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The document presents a series of questions and answers related to various logical reasoning and mathematical problems, including musicians' instrument skills, high school language knowledge, and preferences for beverages. It also discusses the implications of the Indian government's suspension of the FCRA license for the Centre for Policy Research, arguing that such actions hinder India's global ambitions and research capacity. The document includes multiple-choice questions with provided answers and explanations.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
5 views25 pages

My File

The document presents a series of questions and answers related to various logical reasoning and mathematical problems, including musicians' instrument skills, high school language knowledge, and preferences for beverages. It also discusses the implications of the Indian government's suspension of the FCRA license for the Centre for Policy Research, arguing that such actions hinder India's global ambitions and research capacity. The document includes multiple-choice questions with provided answers and explanations.

Uploaded by

tarunpahul07
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/QT- Caslet

Directions for question: Study the following information carefully and answer accordingly:
Out of a total of 240 musicians in a club, 7.5% can play all the three instruments — guitar, violin and flute. The
number of musicians who can play two and only two of the above instruments is 45. The number of musicians
who can play the guitar alone is 60.
1. Find the total number of musicians who can play flute alone and violin alone.
(a) 115 (b) 117
(c) 118 (d) 121

2. If the number of musicians who can play violin only be the same as the number of musicians who can play
only guitar, then find the number of musicians who can play flute.
(a) 56 (b) 57
(c) 162 (d) Cannot say

Directions for question: Study the following information carefully and answer accordingly:
There are five high schools A, B, C, D and E in a certain town. Total number of high school students of the town
is 1800. The strength of school A is 20% and B is 37.5% of the total number of students of the town. D and E
have equal strengths. 40% students of A know only one language - Hindi. 60% students of D know only one
language - English. There are 111 more students in B who know Hindi exclusively than the number of students
of D who know English only. 55 students of C know Hindi but not English. 15 students of D know both the
languages. The strength of C is 37.5% of the strength of A. Two-fifths of students of B know both the languages.
The number of students of C who know English but not Hindi is 40 less than the number of the same category of
B. 97 students of E know only English and 20% students of A know both the languages. 28 students of E know
both the languages.
3. What is the percentage of the number of students who know both the languages?
(a) 22.33 (b) 22.66
(c) 22.22 (d) 22.5

4. What is the difference between the number of students who know English and those who know Hindi
exclusively?
(a) 250 (b) 200
(c) 400 (d) 360

5. The number of students who know only Hindi of C is how many times those who know both the languages
of the same school?
(a) 4 (b) 3

(c) 4 (d) 3

6. Find the percentage of number of students who know Hindi exclusively.


(a) 44.44 (b) 55.55
(c) 33.33 (d) None of these

7. What is the number of schools in which the number of students who know English only is more than the
average number of students who know English only?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/QT- Caslet
8. What is the maximum difference between the number of students of a certain school who know only
Hindi and only English?
(a) 195 (b) 93
(c) 165 (d) 97

Directions for question: Study the following information carefully and answer accordingly:
In a group of 1440 persons, like Coca-Cola only, 37.5% like Pepsi only and 510 like Mirinda. 6.25% of them
like all the three drinks while 6 do not like even one of the drinks. The number of persons who like both
Mirinda and Pepsi only is half the number of persons who like both Coca-Cola and Pepsi only, like both Coca-
Cola and Mirinda only.
9. How many persons like Mirinda only?
(a) 174 (b) 160
(c) 168 (d) Data inadequate

10. What is the difference between the number of persons who like Coca-Cola and those who like Pepsi only?
(a) 300 (b) 118
(c) 192 (d) None of these

11. Find the percentage of number of persons who like more than one drink.
(a) 27.5 (b) 33.9
(c) 33.75 (d) Data inadequate

12. In a class of 55 students 35 take tea, 27 take coffee and 12 take both. Find the number of students who
take neither tea nor coffee.
(a) 10 (b) 5
(c) 15 (d) 8

13. There are 1000 students, out of which 650 drink tea and 390 drink coffee and 30 students do not drink
either tea or coffee. How many students drink both tea and coffee?
(a) 80 (b) 90
(c) 70 (d) Data inadequate

Directions for question: Following Venn diagram shows the specialisation in different fields of some players out
of 120 players.

14. What is the percentage of those players who have specialised in bowling?
(a) 12.50% (b) 30%
(c) 37.50% (d) Can’t be determined
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/QT- Caslet
15. What is the percentage of those players who have specialised in any of the two departments?
(a) 7.50% (b) 12.50%
(c) 5.83% (d) 23.33%

16. What is the percentage of those players who have specialised in only one department?
(a) 32.43% (b) 45.83%
(c) 54.39% (d) 60%

17. In a class of 150 students, 65 play football, 50 play hockey, 75 play cricket, 35 play hockey and cricket, 20
play football and cricket, 42 play football and hockey and 8 play all the three games. Find the number of
students who do not play any of these three games.
(a) 101 (b) 49
(c) 51 (d) Can’t say

18. In a class there are 200 students. 70% of them like Hindi, 30% like English and 20% like Sanskrit. Find the
maximum possible percentage of students who like all the three languages.
(a) 20 (b) 10
(c) 5 (d) Can’t say

Directions for question: Study the following information carefully and answer accordingly:
In the figure shown below circle I represents readers of BSC magazine, Circle II represents the students who
have joined Correspondence Course of BSC (Banking Services Chronicle), and circle III represents the students
who have joined Classroom Coaching of BSC Academy.

19. The students who have joined the Classroom Coaching but are neither readers of BSC nor associated with
BSC through Correspondence Course, are represented by the portion
(a) G + D (b) G + F
(c) C (d) C - (D + G + F)

20. The portion which represents the students who are readers of BSC as well as are pursuing
Correspondence Course is
(a) G (b) E + G
(c) A + B (d) None of these
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/QT- Caslet

Ceslet - 1 Answer and explanation

1. Answer: B
Explanation: 7.5% of 240 = 18

Given that x + y + z = 45
Now, 60 + 18 + (x + y + z =) 45 - (f + v) = 240
or, 123 + (f + v) = 240
∴ f + v = 240 - 123 = 117

2. Answer: D
Explanation: Now, given that v = 60
f = 117 - 60 = 57
But, the number of musicians who can play flute = f + (x + y) + 18 = 57 + 18 + (x + y).
Since x + y is not known so, the number of musicians who can play flute cannot be determine.

(3 - 8): We symbolize the number of students who know only Hindi, ie Hindi but not English by H - E, the
number of students who know only English by E - H, the number of students who know both the
languages by H ∩ E and the total strength of schools by T.
We have T = (H - E) + (E - H) + (H ∩ E)
Now collecting the given pieces of information and using the above formula, we get
School Strength (T) H-E E-H H∩E
A 20% of 1800 = 360 40% of 360 = 144 360 - (144 + 72) = 20% of 360 = 72
144
B (37.5% = ) × 1800 = 675 111 + 189 = 300 675 - (300 + 270) = × 675 = 270
105
C (37.5% = ) × 360 = 135 55 105 - 40 = 65 135 - (55 + 65) = 15

D (360 + 675 + 135) = 1170 315 - (189 + 15) = 111 60% of 315 = 189 15
1800 - 1170 = 630
630 ÷ 2 = 315
E 315 315 - (97 + 28) = 190 97 28
Total 1800 800 600 400

3. Answer: C
Explanation: Required parentage = =22.22

4. Answer: B
Explanation: Required difference = (600 + 400) - 800 = 200
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/QT- Caslet
5. Answer: D
Explanation: 55 = x × 15
∴x= =3

6. Answer: D
Explanation: Required percentage
( )
=

7. Answer: B
Explanation: Average number of students who know English only =
So, A and D are the two desired schools.

8. Answer: A
Explanation: Clearly for B, the difference is maximum and it is (300 – 105) = 195

(9-13)

We have, 240 + x + 540 + 510 = 1440 - 6


or, x = 1434 - 1290 = 144 and = 72

9. Answer: C
Explanation: The number of persons who like Mirinda only
= 510 - (180 + 90 + 72) = 168

10 Answer: D
Explanation: Required difference
= 240 + 144 + 180 + 90 - 540 = 654 - 540 = 114

11 Answer: C
Explanation: Total number of persons who like more than one drink = 180 + 144 + 72 + 90 = 486
Required percentage = 33.75%

12. Answer: B
Explanation: Required number of students = 55 - (23 + 12 + 15) = 55 - 50 = 5
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/QT- Caslet
13. Answer: C
Explanation: Let x be the number of students who drink both.

650 - x + x + 390 - x + 30 = 1000


or, - x = 1000 - 1070 or, x = 70

14. Answer: C
Explanation: Total number of players who have specialised in bowling = 15 + 11 + 9 + 10 = 45
∴ Required percentage = × 100 = 37.50%

15. Answer: D
Explanation: Required percentage = ( )

= × 100 = 23.33%

16. Answer: B
Explanation: Required percentage = ( )

= × 100 = 45.83%

17 Answer: B
Explanation: Number of students who play at least one game
= n(F ∪ H ∪ C) = 65 + 50 + 75 - 35 - 20 - 42 + 8 = 101
∴ Number of students who don’t play any of the three games = 150 - 101 = 49.

18 Answer: B
Explanation:

For x to be maximum the other common sections should be zero. Now,


(140 - x) + (60 - x) + (40 - x) + x = 200
∴ x = 20
∴ Required % = 10

19 Answer: C
20. Answer: B
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Critical Reasoning
Critical Reasoning
Marathon-1
Name :
Batch :
Total Marks ( ):

Critical Reasoning
Marathon - I

Directions for question 1 to 5: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow-
Passage-1: The decision of the Government of India to suspend the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA)
licence of the country‟s premier think tank, the Centre for Policy Research (CPR) is bad in optics and substance. The
reasons that are being cited by the authorities include lapses in the income-tax paperwork of CPR‟s staff, lack of due
process in the accounting process, and diversion of funds to publication of books, which the authorities allege is not
part of the CPR‟s objectives. An eagerness to drag the prestigious institution into a quagmire of legal processes is writ
large over this entire exercise. The CPR has been working on improving governance and enhancing state capacity
among other things, in collaboration with governments, and the public and private sectors. There are many advocacy
and campaign groups that have been facing the wrath of the government in the recent past, but the action against the
CPR lowers the bar of tolerance for the political establishment to an abysmal level. This betrays an inexplicable
hostility towards knowledge creation of all kinds. The FCRA is a regulatory mechanism to ensure that foreign vested
interests are not unduly influencing the domestic politics of India, but sweeping application of the law in a manner that
clearly disables the non-governmental sector suggests a thoughtless approach bordering on vindictiveness.
India‟s New Education Policy envisages academic exchanges and cooperation between Indian and global institutions
to raise the standard of higher education and research in the country. India also wants to emerge as a centre of
technological excellence and manufacturing. Recently, two Australian universities announced their plans to have
campuses in India. However, India‟s global ambitions are clashing with the insecure and reactionary state actions such
as the restrictions on the CPR. Collaboration with the world requires the flow of information, personnel and funds in
both directions. Restrictions on all these for national security reasons are part of the rule everywhere, and are
acceptable. But these are to be exercised sparingly. To assume that Indian thinking should be insulated from foreign
ones, while seeking international technology and capital inflow at the same time is a paradox. At any rate, for a
country growing as fast as India, a massive expansion in capacity for research is the need of the hour. Along with
public funding, private and philanthropic funding are essential for India to continuously expand its knowledge
horizons in all fields. The government should not merely tolerate, but facilitate the emergence of several more
institutions such as the CPR.
1. What is the author's main argument regarding the Indian government's suspension of the FCRA license of the
Centre for Policy Research (CPR)?
(a) The Indian government's action against the CPR shows their commitment to national security
(b) India's global ambitions are being hindered by the government's restrictions on the CPR and other non-
governmental organizations
(c) India's need to expand its capacity for research through public and private funding is important
(d) None of these

2. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?


(a) India's restrictions on academic and financial exchanges with foreign institutions can hamper its global
ambitions.
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Critical Reasoning
(b) India's New Education Policy does not prioritize international collaboration in research and education.
(c) The Indian government has been successful in promoting private and philanthropic funding for research.
(d) None of these

3. Which of the following best describes the way the author has formed their argument in the passage?
(a) The author begins with a thesis statement, provides evidence to support it, and concludes with a restatement
of the thesis.
(b) The author presents several opposing viewpoints and then offers a nuanced compromise.
(c) The author presents a series of facts and statistics, followed by an analysis of their implications.
(d) The author begins by highlighting a specific incident and then discusses its broader implications.

4. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's arguments?
(a) The CPR has collaborated with various state governments, private sectors, and non-profit organizations to
enhance the governance and state capacity of India.
(b) The government of India has recently announced a policy to encourage foreign academic collaborations and
partnerships to enhance higher education and research in the country.
(c) Several other prominent think tanks in India have also been subjected to scrutiny and restrictions under the
Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA).
(d) The Australian universities' plan to open campuses in India has been put on hold due to the Indian
government's restrictive policies towards foreign funding and collaborations.

5. Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with?


(a) The Indian government's actions towards CPR are justified to ensure the regulation of foreign funding in the
country.
(b) Collaboration with foreign institutions is not necessary for India's growth in the field of research and
education.
(c) The government should facilitate the emergence of more institutions like CPR for the expansion of
knowledge horizons in India.
(d) The New Education Policy of India is beneficial for the growth and development of the country.

Passage-2: All human lives are precious, but, in practice, some are seen as less precious than others. Despite the
efforts of courts and governments, law and enforcement have been unable to keep a certain category of workers out of
harm‟s way: those who are engaged in sewage cleaning. While the job itself is dangerous, as several other human
pursuits are, sewage cleaning involves working with human excreta, and cannot be seen without invoking the concept
of dignity of labour. To allot the task of removing excreta to humans when machines are able to do the work is
violation of rights. It is in this context that Tamil Nadu‟s recent move to notify the rules of the Prohibition of
Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013, must be seen. While manual „scavenging‟ is
completely prohibited, the rules allow manual cleaning, in specific conditions where mechanical equipment cannot be
deployed to fix the problem, or when it is absolutely necessary to have human intervention, after stating the valid
reasons for allowing such a process to take place.
While quibbling has dominated discussions about number of deaths due to manual scavenging, government-
acknowledged deaths from manual cleaning of sewers and septic tanks are shocking enough. Since the causes of
deaths while cleaning sewers and septic tanks are predictable- noxious gases — not taking measures to prevent would
be criminal. Proper implementation of the rules, adequate monitoring are essential. Efforts must be taken, within
existing schemes, to provide compensation to the family members of those who have died, and to provide them a way
out.
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Critical Reasoning
6. Which of the following expresses main point of the author?
(a) Manual Scavenging is dangerous to human life and alternative means should be found out.
(b) The number of death due to manual scavenging are increasing, efforts should be taken to help the members
of the deceased and to give more dignity to the profession.
(c) Manual Cleaning should be used instead of manual scavenging and compensation to family members those
who have died while working in this profession should be provided.
(d) Lessons must be learnt from those states who have dignified the profession of manual scavenging

7. Which of the following is the logical tool used in this line- “All human lives are precious, but, in practice, some
are seen as less precious than others”.
(a) Parallel Reasoning (b) Paradox
(c) Cause-effect relationship (d) Inferential reasoning

8. which of the following is the direct inference used in the passage?


(a) Despite the efforts of courts and governments, law and enforcement have been able to keep a certain
category of workers out of harm‟s way
(b) Efforts can be taken, within existing schemes, to provide compensation to the family members of those who
have died, and to provide them a way out.
(c) Since the causes of deaths while cleaning sewers and septic tanks are predictable- noxious gases — not
taking measures to prevent would be civil.
(d) While manual „scavenging‟ is completely prohibited, the rules allow manual cleaning, in specific conditions
where mechanical equipment cannot be deployed to fix the problem.

9. Which of the following shows the “cause and effect” reasoning which logically conforms as to what the author
is saying?
(a) Because the government has failed to form proper rules for the manual scavenging workers, this has resulted
into quite a number of deaths.
(b) Because the required amount of dignity is not given to this profession and alternative means are not found, it
results or effects into workers practicing manual scavenging.
(c) Because proper compensation is not provided to the family members of the deceased, more and more people
join the profession and thereby get killed
(d) None of these

10. Which of the following STRENGTHENS the passage the most?


(a) Manual cleaning is not per se bad, but it deserves the required amount of respect from each one of us.
(b) The government shouldn‟t notify unnecessary amendments related to the profession of manual scavenging.
(c) Both a) and b) strengthens
(d) Neither a) nor b) strengthens.

Passage-3: Pakistani Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif said he was willing to resume the stalled peace negotiations with
Narendra Modi. However, later, his office went back on what he said and clarified that it would not enter into talks
unless Delhi rolled back its decision to abrogate Article 370. Formal bilateral dialogue has fallen apart over the past
seven years over allegations of terror and the politics of Kashmir. Pakistan‟s deep economic crisis and its military
dealing with an unprecedented popular onslaught over decades of political meddling, the government and the military
see value in reducing animosity with India.
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Critical Reasoning
Since 1947, the territorial dispute has been the main point of confrontation. While India and Pakistan have fought
several wars, there have been some peacetime overtures too.
Since the late 2010s, however, formal bilateral ties have seen a complete breakdown, over the terror attacks in Uri,
Pathankot and Pulwama. Later in 2019, following India‟s decision to abrogate Article 370, Imran Khan, the erstwhile
Pakistani prime minister, rejected the possibility of dialogue till Article 370 was reinstated. However, this condition is
unacceptable for Delhi.
On the other hand, for Delhi, Islamabad ending support for anti-India terrorist groups operating from Pakistani soil is a
prerequisite.
India and Pakistan have however, reportedly, held backchannel talks and even managed to implement a fresh ceasefire
along the LOC.
Sharif added that, “My message is that let us sit down and have serious and sincere talks” Sharif said. “It is up to us to
live peacefully and make progress or quarrel with each other and waste time and resources.”
Pakistan does not want to waste resources on “bombs and ammunition” and instead wanted peace with India. “We
have had three wars with India, and they have only brought more misery, poverty and unemployment to the people,”
Sharif said. “We have learnt our lesson, and want to live in peace with India, provided we are able to resolve our
genuine problems and even suggested that the United Arab Emirates should mediate between the two.”
The timing of Sharif s remarks carries significance. Floods in Pakistan have left behind damages worth more than $30
billion. And even before that, it was walking into an economic crisis, raising concerns that it could witness an
economic collapse like Sri Lanka. Consequently, Pakistan‟s government has been seeking financial support. Despite
the support from various countries, the crisis continues to deepen. Meanwhile, the country‟s military, is facing an
unprecedented protest. Pakistan cannot afford high-intensity animosity with India. Sharif is facing political pressures
of running a coalition government. Thus, there‟s an understanding that they need to stabilise relations with India.

11. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the passage?


(a) To elucidate the worsening economic crisis in Pakistan and how it is facing numerous challenges for its
quest to survive.
(b) To highlight the condition of Pakistan and the numerous challenges that it is facing and suggest that
ameliorating the relations between India and Pakistan is the only viable option through which Pakistan can
prevent its downfall.
(c) To highlight the plight of Pakistan in economic and political spheres and a consequent understanding
amongst its ruling dispensation that ameliorating the relations with India can help them out.
(d) To highlight that Pakistan is paying for the evils that it has committed and there is no way Pakistan can
come out of this worsening crisis.

12. Which of the following should be the logical title of the passage?
(a) Economic woes and anger at army: Why Pakistan is eager for talks with India
(b) Worsening economic crisis: Pakistan reaping the rewards of spreading terrorism
(c) Sharif s political dilemma: An attempt to save his power
(d) A clarion call for Pakistan

13. Which of the following strengthens the passage?


(a) UAE has given loan to Pakistan for improving its situation but to no avail.
(b) Resolving conflict with India will lead to saving of resources which it has to otherwise use while fighting
and may be of some help in bettering its economic condition.
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above.
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Critical Reasoning
14. “India and Pakistan have however, reportedly, held backchannel talks and even managed to implement a fresh
ceasefire along the LOC.” Which of the following is the role of the aforementioned statement?
(a) It is a paradox (b) It is a premise
(c) It is a conclusion (d) It is an assumption

15. Which of the following weaken the author‟s point of view?


(a) Pakistan is keen on improving its relations because it feels that it is for the benefit of both the countries.
(b) Pakistan has a vested interested in ameliorating its relations with India which is that it can extract money
from the Indian economy for propagating terrorism.
(c) Pakistan can resurge with the help of countries like UAE and China and financial institutions like IMF.
(d) All of the above weaken the author‟s point of view.

Passage-4: Innovator and environmentalist Sonam Wangchuk has appealed to Prime Minister Narendra Modi for
urgent intervention to protect Ladakh. Climate impact is visible in the Himalayas, with 25 glacial lakes and water
bodies witnessing an increase in water spread area since 2009.
There has been a 40 per cent increase in water spread area in India, China and Nepal, posing a huge threat to seven
Indian states and Union Territories, according to Delhi-based Centre for Science and Environment and Down To
Earth‟s report. In October 2021, 31 glacial lakes and water bodies showed an increase in area by 20 per cent, the report
found. The paper analysed data from Monitoring of glacial lakes and water bodies in the Himalayan region for Year
2021 for June to October by the Central Water Commission.
Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh have seen the highest increase in water spread area from 2009-2020 at 388 per cent.
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Sikkim, Bihar and Himachal Pradesh are the other states/UTs at risk.
Wangchuk is right to raise an alarm. The government has carried out studies and maintains data regarding melting of
glaciers in the Indian Himalayan region.
Several institutes monitoring the Himalayan glaciers have reported accelerated heterogeneous mass loss.
Wangchuk has „urgently‟ appealed to people to help protect the environmentally sensitive region of Ladakh in a 13-
minute video uploaded to his YouTube channel. He also asked the PM to safeguard the region under the Sixth
Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
The clip was also titled Ladakh ke Mann ki Baat, drawing inspiration from the name of PM‟s radio programme “Mann
Ki Baat”.
Locals have been demanding the inclusion of Ladakh under the Sixth Schedule for a long time to ensure overall
economic development and autonomy in decisions, the education reformer pointed out in the clip. The issue has also
been previously raised in Parliament, but with no results.
“Ladakh has nearly 95 per cent of the tribal population while the Constitution seeks 50 per cent of tribal population in
an area for applicability of Sixth Schedule,” Wangchuk said.
The environmentalist also brought up the Ladakh hill council elections won by the Bharatiya Janata Party in 2020 and
the scrapping of Article 370 in 2019, which led to Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir separating as two UTs.

16. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the passage?


(a) The state governments have started preparations to face the increase in the water spread area.
(b) The central government‟s spending in Ladakh has been increasing year by year.
(c) The paper released by the Central Water Commission is one of the most varied and latest sources of data.
(d) Only Public awareness could prevent the climate crisis in the Himalayas.

17. “There has been a 40 percent increase in water spread area in India, China, and Nepal.” What is the role of the
given statement in the following passage?
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Critical Reasoning
(a) It is a conclusion. (b) It is an inference.
(c) It is a premise. (d) It is an assumption.

18. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the passage?


(a) The mentioned glacial lakes just represent 30% of the total glacial lakes in Ladakh.
(b) Research has shown that glacial lakes of Ladakh automatically melt, every 400 to 500 years, due to
geological cycles and it was last seen in 1500s.
(c) Although having a tribal population of 95%, average family income in Ladakh is more than the national
average.
(d) None of these

19. What will be the apt title for the passage?


(a) Sonam Wangchuk is right. All is not well with Ladakh‟s glaciers.
(b) Sonam Wangchuk: an Indian engineer, innovator, and education reformist.
(c) Environmental catastrophe engulfing Ladakh.
(d) None of these

20. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?


(a) The highest increase in the water level of the glacial lakes was seen in 2009.
(b) Sixth Schedule of the Constitution is meant for the upliftment of tribal populated areas.
(c) Sonam Wangchuk‟s appeal on his YouTube channel has fallen on deaf ears.
(d) None of these

Passage: Climate change is a global crisis that affects everyone, but its consequences are particularly devastating for
the poor and vulnerable populations. These marginalised communities bear the brunt of climate change impacts due to
their limited resources, socioeconomic disadvantages, and geographical location. The poor often lack access to
essential services, including clean water, sanitation, healthcare, and education, which exacerbates their vulnerability to
climate-related hazards. The poor and vulnerable are disproportionately affected by extreme weather events such as
hurricanes, droughts, and floods. Their precarious living conditions, often in informal settlements or low-lying coastal
areas, make them highly susceptible to displacement, property damage, and loss of livelihoods. Additionally, these
communities rely heavily on climatesensitive sectors such as agriculture, fisheries, and forestry, which are highly
susceptible to changing weather patterns. Crop failures, loss of livestock, and reduced yields lead to food insecurity,
malnutrition, and economic instability, trapping them in a vicious cycle of poverty. India, with its vast number of
people living below the poverty line and across diverse geographical regions, is particularly vulnerable to the health
effects of climate change. The country‟s dependence on climate-sensitive sectors, such as agriculture and fisheries,
combined with a large rural population, magnifies the risks. Air pollution in the country largely influences agricultural
production. Research conducted by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), informs that exposure to
air pollution reduces the yield of major food crops in India. The projected rise in temperatures, changes in rainfall
patterns, and the melting of Himalayan glaciers all pose significant challenges to public health.
It is imperative that India takes proactive measures to mitigate and adapt to these challenges and build a climate
change-resilient healthcare system in India. The urgent need for climate change resilient health initiatives in India
arises from the escalating threats posed by climate change to public health. However, there is little progress towards
developing the climate change or disaster-resilient healthcare system in India which was quite evident during the
COVID-19 pandemic. Also, historical and political commitments towards research funding and actions for building a
sustainable climate-resilient healthcare system in India are not adequate.
A wide array of climate-related challenges impacts disproportionately affect vulnerable populations, exacerbating
existing health inequalities. To effectively address these challenges, there is a pressing need to develop and implement
climate change resilient health initiatives and technological innovations.
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Critical Reasoning
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the article, “Rich Countries Continue To Dilute Responsibility as
World Looks To Set New Climate Finance Goal”, by Mrinali Kathrick and published in The Wire on June 6th, 2023.
21. Which of the following statements, if true, would most weaken the author‟s argument that India is particularly
vulnerable to the health effects of climate change?
(a) India has a robust public health system that can cope with the increased burden of diseases and disasters due
to climate change.
(b) India has a diverse and resilient population that can adapt to changing environmental and social conditions
due to climate change.
(c) India has a rich and vibrant culture that can foster social cohesion and solidarity in the face of climate
change challenges.
(d) None of these

22. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?


(a) The author believes that climate change is the most pressing issue facing humanity today.
(b) The author thinks that India should collaborate with other countries to tackle climate change and its health
effects.
(c) The author suggests that climate change and its health effects are interrelated and complex phenomena that
require multidisciplinary approaches.
(d) The author implies that climate change and its health effects are given enough attention or priority by the
Indian government and society.

23. Which of the following is an assumption that the author makes in the passage?
(a) Climate change is caused by human activities and can be reversed or slowed down by reducing greenhouse
gas emissions.
(b) The poor and vulnerable populations in India are aware of the health effects of climate change and are
willing to take preventive measures.
(c) The health effects of climate change in India are similar to those in other countries or regions that face
similar climatic conditions.
(d) The development of a climate change-resilient healthcare system in India requires adequate research funding
and actions from the government and other stakeholders.

24. What is the central idea of the passage?


(a) Climate change is a global crisis that affects everyone, but its consequences are particularly devastating for
the poor and vulnerable populations.
(b) India is particularly vulnerable to the health effects of climate change due to its socioeconomic
disadvantages, geographical location, and dependence on climate-sensitive sectors.
(c) There is a trifling need to develop and implement climate change resilient health initiatives and
technological innovations to address the health effects of climate change in India.
(d) None of these

25. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) Climate change is a local problem that can be solved by individual actions and initiatives from the affected
communities and regions.
(b) Climate change is an inevitable phenomenon that cannot be prevented or controlled by human interventions
or technologies.
(c) Climate change is a multifaceted challenge that demands comprehensive and integrated solutions from
various disciplines and sectors.
(d) None of these
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Analytical Reasoning
Analytical Reasoning
Clocks & Calendar
Name :
Batch :
Total Marks ( ):

Clocks and Calendar:-

Important Notes:
÷ 4 = TO FIND LEAP YEAR
Eg: 1864, divide the last 2 digits with 4 (64 ÷ 4) reminder is 0. Then it is a leap year.
1999 divide the last 2 digits with 4 (99 ÷ 4) reminder is not 0. Then it is not a leap year.
÷ 400 = TO FIND out if a century year is LEAP YEAR
÷ 7 = WEEKS + ____ ODD DAYS
Eg: 18 days = 2 weeks + 4 odd days

 Which day can be the last day of the century:


Monday, Wednesday, Friday, Sunday
 Which day cannot be the last day of the century:
Tuesday, Thursday, Saturday
 Which day can be the first day of the century:
Tuesday, Thursday, Saturday, Monday
 Which day cannot be the first day of the century
Sunday, Wednesday, Friday
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Analytical Reasoning
CLOCKS:

 TOTAL ANGLE = 360 DEGREE


 360 DEGREE is divided in 12 parts or 12 sectors
Means each part or sector is of = 360/12 = 30 degree

 Now each sector or part is divided in 5 spaces


(The clock’s dial is also the circumference divided into 60 equal parts. These are called minute spaces)
Means each space is of 30/5 = 6 degree

 Now in one hour when the minute hand cover 60 minutes, in the same time the hour hand moves 30 degree,
60 minutes by minute hand = 30 degree by hour hand, so
In 1 minute the hour hand will move ½ degree.
So, if a minute hand moves 30 minutes the hour hand will cover 15 degrees
if a minute hand moves 45 minutes the hour hand will cover 22.5 degrees
 Formula to find ANGLES BETWEEN THE CLOCK HANDS
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Analytical Reasoning
IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER

 How many times do minute hand and hour hand of a clock coincide each other during a day?
Answer: 22 times.
Explanation: A day starts at midnight, and hence the first-ever coinciding of hands happen at midnight. Now
observing the clock, the next coincidence will occur at approximately 1’ o’clock and 5 minutes. Thus, one can
conclude that every hour, there is one coincidence of hands. Therefore, the answer should be 24 times for 24
hours. But it is not the correct answer and right logic.
Now observe the time between 11 to 12, either it can either be A.M or P.M, the hands are not coinciding between
11’o o’clock and 12’o o’clock. The coinciding of hands at 12’ o clock is the coincidence between 12 and 1 and 11
and 12. Hence, in 12 hours, there will only be 11 coincidence, extending the logic for 24 hours of the day, there
will be 22 coincidences.
If 12:0:0 A.M is the first coincidence of the hands in a day then the next collision will be at 1’o o’clock 5 minutes,
but the evaluation of seconds is difficult, but not impossible.

 How many times do minute hand and hour hand of a clock opposite to each other during a day?
Answer: 22 times
Explanation: The hands of the clock make one 180° straight line every hour except between 5’o clock and 6’o
clock. A precise observation and analysis of the watch gives the idea that between 5 and 6 the hands make straight
line 180° exactly at 6 o’clock and hence, it cannot be the one which happens between 5 o’clock and 6 o’clock.
Instead it is considered as a straight line formed between 6 and 7 o’clock.
Therefore, the hands of a clock make 180° straight lines 11 times in 12 hours and hence generalising it for 24
hours, the hands make 22 consecutive lines of 180° in 24 hours.

 How many times do minute hand and hour hand of a clock form right angle during a day?
Answer: 44 times

Use this method to find :


“55 Minutes spaces are gained by minute hand in 60 minutes”

CLOCKS HANDS ARE TOGETHER


CLOCKS HANDS ARE OPPOSITE
CLOCKS HANDS ARE AT RIGHT ANGLE
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Analytical Reasoning
EXERCISE:-

Directions for the questions 1 to 23: Choose the most appropriate answer of the following questions.
1. Find out the angle between hour hand and minute hand of a clock at following time:
(i) 4:20 (ii) 5:15
(iii) 6:00

2. At what time between 2 and 3 will the hands of the clock be together?
(a) 2:10 10/11 (b) 2:11 10/11
(c) 2:12 11/10 (d) 2:12 10/11

3. By how many degrees the hour hand has turned through in a span of 5 hours and 10 minutes?
(a) 145° (b) 150°
(c) 155° (d) 160°

4. A clock is set right at 5:00 am. It loses 16 minutes in 24 hours uniformly. What will be the correct time when the
clock indicates 10:00 pm on 4th day?
(a) 9:00 pm (b) 11:00 pm
(c) 10:30 pm (d) 9:30 pm

5. How many times do minute hand and hour hand of a clock cross each other during a day?
(a) 12 times (b) 24 times
(c) 22 minute (d) None of these

6. If day before yesterday was Sunday, which day will be 3 days after the day after tomorrow?
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Sunday (d) Saturday

7. 1st March is Wednesday. Which month of the same year starts with the same day?
(a) October (b) November
(c) December (d) January

8. Which of the following cannot be the last day of a century?


(a) Monday (b) Wednesday
(c) Thursday (d) Friday

9. On which dates of April 2001 did Friday fall?


(a) 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th (b) 4th, 11th, 18th, 25th
(c) 5th, 12th, 19th, 26th (d) 6th, 13th, 20th, 27th

10. The day on 5th November should be same as the day on which of the following date in the same year?
(a) 5th October (b) 5th September
(c) 5th March (d) 5th December

11. At what time between 7 and 8 O'clock will the hands of a clock be opposite to each other?
(a) 7:05 (b) 7:05 2/11
(c) 7:05 3/11 (d) 7:05 5/11
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Analytical Reasoning
12. If 29th December, 2011 was Thursday, 26th September, 2013 will be...
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Thursday (d) Saturday

13. The year after 1990 having the same calendar as that of 1990 is...
(a) 1998 (b) 2001
(c) 2002 (d) 2003

14. If 6th April, 1998 was Monday, what was the day on 3rd November, 1987?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday
(c) Thursday (d) Saturday

15. What day was on 1st November, 1984?


(a) Thursday (b) Friday
(c) Saturday (d) Sunday

16. How many times will the clock buzz in a day if it buzzes 1 time at 1hrs, 2 times at 2hrs and so on?
(a) 78 (b) 150
(c) 200 (d) 300

17. Which of the following can be the last day of a century?


(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Saturdays (d) Thursday

18. Which of the following can be the first day of a century?


(a) Monday (b) Wednesday
(c) Friday (d) Sunday

19. Which of the following cannot be the first day of a century?


(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Thursday (d) Sunday

20. How many non-leap years are there from 1801 to 1900?
(a) 74 (b) 75
(c) 76 (d) 77

21. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year?
(a) 2014 (b) 2016
(c) 2018 (d) 2017

22. How many days are there in y weeks y days?


(a) 17y^2 (b) 8y
(c) 14y (d) 7

23. A clock is started at 12 noon. By 600 seconds past 5 p.m, the hour hand has turned through how many degrees?
(a) 145° (b) 150°
(c) 155° (d) 160°
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/ Analytical Reasoning

Answer-Key & Explanation

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(i) 10°
(ii) 67 ⁄ A C B C C B C D C
(iii)180°
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D C C A A D A B A C
21 22 23
C B C

20. Answer: C
Explanation: 100 years consists 24 leap years and 76 non-leap years.
(100th year is not a leap year if it cannot be divided with 400)

21. Answer: C
Explanation: Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd day.
Year: 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017
Odd day: 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1
Sum = 14 odd days 0 odd days.
Calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the year 2007.

22. Answer: B
Explanation: y weeks y days = (7y + y) days = 8y days

23. Answer: C
Explanation: The total angle traced by the hour hand is the angle traced in 5 hours and 10 minutes.
We know that the angle traced by the hour hand in one hour is 30° and in one minute is 1/2º.
Therefore, (30° × 5) + (10 ×1/2°) = 155° is the angle traced by the hour hand.
Legal Reasoning

Passage: The chairman of Indian Overseas Congress in a recent interview, came out in favour of an inheritance
tax in India. “…In America, there is an inheritance tax. If one has $100 million worth of wealth and when he dies
he can only transfer probably 45 per cent to his children, 55 per cent is grabbed by the government. That’s an
interesting law. It says you in your generation, made wealth and you are leaving now, you must leave your
wealth for the public, not all of it, half of it, which to me sounds fair. In India, you don’t have that. If somebody is
worth 10 billion and he dies, his children get 10 billion and the public gets nothing… So, these are the kind of
issues people will have to debate and discuss,” Pitroda said. His remarks came in the backdrop of Congress
leader Rahul Gandhi vowing to ‘redistribute’ wealth. According to Investopedia, Inheritance tax is a duty levied
on the assets of a person who has passed away. Based on the value of the assets of the deceased, it is paid by the
beneficiary. Whether and how much the beneficiary pays depend on his or her relationship with the deceased.
India has no inheritance tax. The levy was abolished by the Rajiv Gandhi government in 1985. The Income Tax
Act of 1961 now designates movable and immovable assets received as inheritance or through a will out of the
purview of gifts. People in India only have to pay taxes while selling inherited property or assets. Here, the long
or short-term capital gain is determined by the time for which they hold the asset. If it’s longer than 24 months,
then the citizen has to pay long-term capital gain. While the US has no federal inheritance tax, however, half a
dozen states have such a law on their books. According to USA Today, inheritance tax rates depend on the state
where the heirs live. The rate of tax can be as little as under 1 percent and as much as 20 percent. This is usually
applicable to a certain amount higher than an exempted limit. In general, the closer your familial link to the
person that passed away, the less you are likely to pay. The United Kingdom has an inheritance tax of 40 per
cent. Beneficiaries in the UK do not usually pay tax on assets they inherit. Instead, that is left to the estate of the
deceased. The inheritance tax is also applicable only to part of the assets above a set threshold – £325,000
(Rs.3.36 crore). There is no inheritance tax if the value of the assets passed down is under that limit. There is
also no tax if you leave everything over that threshold to Spouse, Civil partner, Charity, or Community amateur
sports club.
Those leaving their homes to their children or grandchildren can increase their threshold to £500,000 (Rs.5.17
crore). Even better, for those married or in a civil partnership whose estate is valued under the threshold, their
partners can add your unused threshold after you pass to their own limit. Those that receive gifts might have to
pay inheritance tax if the person hands out over £325,000 (Rs.3.36 crore) and passes away in seven years.
Source-[Link]
[Link]

1. Based on your understanding of the passage, identify which of the following options can be correctly
inferred:
(a) An Indian citizen can sell an inherited property on subsidized rates after a certain amount of time has
passed.
(b) When a person transfers all his assets through a will to another person upon his death, the concerned
assets are considered as gifts for the purpose of Income Tax.
(c) The tax levied on a person while selling an inherited property can vary based on the time period for
which the person is holding that property.
(d) None of the above options can be correctly inferred.
2. Josh was an American citizen, who recently died. He was a wealthy businessman with 3 children and
owned a significant amount of property. Two of his children died in his lifetime, so he had only one
daughter left. His daughter used to reside in State X for the last ten years while Josh was residing in State
Y before his death for the last 15 years. State X imposed an inheritance tax of 15% while State Y imposed
an inheritance tax of 10% on the inherited property. Josh’s daughter agreed to pay the inheritance tax as
per the tax rate of state Y. Is this correct?
(a) No, this is not correct because the tax rate is determined by the residential state of the heir.
(b) Yes, this is correct because the tax rate is determined by the residential state of the deceased.
(c) No, this is not correct because the inheritance tax cannot be less than 50% of the inherited property.
(d) Yes, this is correct because it is the duty of a citizen to pay the taxes to the government.

3. Jasika is a 23-year-old Indian woman. She was the sole daughter of a wealthy father, who was an
American citizen but used to reside in India after Jasika’s birth. Her father had a business of purchasing
and selling second-hand cars. 4 months ago, he suddenly died of a heart attack. He was a widower and had
no immediate family except Jasika. Therefore, all the property that he held in India went to Jasika. Now,
Jasika wanted to sell half of the entire inherited property in order to fund her higher education. Keeping
these facts in mind, identify the correct option:
(a) Jasika has to pay the inheritance tax at the rate determined by the origin state of her father, as he was
an American citizen.
(b) Jasika does not have to pay any inheritance tax, but she has to pay taxes if she wants to sell the
property.
(c) Jasika need not pay any inheritance tax even if she sells the whole inherited property because
inheritance tax has no validation in India.
(d) Jasika has to pay inheritance tax at the rate of 55% as per the laws of the USA.

4. Harry was a 40-year-old citizen of the United Kingdom. Recently, he died due to his chronic illness. He
owned a significant amount of property in the country before his death, approximately worth 320,000
pounds. To pass on this property, he made a will before his death. Since he was unmarried and had no
immediate family or children, he transferred half of his property to a close friend, Lily, and the other half
to charity. Which of the following options would stand corrected in lieu of the given facts?
(a) The inheritance tax would only apply to half of the property that was transferred to Lily.
(b) The inheritance tax would apply at the rate of 40%, which will be paid from the estate of Harry only.
(c) The inheritance tax would apply at the rate determined by the government of the country and will be
paid by Lily.
(d) The inheritance tax would not apply at all in this case.

5. Gurjeet, a 55-year-old Indian man owned a building in New Delhi, India. Upon his death in 2019, he left
the building in the name of his stepbrother Manjeet. At that time, the building was valued at Rs. 1.05
crore. In 2022, significant development took place in the area, raising the valuation of the building to Rs.
1.6 crore. Manjeet had no intention of selling the building for the foreseeable future, but he was served a
notice by the government, being asked to pay the long-term capital gain taxes due to an increase in the
valuation of the building. Decide:
(a) He is liable to pay the taxes since the building was an inherited property.
(b) He is not liable to pay any taxes until and unless he sells the property.
(c) He is liable to pay the taxes and he is earning long-term capital gains and has crossed the time frame
of 24 months.
(d) He is not liable to pay the taxes since the building was not owned by him.
1. Answer: C
Explanation: Option C is the correct answer because people in India have to pay taxes while selling an
inherited property. This tax is varied on the basis of short-term or long-term capital gains, which are
further determined by the time the person holds the asset, thus the tax can vary. Option A is incorrect
because an Indian has to pay taxes while selling the inherited property, they cannot sell the inherited
property at subsidized rates generally. Option B is incorrect because the Income Tax Act of 1961 excludes
the inherited property or property acquired through will from the purview of gifts.

2. Answer: C
Explanation: Option C is the correct answer because people in India have to pay taxes while selling an
inherited property. This tax is varied on the basis of short-term or long-term capital gains, which are
further determined by the time the person holds the asset, thus the tax can vary. Option A is incorrect
because an Indian has to pay taxes while selling the inherited property, they cannot sell the inherited
property at subsidized rates generally. Option B is incorrect because the Income Tax Act of 1961 excludes
the inherited property or property acquired through will from the purview of gifts.

3. Answer: B
Explanation: Indian laws do not have any provision for payment of inheritance taxes levied on the
inherited property, but the beneficiary has to pay the tax to the government if he wants to sell the
inherited property. According to this, if Jasika wants to sell the inherited property, she has to pay the
taxable amount to the Indian government. Hence, option B is correct. Option A is incorrect because it is
irrelevant that her father was an American citizen, since the property was held by him in India and Jasika
resided in India as well, inheritance tax will not apply. Option C is incorrect because the tax needs to be
paid upon selling the inherited property. Option D is incorrect because firstly, the inheritance tax will not
apply as explained above and the USA has no fixed limit on the inheritance tax rate.

4. Answer: D
Explanation: The inheritance tax is also applicable only to part of the assets above a set threshold –
£325,000 (Rs.3.36 crore). There is no inheritance tax if the value of the assets passed down is under that
limit. In this case, the inheritance tax would not apply because of the simple reason that the value of
assets did not cross the threshold limit. Thus, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the
inheritance tax will not apply to even half of the property. Options B and C are incorrect because since the
tax would not apply, it does not raise the question as to who will pay the tax amount.

5. Answer: B
Explanation: Indian laws do not levy inheritance taxes but people in India only have to pay taxes while
selling inherited property or assets. Therefore, Manjeet does not have to pay the inheritance taxes until
and unless he desires to sell the property, in which case, he would have to pay the taxes on long-term
capital gains. Hence, option B is correct. Option A is incorrect because the tax is not levied on inherited
property unless it is sold. Option C is incorrect because again, he is not selling the property, so it would
not apply. Option D is incorrect in itself because the building was owned by him after Gurjeet’s death.
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/English

English

English Extra Class - 1

Passage: Few parts of the world escaped Western expansion in the Age of Imperialism, but the most dramatic
intrusion took place in Black Africa, south of the Sahara, and the full weight of European colonialism was felt
there. In the last two decades of the 19th century the European powers transformed the map of Africa.
Flaunting their superior technology and their military power, they staked claims to whatever territories struck
their fancy, sometimes in collaboration with their fellow Europeans, sometimes In opposition to them.
Although there had been a few well organised kingdoms in Africa - among them Ghana and Mali, which had
flourishing cultures in the period known to the West as the Middle Ages-these had disappeared under the
impact of internecine warfare and Arab conquests from the north. The inner continent was uncharted, dark and
mysterious, and until the last three decades of the 19th century few white men ventured into its vast stretches.
But in time explorers, scientists and colourful adventurers flocked from the West to find out what mysteries lay
beyond the coasts.

1. During the Age of Imperialism the European powers concentrated their colonisation
(a) exclusively in Africa. (b) mainly in Africa.
(c) to a few areas in Africa. (d) in areas other than Africa.

2. Colonialism was possible for the European. powers because of their


(a) collaboration with other major powers. (b) ability to manipulate the African tribal rulers.
(c) superior technology and military power. (d) ability to identify what struck their fancy.

3. Despite flourishing cultures in some African kingdoms during the Middle Ages, their position had
weakened by the middle of the 19th century as a result of
(a) their internal conflicts and Arab conquests.
(b) superior administrative organisation which the colonisers had.
(c) European aggression.
(d) the vastness of the inner continent.

4. What attracted Europeans to Africa during the last three decades of the 19th century was
(a) motives of greed and acquisition. (b) a thirst for power and glory.
(c) motives of altruism and social concern. (d) a spirit of adventure and curiosity.

5. The inner part of Africa, south of Sahara, was called 'dark' because
(a) there was little sunshine there.
(b) not much was known about it.
(c) it was inhabited by dark complexioned tribes.
(d) it was full of mysterious creatures of dark colour.
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/English
Passage: If you are caught in an open field, and see the flash of lightning and hear the sound of thunder at
practically the same instant, take precautions immediately. Throw away any metallic object you may have. Lie
flat on the ground. Do not try to run for shelter until the electrical disturbances have subsided entirely.
Remember that poor shelter is worse than none. The big tree standing alone will keep the rain off you, but may
draw lightning towards it. If a thunder storm begins when you are swimming or out in a boat, head for the
shore at once. There is an old fable that lightning never strikes open water. Many bathers who relied on that
belief have lost their lives. Mostly those struck by lightning are likely to be farmers, holiday makers, fishermen
or golfers.

6. If sitting in an open field one hears the sound of thunder and sees the flash of lightning at the same
instant, one should immediately
(a) run for shelter. (b) grasp a metallic object.
(c) jump into water. (d) lie flat on the ground.

7. If authunderstorm begins when one is out in a boat, one should


(a) row fast. (b) leave the boat.
(c) reach the shore. (d) remain where one is.

8. What the old fable says about lightning is


(a) wrong. (b) right.
(c) heresy. (d) unscientific.

9. Persons most likely to be struck by lightning are those who


(a) go swimming. (b) walk in the streets.
(c) work indoors. (d) spend their time outdoors.

10. If there is a flash of lightning in the sky, a tree provides


(a) a poor shelter. (b) an adequate shelter.
(c) no shelter at all. (d) a dangerous shelter.
Law Prep Tutorial/Class Sheet/CLAT 2026/English
Directions: Given below are some words. Each word is followed by four options. Choose the word which is similar
in meaning to the word given in capitals.

1. SALVER
(a) tray (b) ointment
(c) salute (d) rescuer

2. SIROCCO
(a) hot wind (b) contagious disease
(c) leather binding (d) style of painting

3. TERMAGANT
(a) fishy (b) shrewish
(c) unreliable (d) desperate

4. MANDRILL
(a) baboon (b) musical instrument
(c) tropical fruit (d) narcotic herb

5. JOCUND
(a) cheerful (b) heavenly
(c) rotund (d) moribund

6. LICENTIOUS
(a) dramatic (b) sanctioned
(c) wanton (d) self-defeating

7. DECIDUOS
(a) downcast (b) non evergreen
(c) credulous (d) trifling

8. OPULENT
(a) penury (b) wealthy
(c) verity (d) witty

9. TIRO
(a) amateur (b) alumni
(c) novice (d) slob

10. PERFIDY
(a) treachery (b) benign
(c) gullible (d) trite

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