01-03-2025

4015CMD303016240021 MD

PHYSICS

1) A vernier calliper has 10 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 9 division on the main
scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The value of one small division on main scale is :

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

2) A particle of mass m moves in xy plane with a constant velocity v along the straight line AB. If the
angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is at A and LB when it is at B

then :

(1) LA < LB
(2) LA = LB
(3) LA > LB
(4) None of these

3) A point traversed half a circle of radius r during a time interval t0, then its mean speed and
magnitude of mean velocity after half revolution will be, respectively :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of length L about an axis passing through its centre of
mass and perpendicular to its length is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) In a string transverse wave speed is 100 m/s, frequency is 500 Hz and amplitude is 2 × 10–2 m. Its
wave equation is :-

Y = 2 × 10–2 sin
(1)

(2) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (1000πt – 10πx)

(3) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (500πt – πx)
(4) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (200πt – 10πx)

6) If 60% of a solid is inside the liquid while floating, then density of solid will be (given that density
of liquid is 3 × 103 kg/m3) :-

(1) 1.8 × 103 kg/m3

(2) 2.4 × 103 kg/m3
(3) 0.5 kg/m3
(4) 1.2 × 103 kg/m3

7) Internal energy of an ideal gas depends upon:-

(1) Temperature only

(2) volume only
(3) Both volume and temperature
(4) Neither volume nor temperature

8)

The range of a projectile when fired at 75° to the horizontal is 1 km. What will be its range when
fired at 45° with the same speed ?

(1) 0.5 km
(2) 1.0 km
(3) 1.5 km
(4) 2.0 km

9) On which of the following scales of temperature, the temperature is never negative ?

(1) Celsius
(2) Fahrenheit
(3) Reaumur
(4) Kelvin
10) In stationary waves, antinodes are the points where there is :-

(1) minimum displacement and minimum pressure change

(2) minimum displacement and maximum pressure change
(3) maximum displacement and maximum pressure change
(4) maximum displacement and minimum pressure change

11) The work done in increasing the size of a soap film from 10 cm × 6 cm to 10 cm × 11 cm is 3 ×
10–4 joule. The surface tension of the film is:-

(1) 1.5 × 10–2 N/m

(2) 3.0 × 10–2 N/m
(3) 6.0 × 10–2 N/m
(4) 11.0 × 10–2 N/m

12) The displacement-time graph of a particle moving on the x-axis is given below, then :-

(1) The particle is continously going in +x-direction

(2) The particle is at rest
(3) The velocity increases up to a time 't0' and then becomes constant
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time 't0' and then stops.

13) Consider an elevator moving vertically up with an acceleration a. The force exerted by a
passenger of mass m on the floor of the elevator is :-

(1) ma
(2) mg
(3) (mg – ma)
(4) (mg + ma)

14) For a body executing SHM-

(a) Potential is always equal to its kinetic energy
(b) Average potential and kinetic energy over any given time interval are always equal
(c) Average kinetic energy in one time period is equal to average potential enrgy in one time period
(d) Sum of the kinetic energy and potential energy at any point of time is constant
Choose the most appropriate option from the options given below-

(1) b and c
(2) c and d
(3) a and b
(4) Only b
15) 1 g of a steam at 100°C melts how much ice at 0°C ? (Latent heat of ice = 80 cal/gm and latent
heat of steam = 540 cal/gm) :-

(1) 1 gm
(2) 2 gm
(3) 4 gm
(4) 8 gm

16) A dynamometer D, is connected with two bodies of mass M = 6 kg and m = 4kg. If two forces F
= 20 N & F = 10N are applied on masses according to figure then reading of the dynamometer will

be

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 14 N

17) A child is standing with folded hands at the center of a platform rotating about its central axis.
The kinetic energy of the system is K. The child now stretches his arm so that moment of inertia of
the system doubles. The kinetic energy of the system now is :-

(1) 2K

(2)

(3)

(4) 4K

18) The figure shows four paths for a kicked football. Ignoring the effects of air on the flight, rank
the paths according to the initial horizontal velocity component, highest first :-

(1) 1,2,3,4
(2) 2,3,4,1
(3) 3,4,1,2
(4) 4,3,2,1

19) A metal block has weight in air 10 N and in water 8N. Find density of metal :

(1) 4 gm/cc
(2) 5 gm/cc
(3) 6 gm/cc
(4) 8 gm/cc

20) For the system shown in figure both the block A and B are moving together. If coefficient of
friction between both the blocks is µ, the work done by friction on block B is :-

(1) Zero
(2) Negative
(3) Positive
(4) None of these

21) The diagram below shows the propagation of a wave. Which points are in phase ?

(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) B, D
(4) E, B

22) Two identical rods each of mass M and length L are kept according to figure. Find the moment of
inertia of rods about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to the plane of rods :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
23) A wheel of radius 20 cm has forces applied to it as shown in the figure. The net torque produced
by the forces 4 N at A, 8 N at B, 6 N at C and 9 N at D at angles indicated is :-

(1) 5.4 N-m (anticlockwise)

(2) 1.8 N-m (clockwise)
(3) 2.0 N-m (clockwise)
(4) 5.4 N-m (clockwise)

24) A particle executes SHM on a straight line path. The amplitude of oscillation is 2 cm. When the
displacement of the particle from the mean position is 1 cm, the numerical value of magnitude of
acceleration is equal to the numerical value of magnitude of velocity. The frequency of SHM (in
second–1) is:

(1) 2π

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)

The value of (sin 180° + cos 90°)2 is :-

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

26) Write down the number of significant figure in 0.04320 N/m2.

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4
27) An experiment measure quantities a, b, c and P is calculated from P = . If percentage error
in a, b, c are 1%, 3%, 2% respectively, the maximum percentage error in P will be :-

(1) 8%
(2) 11%
(3) 6%
(4) 13%

28) A ball of mass 500 gm, initially at rest is acted upon by an impulsive force as shown

maximum velocity gained by the ball is equal to -

(1) 200 m/sec

(2) 400 m/sec
(3) 600 m/sec
(4) 100 m/sec

29) Work done in moving a body up an inclined rough plane which has coefficient of friction μ and
length s will be :-

(1) mg (sin θ – μcosθ)s

(2) mg (μsinθ + cosθ)s
(3) mg (μsin θ – cosθ)s
(4) mg (sin θ + μcosθ)s

30) The volume of a block of a metal changes by 0.12% when it is heated through 20°C. The
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is :-

(1) 2.0 × 10–5 °C–1

(2) 6.0 × 10–5 °C–1
(3) 4.0 × 10–5 °C–1
(4) 8.0 × 10–5 °C–1

31) If the displacement of a particle varies with time as :

(1) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t

(2) velocity of particle varies linearly with t
(3) velocity of particle is proportional to
(4) initial velocity of the particle is zero

32) Which of the following is true for elastic potential energy density :-
(1)
Energy density = × strain × stress
(2) Energy density = (strain)2 × volume
(3) Energy density = (strain) × volume
(4) Energy density = (strain) × stress

33) Mechanical wave (sound wave) in a gas is :-

(1) Transverse
(2) Longitudinal
(3) Neither transverse nor longitudinal
(4) Either transverse or longitudinal

34) A particle of mass m oscillates with simple harmonic motion between points X1 and X2 , the
equilibrium position being O. Its potential energy will be as shown in the following graphs :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35)

The force F acting on a particle moving in a straight line as shown in figure. What is the work done
by the force on the particle in the 1 m of the displacement ?

(1) 5 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 15 J
(4) 2.5 J
36) The dimensions of physical quantity X in the equation Force =

(1) M1L4T–2
(2) M2L–2T–1
(3) M2L–2T–2
(4) M1L–2T–1

37) What is moment of inertia in terms of angular momentum (L) and kinetic energy (K) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The area of cross-section of a wire of length 1.1 meter is 1mm2. It is loaded with 1kg. If young's
modulus of copper is 1.1 × 1011 Nm2, then the increase in length will be (If g = 10m/s2) :-

(1) 0.01 mm
(2) 0.075 mm
(3) 0.1 mm
(4) 0.15 mm

39) The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is nine times that of steel. In the composite
cylindrical bar shown in figure, what will be the temperature at the junction of copper and steel ?

(1) 75°C
(2) 67°C
(3) 33°C
(4) 25°C

40) A body of mass m is projected with speed u at an angle θ from the ground. If horizontal range of
the body is R, then work done by force of gravity on the body for its complete motion is :-

(1) mg R
(2) –mg R
(3) zero

(4)
mu2 sin2θ
41) The ratio of a1 and a2 is :

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 3

42)

Trajectory of a particle is given by equation y = 12x – 4x2. It's horizontal range will be :
All calculations are in SI units.

(1) 4m
(2) 3m
(3) 12m
(4) 2m

43) Work done by the frictional force is

(1) Negative
(2) Positive
(3) Zero
(4) All of the above

44) A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5m/s. In 10 seconds, the velocity changes
to 5m/s northwards. The average acceleration in this time is :-

(1)
m/s2 towards north-east

(2)
m/s2 towards north
(3) zero

(4)
m/s2 towards north-west

45) A girl is swinging in a swing in a sitting position. If she stands and swings, how will the period be
affected ?
(1) The period will not change
(2) The period will not be longer
(3) The period will now be shorter
(4) The period will first increase and then decrease

CHEMISTRY

1) What is the general formula of homologous series alkene ?

(1) CnH2n+2
(2) CnH2n
(3) CnH2n–2
(4) CnH3n+1

2) Which of the following is most stable anion ?

–
(1) CH3
–
(2) NH2
(3) OH–
(4) Cl–

3) Which of the following compound is most acidic ?

(1) CH3 – CH3

(2) CH2 = CH2
(3)
(4) All have same acidic nature

4) Which of the following set have only aromatic compounds ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) In which of the following which is having highest heat of Hydrogenation :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) In which of following lone pair of electron is not delocalised :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Tautomerism is exhibited by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
8) Correct order of acidic strength is :-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) II > IV > III > I

9) Correct IUPAC name of the given compound is:-

(1) 5-formyl-2-hydroxy cyclo hexane carboxylic acid

(2) 3-carboxy-4-hydroxy cyclo hexane carbaldehyde
(3) 3-formyl-6-hydroxy cyclo hexane carboxylic acid
(4) 2-carboxy-4-formyl cyclo hexane-1-ol

10) Total number of structural isomers possible for hydrocarbon C4H8:-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

11) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1)
Positional Isomer
(2) CH3–O–CH2–CH3 & CH3–CH2–O–CH3 Metamer
(3) CH3–NO2 & CH3–O–N=O Functional Isomer

(4)
& Metamer

12) Which of the following has least mass.

(1) 2 gram atoms of Nitrogen (AM of N = 14)

(2) 3 × 1023 atoms of C (AM of C = 12)
(3) 1 mol of S (AM of S = 32)
(4) 7 g of Ag (AM of Ag = 108)
13) How many moles of NH3 will remain after removing 6.02×1023 molecules of NH3 from 34 g NH3 ?

(1) 1 mol
(2) 0.1 mol
(3) 0.2 mol
(4) 0.5 mol

14) The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule are violated :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16)

Calculate the ratio of energies of He+ for Ist and IInd excited state.

(1) 4 : 9
(2) 9 : 4
(3) 4 : 5
(4) 5 : 4

17) Consider the following statements :

(i) First Ionisation energy of 'N' atom is more than first Ionisation energy of 'O' atom.
(ii) Electron affinity of 'O' is less than electron affinity of 'S' atom.
(iii) Electronegativity of Cl is less than F.
The above statement (i), (ii),(iii) respectively are

(1) T.F.F.
(2) T.T.F.
(3) T.T.T.
(4) F.T.F.

18) Which of the following order is incorrect :

(1) HF < HCl < HBr < HI - Acidic strength

(2) H2O > H2S > H2Se - pKa
(3) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ - Ionic radius
(4) H < P < O < N < F → Electronegativity

19)

Column-II
Column-I
(Outer electronic
(Type of elements)
configuration)

Inert gas
(A) (P) ns1–2 np0–5
elements

Representative
(B) (Q) 1s2 and ns2np6
elements

Transition
(C) (R) (n–2)f1–14(n–1)d0–1ns2
elements

Inner transition
(D) (S) (n–1)d1–10ns1–2
elements
Correct match is :-
(1) (A) → (P); (B) → (Q); (C) → (R); (D) → (S)
(2) (A) → (Q); (B) → (P); (C) → (R); (D) → (S)
(3) (A) → (Q); (B) → (P); (C) → (S); (D) → (R)
(4) (A) → (Q); (B) → (S); (C) → (P); (D) → (R)

20) Correct order of strength of overlapping is :-

(1) 1s–1s < 2s–2s < 2p–2p

(2) 2p–2p(axial) < 2p–2p(colateral)
(3) 1s–1s > 2p–2p(axial) > 2s–2p > 2s–2s
(4) 1s–1s > 2s–2p > 2p–2p (axial)

21) Which of the following exhibits the diamagnetic behaviour :-

(1) O2
–2
(2) O2
(3) NO
(4) B2

22) Which of the following is trigonal planar in shape ?

(1) CO2
(2) CH4
(3) BF3
(4) PCl3

23) Which of the following ionic compounds have maximum covalent character ?
(1) LiF
(2) LiCl
(3) LiBr
(4) LiI

24) In which reaction, hybridisation of underlined atom does not change ?

– –
(1) BF3 + F → BF4
+ +
(2) NH3 + H → NH4
(3) BF3 + NH3 → BF3 ← NH3
– –2
(4) SiF4 + 2F → SiF6

25)

Which of the following contain all three types of Bond i.e. Ionic Bond, covalent Bond & Co–ordinate
Bond ?

(1) KNO3
(2) NH4NO3
(3) NH4Cl
(4) All

26) Correct match list :-

List I List II
Compound Structure

(A) ClF3 (P) T shape

(B) PCl5 (Q) Tetrahedral

(C) IF5 (R) Trigonal Bipyramidal

(D) CCl4 (S) Square Pyramidal

(E) XeF4 (T) Bent T-shaped

(1) A-T, B-S, C-R, D-Q, E-P
(2) A-T, B-R, C-S, D-Q, E-P
(3) A-T, B-R, C-S, D-P, E-Q
(4) A-S, B-R, C-T, D-Q, E-P

27) Correct order of dipole moment :

(1) BF3 < CO2 < CS2

(2) BCl3 < BF3
(3) BF3 < NF3 < NH3
(4) BF3 < NH3 < NF3
28) Which of the following will show H-bonding ?

(1) PH3
(2) CH4
(3) H2O
(4) BeH2

29) Which of the following is most stable cation ?

+
(1) CH3

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Which of the following is showing –I effect ?

(1) —CH3
(2)

(3)

(4) —NO2

31) Work done during isothermal expansion of 1 mole of an ideal gas from 1 L to 10 L at 300 K is :
(Gas constant = 2 cal K–1 mol–1)

(1) –938.8 cal

(2) –1138.8 cal
(3) –1381.8 cal
(4) –1581.8 cal

32) For the reaction A(g) + B(g) → 3C(g); ΔH = –30 kJ which is correct :-

(1) Reaction is spontaneous at high temperature

(2) Reaction is spontaneous at lower temperature
(3) Reaction is spontaneous at any temperature
(4) Reaction is nonspontaneous at any temperature

33) Which of the following is an extensive property:-

(1) Molar entropy

(2) Density
(3) Boiling point
(4) Volume

34) Calculate the work done during the process given by the following graph :

(1) 5 atm-L
(2) 10 atm-L
(3) 100 atm-L
(4) 0

35) The equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) shifts forward if :-

(1) A catalyst is used.

(2) An adsorbent is used to remove SO3 as soon as it is formed.
(3) Some amounts of SO2 is removed.
(4) Some amount of O2 is removed

36) The equilibrium constant for the reaction

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) at temperature (T) is
4 × 10–4. The value of KC for the reaction

at the same temperature is :-

(1) 4 × 10–4
(2) 50
(3) 2.5 × 102
(4) 0.02

37) For the reaction,CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 2H2O(ℓ), ΔH = –170.8 kJ mol–1

Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right
(2) The reaction is exothermic
(3) At equilibrium the concentrations of CO2(g) and H2O(ℓ) are unequal
The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by Kp =
(4)
38) The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 1.0 × 10–5 M at 298 K. The value of it's solubility product (Ksp)
will be [molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1] :

(1) 10–14
(2) 10–12
(3) 10–10
(4) 10–6

39) Assertion : When small amount of strong acid or strong base is added to pure water, it's pH
undergoes a change.
Reason : Addition of an acid or base increases the degree of ionisation of water.

Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

40) The conjugate acid of is :

(1) NH3
(2)
(3) NH2OH
(4) N2H4

41) The correct relation between hydrolysis constant (Kh) and degree of hydrolysis (h) for the
following equilibrium is (given Ka is dissociation constant of HA):

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Which of the following pair are homologoues ?

(1) H3C–CH2–CH2–NH2 and H3C–NH–CH2–CH3

(2) H3C–OH and H3C–SH

(3)
and
(4) H3C–CH2–CH2–OH and H3C–O–CH2–CH2CH3

43) Given that standard enthalpy of formation of CH4, C2H4 and C3H8 are –17.9, 12.5, –24.8 kCal/mol.
The ΔH for CH4 + C2H4 → C3H8 is :

(1) – 55.2 kCal

(2) – 30.2 kCal
(3) 55.2 kCal
(4) – 19.4 kCal

44) A compound contains atoms A, B and C the oxidation number of A is +2, of B is +5 and of C is
–2, The possible formula of the compound is :

(1) ABC2
(2) B2(AC3)2
(3) A3(BC4)2
(4) A3(B4C)2

45) Which of the following is correct reaction for preparation of alkane ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All are correct

BIOLOGY

1) Placentation found in Mustard is–

(1) Axile
(2) Basal
(3) Parietal
(4) Free central

2) What is asked in the given below diagram?

(1) Aleurone layer
(2) Embryo
(3) Placenta
(4) Coleoptile

3) Which of the following is not a part of stele?

(1) Pericyle
(2) Endodermis
(3) Vascular bundles
(4) Pith

4) Casparian strips of the endodermis of root is made up of–

(1) Cutin
(2) Pectin
(3) Suberin
(4) Hemicellulose

5) Which of the following flowers possess half inferior ovary?

(1) Peach
(2) Plum
(3) Rose
(4) All of these

6) Choose the correct sequence (from base to apex) of the following zones–
A – zone of cell elongation,
B – zone of maturation and
C – zone of meristemetic cells

(1) B-A-C
(2) C-A-B
(3) C-B-A
(4) A-B-C

7) Zygomozphic flowers are found in–

(1) Malvaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Solonaceae
8) Which of the following portion of given fruit is edible?

(1) Endocarp
(2) Mesocarp
(3) Endosperm
(4) Epicarp

9) G(2) represents–

(1) Bicarpellary, Apocarpous, Superior

(2) Bicarpellary, Apocarpous, Inferior
(3) Bicarpellary, Syncarpous, Superior
(4) Bicarpellary, Syncarpous, Inferior

10) Identify and select correct option–

(1) (A)=Silk cotton, (B)=Calotropis, (C)=Opuntia

(2) (A)=Cassia, (B)=Nerium, (C)=Citrus
(3) (A)=Silk cotton, (B)=Sunflower, (C)=Euphorbia
(4) (A)=Silk cotton, (B)=Alstonia, (C)=Cactus

11) Spraying sugarcane with gibberellins increases the yield by as much as 20 tonnes per acre. GA
performs it :-

(1) By improving the quality of fruit

(2) By making plants with rosette habit
(3) By internodal elongation
(4) By delaying senescence

12) Represented below is the type of a growth in plants. Which one of the following options is
correct for this type of growth ?

(1) This type of growth shows the sigmoid growth curve

(2) This type of growth occurs only during the formation of embryo in plants
(3) Example of this type of growth is root elongation at a constant rate
(4) This type of growth shows linear growth curve with lag phase, log phase and stationary phase

13) In the following diagram A, B and C labels are.

(1) A-F0, B-F1, C-ATP

(2) A-F1, B-F0, C-ADP + Pi
(3) A-F0, B-F1, C-ADP
+
(4) A-F0, B-F1, C-NADP

14) Only the green parts of the plants could release oxygen in the presence of light was shown by :-

(1) Joseph Priestley

(2) Julius von Sach
(3) Jan Ingenhousz
(4) Cornelius van Niel
15) Total yield in one Kerb cycle:

(1) 3 FADH2, 2 NADH2, 1 ATP

(2) 2 FADH2, 2 NADH2, 2 ATP
(3) 2 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 2 ATP
(4) 3 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP

16) Which one (s) is/are redifferentiated cell(s)?

(1) Cork
(2) Secondary cortex
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Primary xylem

17) The given figures shows the growth of two leaves in a given time. If, AGR = absolute growth and
RGR = relative growth rate, then select the correct option :-

RGR
AGR for leaf RGR for leaf AGR for leaf
for leaf
A A B
B

(1) 5 5% 5 5%

(2) 10 10% 55 10%

(3) 5 100 % 5 10 %

(4) 5 100 % 5 100 %

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Environmental heterophylly is observed in :-

(1) Cotton
(2) Buttercup (Ranunculus)
(3) Coriander
(4) Larkspur

19) Match the following respiratory substrate with their RQ.

(A) Tripalmitin (i) Zero
(B) Glucose (ii) 4
(C) Oxalic acid (iii) 1
(D) Succulent plant (iv) 0.7

(1) A(i), B(iii), C(ii), D(ii)

(2) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)
(3) A(iv), B(iii), C(i), D(ii)
(4) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)

20) High light intensity dependent release of CO2 in photosynthetic organs is related to :-

(1) RuBP + CO2 2XPGA

(2) RuBP + O2 Phosphoglycolate + PGA
(3) RuBP + O2 Phosphoglycolate + PGA
(4) RuBP + CO2 2XPGA

21) Which of the following step during glycolysis is associated with utilization of ATP ?

(1) Glucose → Glucose-6-Phosphate

(2) Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate
(3) PEP → Pyruvic acid
(4) Both (1) and (2)

22) Vexillary aestivation is the characteristic feature of family–

(1) Fabaceae
(2) Asteraceae
(3) Brassicaceae
(4) Solanaceae

23) Given below floral diagram belongs to the family-

(1) Malvaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Liliaceae

24) Small living cell is–

(1) R.B.C.
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Eukaryotic cell
(4) Eubacteria

25) Which of the following cell does not contain a cell wall?

(1) Plant cell

(2) Eubacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Animal cell

26) Algal cell wall consists of–

(1) Mannans, galactans and lignins.

(2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(3) Hemicellulose, galactans and mannas
(4) Cellulose, pectins and hemicellulose

27) ............ first explained that cells divided and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells.

(1) Schleiden
(2) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Schwann
(4) Robert Brown

28) Root hairs are-

(1) Always multicellular

(2) Sometimes multicellular
(3) Always unicellular
(4) Both uni or multicellular

29) Cell wall is :-

(1) Non living and semipermeable

(2) Non-living and permeable
(3) Living and selectively permeable
(4) Living and impermeable
30) Which of the following is a single membrane bound structure ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Nucleus
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Lysosome

31) The plasma membrane is :-

(1) Semi permeable

(2) Selectively permeable
(3) Impermeable
(4) Permeable

32) “Omnis cellula-e cellula” explains that–

(1) All living organisms are composed of cells

(2) All living organisms are composed of products of cell
(3) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
(4) A cell is capable of independent existence

33) Mark the statements true (T) or false (F) with respect to the cell membrane :
(A) Cell membrane is composed of lipids that are arranged as monolayer
(B) Lipid component mainly consist of phosphoglycerides
(C) The membrane of erythrocyte has approximately 40% protein and 52% lipid
(D) Quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer

A B C D

(1) T T T F

(2) F T T T

(3) T F F T

(4) F T F T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Statement-1 : Eukaryotic cells have membrane bound cell organelles.

Statement-2 : Prokaryotic cells lack membrane bound organelles.
Option :

(1) Both statement (1) and (2) are correct

(2) Only statement (1) is correct and (2) is incorrect
(3) Only statement (2) is correct and (1) is incorrect
(4) Both statement (1) and (2) are incorrect

35) Majority of pteridophytes are homosporous, but some produce two kinds of spores, such as–

(1) Selaginella and Salvinia

(2) Lycopodium and Azolla
(3) Dryopteris and Pteris
(4) Lycopodium and Salvinia

36) Where does reduction division take place in the life cycle of Dryopteris ?

(1) Capsule
(2) Ovule
(3) Pollen sac
(4) Sporangium

37) Equisetum is a member of :-

(1) Psilopsida
(2) Lycopsida
(3) Sphenopsida
(4) Pteropsida

38) Mycorrhizae relation is seen in whose roots?

(1) Pinus
(2) Cycas
(3) Gingko
(4) Fern

39) The needle like leaves, reduced surface area, thick cuticle and sunken stomata are the
characteristic feature of the which group of plants

(1) Pteridphyte
(2) All Gymnosperm
(3) Gymnosperm (conifers)
(4) Angiosperm

40) Which of the followings are over 100 meters tall trees of Angiosperms ?

(1) Sequoia
(2) Wolfia
(3) Eucalyptus
(4) Lupin trees

41) Both ovary and fruit are present in :-

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Gymnosperm
(3) Angiosperm
(4) Bryophyta

42) Mad cow disease is caused by :-

(1) Viroid
(2) Prion
(3) Lichen
(4) Bacteriophage

43) Select the incorrect pair ?

(1) Cell wall Structural support

(2) Central vacuole Storage
(3) Amyloplast Starch storage
(4) Plasmodesmata Protection
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) In given figure A,B,C and D represent : -

A-Capsule, B-seta, C-Gametophyte,

(1)
D-Sporophyte
A-Capsule, B-Seta, C-Sporophyte,
(2)
D-Gametophyte
A-foot, B-Seta, C-Gametophyte,
(3)
D-Sporophyte
A-foot, B-Capsule, C-Gametophyte,
(4)
D-Sporophyte

45) In which of the following would you place the plants having vascular tissue, lacking seeds?

(1) Algae
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Gymnosperms

46)

Identify the fresh water bony fishes.

(1) Flying fish, Catla

(2) Magur, Sea horse
(3) Rohu, Clarias
(4) Saw fish, Labeo

47) "Brain coral" is :

(1) Meandrina
(2) Hydra
(3) Physalia
(4) Obelia

48) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option about them :-

(1) A-ii B-iv C-i D-iii

(2) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(3) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii
(4) A-ii B-iii C-ii D-i

49) In some animals, the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm, instead the mesoderm is present as
scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm. Such type of body cavity is represented
by which group of animals ?

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Coelenterata
(4) Hemichordata

50) Medusa body form of coelenterates is :-

(1) cylindrical and sessile form
(2) umbrella shaped and free swimming form
(3) cylindrical and free swimming form
(4) umbrella shaped and sessile form

51) How many in the given examples of animals are cnidarians :-

Paramecium, Obelia, Adamsia, Leucosolenia, Fasciola, Pennatula, Gorgonia, Ascaris, Ctenoplana,
Meandrina, Octopus, Aurelia.

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Four
(4) Seven

52) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Animal Common name Phylum

i Ancylostoma Hook worm Aschelminthes

ii Sepia Cuttle fish Mollusca

iii Chaetopleura Chiton Mollusca

iv Antedon Sea lily Echinodermata

(1) Only i
(2) Only ii
(3) i, ii, iii and iv
(4) i, ii and iii

53) Select the correct matching of animals, their symmetry, organisation and coelom type.

Animals Symmetry Germ layers Coelom type

(1) Ctenophores Radial Diploblastic Pseudocoelomates

(2) Echinoderms Asymmetrical Triploblastic Coelomates

(3) Platyhelminthes Bilateral Triploblastic Acoelomates

(4) Annelids Biradial Diploblastic Coelomates

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of tissue, select the correct option
regarding identification and location in body:-

(1) Dense irregular connective tissue : Tendon and ligaments

(2) Dense irregular connective tissue : In the skin
(3) Dense regular connective tissue : Ligaments and tendons
(4) Specilised connective tissue : Beneath the skin

55) Choose the incorrect statement regarding the exocrine gland and their secretion :-

(1) Digestive enzymes are secretion of these glands

(2) These glands secretes their secretion through ducts or tubes.
(3) Milk, Saliva and Oil are secreted by exocrine glands.
(4) These glands secrete their secretion directly into the fluid bathing the gland.

56) Select the correct statement for cell junctions:-

(1) Tight junction:- Stop the leaking across the tissue

(2) Adhering junction:- Perform cementing
(3) Gap junction:- Rapid transfer of ions, small molecules
(4) All of the above

57) Number of malpighian tubules present at junction of midgut and hindgut in cockroach is :-

(1) 50–60
(2) 80–90
(3) 100–150
(4) 200–250

58) In the mouth parts of a cockroach, the labium forms __(i)__ while ___(ii)__ acts as a tongue.

(1) (i) - upper lip ; (ii) - maxilla

(2) (i) - upper lip ; (ii) - hypopharynx
(3) (i) - lower lip ; (ii) - maxilla
(4) (i) - lower lip ; (ii) - hypopharynx

59) Which of the following structure is responsible for sexual dimorphism in male and female
cockroach ?

(1) Anal styles

(2) Head
(3) Anal cerci
(4) Wings

60) During hibernation gaseous exchange in frog takes place through :-

(1) Skin
(2) Lungs
(3) Nostril
(4) Buccal cavity

61) In frog Sinus venosus occurs on :-

(1) Dorsal side of heart

(2) Ventral side of heart
(3) Basal region of heart
(4) Apical end of heart

62) In the given structure R1, R2 and R3 are part of :-

(1) Nitrogen bases

(2) Fatty acids
(3) Nucleosides
(4) Lecithin

63) Least abundant component among the following in living organism is :-

(1) Lipid
(2) Ions
(3) Nucleic acids
(4) Protein

64) Find out the incorrect match :-

(1) Trypsin Enzyme

(2) Insulin Hormone
(3) GLUT-4 Sensory reception
(4) Antibody Fight infectious agent
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Which of the following factors can influence enzymatic activity ?

(1) Temperature
(2) pH
(3) Substrate concentration
(4) All of the above

66) Which of the following is tightly bound to apoenzyme?

(1) Coenzyme
(2) Prosthetic group
(3) Metal ion
(4) Holoenzyme

67) First heart sound is produced due to the closing of :

(1) Tricuspid valve

(2) Biscuspid valve
(3) Semilunar valve
(4) Both 1 and 2

68) How much amount of blood received by ventricles during artial systole ?

(1) 70%
(2) 30%
(3) 5%
(4) 100%

69) Which of the following combination is most likely to develop Rh incompatibility :-

(1) Rh+ mother Rh– foetus

(2) Rh– mother Rh– foetus
(3) Rh– mother Rh+ foetus
(4) Rh+ mother Rh+ foetus

70) What is total diastolic time of ventricle in cardiac cycle ?

(1) 0.3 second

(2) 0.4 second
(3) 0.5 second
(4) 0.1 second

71) Correct sequence of arrangement of types of WBC in decreasing order in terms of number per
mm3 of human blood :-

(1) Eosinophils > basophils > neutrophils

(2) Basophils > eosinophils > neutrophils
(3) Neutrophils > eosinophils > basophils
(4) Eosinophils > neutrophils > basophils

72) Person having 'B' blood group have antibody :-

(1) Anti A
(2) Anti B
(3) Both
(4) None

73) Match the columns and choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

Column-A Column-B
(i) Inspiratory reserve volume a. 1200 ml
(ii) Residual volume b. 1000 ml
(iii) Tidal volume c. 2500 ml
(iv) Expiratory reserve volume d. 500 ml

i ii iii iv

(1) c a d b

(2) c a b d

(3) c b a d

(4) c d a b
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) In the given table choose the correct value of partial pressure :-

Respiratory Deoxygenated Oxygenated Tissue

Alveoli
gas blood blood fluid
O2 104 b 95 d
CO2 a 45 c 45
Option:-
a b c d
(1) 40 40 40 40
(2) 45 45 95 45
(3) 45 40 45 95
(4) 40 95 40 45
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75)
What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the alveolar air compared to those in the atmospheric air ?

(1) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser

(2) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher
(3) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser
(4) pO2 higher, pCO2 higher

76) Reptiles, birds and insects excrete :-

(1) Urea
(2) Ammonia
(3) Uric acid
(4) TMAO

77) 'U' shaped structure which runs parallel to Henle's loop is ?

(1) Vasa recta

(2) PCT
(3) DCT
(4) Column of bertini

78) Glycosuria is the condition, where a man :-

(1) eats more sugar

(2) excretes sugar in urine
(3) Sugar is excreted in faeces
(4) has low sugar level in blood.

79) The afferent and efferent vessels are

(1) Arterial in nature

(2) Venous in nature
(3) One is arterial and the other is venous
(4) One is venous and the other is arterial

80) During muscle contraction, which band retains the length ?

(1) I–band
(2) A–band
(3) Actin–filament
(4) Myosin–filament

81) Skeletal muscles are :-

(1) striated, involuntary

(2) striated, voluntary
(3) unstriated, voluntary
(4) unstriated, involuntary

82) Pectoral girdle consists of two bones :-

(1) Scapula + Clavicle

(2) Clavicle + Manubrium
(3) Collar bone
(4) Sternum + Clavicle

83) Which one of the following types of neurons are most numerous in the body?

(1) Unipolar
(2) Multipolar
(3) Bipolar
(4) Pseudounipolar

84) Saltatory conduction occurs in :-

(1) Non-myelinated nerve fibers

(2) Myelinated nerve fibers
(3) Both of them
(4) None of them

85) Which of the following is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling ?

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Corpus callosum
(4) Thalamus

86) Reabsorption of Na+ is controlled by which of the following hormones ?

(1) Aldosterone
(2) Estrogen
(3) Glucocorticoids
(4) Testosterone

87) Find out the property that is not true for Hormones:-

(1) Non-nutrient chemicals

(2) Intra cellular messengers
(3) Primary messenger
(4) Produce in trace amounts

88) Hyposecretion of ADH causes :-

(1) Dehydration
(2) Polyuria
(3) Polydipsia
(4) All of the above

89) Statement-I : The maximum volume of air a person can breath in after a forced expiration is
called vital capacity.
Statement-II : The volume of air that will remain in the lungs after normal expiration is called
residual volume.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

90) Assertion : Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground substance.

Reason : Ground substance of bones is rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres which give bone its
strength.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 1 2 1 1 4 4 4 2 4 4 2 4 4 2 4 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 2 3 4 4 2 1 4 1 2 1 2 4 4 3 2 3 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 4 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 3 4 3 2 3 2 1 3 3 2 1 4 3 2 3 4 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 2 4 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 4 2 2 4 3 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 4 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 2 3 4 1 2 2 3 4 3 3 1 3 4 3 3 2 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 3 2 4 2 2 3 2 4 2 3 4 1 1 4 3 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 4 2 3 3 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 4 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 2 3 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 1 1 1 2 3 1 2 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 2 2 4 1 2 4 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) LC =

0.1 mm = M
M = 1 mm
Hence option (3) is correct

2) Angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is constant if particle is moving
with constant velocity i.e.
L = m V r⊥
Here r⊥ = minimum distance of particle from origin.
or
⇒ L = m vr sinθ
r changes but r sin θ is constant

6)

rℓVSg = Mg = ρbVbg

ρb = 1.8 × 103 kg/m3

7) U =
U∝T

9) Zero Kelvin = –273° C (absolute temperature). As no matter can attain this temperature,
hence temperature can never be negative on Kelvin scale.

11)

W = 2TΔA

16)
20 – T = 6a
20 – T = 6(1)
T = 14 N
17)

18)

R = uxT

22)

23) Moment of 4 N force

=4× N-m (anti-clockwise)

Moment of 8 N force

=8× × sin 30° N-m (clockwise)

Moment of 9 N force

=9× N-m (clockwise)

Moment of 6 N force = 6 × × sin 0° = 0

∴
= –1.8N-m
= 1.8 N-m(clockwise)

25)

26) By rule – 4 & 5

27)

P=
% P = 3% Ea + 2% Eb + % EC
% E 'P' = (3 × 1) + (2 × 3) + 2

= 3 + 6 + 2 = 11 %

28) By impulse momentum theorem →

I = ΔP
FΔt = m(v2–v1)

v2= 200 m/sec

30)

31)

given

square x =

v = 2t + 6
Hence velocity varies linearly with t and initial velocity is 6 m/s

35)

work = Area under the curve for displacement 1m

36) Mass = (F)a(T)b(V)c ....(1)

Writedown the dimension
M = (MLT–2)a(T)b(LT–1)c
0 0
T ML = MaL(a+c)T(–2a+b–c)
Comparing power of M,L,T
both the sides, we get
M→
L→
=1+c

T → 0 = –2a + b – c
0 = –2(1) + b – (–1)
put the value of 'a' 'b' and 'c' in equation (1), we get
Mass = F1T1V–1 = FTV–1
option (3) is correct

39)
Let temp. of junction is T
at steady state

⇒
300 – 3 = T
4T = 300 ⇒ T = 75°C
 40)

Displacement in verticle direction = 0

Work done by force of gravity = 0

41)

42)

For range y = 0
12x = 4x2 ⇒ x = 3m

CHEMISTRY

54)

55) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2
CH3–CH=CH–CH3

60) are isoelectronic and isostructural.

63)

EN ⇒ F > O > N

69)
 77)

ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0, ΔG = ΔH – TΔS

Reaction is spontaneous at any temperature.

80)

Le- Chatelier's Principal

81)

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO, Kc = 4 × 10–4

NO(g) N2 + O2

= 50

84)

Ionisation of water depends on temperature.

BIOLOGY

96)

The correct answer is: B-A-C

Explanation:
The correct sequence from the base to the apex of the root is:
1. Zone of maturation (B):

A. This zone is located above the elongation zone and consists of fully differentiated cells. Root
hairs also develop in this zone, helping in water and nutrient absorption.

2. Zone of cell elongation (A):

A. Above the zone of maturation, in this zone, cells elongate rapidly, causing the root to grow
longer.

3. Zone of meristematic cells (C):

A. This is the tip of the root, where the meristematic cells actively divide to provide new cells for
root growth.

The correct sequence from base to apex is B-A-C

102)

NCERT-XI English Pg. # 242 (Fig. 15.4) & 243 (1st para)

NCERT-XI िहदी पे ज # 242 (िच-15.4) एवं 243 (पहला पे राग ाफ)

103)

NCERT XI Pg. # 161

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 207

107)

NCERT XI Pg # 171

110) NCERT Pg. # 220

120) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 134

121) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 140

124)

NCERT XI Pg. # 126

128) NCERT Pg. # 38

130) NCERT XI Pg. # 40

131) NCERT Pg. # 41

134)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 34

136)

NCERT, Pg. # 48

138) NCERT Pg. # 45

139) NCERT XIth Pg # 48, para-4.1.4

140) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50 / Para. # 4.2.2

147) NCERT-XI, Pg#113

149) NCERT Pg # 112 para 7.4.1

150) NCERT - 2023 -24 . Pg. 82

152) NCERT XI, pg.# 145

153) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 143

154) NCERT Pg. # 147

155)

NCERT XI, Page # 157

157) NCERT (XIth) Pg. #285, Para No.18.3.2

158) NCERT Pg. # 284

162) Problem Statement : Asking About :

Antibody in person with B-blood group.

Concept :
Blood group.

Solution/Explanation :
Person with B-blood group has anti-A antibody.

167) NCERT Page # 293

168) NCERT-XI, Pg # 298, Ist para

170)

NCERT XI (E)Pg.# 307, para 2

NCERT XI (H)Pg.# 307, para 1

179) NCERT XI Page No. # 270

180) NCERT Pg # 104 E & H