04-05-2025

1103CMD303001250047 MD

PHYSICS

1) The value of shaded area is :-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2

2) (1+x)–n, where |x| << 1, can be approximately written as :-

(1) 1 + nx
(2) 1 – nx
(3) x + n
(4) x – n

3)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Differentiation of x = t2 – et + log t with respect to t is :-

(1)
2t – et +

(2)

(3) t + et + log t
(4) None
5) If y = 2sin2x then is :-

(1) sin 2x
(2) cos 2x
(3) 2sin 2x
(4) 2cos 2x

6) cos can be represented as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) If 6 sin θ + 8 cos θ = A sin (θ + α) then value of "A" and "α" are :–

(1) 10, tan–1 (4/3)

(2) 10, cos–1 (4/3)
(3) 7, tan–1 (4/3)
(4) 7, cos–1 (4/3)

8)

The value of (sin 180° + cos 90°)2 is :-

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

9)

The value of sin (300°) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) Value of sin 1° is approximately equal to:-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

11) For ellipse , the coordinates of point A and B are respectively :-

(1) (64, 0) & (0, 49)

(2) (0, 7) & (8, 0)
(3) (8, 0) & (0, 7)
(4) (0, 64) & (49, 0)

12) Graph of 4x2 + 4y2 = 16 can be given by:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) (ex cosx) = ?

(1) ex(cosx + sinx)
(2) ex(cosx – sinx)
(3) ex(sinx – cosx)
(4) None

14) Find = :-

(1)
4x2 + 5x + +c
(2) 2x2 + 6 + 6 logx + c
(3) 2x2 + 5x + 6 logx + c
(4) 2x2 + 5 + 6x–2 + c

15) The roots of 10x2 – 27x + 5 = 0 are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Calculate the distance between two points (0, –1, 1) and (3, 3, 13) : –

(1) 5
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 17

18) Which of two following graph is the best representation for the given equation.
y = sinx
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) If y = logex + sinx + ex then is :–

(1)
+ sinx + ex

(2)
– cosx + ex

(3)
+ cosx + ex

(4)
– sinx

20) If x2 + y2 = 16, the graph between x and y is -

(1) Straight Line

(2) Parabola
(3) Circle
(4) Ellipse

21) The slope of straight line AB :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) If mA, mB and mC are the magnitude of slopes at points A, B and C respectively in the figure
shown then

(1) mA > mB > mC

(2) mA = mB = mC
(3) mA = mC < mB
(4) mA < mB < mC

23) If then the value of sin θ + cos θ is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Given y = sin x2. Find derivative of y with respect to x -

(1) x2 (cos 2x)

(2) x (cos 2x)
(3) (2x) cos x2
(4) (2x) cos 2x

25) The approximate value of cos2° will be :

(1)
(2)

(3) 1

(4)

26)

Find value of x if x2 – 4x + 4 = 0

(1) 2
(2) –2
(3) 1
(4) –1

27)

sin75° =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Range of cos will be :–

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) The area of a circle is growing such that after t seconds its area is given by A = (3t2 + 7)m2.
The rate of increase of area at t = 5 second is ________

(1) 15 m2 s–1
(2) 30 m2 s–1
(3) 20 m2 s–1
(4) 10 m2 s–1

30) Evaluate

(1) e2 + c
(2)

(3) e2.x + c
(4) Zero

31)

(1) 7
(2) 9
(3) x3 + 6
(4) 3

32) cos =?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) If S = 4t2 – 6t + 2, where S is in meter and t in second, then find the acceleration (a) :- [Given

(1) 8t – 6 m/s2
(2) 8 – 6t m/s2
(3) 8 m/s2
(4) 6 m/s2

34)

Evaluate =

(1) –5 sin (5x – 3) + c

(2) 5 sin (5x – 3) + c

(3)
– sin (5x – 3) + c

(4)
sin (5x – 3) + c
35) Magnitude of slope of curve shown :-

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) First decreases, then increases
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases

36) log10(1000)1/3 = ?

(1) 3

(2)

(3) 1
(4) –1

37) For the given (y – x) graph Find the value of .

(1) 170
(2) 150
(3) 200
(4) 120

38) If then

(1)

(2)
(3) 0
(4) None of these

39) Find out graph for equation y = 2x2

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Which of the following equation is the best representation of the given graph's ?

(1) y = 2x2
(2) x = 2y2
(3) y = –2x2
(4) x = –2y2

41) Choose best possible graph for equation s = 2t + 1.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) In second quadrant which of the following is positive :

(1) sin θ
(2) cos θ
(3) tan θ
(4) cot θ

43) equals to :

(1) x6 + x5 + 7x
(2) 5x4 + 4x3 + 7

(3)

(4) 5x4 + 4x3

44) At 3:00, the hour and minute hands of a clock are inclined at :-

(1)
Radian

(2)
Radian

(3)
Radian
(4) None of these

45) The value of upto ∞, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

200 gm CaCO3 heated and it decomposed into CaO and CO2. What is the weight of residue -(Atomic
weight of Ca= 40)

(1) 56 gm
(2) 200 gm
(3) 100 gm
(4) 112 gm

2) The volume of oxygen required for complete oxidation of 8L of CO at NTP will be :-

(1) 8 L
(2) 16 L
(3) 4 L
(4) 2 L

3) When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g) each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to :-

(1) 1 mol of HCl(g)

(2) 2 mol of HCl(g)
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl(g)
(4) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)

4) If one mole of H2SO4 reacts with an excess of NaOH, how many moles of water are formed ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Limiting reagent is one which is :-

(1) Consumed first in reaction

(2) Always minimum in mass
(3) Always minimum in mole
(4) None of these

6) For a gaseous reaction

H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)
If 10 ml of I2 (g) reacts completely with H2 then find out the required volume of H2 :

(1) 10 ml
(2) 20 ml
(3) 5 ml
(4) 100 ml

7) If 20% nitrogen is present in a compound, then its minimum molecular weight will be :-
(At mass of 'N' = 14)

(1) 144
(2) 28
(3) 288
(4) 70

8) 7 g of N2 will produce
 :-

(1) 17 g NH3
(2) 8.5 g NH3
(3) 34 g NH3
(4) 7g NH3

9) What is volume (in L) of oxygen required at STP to completely convert 1.5 moles of sulphur to
sulphur dioxide ?
S + O2 → SO2

(1) 43.6
(2) 33.6
(3) 11.2
(4) 23.6

10) Determine the moles of product formed by the reaction of 7 mol of A with 8 mol of B ?
A + 2B → 3C ?

(1) 7 mol
(2) 12 mol
(3) 21 mol
(4) 6 mol

11) 10 L of Butane (C4H10) on complete combustion will produce ?

(1) 4L of CO2
(2) 20L of CO2
(3) 10L of CO2
(4) 40L of CO2

12)

The mass of Mg that react with 64g of O2 will be

2Mg + O2 → 2MgO

(1) 24g
(2) 48g
(3) 72g
(4) 96g

13) Initially at similar temperature and pressure, 30 ml of each N2 and H2 were taken, then the
volume of unreacted reagent will be :

(1) 10 ml
(2) 20 ml
(3) 30 ml
(4) 5 ml

14) For the reaction

C6H12O6(g) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) if 20 ml of O2 is consumed then vol. of CO2 produced is:-

(1) 120 ml
(2) 20 ml
(3) 10 ml
(4) 100 ml

15) Sodium nitrate, heated in the presence of an excess of H2, forms H2O according to two step
process:
2NaNO3 → 2NaNO2 + O2
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
How many grams of NaNO3 are required to form 9 g of H2O ?

(1) 21.3
(2) 42.5
(3) 69.0
(4) 85.0

16) For the reaction; 5 mole of A and 8 mole of B will produce :

(1) 5 mole of C
(2) 4 mole of C
(3) 8 mole of C
(4) 13 mole of C

17) The number of moles of CaCl2 needed to react with excess of AgNO3 to produce 0.03 mole of
AgCl.

(1) 0.030
(2) 0.015
(3) 0.045
(4) 0.060

18) 12 moles of each A and B are allowed to react as given 3A + 2B → C + D. If 60 gm of D is

produced then, calculate the atomic mass of D :-

(1) 30
(2) 45
(3) 60
(4) 15

19) Equal moles of SO2 and O2 reacts to form SO3 which one is the limiting reactant :-
(1) SO2
(2) O2
(3) SO3
(4) None of these

20) In the reaction, 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2O, when one mole of ammonia and one mole of oxygen
are made to react to completion, then :

(1) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced

(2) All the oxygen is consumed
(3) 1.5 moles of NO is formed
(4) All the ammonia is consumed

21) What mass of Al must taken so as to produce Al2O3 by reacting it with 32 g O2 :-

4Al + 3O2 —→ 2Al2O3

(1) 27 g
(2) 96 g
(3) 36 g
(4) 54 g

22) 1 L of a hydrocarbon weighs as much as 1 Lof CO2 under similar conditions. Then the molecular
formula of the hydrocarbon is -

(1) C3H8
(2) C2H6
(3) C2H4
(4) C3H6

23) A hydrocarbon contain 80% C. The vapour density of compound is 30. Empirical formula of
compound is :-

(1) CH3
(2) C2H6
(3) C4H12
(4) C4H8

24) Two elements X (Atomic weight = 75) and Y (Atomic weight = 16) combine to give a compound
having 75.8% of X. The empirical formula of compound is :

(1) XY
(2) X2Y
(3) X2Y2
(4) X2Y3
25) In a compound element A (Atomic weight = 12.5) is 25% and element B (Atomic weight = 37.5)
is 75% by weight. The Empirical formula of the compound is :

(1) AB
(2) A2B
(3) A2B2
(4) A2B3

26) A sample of phosphorous trichloride (PCl3) contains 1.4 moles of the substance. How many atoms
are there in the sample?

(1) 4
(2) 5.6
(3) 8.431 × 1023
(4) 3.372 × 1024

27) An organic compound on analysis gave C = 54.5%, H = 9.1% by mass. Its empirical formula is

(1) CHO2
(2) CH2O
(3) C2H4O
(4) C3H4O

28) If 1 mL of water contains 20 drops then number of molecules in a drop of water is

(1) 6.023 × 1023

(2) 1.673 × 1021
(3) 1.344 × 1018
(4) 4.346 × 1020

29) The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X (atomic mass 10) and 50% of
element y (atomic mass 20)

(1) XY
(2) XY3
(3) X2Y
(4) X2Y3

30) A hydrocarbon on combustion gives 3.08 g of CO2, 0.72 g of water. Formula of hydrocarbon is :-

(1) C2H4
(2) C3H4
(3) C7H8
(4) C4H10
31) Assertion : The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason : the empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
present in a compound.

(1) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

32) What is the empirical formula of an oxide of iron, which has 70% Fe and 30% ‘O’ by mass (GAM
Fe = 56)

(1) FeO
(2) Fe3O4
(3) Fe1.5O
(4) Fe2O3

33) The ratio of volumes occupied by 1 mol O2 and 1 mol CO2 under identical conditions of
temperature and pressure is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 2 : 1

34) Two flask A & B of equal capacity of volume contains CO2 and NH3 gas respectively under similar
conditions which flask has more number of moles.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) Both have same moles
(4) None

35) The statements for laws of chemical combinations are given below. Mark the statement which is
not correct.

(1) Mass can neither be created nor destroyed : law of conservation of mass
A compound always contains exactly the same proportion of elements by weight: Law of definte
(2)
proportions
(3) When gases combine they do so in a simple ratio by weight : Gay Lussac's Law.
Equal volumes of gases at same temperature and pressure contain same number of molecules :
(4)
Avogadro's Law.

36) Equal volume of gases contains equal no. of molecules at same temp & pressure, this law was
given by :–

(1) Berzillius
(2) Gay – Lussac
(3) Dalton
(4) Avogadro

37) How many grams of CH4 at NTP will occupy the same volume that is occupied by 8g SO3 gas at
NTP

(1) 8g
(2) 1.6g
(3) 16g
(4) 0.8g

38) In the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2 NH3, ratio by volume of N2, H2 and NH3 is 1 : 3 : 2. This illustrates
law of -

(1) Definite proportion

(2) Multiple proportion
(3) Mass conservation
(4) Gaseous volumes

39) The molarity of an aqueous solution of NaOH containing 8 gm in 2 lit of solution is :-

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.25 M
(4) 0.15 M

40) 500 ml of a glucose solution contains 6.02 × 1022 molecules. The concentration of the solution is
:-

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 1.0 M
(3) 0.2 M
(4) 2.0 M

41) 18% w/w Glucose solution is given thenn its molality is.....

(1) 1
(2) 8
(3) 1.22
(4) None

42) If you are given a 2 M NaOH solution having density 1 gm/ml. Then the molality of solution is :-

(1) 2.17
(2) 2
(3) 8.6
(4) None

43) Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/mL the molality of the solution is

(1) 0.44
(2) 1.14
(3) 3.28
(4) 2.28

44) 1m Glucose(aq) has mole-fraction equal to...

(1) 0.0177
(2) 1.8
(3) 0.18
(4) None

45) A solution is prepared by adding 2g of a substance A to 18 g of water. Calculate the mass

percent of the solute (A).

(1) 10 %
(2) 20 %
(3) 5 %
(4) 25 %

BIOLOGY

1) Middle lamella is made up of

(1) Cellulose
(2) Suberin
(3) Calcium pectate
(4) Lignin

2) The extra luminal & luminal compartment represents:-

(1) Cytoplasm & inside ER

(2) Inside ER & cytoplasm
(3) Outside ER & cytoplasm
(4) Cytoplasm & outside ER

3) Secondary cell wall is formed

(1) Outside the primary cell wall.

(2) Inside the cell membrane
(3) Inside the plasmodesmata.
(4) Inside the primary cell wall.

4) Infoldings of plasma membrane in bacteria are called

(1) Mesosomes
(2) Plasmid
(3) Pili
(4) Fimbriae

5) Living cell was firstly seen and described by :-

(1) Robert Hooke

(2) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(3) Robert Koch
(4) Robert Brown

6) Which of the following help the bacteria attach to rocks in streams:-

(1) Inclusion
(2) Mesosome
(3) Fimbriae
(4) Pili

7) Which of the following structure translate the mRNA into proteins: in a bacterial cell:-

(1) Inclusions of cytoplasm

(2) Ribosomes of E.R
(3) Ribosomes of Polysome.
(4) Mesosomes

8) Statement-I: Plant cells differs from animals cells.

Statement-II: The former one posses cell walls, a large vacuole which is absent in latter one.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(3) Statement -I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement -I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

9) What ensures that the non-polar tail is protected from aqueous environment?

(1) Polar head Outside, non-polar tails Inner side.

(2) Non-polar head Outside, Polar tail Inner side
(3) Polar tail Outside, non-polar head Inner side
(4) Polar tail Inner side, non-polar head Outer side
10) How many of the following functions the cell membrane can perform:- Active transport; Osmosis;
Passive transport.

(1) Only one

(2) Only two
(3) All
(4) None

11) Find the correct labelling ?

A B C D E F

Cell Golgi
(1) Lysosome SER Nucleus Cytoplasm
wall complex

(2) Lysosome RER Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Cytoplasm

Cell
(3) Lysosome RER Vacuole Nucleus Cytoplasm
wall

Cell
(4) Mitochondria SER Nucleus Vacuole Peroxisome
wall
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) The main difference between animal and plant cell is :-

(1) Plant cell possess ribosome

(2) Animal cell possess vacuole
(3) Animal cell lack rigid cell wall
(4) Plant cell lack rigid cell wall

13) In eukaryotic cells, why there is a extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm?

(1) Due to the presence of fibres

(2) Due to the presence of so many organelles
(3) Due to the presence of membranous organelles
(4) All of the above
14) Which is incorrect in relation to lysosome ?

(1) They contain acid hydrolases

(2) They are autophagic
(3) They can digest proteins, nucleic acids, lipids and carbohydrates
(4) Lysosomal enzymes get active at pH 7.0

15) How many of the following are not included in endomembrane system?

Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosome, Mitochondria,

Chloroplast, Vacuoles, Peroxisomes
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

16) The vacuole is bound by 'A' membrane called 'B' . In plants 'B' facilitates the transport of ions
and other materials 'C' into the vacuole.

A B C

(1) Single Tonoplast Along concentration gradient

(2) Double Tonoplast Against concentration gradient

(3) Single Tonoplast Against concentration gradient

(4) Double Tonoplast Along concentration gradient

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte has approximately.

(1) 52 % proteins and 40% percent lipids.

(2) 38 % glycoproteins on innerside.
(3) 72 % DNA.
(4) 4 % DNA, 6% RNA and almost 50 % proteins.

18) Study the following diagram carefully and identify the A, B and C in given figure :-
(1) A : Peripheral protein; B : Cholesterol; C : Sugar
(2) A : Integral protein; B : Sugar ; C : Cholesterol
(3) A : Integral protein; B : Cholesterol; C : Sugar
(4) A : Peripheral protein; B : Sugar; C : Cholesterol

19) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesises :-

(1) Carbohydrates
(2) Proteins
(3) Steroids and lipids
(4) All of these

20) Which of the following act as delimiting structure in the cells of human cheek ?

(1) Nuclear Envelope

(2) Cell wall
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Glycocalyx

21) Which one of the following structures between two adjacent plant cells is an effective transport
pathway?

(1) Plasmalemma
(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

22)

Which of the following is the correct pathway of secretory product ?

(1) ER → Vesicle → Cis face of GB → Trans face of GB → Vesicle → Plasma membrane

(2) ER → Vesicle → Trans face of GB → Cis face of golgibody → Vesicle → Plasma membrane
(3) Lysosome → ER → GB → Vesicle → Cell membrane
(4) RER → GB → Lysosome → Nuclear membrane → Plasma membrane

23) Bacterial cells have chemically complex envelope choose the odd one for cell envelope.

(1) The outermost layer is called glycocalyx.

(2) It is a protective unit.
(3) Capsule is a thin glycocalyx layer that is loosely bound to cell envelope.
(4) On the basis of difference in cell envelope bacteria are classified into two groups.

24) Identify the wrong match w.r.t. plasma membrane.

Lipid
(1) component is Phosphoglycerides
mainly

Peripheral Lie on the surface of

(2)
proteins membrane

Partially or totally
(3) Integral protein
buried in membrane

Non-polar tail
(4) hydrophilic
of lipid
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

25) Digestion of old or damage cell organelles termed as:

(1) Heterophagy
(2) Autophagy
(3) Extra cellular digestion
(4) Autolysis

26) The fluid nature of the membrane is important for:

(1) Formation of intercellular junctions

(2) Endocytosis
(3) Secretion
(4) All of these

27) Arrange the following cells in the descending order of their size and select the correct option :-
(A) PPLO (Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organism)
(B) Ostrich Egg
(C) Bacteria
(D) RBC

(1) A → B → C→ D
(2) A → C → D→ B
(3) B → D → C→ A
(4) D → A → B→ C

28) The main difference between pinocytosis and phagocytosis is :

(1) Taking in of fluid substances and engulfing of food material and foreign bodies respectively
(2) Taking in of small and large particles respectively
(3) Taking in of small amount of liquid and large volume of liquids
(4) Taking of only liquids

29) The cell wall of plants is made up of :

(1) Hemicellulose + pectin only

(2) Hemicellulose + lipids + proteins only
(3) Hemicellulose + pectin + cellulose + protein
(4) Hemicellulose + Chitin

30) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Membrane-bound organelles of the endomembrane system coordinate cellular
functions.
Statement-II : Mitochondria and chloroplasts are not considered a part of the endomembrane
system.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

31) Who proposed a modification in the cell theory?

(1) Schleiden and Schwann

(2) Robert Hooke
(3) Robert Brown
(4) Rudolf Virchow

32) Which of the following is also known as 'Suicidal bags'

(1) Vacuole
(2) ER
(3) Lysosome
(4) All

33) The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are:

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes

(2) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(3) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
34) What is the diameter of cisternae of Golgi body :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) Materials that needs to be packed after leaving .......... fuses with the ...….. face of golgi :-

(1) Cis – face and Trans – face

(2) Trans – face and cis – face
(3) E.R and cis – face
(4) E.R and trans – face

36) Lysosomal enzymes are active at :-

(1) alkaline pH
(2) acidic pH
(3) neutral pH
(4) either alkaline or acidic pH

37) Consider the following statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only :-
(A) Depending on the ease of extraction membrane proteins can be classified as extrinsic and
intrinsic.
(B) The lipids are arranged within the membrane with the non-polar head towards outersides and
hydrophilic tail towards the innerside.
(C) Cell membrane is composed of lipids that are arranged in monolayer.
(D) The lipid component of the membrane mainly consists of phosphoglycerides.

(1) (A) & (C)

(2) (B) & (D)
(3) (A), (B) & (D)
(4) (A) & (D)

38) Algae have cell wall made up of:

(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins

(2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(3) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(4) Pectins, cellulose and proteins

39) An improved model of the structure of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson in
......., widely accepted as ........

(1) 1959, Fluid mosaic model

(2) 1900, Lipoidal model
(3) 1938, Fluid mosaic model
(4) 1972, Fluid mosaic model

40) What is the sequence of cell envelope in most of the prokaryotic cell (Outer to Inner)

(1) Glycocalyx cell membrane cell wall.

(2) Cell membrane cell wall Glycocalyx
(3) Cell wall Glycocalyx cell membrane
(4) Glycocalyx cell wall cell membrane.

41) Vacuole in a plant cell :-

(1) Lacks membrane and contains air

(2) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
(3) Is membrane bound and contains proteins and lipids
(4) is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances

42) Which of the following statements are correct with respect of Golgi apparatus?
(A) It is the important site of formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids.
(B) It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP.
(C) It modifies the protein synthesized by ribosomes on ER.
(D) It facilitates the transport of ions.
(E) It provides mechanical support.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) and (C) only

(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (D) only
(4) (D) and (E) only

43) Na+ – K+ pump transports molecules

(1) By passive transport

(2) By active transport
(3) By utilisation of ATP
(4) Both (2) & (3)

44) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Cell wall provides mechanical support

(2) Cell wall maintains the shape of the cell
(3) Cell wall is a living layer, covered by plasma membrane
(4) Cell wall composed of cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins

45) The RER in the cell synthesized a protein which would be later used in building the plasma
membrane. But it is observed that the protein in the membrane is slightly different from the protein
made in the RER. The protein was probably modified in another cell organelle. Identify the organelle
in the given diagram :-

(1) D
(2) B
(3) A
(4) C

46) Assertion : Epithelial cells obtain nutrients by diffusion from underlying connective tissue.
Reason : Epithelial cells are highly vascular and contains blood vessels.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

47) See the following figure and identify the following simple epithelial tissues :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of epithelial tissue. Identify it and
choose the correct option in which type of epithelium, its location and their function is correctly

identified ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) How many statements given below are correct ?

A. Gap junction allows rapid transfer of small molecule.
B. Exocrine glands are present with ducts.
C. Tight junction helps to stop substances leaking across a tissue.
D. Fibers and fibroblast are compactly packed in loose connective tissue.

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Four

50) The endothelium of blood vessels is made up of simple

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Squamous epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Non-ciliated columnar epithelium

51) Statement-I : Compound Epithelium main function is to provide protection against chemical
and mechanical stresses.
Statement-II : They have limited role in secretion and absorption.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

52) Identify type or name of tissue in given figure.

(1) (a)-Compound epithelium; (b)-Unicellular; (c) Multicellular

(2) (a)-Unicellular gland; (b)-Multicellular; (c)-Compound epithelium
(3) (a)-Multicellular gland; (b)-Epithelium (simple); (c) Unicellular
(4) (a)-Compound epithelium; (b)Unicellular; (c)-Multicellular

53) Exocrine gland does not secrete :-

(1) Oil
(2) Saliva
(3) Enzymes
(4) Hormone

54) Areolar tissue is a type of…

(1) loose connective tissue

(2) compound epithelium
(3) dense connective tissue
(4) specialized connective tissue

55) In all connective tissues, except which of the following, the cells secretes the fibres of collagen
or elastin protein ?

(1) bone
(2) cartilage
(3) areolar connective tissue
(4) fluid connective tissue

56) Tendon is a dense regular connective tissue of body which attach

(1) Bone to bones

(2) Skeletal muscles to bones
(3) Muscles to muscles
(4) Ligament to bone

57) Heparin, histamine and serotonin are secreted by–

(1) Lymphoid cells

(2) Mast cells
(3) Fibroblasts
(4) Macrophages

58) How many osteocyte cells are present in the lacuna of bone?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

59) Which is incorrect statement for bones

(1) Bone have a hard and pliable ground substance rich in calcium salt and collagen fibres
(2) The osteocytes cells are present in the spaces called lacunae
(3) The bone marrow in some bones is the site of production of blood cells
(4) Main tissue that provides structural frame to the body and part of endoskeleton

60) Which of the following statement is correct regarding this diagram

(1) Inter cellular material is solid, pliable and resists compression.

(2) It is a type of Areolar tissue
(3) Example of nervous tissue
(4) Mature cell is osteocyte

61)

Intervertebral discs which are made up of a strongest cartilage is :

(1) Elastic cartilage

(2) White fibrous cartilage
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) Hyaline cartilage

62) Specialized connective tissue are–

(A) Cartilage
(B) Blood
(C) Bones
(D) Areolar tissue

(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) A, B, C
(4) D, A

63) Identify A, B and C in the given figure & choose, correct option :-

A B C
(1) Collagen fibres Plasma cell Macrophage
(2) Fibroblast Macrophage Mast cell
(3) Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage
(4) Elastin fibres Macrophage Fibroblast
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Write location of the following diagaram

(1) Gall blader

(2) Lungs
(3) Thyroid gland
(4) small intestine

65) Statement-I: Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs.
Statement-II: Function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles or mucus in specific direction.

(1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect

(2) Both Statements I and II are correct
(3) Statement II is correct, Statement I is incorrect
(4) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
66)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Assertion : Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other
Reason : Gap junction connects the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.

(1) Both assertion and reason correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason incorrect.

68) Cuboidal epithelial cells with microvilli are present in :-

(1) PCT of Nephron

(2) Bowman's capsule
(3) Thin part of Henle's loop
(4) Alveoli of lungs

69) Largest cells of connective tissue proper are

(1) fibroblasts
(2) macrophages
(3) mast cells
(4) mesenchyme cells

70) In columnar epithelium, where is nucleus located in cell?

(1) At the base

(2) In the middle
(3) At the top
(4) Nucleus is absent
71) Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Exocrine gland (i) Thyroid gland

(b) Unicellular gland (ii) Salivary gland

(c) Multicellular gland (iii) Goblet cells

(d) Endocrine gland (iv) Digestive glands

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

72) Transitional epithelium is found in :-

(1) Renal pelvis & Ureter

(2) Urinary bladder
(3) Upper part of male urethra
(4) All of above

73) Which epithelium is present in inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and of pancreatic ducts

(1) Ciliated epithelium

(2) Compound epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Squamous epithelium

74) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the option given along with its correct location and
function?

Tissue Location Function

Simple
Fallopian Transport of
1. B squamous
tube gamete
epithelium

Wall of
Simple blood
Diffusion
2. C cuboidial vessels
boundary
epithelium and air sac
of lungs
 Compound
3. D Skin Protection
epithelium

Simple Tubular
4. A columnar part of Secretion
Epithelium nephron
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) Brush-bordered appearance in epithelial cell is due to presence of :-

(1) Stereocilia
(2) Kinocilia
(3) Cilia
(4) Microvilli

76) Study of tissues is known as :

(1) Cytology
(2) Histology
(3) Anatomy
(4) Physiology

77) Which portion of cartilage provides it with solidity, pliability and resistance to compression?

(1) Collagen fibres

(2) Calcium content
(3) Matrix
(4) Chondrocytes

78)

Basement membrane can not be seen in :

(1) Streched Transitional Epithelium

(2) Squamous Epithelium
(3) Columnar Epithelium
(4) Unstreched transitional epithelium

79) Basement member is made up of

(1) Glycoproteins
(2) Protein Fibres
(3) Mucopolysaccharides
(4) All of the above
80)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Epithelial tissues are arise from :

(1) Ectoderm
(2) Endoderm
(3) Mesoderm
(4) All the aboves

82) Match the following column-I with column-II.

Column I Column II

Fibres and fibroblasts are

(a) (i) Adipose tissue
oriented differently

(b) Storage tissue (ii) Loose connective tissue

Cells that produce & secrete Regular dense connective

(c) (iii)
fibres tissue

Irregular dense connective

(d) Loosely arranged fibres (iv)
tissue

Fibres present in rows &

(e) (v) Fibroblasts
parallel bundles
(1) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-iv, e-ii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-v, e-iii
(4) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-ii

83) In all connective tissue except __A__, the fibroblast cells secretes fibres called __B__ or ___C___.
The fibres provides strength, _____D____ and _____E____ to the tissue.

(1) A—muscle, B—fibroblast, C—macrophage, D—support, E—flexibility.

(2) A—neural, B—matrix, C—collagen, D—linking, E—storage.
(3) A—blood, B—collagen, C—elastin, D—elasticity, E—flexibility.
(4) A—adipose, B—storage, C—elastin, D—rigidity, E—support.
84) Tissue organise to form ___A___ Which in turn associate to form ___B___ in ___C___ organisms :-
Find the correct match for A, B and C.

A B C
(1) Organ system Organ Unicellular
(2) Organ Organ System Multicellular
(3) Organ Organ System Unicellular
(4) Organ System Body Multicellular
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Tissue present in trachea and bronchi is

(1) Pseudostratified columnar ciliated glandular epithelium

(2) Pseudostratified cuboidal ciliated glandular epithelium
(3) Transitional epithelium
(4) Glandular epithelium

86) Most abundant and widely distributed tissue is

(1) Eptihelial
(2) Connective
(3) Muscular
(4) Nervous

87)

The function of Fibroblast cell is

(1) To produce fibres

(2) To secrete matrix
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) To produce antibody

88) Pubic symphysis of pelvic girdle is composed of-

(1) Fibrous cartilage

(2) Elastic cartilage
(3) Hyaline cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage
89) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram of adipose tissue:

(1) A-Cytoplasm, B-Nucleus, C-Cell wall

A-Fast storage area, B-Mast cell,
(2)
C-Plasma membrane
A-Cell fluid, B-Collagen fibres,
(3)
C-Plasmalemma
A-Fat storage area, B-Nucleus,
(4)
C-Plasma membrane

90) Epithelial tissues are categorised on basis of –

(1) Function
(2) matrix type
(3) Structural modification
(4) Involuntary or voluntary action
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 1 1 3 1 1 4 1 2 3 3 2 3 3 4 3 1 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 4 3 3 1 1 3 2 3 1 1 3 4 2 3 4 3 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 4 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 1 1 1 1 4 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 1 4 1 4 3 2 3 3 1 4 1 3 3 4 2 4 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 4 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 4 1 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 3 3 4 2 3 1 2 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 3 4 2 4 3 1 3 2 4 3 4 1 3 2 4 2 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 2 3 3 3 3 4 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 2 2 1 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 3 4 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 4 2 3 4 2 3 1 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 1 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) =

= –1–1
= –2

2) 1. Explanation (30 words):

We are asked to find the binomial expansion approximation for The
binomial expansion helps approximate powers of binomials.
2. Concept (20 words):
For large values of, the binomial expansion of (1 + x)-n simplifies to an approximation involving
powers of x.
3. Formula:
The binomial expansion for (1 + x)- n :

4. Calculation (Minimum Steps):

For we use the binomial approximation:
(for large x)

4)

5)

By chain rule

6) Explain: convert
Concept: use trigonometry formula.
Formula:

Calculation:
 7) a sin θ + b cos θ = A sin (θ + ϕ)

8)

9)

Concept:
Quadrants and Signs: The sine function is positive in the first and second quadrants and
negative in the third and fourth quadrants.
Mathematical Calculation:
1. Locate 300°: An angle of 300° lies in the fourth quadrant.
2. Find the reference angle: The reference angle for 300° is 360° - 300° = 60°.
3. Determine the sign: Since 300° is in the fourth quadrant, where the sine function is
negative, sin(300°) will be negative.
4. Evaluate: We know that sin(60°) = √3/2. Therefore, sin(300°) = sin(360-60°) = -sin(60°)= -
√3/2
Final Answer:

The value of sin(300°) is

option 1
Question Level: Easy

10)

sin 1° = sin
for angle to be small

11) (1) Asking About:-

The question asks to determine the coordinates of specific points A and B on the ellipse. From
the diagram, A lies on the major axis (horizontal), and B lies on the minor axis (vertical).
(2) Concept:-
The equation of an ellipse in standard form is:

Where:

A. a is the semi-major axis (along the x-axis for a horizontal ellipse).

B. b is the semi-minor axis (along the y-axis for a horizontal ellipse).

The extreme points of the ellipse are:

 A. Along the major axis: (±a, 0)
B. Along the minor axis: (0, ±b)

(3) Formula:-

Given :

A. Semi-major axis: a = = 8.
B. Semi-minor axis: b = = 7.

So, the coordinates of the extreme points are:

A. A(±a, 0) or (±8, 0).

B. B(0, ±b) or (0, ±7).

( 4) Solution/Explanation:

1. The equation of the ellipse is , indicating a horizontal ellipse since a2 > b2.
2. From the formula, the coordinates of point A on the major axis are (8, 0) (positive a-value).
3. Similarly, the coordinates of point B on the minor axis are (0, 7) (positive b-value).
(5) Final Answer:
The coordinates of points A and B are:
Option 3: (8, 0) & (0, 7).

12)

Concept Based:

This equation represents a circle. By simplifying the equation, we can check if it matches the
standard forms of a circle's equation x2 + y2 = r2.

Formula Used:

The standard equation for a circle x2 + y2 = r2.

Calculation:

Given 4x2 + 4y2 = 16, divide both sides by 4:

x2 + y2 = 4
This is the standard form of the equation of a circle with radius r = 2, centered at the origin.
Thus, the graph of the given equation is a circle with radius 2, cetered at the origin.

13) (ex cosx)

= ex (cosx) + cosx. (ex)

= ex (–sinx) + cosx(ex)
= ex (cosx – sinx)

14)
 = (2x2 + 5x + 6logex) + C

15)

x1 = &

x2 =

x1 = =

x1 = =

16)

17)

18)

Conceptual.

19) y = logex + sin x + ex

20) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
We are given the equation x2 + y2 = 16, and we need to identify the shape of the curve it
represents.
Concept:
This equation is a standard form for geometric curves. The sum of squares of x and y indicates,
circle, based on the general equation x2 + y2 = r2.
Formula:
The general equation for a circle is: x2 + y2 = r2
Where r is the radius of the circle. In this case r2 = 16, so e =4.
 Calculation:

A. The equation x2 +y2 = 16 is in the standard form of a circle equation, where the radius r is 4.
B. This represents a circle with center at the origin (0, 0) and radius 4.

Thus, the correct answer is Option-3:, Circle

21)

Slope =

22)

m = |tan θ|

23)

P=2
B=3

24) y = sin x2

26)

x2 – 4x + 4 = 0
x2 – 2x – 2x + 4 = 0
x(x – 2) – 2(x – 2) = 0
(x – 2) (x – 2) = 0
x=2

27)

sin(75°) = sin(45° + 30°)

= sin45° cos30° + cos45° sin30°

= =
28)

31)
=8–1=7

34) 1. Question Explanation :

We need to evaluate the integral :

2. Concept used :
Integration of cosine function :

where α is a constant.

3. Formula Used :

4. Calculation :
Comparing with the standard from :
Here α = 5, b = –3
Applying the formula:

Final Answer :

Option (4) :

35)
tan θ decreases initially then becomes zero. After C tan θ increases

36) log10(1000)1/3 = = log1010 = 1

37)
= 120
 39)

Conceptual.

45) Here, a = 1, r =

CHEMISTRY

47) Explanation :
At NTP, for complete oxidation of CO, required volume of oxygen will be found.

Given Data :
At NTP, volume of CO = 8L

Concept :
Stoichiometry Based Concept

Calculation :
Reaction :- 2CO (g) + O2(g) → 2CO2 (g)
According to stoichiometry -
At NTP for 2 Litre of CO, required volume of O2 = 1 L
At NTP for 8 Litre of CO, required volume of O2 = 4 L

48) Question Explanation

We need to determine the number of moles of HCl gas formed when 22.4 L of H2 and 11.2 L of
Cl2 are mixed at STP.
Given
Volume of H2 = 22.4L
Volume of Cl2 = 11.2L
Condition = STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure)

Concept
Number of Moles Calculation & Concept

Explanation
At STP, 1 mole of any gas occupies 22.4 L
The balanced chemical reaction for the formation of HCl is
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
From the balanced equation. 1 mole of H2 reacts with 1 mole of Cl2 to form 2 of HCI.

Moles of H2 =

Moles of Cl2 = =0.5 mol

Since Cl2 is the limiting reagent (we have less of Cl2) the moles of HCI formed will be based on
the amount of Cl2, available.
From the equation. 1 mole of Cl2 produces 2 moles of HCl. Therefore. 0.5 moles of Cl2 will
produce
0.5 mol Cl2 × 2 = 1 mol HCl
Final Answer
The number of males of HCl formed is 1 mole.
Correct Answer: Option 1,

49) Explanation :
How many moles of water are formed when 1 mole of H2SO4 reacts with NaOH.

Given Data :
Mole of H2SO4 = 1 mole
NaOH in excess

Concept :
Stoichiometry based concept

Calculation :
Reaction :- H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
According to stoichiometry -
1 mole of H2SO4 react with NaOH, gives 3 mole of H2O

51)

10 mL I2 requires 10 mL of H2(g) according to reaction.

54)

Explanation :

Find volume of O2 at STP

given data (nS) – 1.5 mol

Concept :

S + O2 → SO2

1 moles of S → 1 moles of O2

1.5 moles of S → 1.5 moles of O2

(V)O2 at STP = n × 2.24 = 1.5 × 22.4 = 33.6

55)
Explanation: Question asks to find the moles of product C formed given moles of reactants A
and B and a balanced chemical equation.

Given data :

A. 7 mol A

B. 8 mol B

C. Balanced equation: A + 2B → 3C

Concept: Limiting reactant, Stoichiometry

Calculation:

A. 1 mol A needs 2 mol B.

B. 7 mol A needs 14 mol B, but only 8 mol B is present. B is Limiting reactant.

C. 2 mol B produces 3 mol C.

D. 8 mol B produces (3/2) x 8 = 12 mol C

Final Answer: 12 mol

Correct option - 2

56) Question Explanation

We are asked how much CO2 gas is produced from the complete combustion of 10 L of butane
(C4H10)
Given
Volume of butane = 10 L
Reaction is complete combustion
Concept
Volume of gas after combustion of organic compound.
Explanation
Balanced combustion reaction of butane
2C4H10 + 13O2 → 8CO2 + 10H2O
From the equation :
2 volumes of C4H10 give 8 volumes of CO2
i.e. 1 volume of C4H10 gives 4 volumes of CO2
Given: 10 L of C4H10
CO2 produced = 10 × 4 = 40 L
5. Final Answer
40 L of CO2 is produced
Correct Answer: Option 4

61)

63)

Explanation: Question asks to find the atomic mass of D given moles of reactants, balanced
equation, and mass of product formed.

Given data :

A. 12 mol A

B. 12 mol B

C. Balanced equation: 3A + 2B → C + 1/2 D

D. Mass of D produced: 60 g

Concept: Limiting reactant, Stoichiometry

Calculation:

Limiting Reactant:

A. From the balanced equation, 3 moles of A react with 2 moles of B.

B. Given 12 moles of A and 12 moles of B:

A. A can react with (2/3) x 12 = 8 moles of B.

B. Since we have 12 moles of B, B is in excess and A is the limiting reactant.

Moles of D produced:

A. From the balanced equation, 3 moles of A produce 1/2 moles of D.

B. Therefore, 12 moles of A will produce 12/6 = 2 moles of D.

 Atomic Mass of D:

A. Given that 60 g of D is produced and we know 2 moles are produced:

B. Atomic mass of D = (60 g) / (2 mol) = 30 g/mol

Final Answer: 30 g/mol

Correct option - 1

64)

Given Data

A. Reactants: Equal moles of SO₂ and O₂

B. Reaction: The formation of SO₃ from SO₂ and O₂ typically follows the stoichiometric equation:
2 SO₂ + O₂ → 2 SO₃

Concept

A. Limiting Reactant: The substance that is completely consumed first and thus limits the amount
of product formed.
B. Stoichiometry: The balanced reaction shows that 2 moles of SO₂ react with 1 mole of O₂.
C. When provided with equal moles of SO₂ and O₂, the reactant with the higher stoichiometric
requirement (in this case, SO₂ which needs to be present in a 2:1 ratio relative to O₂) will be
the limiting reactant.

Mathematical Calculation

A. Let the number of moles of each reactant be 1 mole:

A. Moles of SO₂ = 1 mole
B. Moles of O₂ = 1 mole
B. According to the balanced equation (2 SO₂ + O₂ → 2 SO₃):
A. For 1 mole of O₂, the reaction requires 2 moles of SO₂.
B. Since only 1 mole of SO₂ is available, the SO₂ is insufficient to react with all of the O₂
present.
C. Therefore, SO₂ is the limiting reactant because it runs out first.

Final Answer
The limiting reactant is: SO₂
(Option 1)

Question Level
Medium

67) wt. of 1 L of hydrocarbon = wt. of 1 L of CO2

∴ wt. of 22.4 L of hydrocarbon = wt. of 22.4 L of CO2
(mol. wt of CO2) = 44 g
 C3H8 have mol. wt = 44

68) Answer - (1)

Explanation:

Empirical formula: = CH3

Final Answer: = CH3

69) Answer: 4
Explanation: Empirical formula of compound is to be found.
Given Data:
Atomic Weight of X = 75
Atomic Weight of y = 16
% of X = 75.8
Concept:
Empirical Formula: - Formula of a compound expresses the simplest whole Number ratio of
atoms of Various elements present in 1 molecule of the Compound.
Calculation:
moles ratio:- X : Y

:
2 : 3
Final Answer: X2Y3

70)

A compound made of two elements A and B are found to contain 25% A (Atomic mass 12.5)
and 75% B (Atomic mass 37.5). The simplest formula of the compound is AB.

Explanation:

Elements % Composition Atomic Mass Moles Ratio

A 25 12.5 25/12.5=2 2/2=1

B 75 37.5 75/37.5=2 2/2=1

71)

Step 1: Calculate the number of molecules in the sample

We use Avogadro's number, which states that one mole of any substance contains
approximately 6.022 x 10²³ particles (molecules or atoms).

Formula:
 Number of molecules = Number of moles x Avogadro's number

Calculation:

Number of molecules = 1.4 moles x 6.022 x 10²³ molecules/mole

= 8.4 x 10²³ molecules

Step 2: Determine the number of atoms in one molecule of PCl₃

Each molecule of phosphorus trichloride (PCl₃) consists of:

A. 1 phosphorus atom
B. 3 chlorine atoms

Thus, the total number of atoms in one molecule of PCl₃ is:

1 + 3 = 4 atoms

Step 3: Calculate the total number of atoms in the sample

Now, we can calculate the total number of atoms in the sample by multiplying the number of
molecules by the number of atoms per molecule.

Formula:

Total number of atoms = Number of molecules x Number of atoms per molecule

Calculation:

Total number of atoms = 8.4 x 10²³ molecules x 4 atoms/molecule

= 3.36 x 10²⁴ atoms

72)

Question is Asking About :-

To determine emprical formula.

Given Data :-
C = 54.5% by mass = 54.59
H = 9.1% by mass = 9.1 g
O = 36.4% by mass = 36.4g

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :-

Formula ⇒ C2H4O
Hence, option (3) is correct.
73)

1 mL of water = 1 g of water

18 g of water contains 6.023 x 10²³ molecules

1 mL of water contains = (6.022 x 10²³) / 18 molecules = 20 drops

∴ 1 drop of water will contain = (6.022 x 10²³) / (18 x 20)

= 1.667 x 10²¹ molecules

82) V ∝ n

⇒
⇒ n1 = n2

⇒ ⇒
⇒ w2 = 1.6 g

83)

Concept:

A. Gay-Lussac's Law of Gaseous Volumes: When gases react together, they do so in

volumes that bear a simple whole-number ratio to one another and to the products (if
gaseous), provided that the temperature and pressure remain constant.

Analysis:

A. The reaction N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃ shows the following:

A. 1 volume of N₂ reacts with 3 volumes of H₂ to produce 2 volumes of NH₃.

B. This directly matches the stoichiometric coefficients in the balanced chemical

equation.

B. Other Laws:

C. Definite Proportions: States that a chemical compound always contains exactly the
same proportion of elements by mass.

D. Multiple Proportions: States that when two elements combine to form more than one
compound, the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other are in
 a ratio of small whole numbers.

E. Mass Conservation: States that mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical
reaction.

F. Therefore, the correct answer is 4. Gaseous volumes.

Conclusion:

The given volume ratio directly illustrates Gay-Lussac's Law of Gaseous Volumes.

85) Question Explanation:

We are given 500 mL of a glucose solution containing 6.02 × 1022 molecules, and we need to
find the molarity (concentration) of the solution.

Given:
Volume of solution = 500 mL = 0.5 L
Number of molecules = 6.02 x 1022 molecules
Avogadro's number = 6.022 x 1023 molecules per mole

Concept:
Molarity (M) is defined as the number of moles of solute per liter of solution:

Solution :
First, calculate the number of moles of glucose:

Now, calculate the molarity:

Final Answer: (3) 0.2 M

90) NCERT XI, Page # 19, Q. No. 16.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. No. 94

92) NCERT Pg-133

93) NCERT Pg-132

94) Mesosomes

95) NCERT Pg-125

96) NCERT Pg-129

97) NCERT Pg-129

98) NCERT Pg-129

99) NCERT Pg-131

100) NCERT Pg-132

101) NCERT XIth Page No. 92

102)

Explanation

A. The primary structural difference between plant and animal cells is the presence of a
rigid cell wall in plant cells. This cell wall provides structural support, shape, and
protection to plant cells.

B. Animal cells do not have a rigid cell wall; instead, they are surrounded by a flexible
plasma membrane that allows them to take on various shapes.

Answer: Option 3: Animal cell lacks rigid cell wall

103) NCERT Pg.#129

104) Module 01, Pg. # 177, 178

105)

NCERT Pg. #133

106) NCERT-XI, Page # 134, Para-[Link]

107) NCERT XI, Pg.# 102, 1.2.3

108) NCERT-XI, Pg # 131, Fig. 8.4

109) NCERT Pg.# 133, [Link]

110) NCERT XI Pg.# 126, para 8.3

111) NCERT Pg. # 132

112)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 134

113) NCERT page no.128

114) NCERT page no.131.

115)

The digestion of old or damaged cell organelles is termed Autophagy.

Autophagy is a process by which cells break down and recycle their own damaged or old
compounds.
So, the correct answer is :-
(A) (B)
(1) Competition Predation
(2) Predation Competition
(3) Parasitism Predation
(4) Parasitism Competition
The correct answer is-1
A- - A-competition
B-
+ - B-Predition

116)

NCERT-XI Pg # 132

117) NCERT Pg. # 126, 127, Last para, Para-2

119) NCERT Page no. 132

139) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102, 103

142) (a)-Unicellular gland; (b)-Multicellular; (c)-Compound epithelium

143) NCERT Page#102

155) NCERT-XI Page No. # 101

158) NCERT XIth Pg # 101, last para

159)

Explanation:
Fibroblasts are the largest cells of connective tissue proper. They are responsible for
producing the extracellular matrix, which includes collagen, elastin, and other fibers. They
play a key role in maintaining the structural integrity of connective tissues.

Correct Answer:
Option (1) Fibroblasts

160) Allen module page 70.

161)

Exocrine gland — Digestive glands

Unicellular gland — Goblet cells
Multicellular gland — Salivary gland
Endocrine gland — Thyroid gland

165)

The correct answer is 4. Microvilli.

Here's why:Microvilli are tiny, finger-like projections of the cell membrane that increase the
surface area of the cell.

174) NCERT-XI Pg.# 106

179)

The question asks to identify the structures labeled A, B, and C in the provided diagram of
adipose tissue.

A. A-Fat storage area: Correct.

B. B-Nucleus: Correct.

C. C-Plasma membrane: Correct.

The correct answer is option 4. A-Fat storage area, B-Nucleus, C-Plasma membrane. This
option accurately identifies the key structural components of an adipocyte (fat cell) as seen in
the diagram.