4) Ely – Lily – Humulin

180. Match t he column – I with Column – II

Column I Column – II

A Wheat I Pusa Shubhra

B Cauliflower II Pusa Gaurav

C Brassica III Pusa Komal

D Chilli IV Sonalika

V Pusa Sadabahar

1) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – IIII

2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – V

3) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – V

4) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
 NTA ABHYAS NEET MOCK TEST – 18
Answers & Explanations
PHYSICS
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1 5) 1 6) 1 7) 3 8) 2 9) 3 10) 3
11) 3 12) 4 13) 4 14) 2 15) 4 16) 1 17) 2 18) 4 19) 2 20) 3

21) 2 22) 4 23) 1 24) 1 25) 4 26) 4 27) 2 28) 4 29) 3 30) 2

31) 1 32) 3 33) 1 34) 1 35) 1 36) 1 37) 2 38) 4 39) 1 40) 3

41) 3 42) 4 43) 4 44) 2 45) 2

CHEMISTRY
46) 3 47) 4 48) 2 49) 1 50) 4 51) 3 52) 1 53) 2 54) 3 55) 2
56) 2 57) 3 58) 1 59) 4 60) 4 61) 4 62) 1 63) 2 64) 4 65) 3
66) 4 67) 1 68) 2 69) 1 70) 2 71) 3 72) 1 73) 2 74) 3 75) 3
76) 1 77) 1 78) 1 79) 2 80) 2 81) 1 82) 1 83) 3 84) 4 85) 1
86) 1 87) 1 88) 3 89) 4 90) 2

BIOLOGY
91) 3 92) 1 93) 1 94) 3 95) 4 96) 2 97) 2 98) 1 99) 3 100) 4

101) 4 102) 4 103) 2 104) 1 105) 2 106) 4 107) 2 108) 2 109) 2 110) 3

111) 2 112) 3 113) 2 114) 4 115) 4 116) 3 117) 2 118) 3 119) 2 120) 1

121) 1 122) 3 123) 4 124) 2 125) 4 126) 1 127) 4 128) 1 129) 3 130) 1

131) 1 132) 3 133) 4 134) 2 135) 2 136) 3 137) 1 138) 1 139) 1 140) 1

141) 4 142) 1 143) 4 144) 2 145) 3 146) 2 147) 1 148) 1 149) 1 150) 2

151) 3 152) 3 153) 4 154) 1 155) 1 156) 3 157) 1 158) 2 159) 4 160) 1

161) 4 162) 1 163) 4 164) 3 165) 4 166) 2 167) 2 168) 4 169) 3 170) 3

171) 1 172) 1 173) 3 174) 4 175) 4 176) 4 177) 3 178) 2 179) 1 180) 3
 PHYSICS

1) 5)

2)

3)
6)

7)

4)
8)

11)

9)

12)

13)

10)
14)
15) 22)

23)
16)

24)
17)

18)

19)
25)

20)

21) 26)
27) 32)

28)

33)

29)

30)

34)

31)
 38)

35)

39)

36)

37)

40)
41) 43)

44)

42)
45)
 CHEMISTRY
46)
M
% w / w  d 10 98 1.8  10
  18M 54) Equivalent of MNO4  Equivalents of
[Link] 98 Mn  x
M 1V1  M 2V2 1 mole  5 = 1.67mole  5  x 
100 5
V1   5.55ml 5 5  x 
18 3

47) 2Cu  NO3  2   2CuO  4 NO  O2 3 5 x
48) 2 x2
 Fe  H 2O6  
Fe2 3d 6 4s 0 4 p 0 .H 2O weak ligand 55) 0CH3COOH   0CH3COONa  0HCl  0NaCl
so sp 3d 2 hybridisation n = 4 56)
paramagnetic, coloured
2
 Fe  CN  6 
Fe3 3d 5 4 s 0 4 p 0CN  strong ligand
Pairing against Hund's rule so
2 3
d sp hybridization n = 0 diamagnetic,
colourless

49) Work is done against constant P

V  5  3  2dm3  2lit 57)
P  3atm

W   P V  3  2 lit atm  6  101.335

W  608 J W  n  c  T
608  10  4.184 18T
T  0.81
Final temperature =
58)
T1  T  290  0.81  290.81K

50) SN 2 order 10  20  30 59)

aq . NaOH
Methyl bromide  SN 2
 Methyl alcohol
Condensation
51) Melamine + Formaldehyde  
Melamine formaldehyde resin 60)
52) CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH  CH 2  CH3
C2 H 5  CH  CH  C2 H 5
Trans Hex-3-ene

53)
 63)

64) Deprotonation of hydrogen labelled 4

produces a conjugate base which has more
stable resonating structure in which - ve
charge is present on electronegative oxygen
atom
65) C H  NH 2  C6 H 5 SO2Cl  
I) 2 5
C6 H 5 SO2 NHC2 H 5  HCl
II)
 
C2 H 5 NH 2  HNO2  C2 H 5 N 2 Cl 
 
N 2O
  C2 H 5OH  N 2  HCl
66) Zn is more reactive than Ag and Au so it
displace them.
67)
K 1  Kev  K 2 K ev 
 NO2 
2
 NO 
2
 N 2O2   K ev  NO 
2
Rate = K 2 K ev  NO   H 2 
2
61)  K 1  NO   H 2  rate law is third order
68) 0.693
t1/2   301sec
K
0.1
Initial conc =  0.05
2
After t1/2 , no. of moles of 'A' reacted is half
the initial moles
0.05
Final conc. of  A   0.025M
2
69) KO2 superoxide, BaO2 peroxide, CsO2
superoxide, SiO2 oxide
70) O
||
CH 3 MgBr  O  C  O 

H 3O
62) O2 Unpaired e  in  2 py1 remaining N 2 , CH 3  C  OMgBr   CH 3COOH
Y  Z 
O22 , N2 doesnot contain unpaired e  Acetic acid

71) Secondary Alcohols oxidised to Ketones by

Al - test - butoxide reagent

OH
|
Altert Butoxide
CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2CH 3 Acetone

 O with the solution because of their high
|| solubility products.
CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 2  CH 3
3  Pen tan one
81) r1 VD 2 100 64
 r1  r2 
r2 VD 1 2 2
72) CaF2 contains Ca 2 ions form CCP and F  r1  12 103 r2  ?
Ions are present in all the tetrahedral voids.
12  103 64 / 2 64 8
73) 3BaCl2  Al2  SO4 3  3BaSO4  2 AlCl3   
r2 100 / 2 100 10
 wt. of BaSO4 formed =
r2  15 103
3  233
 0.699 grms 82) B.L. of CO = 1.128 A0
1000 B.L. of Co+= 1.115 A0
74)  of 4d series is more than 3d series because in conversion of Co to Co+
electron is removed from antibonding
3 2
orbital.
 of Cr  H 2O 6    Mo  H 2O  6  83) Tetragonal crystal
a = b  c ;       900
3 2
84) BOH  HCl  BCl  H 2O
 of Ti  H 2O  6   Ti  H 2O 6  1.6 1.6 0 0

Oxidation state of metal increases the Total volume = 40 ml

CFSE value increases  BCl   1.6 / 40  0.04M
75) Decrease in the amount of dissolved 1 kw
oxygen in water. pH   p  p kb  log C 
Increase in pressure favours backward 2
76)
reaction as it is involved with decrease in 1
5 14  p kb  log 0.04  ; p kb  5.4
volume. 2
77) In structure I) both monosaccharide emits BCl  NaOH  BOH  NaCl
1.6 0.4 0 0
are not linked through their reducing 0.4
1.2
0.4
0
0.4
0.4
10.4
0.4
centres. So it is a reducing sugar.
I) B 
78) pOH  p kb  log  
CH 3CH 2OH  HCl  ZnCl2
 CH 3CH 2Cl  H 2O BOH
1.2
Groove's method  5.4  log
ZnCl2 0.4
CH 3  CHOH  HCl  
| pOH  5.4  0.48  5.88
II) CH 3 85)
CH 3  CH  Cl  H 2 O
|
CH 3 86) There is extensive inter molecular
hydrogen bonding in the condensed phase
I and IV can be used due to anhydrous instead of intra molecular H - bonding.
ZnCl2 pH of blood is at  7.4 by the
87)
79) C C  H 2CO3 / HCO3 ion buffering system
   1  2  RT
2 2 88) Phenol and methanol (formaldehyde) on
As volume is doubled conc. is polymerisation gives Bakelite
halved 89) Yellow fever was the first vital disease
C RT  C2 RT detected un human beings
 1
2 90) Z = 26
 1   2 1.66  2.46 AW = P + N = 56
  2.06 atm 26 X 56
2 2
80) Pb 2 and Cu 2 are precipitated as sulphides N = A - E = 56 - 26 = 30
because of their lower solubility products,
where as sulphide of other metals remain
 BIOLOGY
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