17-01-2026

2321CMD303034250009 MD

PHYSICS

1) The displacement y of a particle varies with time t as

y = 4 sin ωt cos ωt cm
where t is in seconds.
The motion of the particle is :-
(A) simple harmonic with amplitude 2 cm

(B) simple harmonic with period

(C) simple harmonic with period

(D) simple harmonic with amplitude 4 cm

(1) A, C
(2) B, D
(3) A, B
(4) D, C

2) If the length of a second's pendulum is increased by 2%, how many seconds will it lose per day ?

(1) 3927 sec

(2) 3737 sec
(3) 3427 sec
(4) 864 sec

3) A particle has simple harmonic motion. The equation of its motion is , where x is
its displacement. If the displacement of the particle is 3 unit, then its velocity is :-

(1)
unit

(2)
unit
(3) 20 unit
(4) 16 unit

4) When the kinetic energy of a body executing S.H.M. is 1/3 of the potential energy. If the
displacement of the body is x percent of the amplitude, then x is :-

(1) 33
(2) 87
(3) 67
(4) 50
5) A particle perform SHM having angular velocity 3.5 rad/s and maximum angular accelration 7.5
m/s2 respectively. The amplitude of oscillation is

(1) 0.28 m
(2) 0.36 m
(3) 0.52 m
(4) 0.61 m

6) The springs in fig. A and B are similar but length in A is three times each of that in B. The ratio of

time period TA/TB is :-

(1)
(2) 1/3
(3) 3
(4)

7) The displacement of a particle varies according to the relation x = 3 sin 100t + 8 cos2 50t . Which
of the following is INCORRECT about this motion

(1) The motion of the particle is S.H.M.

(2) The amplitude of the S.H.M. of the particle is 5 units
(3) The amplitude of the resultant S.H. M. is units
(4) The maximum displacement of the particle from the origin is 9 units .

8) Which of the following quantities is always non-zero in a simple harmonic motion ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) A particle executes simple harmonic motion according to equation . Its time

period is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A simple pendulum has time period 2s. The point of suspension s now moved upward according
to relation y = (6t – 3.75 t2) m where t is in second any y is the vertical displacement in upward
direction. The new time period of simple pendulum will be :-

(1) 2s
(2) 1s
(3) 4s
(4) None

11) Three masses 700 g, 500 g, and 400 g are suspended at the end of a spring as shown and are in
equilibrium. When the 700 g mass is removed, the system oscillates with a period of 3 seconds, when

the 500 gm mass is also removed, it will oscillate with a period of :-

(1) 1s
(2) 2s
(3) 3s

(4)

12) A system is shown in the figure. The time period for small oscillations of the two blocks will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The x-t graph of a particle undergoing SHM is shown below. The acceleration of the particle at t
= 8/3 s is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A particle is executing SHM according to

x = a cos ωt. Then which of the graphs represents variations of potential energy :

(1) (I) & (III)

(2) (II) & (IV)
(3) (I) & (IV)
(4) (II) & (III)

15) A particle is performing S.H.M. and at t = , is at position = and moving towards the

origin. Equilibrium position of the particle is at x = 0 . After t = what will be the graph of the
particle :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

16)

A particle is executing SHM with time period T. Starting from mean position, time taken by it
to complete 5/8 oscillations, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The period of oscillation of simple pendulum of length L suspended from the roof of a vehicle
which moves without friction down on inclined plane of inclination α is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The left block collides inelastically with the right block and sticks to it. Find the amplitude of the

resulting simple harmonic motion.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19) A block of mass M is kept in gravity free space and touches the two springs as shown in the

figure. Initially springs are in their natural lengths. Now, the block is shifted from the given
position, in such a way that it compresses a spring and is released. The time-period of oscillation of

mass will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The equation of transverse wave in stretched string is

y = 5 sin 2π
Where distances are in cm and time in second. The wavelength of wave is :

(1) 15 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 50 cm

21) The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be expressed as

y = 10–6 sin m, where t is in second and x in metre. The speed of the wave is :-

(1) 2000 m/s

(2) 5 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 5π m/s

22) A wave is travelling along a string . At an instant the shape of the string is as shown in figure. At
this instant, point A is moving upward, then select the correct option.
(1) Wave is travelling to the left
(2) Amplitude of all the particles are same.
(3) At this instant, velocity of C is directed downward.
(4) All the above

23) Transverse waves can propagate

(1) only in solids

(2) both in solids and gases
(3) neither is solids nor in gases
(4) only in gases

24) When a wave travels in a medium, the particle displacement is given by : y = a sin 2π(bt – cx)
where a, b and c are constants. The maximum particle velocity will be twice the wave velocity if:

(1)

(2) c = πa
(3) b = ac

(4)
b=

25) Which of the following represent a travelling wave ?

(1) (x – vt)2
(2) ℓn (x + vt)
(3)

(4)

26) A string with a mass density of 4 × 10–3 kg/m is under tension of 360 N and is fixed at both ends.
One of its resonance frequencies is 375 Hz. The next higher resonance frequency is 450 Hz. The
mass of the string is -

(1) 2 × 10–3 kg
(2) 3 × 10–3 kg
(3) 4 × 10–3 kg
(4) 8 × 10–3 kg

27) The speed of a wave on a string is 150 m/s when the tension is 120 N. The percentage increase
in the tension in order to raise the wave speed by 20% is :

(1) 44%
(2) 40%
(3) 20%
(4) 10%

28) Find ratio of velocity of sound in H2 & O2 at same temperature :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Find the speed of sound in a mixture of 1 mole of Helium and 1 mole of Hydrogen at 127°C :-

(1) 1290 m/sec

(2) 460 m/sec
(3) 620 m/sec
(4) 910 m/sec

30) Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given by y1= 4 sin(500πt) and y2= 2
sin(506πt). These tuning forks are held near the ear of a person. The person will hear

(1) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 4.
(2) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 9.
(3) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 4.
(4) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 9.

31) A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of known frequency
250 Hz, The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when
sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz, The unknown frequency is :-

(1) 260 Hz
(2) 254 Hz
(3) 246 Hz
(4) 240 Hz

32) 56 tuning forks are so arranged in series that each fork gives 4 beats per sec with the previous
one. The frequency of the last fork is 3 times that of the first. The frequency of the first fork (in Hz)
is :-

(1) 110
(2) 56
(3) 60
(4) 52

33) Two waves having intensity I and 9I produce interference. If the resultant intensity at a point is
7I, what is the phase difference between the two waves ?

(1) 0°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

34) The frequency of tuning fork A is 2 % more than the frequency of a standard tuning fork. The
frequency of a tuning fork B is 3 % less than the frequency of same standard tuning fork. If 6 beats
per second are heard when the two tuning forks A and B are excited, the frequency of A is :-

(1) 120 Hz
(2) 122.4 Hz
(3) 116.4 Hz
(4) None of the above

35) An open organ pipe of length L vibrates in second harmonic mode. The pressure vibration is
maximum

(1) at the two ends

(2) at a distance L/4 from either end inside the tube
(3) at the mid-point of the tube
(4) none of these

36) In a resonance tube experiment, the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column and the
second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is–

(1) 0.5 cm
(2) 1.0 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 2 cm

37) A closed organ pipe has a frequency 'n'. If its length is doubled and radius is halved, its
frequency nearly becomes–

(1) halved
(2) doubled
(3) tripled
(4) quadrupled

38) A tuning fork vibrating with a sonometer having 20 cm wire produces 5 beats per sec. The beat
frequency does not change if the length of the wire is changed to 21 cm. The frequency of the tuning
fork must be (Consider sonometer in fundamental mode of vibration) :-

(1) 200 Hz
(2) 210 Hz
(3) 205 Hz
(4) 215 Hz

39) The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain temperature is 460 ms–1. The speed of sound in
helium (He) at the same temperature will be :
(assume both gases to be ideal)

(1) 1420 ms–1

(2) 500 ms–1
(3) 650 ms–1
(4) 330 ms–1

40) Energy is not carried by which of the following waves :-

(1) Stationary
(2) Progressive
(3) Transverse
(4) Electromagnetic

41) First overtone frequency of a closed organ pipe is equal to the first overtone frequency of an
open organ pipe. Further nth harmonic of closed organ pipe is also equal to the mth harmonic of open
pipe, where n and m are :-

(1) 5, 4
(2) 7, 5
(3) 9, 6
(4) 7, 3

42) A vibrating tuning fork of frequency n is placed near the open end of a long cylindrical tube. The
tube has a side opening and is also fitted with a movable reflecting piston. As the piston is moved
through 8.75 cm, the intensity of sound changes from a maximum to minimum. If the speed of sound
is 350 meter per second, then n is :-

(1) 500 Hz
(2) 1000 Hz
(3) 2000 Hz
(4) 4000 Hz
43) The diagram below shows the propagation of a wave. Which points are in same phase ?

(1) F, G
(2) C and E
(3) B and G
(4) B and F

44) For the stationary wave y = , the distance between a node and the next
antinode is :

(1) 7.5
(2) 15
(3) 22.5
(4) 30

45)

A glass tube of 100 cm length is filled with water. The water can be drained out slowly at the bottom
of the tube. If a vibrating tuning fork of frequency 500 Hz is brought at the upper end of the tube
and the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, then the total number of resonances obtained will be

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

CHEMISTRY

1) (i) Cu + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2(g);

= +0.34 V
(ii) Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2(g);
= –0.76 V
(iii) Ag + 2HCl → AgCl + H2(g);
V
Which of the above reactions is feasible ?

(1) (ii)
(2) (i)
(3) (iii)
(4) All of the above
2) The standard electrode potentials in volts are :
Zn2+/Zn = –0.762, Cr3+/Cr = – 0.740,
2H+/H2 = 0.00, Fe+3/Fe2+ = + 0.770.
Which is the strongest reducing agent?

(1) Zn(s)
(2) Cr(s)
2+
(3) Fe (aq)
(4) H2(g)

3) The number of faraday required to convert 1 mole of Cr2O72– to Cr3+ ions is ___

(1) 3F
(2) 6F
(3) 2F
(4) 5F

4) Adding powdered Cu and Zn to a solution containing 1.0 M is each of Cu2+ and Zn2+ ions would
result into the formation of :-

(1) More of Cu and Zn2+ ions

(2) More of Zn and Cu2+ ions
(3) More of Zn and Cu
(4) More of Zn2+ and Cu2+ ions

5) On passing 3 Faraday of electricity through the three electrolytic cells connected in series
containing molten Ag+, Ca2+ and Al3+ ions respectively, the molar ratio in which the three metal ions
are liberated at the electrodes is :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 2 : 1
(3) 6 : 3 : 2
(4) 3 : 4 : 2

6) E° for two reactions are given below :

Cr3+ + 3e– → Cr ; E° = – 0.74V
OCl– + H2O + 2e– →Cl– + 2OH–; E° = 0.94V
What will be the E° for ?
3OCl– + 2Cr + 3H2O → 2Cr3+ + 3Cl– + 6OH–

(1) –1.68V
(2) 1.68V
(3) –0.20V
(4) 0.20V

7) The cell reaction of a cell is,

Mg(s) + —→ Cu(s) +
It the standard reduction potentials of Mg and Cu and –2.37 and +0.34 V respectively. the emf of the
cell is :-

(1) 2.03 V
(2) –2.03 V
(3) +2.71 V
(4) –2.71 V

8) The standard reduction potential, Eo for the half reactions are as :

Zn2+ / Zn ; Eo = –0.76 V
and Fe2+ / Fe ; Eo = –0.41 V
The standard emf for the cell reaction
Fe2+ + Zn → Zn2+ + Fe is :

(1) –0.35 V
(2) +0.35 V
(3) +1.17 V
(4) –1.17 V

9) Which statement is correct?

A galvanic cell is an electro chemical cell that converts the chemical energy of a
(1)
spontaneous redox reaction into electrical energy.
If an external opposite potential is applied on Daniel cell is more than 1.1 V than it function
(2)
as an electrolytic cell.
In a galvanic cell, the half cell in which oxidation takes place is called anode and it has a
(3)
negative potential with respect of the solution.
(4) All are correct

10) The cell reaction

2Ag+ (aq) + H2(g) → 2H+(aq) + 2Ag(s), is best represented by :-

+ +
(1) Ag(s) | Ag (aq) | | H (aq) | H2(g) | Pt (s)
+ +
(2) Pt(s) | H2(g) | H (aq) | | Ag (aq) | Ag(s)
+ +
(3) Ag(s) | Ag (aq) | | H2(g) | H (aq) | Pt(s)
+ +
(4) Ag (aq) | Ag(s) | | H2(g) | H (aq)

11) The products formed when an aqueous solution of NaBr is electrolyzed in a cell having inert
electrodes are :-

(1) Na and Br2

(2) Na and O2
(3) H2, Br2 and NaOH
(4) H2 and O2
12) Which of the following solutions of KCl has the lowest value of equivalent conductance ?

(1) 1 M
(2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.01 M
(4) 0.001 M

13) The specific conductance of a salt of 0.01 M concentration is 1.061 × 10–4 S cm–1. Molar
conductivity of the same solution will be :

(1) 1.061 × 10–4 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 1.061 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 10.61 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 106.1 S cm2 mol–1

14) The resistance of 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte was found to be 210 ohm at 298 K using a
conductivity cell of cell constant 0.66 cm–1. The equivalent conductivity of solution is :–

(1) 314.28 mho cm2 eq–1

(2) 3.14 mho cm2 eq–1
(3) 314.28 mho–1 cm2 eq–1
(4) 3.14 mho–1 cm2 eq–1

15) If same quantity of electricity is passed through CuCl and CuSO4, the ratio of the weights of Cu
deposited from CuSO4 and CuCl is :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 4 : 1

16) The specific conductance of a saturated solution of silver bromide is k S cm–1. The limiting ionic
conductivity of Ag+ and Br¯ ions are x and y, respectively. The solubility of silver bromide in gL–1 is :
(Molar mass of AgBr = 188)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant
of acetic acid ? Choose the correct option.
(1) 1.75 × 10–4 mol L–1
(2) 2.50 × 10–4 mol L–1
(3) 1.75 × 10–5 mol L–1
(4) 2.50 × 10–5 mol L–1

18) Statement I : The limiting molar conductivity of KCl (strong electrolyte) is higher compared to
that of CH3COOH (weak electrolyte).
Statement II : Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration of electrolyte.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

19) Select the correct diagram for an endothermic reaction that proceeds through two steps, with
the second step is rate determining :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) For the reaction 2A + B → C, following results are obtained-

Initial Rate of reaction

[A]0 [B]0
(in M sec–1)
 0.1 M 0.1 M 6 × 10–4

0.4 M 0.1 M 12 × 10–4

0.4 M 0.2 M 48 × 10–4

then correct rate equation will be :-

(1) r = k[A]2 [B]2
(2) r = k[A]1/2 [B]2
(3) r = k[A]1 [B]2
(4) r = k[A]2 [B]1

21) Select the correct statement(s) regarding effect of catalyst on reaction :

(A) It is believed that catalyst provides an alternate pathway with lower activation energy.
(B) A catalyst does not alter Gibbs energy (ΔG) of reaction.
(C) It catalyses both spontaneous as well as non spontaneous reactions.
(D) Catalyst does not changes the equilibrium constant of reaction.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) A and B

22) Plots showing the variationof the rate constant (k) with temperature (T) are given below. The
plot that follows Arrhenius equations is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) The given data are for the reaction :

2NO(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NOCI(g) at 298 K

[NO] Initial rate (mol L–1 sec–1)

(I) 0.05 M 0.05 M 1×10–3

(II) 0.15 M 0.15 M 3×10–3

(III) 0.05 M 0.15 M 9×10–3

The rate law for the reaction is :
(1) rate = k[NO] [CI2]
2
(2) rate = k [Cl2] [NO]
2
(3) rate = k [Cl2] [NO]
(4) rate = k [Cl2]

24) In the equation : the value of A will be same for

(1) NaCl and KCl

(2) NaCl and CaCl2
(3) CaCl2 and MgSO4
(4) KCl and MgSO4

25) A gaseous hypothetical chemical equation 2A 4B + C is carried out in a closed vessel. The
concentration of B is found to increase by 5 × 10 mol L–1 in 10 second. The rate of appearance of B
–3

is :-

(1) 5 × 10–4 mol L–1 sec–1

(2) 5 × 10–5 mol L–1 sec–1
(3) 6 × 10–5 mol L–1 sec–1
(4) 4 × 10–4 mol L–1 sec–1

26) Following figure shows a graph in log10K vs where K is rate constant and T is temperature.

The straight line BC has slope, tanθ = and an intercept of 5 on Y–axis. Thus Ea, the energy of

activation is :-
(1) 2.303 × 2 cal
(2) 2/2.303 cal
(3) 2 cal
(4) None of these

27) A graph was plotted between molar conductivity of various electrolytes (NaCl, HCl and NH4OH)

and (in mol L–1). Select the correct option :-

(1) I(NaCl), II(HCl), III(NH4OH)

(2) I(HCl), II(NaCl), III(NH4OH)
(3) I(NH4OH), II(NaCl), III(HCl)
(4) I(NH4OH), II(HCl), III(NaCl)

28) The rate for the reaction 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 can be written in three ways:

= k[N2O5]

= k' [N2O5]

= k" [N2O5] The relationship between k and k' and between k and k" are :-

(1) k' = k ; k" = k

(2) k' = 2k ; k" = k
(3) k' = 2k ; k" = k/2
(4) k' = 2k ; k" = 2k

29) A reaction 2NO + 2H2 → N2 + 2H2O

has following mechanism
Step-I : 2NO → N2O2
Step-II : N2O2 + H2 → N2O + H2O
Step-III : N2O + H2 → N2 + H2O
Which of the following substance is a reaction intermediate

(1) H2
(2) NO
(3) H2O
(4) N2O2

30)

The hypothetical reaction P2 + Q2 → 2PQ follows the mechanism as given below :

P2 2P (fast)
P + Q2 → PQ + Q (slow)
P + Q → PQ (fast)
The order of the overall reaction is :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 1.5
(4) 0

31) Write rate equation for the reaction 2A+B→C if order of reaction is zero.

(1) r=K[A][B]
(2) r=K[A]2[B]
(3) r=K[A][B]2
0 0
(4) r=K[A] [B]

32) Given below are two statements-

Statement-1 : Number of reacting species taking part in an elementary reaction which must collide
simultaneously in order to bring about a chemical reaction is called molecularity of a reaction.
Statement-2 : Order of reaction is applicable to elementary reaction only and for complex reaction
order has no meaning.

(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are true

(2) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are false
(3) Statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false but statement-2 is true.

33) Assertion: The slowest elementary step in a complex reaction decides the rate of the reaction.
Reason: The slowest elementary step always has the smallest molecularity.

(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

34) Molecularity of a reaction can be.

(1) Zero
(2) –2
(3) 1
(4) 0.5

35) For an elementary process 2X + Y → Z + W, the molecularity is –

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) Unpredictable

36) The equilibrium constant for the cell at 298 K will be (approximately)

(1) 2 × 1016
(2) 4 × 1015
(3) 6 × 1013
(4) 3 × 1014

37) Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to

(1) low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species

(2) increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involed
(3) shifting of equilibrium towards reactans due to elastic collisions
(4) loss of active species on collision

38) The rate law for the reaction Product (P) is. . What will be the
order of reaction if A is taken in excess.

(1) 2
(2) 2.5
(3) 1.5
(4) 0.5

39) The two diagrams below represent snapshots of a very small portion of a first order reaction in
which A molecules are being converted to B molecules (A → B).
Which of the following diagrams represents a snapshot of a very small portion of this system at t = 3

min ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

40) The half life period for catalytic decomposition of AB3 at 50 mm is found to 4 hrs & at 100 mm it
is 2 hrs. the order is :-

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0

41) M(s) | M+(aq.) (0.05 M) || M+ (aq.) (1M) | M(s)

For this cell :

(1) Ecell > 0, ΔG < 0

(2) Ecell = 0, ΔG = 0
(3) Ecell > 0, ΔG > 0
(4) E°cell > 0, ΔG° < 0

0
42) What does the negative value of E represents ?

+
(1) Strong reducing agent then H /H2 couple
+
(2) Strong oxidising agent then H /H2 couple
+
(3) Weak reducing agent then H /H2 couple
(4) None of these

43) The efficiency of a cell is given by:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Limiting molar conductivity of NH4 OH i.e., ( NH4OH) is equal to :

(1) NH4Cl + NaCl – NaOH

(2) NaOH + NaCl – NH4Cl

(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl – HCl

(4) NH4Cl + NaOH – NaCl

45) For the reaction 3A + 2B → C, which statement is correct :-

(1) Rate of formation of C is three times of rate of disappearance of A

(2) Rate of disappearance of B is 3/2 times of rate of disappearance of A
(3) Rate of disappearance of A is 3/2 times of rate of disappearance of B
(4) Rate of disappearance of B is half of the rate of formation of C

BOTANY

1) In Citrus and mango polyembryony is due to :-

(1) Production of additional embryos by nucellus

(2) Production of additional embryos by synergids
(3) Presence of two eggs in embryo sac
(4) Splitting of the proembryo

2) Following figure represents :-

(1) Endospermic seed of bean

(2) Endospermic seed of castor
(3) Non-endospermic seed of bean
(4) Non-endospermic seed of castor

3) A type of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction is called :-

(1) Fertilization
(2) Apomixis
(3) Dichogamy
(4) Amphimixis

4) Given below is the diagrammatic view of an embryo of grass. Identify the parts labelled (A),(B),
(C) and (D) and select the right option about them.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Coleoptile Scutellum Epiblast Coleorhiza
(2) Coleoptile Scutellum Coleorhiza Epiblast
(3) Scutellum Coleorhiza Epiblast Coleoptile
(4) Scutellum Coleoptile Epiblast Coleorhiza
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Tegmen in seed is derived from :-

(1) Inner integument

(2) Outer integument
(3) Endosperm
(4) Nucellus

6) Which of the following group of plants is characterised by having residual, persistent nucellus ?

(1) Black pepper and Beet

(2) Wheat and Maize
(3) Sunflower and Castor
(4) Brassica and Barley
7) In the following figures, (A) and (B) represent respectively

(1) Plumule and cotyledons

(2) Cotyledons and plumule
(3) Suspensor and cotyledons
(4) Cotyledons and suspensor

8) Which one of the following is the final product of sexual reproduction ?

(1) Embryosac
(2) Ovary
(3) Seed
(4) Ovule

9)

Arrange the following events of embryo development in correct sequence :-

(a) Heart shaped stage
(b) Torpedo stage
(c) Globular stage

(d) Proembryo stage

(1) d, a, c, b
(2) b, c, a, d
(3) d, c, a, b
(4) d, c, b, a

10) Read the following four statements (A - D):

(A) The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of antipodal cell.
(B) The central cell after triple fusion becomes the primary endosperm cell (PEC).
(C) PEC develops into embryo.
(D) Endosperm development preceds embryo development.
How many of the above statements are wrong?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
11) Assertion : During sexual reproduction in flowering plants, double fertilization event occur in
an embryo sac.
Reason : Two types of fusion, syngamy and triple fusion take place in an embryo sac during sexual
reproduction in flowering plants.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) Assertion : All these events from pollen deposition on the stigma until pollen tube enter the
ovule-are together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction.
Reason : Pollen pistil interaction is a dynamic process.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

13) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Most of the plants like water hyacinth is pollinated by water
(b) Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
(c) Vallisneria flowers are pollinated by water under the water surface.
(d) Water lily are pollinated by insects. Option:

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d).

(2) Statements (b) and (d).
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d).
(4) Statements (a) and (c).

14)

Given figure 'a' is transverse section of anther and diagram 'b' is enlarged view of one
microsporangium showing wall [Link] which labelled structures A to F are :

A → Epidermis, B → Exothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(1)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
 A → Epidermis, B → Endothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(2)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
A → Endothecium, B → Epidermis,
C → Tapetum, D → Middle layer,
(3)
E → Connective,
F → Microspore mother cells
A → Middle layer, B → Epidermis,
C → Endothecium, D → Tapetum,
(4)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective

15) In a tetramerous flower with six stamens, 30 pollen mother cells are present in each
microsporangium then how many pollen grains will be produced by this flower?

(1) 120
(2) 2400
(3) 480
(4) 2880

16) A typical angiospermic anther is :-

(1) Dithecous and disporangiate

(2) Monothecous and monosporangiate
(3) Dithecous and bisporangiate
(4) Dithecous and tetrasporangiate

17) What will be ploidy of the cells of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional megaspore and
embryosac respectively

(1) n, 2n, 3n, 4n

(2) n, 3n, 4n, 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n
(4) 3n, 4n, 2n, n

18) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the
right option about them:-
 A B C D

Central Antipodal
1 Synergids Egg
cell cell

Antipodal Central
2 Synergids Egg
cell cell

Antipodal Central
3 Synergids Obturators
cell cell

Antipodal
Polar Egg
4 cell Synergids
nuclei apparatus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct answer in a typical ovule :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Food storage tissue (i) Perisperm

Place where integument is

(B) (ii) Hilum
absent

Remaining part of nucellus

(C) (iii) Nucellus
in seed

Junction between ovule and

(D) (iv) Micropyle
funicle
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

20) The form of growth where in new cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity
of meristem is called :
(1) Open form of growth
(2) Close form of growth
(3) Determinate growth
(4) Discontinuous form of growth

21) Which of the following matches is not appropriate regarding measurement of growth?

(1) Dorsiventral leaf Increase in surface area

(2) Watermelon Increase in size of cells

Maize root
(3) Increase in number of cells
apical meristem

(4) Pollen tube Increase in volume and fresh weight

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) (i) The cell walls are primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal
connections. Large conspicuous nuclei.
(ii) Protoplasmic modifications
(iii) Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new cell wall deposition
Above characteristics represent respectively which phase of growth in plants ?
Choose the correct option from the following-

(1) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Elongation phase (iii) Maturation phase
(2) (i) Maturation phase (ii) Meristematic phase (iii) Elongation phase
(3) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Elongation phase
(4) (i) Elongation phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Meristematic phase

23) Which of the following is/are intracellular intrinsic factor(s) to affect the development of plants ?

(1) Plant growth regulators

(2) Temperature and nutrients
(3) Genetic factors
(4) Oxygen and water

24) Area of leaf A was 10 cm2 and that of leaf B was 25 cm2. After unit time, area of leaf A became 17
cm2 while that of leaf B became 32 cm2. What is the difference between relative growth rate of leaf A
and B :-

(1) 42%
(2) 30%
(3) 28%
(4) 7%
25) A – Growth can be defined as an reversible permanent increase in size of organ or plant part
B – Growth is accompained by metabolic processes
C – Plant has open growth
D – Cell enlargement require water
E – Nutrients are required by plants for the synthesis of protoplasm and act as source by energy.
How many statements from among are correct for plant growth

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

26)
Choose incorrect option for given diagram :-

(1) A growth rate less

(2) B - growth rate high
(3) C - nutrition unlimited
(4) B - depends upon metabolism

27) Which of the following statements are not correct

regarding the type of growth represented by the above diagram ?
(a) It is observed at early stage of zygotic division
(b) Only one daughter cell continues to divide while the other differentiates and matures.
(c) It represents exponential growth
(d) This type of growth is represented by the equation W1 = W0ert

(1) a and b only

(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d only
(4) c only

28) Hormone that promotes female flowers in cucumber :-

(1) Auxin
(2) Ethylene
(3) GA
(4) CK

29) (A) GA – Extend market period of fruits (B) Ethylene – Increase surface area of absorption
(C) CK – Apical hook formation
(D) GA – Internodal elongation in deep water rice plant
How many matches are incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

30) Which of the following features are correctly matched ?

(a) Causes elongation of apple and improve its shape
(b) Promotes flowering in pineapple
(c) Increases length of sugarcane stem
(d) Promotes bolting in beet
(e) Causes lateral shoot growth

(1) a, c, d - Gibberelins
(2) b, d, e - Auxin
(3) a, c, e - Cytokinin
(4) a, b, c - Ethylene

31) The discovery of which plant hormone is related to D.N.A. :-

(1) Cytokinins
(2) Auxins
(3) Gibberellins
(4) Ethylene

32) Regarding to exponential phase, which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Both the progeny cells divide meiotically

(2) Both the progeny cells do not retain the ability of division
(3) Both the progeny cells following mitosis and retain the ability to divide
(4) Both the progeny cells following mitosis and do not retain the ability to divide

33) Represented below are the two phenomena in plants. Among the following two phenomena (a)

and (b) which phenomena is widely applied in tea plantation?

(1) Phenomena (a)

(2) Phenomena (b)
(3) Phenomena (a) and (b) both
(4) Neither phenomena (a) nor (b)

34) (i) Promote nutrient mobilisation

(ii) Overcome the apical dominance
(iii) Lateral shoot growth
All the above physiological effects are related to which of the following plant growth regulators?

(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinins

35) The following figure shows

(1) Heterophylly in larkspur

(2) Heterophylly in buttercup
(3) Heterophylly in cotton and coriander
(4) Heterophylly in cotton, coriander and larkspur.

36) Assertion : ABA is also called stress hormone.

Reason : ABA stimulates the closure of stomata in the epidermis and increases the tolerance of
plants to various kinds of stresses.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) The ability of the plant to produce new plant material, referred to as -

(1) efficiency index

(2) heterophylly
(3) differentiation
(4) plasticity

38) Horizontal growth of seedling, swelling of axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedling are
associated with:-

(1) Photoperiodism
(2) Vernalisation
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin

39)

Which one(s) is/are redifferentiated cell(s) ?

(1) Cork
(2) Secondary cortex
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Phellogen

40) The incorrect statements are:

(A) Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of students and teachers.
(B) It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in liquid nitrogen
(196°C).
(C) In some cereals pollen grain lose viability within months of their release.
(D) Parthenium came into India as a contaminant with exported wheat has become ubiquitous in
occurrence and causes pollen allergy.

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) A and C
(4) B and D

41) If male and female flowers are present on same plant, like maize and Castor, it prevents

(1) Autogamy, but not geitonogamy

(2) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(3) Geitonogamy, but not autogamy
(4) All are possible

42) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones.
(a) There is no need for emasculation in unisexual flowers.
(b) The transformation of ovules into seed and ovary into fruit proceed simultaneously.
(c) A multicarpellary and syncarpus gynoecium is found in Michelia. (d) Many ovules are found in the
ovary of papaya, watermelon and orchids.

(1) b, c and d
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b and d

43) Total number of meiotic division required for forming 400 zygotes of wheat is

(1) 100
(2) 200
(3) 300
(4) 500

44) Thalamus contributes in the fruit formation in ?

(1) Apple
(2) Strawberry
(3) Cashew nut
(4) All of these

45)

Which of the following structure is shown in the given diagram :

(1) Pollinium
(2) Tapetal cells
(3) Embryo-sac
(4) Microspore tetrad

ZOOLOGY
1) Out of following which match is incorrect for cockroach ?

(1) Crop-used for storage of food

(2) Gizzard-helps in grinding the food particles
(3) Hepatic caeca - at junction of midgut and hindgut
(4) Malpighian tubules - 100 to 150 in number

2) For female cockroaches, how many statements are correct? (1) The 7th sternum is boat shaped
(2) The 7th sternum together with the 8th and 9th sterna forms a brood or genital pouch
(3) The anterior part of genital pouch contains female genopore, spermathecal pores and collateral
glands
(4) Right collateral gland form ootheca

(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 4
(3) 1, 2, 3
(4) 1 and 4

3)

In the diagram given below, identify the parts labelled as A, B, C & D and select the right option
about them.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Anterior Heart Alary

(1) Anal cerci
aorta chambers muscles

Alary Heart Anterior

(2) Anal cerci
muscles chambers aorta

Anterior Alary Heart

(3) Anal cerci
aorta muscles chambers

Heart Anterior Alary

(4) Anal cerci
chambers aorta muscles
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) In cockroach first pair of wings arises from ____(A)____ and the second pair from ______(B)_____.
Identify A and B from given option :
(1) A - Prothorax, B - Mesothorax
(2) A - Prothorax, B - Metathorax
(3) A - Mesothorax, B - Prothorax
(4) A - Mesothorax, B - Metathorax

5) Identify A, B, C and D labelling :

(1) A-Pharynx ; B-Gizzard ; C-Hepatic caeca ; D-Ileum

(2) A-Oesophagous ; B-Gizzard ; C-Hepatic caeca ; D-Ileum
(3) A-Pharynx ; B-Crop ; C-Malpighian tubules ; D-Rectum
(4) A-Salivary gland ; B-Crop ; C-Malpighian tubules ; D-Colon

6) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Malpighian tubules (i) 50-75 pairs

(B) Hepatic caecae (ii) 3-4 pairs

(C) Spiracles (iii) 10 pairs

(D) Alary muscles (iv) 12 pairs

(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(4) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)

7) Identify and labelled the structures A,B,C & D of the cockroach

A B C D

(1) Labrum Maxilla Mandible Labium

 (2) Labrum Mandible Maxilla Labium

(3) Mandible Maxilla Labium Labrum

(4) Labium Mandible Maxilla Labrum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Given below are two statement : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Haemolympyh of cockroach does not participate in respiration..
Reason (R) : Haemolymph is composed of colourless plasma and haemocytes.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below :

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

9) Assertion(A): The kind of vision in cockroach is said to be mosaic.

Reason(R): Each compound eye of cockroach is made up of about 2000 hexagonal ommatidia, each
of which is capable of forming a separate image .
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option .

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

10) Assertion: Frogs respire effectively on land and in the water by two-different processes.
Reason: In water skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ. On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs
acts as the respiratory organs.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Following is the diagram of the male reproductive system of frog select the correct set of names
labelled A, B, C and D.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Bidder's Vasa
(1) Fat bodies Ureter
canal efferentia

Bidder's Vasa
(2) Fat bodies Ureter
canal efferentia

Adrenal Bidder's Vasa

(3) Ureter
gland canal efferentia

Adrenal Bidder's Vasa

(4) Testes
gland canal efferentia
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) In forelimb and hindlimbs of frogs how many digits are present respectively :-

(1) Five and four

(2) Four and five
(3) Five and five
(4) Four and four

13)

Match the following columns :

(i) Poikilotherms (a) Protective coloration

(ii) Mimicry (b) Summer sleep

(iii) Aestivation (c) Winter sleep

(iv) Hibernation (d) Do not have constant body temperature

(1) (i)–(d), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(b)
(2) (i)–(a), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c)
(3) (i)–(d), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(c)
(4) (i)–(c), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(d)
14) Assertion - In frog digestion of food take place by the action of HCl and gastric juices secreted
from the wall of stomach.
Reason - Partially digested food called chyme is passed from stomach to the first part of small
intestine.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is in correct
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

15) 10 – 12, ____A____ duct like structure from testis open into ____B____ part of kidney of frog.

(1) A – Vas deferens ; B – Bidder's canal

(2) A – Vas efferentia ; B – collecting duct
(3) A – Vas efferentia ; B – Bidder's canal
(4) A – Uriniferous ; B – Collecting duct

16) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Frogs can live both on land and in freshwater
Statement-II : Frogs belong to phylum Amphibia of class Chordata.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

17) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) (Y) are bulged and covered by a nictitating membrane.

(2) On either side of (Y) a membranous tympanum receives sound signals.
(3) Body of frog is divisible in to Y & Z.
(4) Neck & tail are absent.

18) Consider the following four statements (A-D) related to the common frog Rana tigirina, and
select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F).
(A) On dry land, it would die due to lack of O2 if its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few days.
(B) It has a four-chambered heart.
(C) On dry land, it turns uricotelic from ureotelic.
(D) Eyes are covered with nictitating membrane.

(1) (A)–F, (B)–T, (C)–T, (D)–F

(2) (A)–T, (B)–F, (C)–F, (D)–T
(3) (A)–T, (B)–T, (C)–F, (D)–F
(4) (A)–F, (B)–F, (C)–T, (D)–T

19)

Which of the following is a mismatched pair?

(1) Corvus Crow

(2) Psittacula Parrot

(3) Struthio Peacock

(4) Neophron Vulture

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option :-

Column I Column II
A Chameleon p krait
B Bungarus q Garden lizard
C Calotes r Tree lizard
D Chelone s Wall lizard
E Hemidactylus t Turtle
(1) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-t, E-s
(2) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-t, E-s
(3) A-s, B-p, C-q, D-t, E-r
(4) A-p, B-s, C-t, D-q, E-r

21) Assertion :- Air bladder is present in Pristis.

Reason :- Air bladder provide buoyancy to avoid sinking.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

22) Given below is a table mentioning the characteristics of chondrichthyes and osteichthyes. Which
of the following character is not correctly described ?

Character Chondrichthyes Osteichthyes

(1) Mouth Ventral Terminal

 (2) Scales Placoid Cycloid and Ctenoid

(3) Tail Heterocercal Homocercal

Fertilisation and External and Internal

(4)
development Oviparous and Viviparous
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) For the following figure which one is correct ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) D is animal with 3 chambered Heart

(2) C is cold blooded animal in which fertilization is external
(3) A is marine and gills are without operculum
(4) B is oviparous with external fertilization

24) Given below is a figure of chordata labelled A, B, C and D. Find out A, B, C and D choose correct

one :-

A – Gill slit B – Notochord

(1)
C – Post anal tail D – Nerve cord
A – Post anal tail B – Nerve cord
(2)
C – Notochord D – Gill slit
A – Nerve cord B – Notochord
(3)
C – Gill slit D – Post anal tail
A – Gill slits B – Nerve cord
(4)
C – Notochord D – Post anal tail
25) How many of the following are chordate characters ?
(a) Presence of notochord.
(b) Dorsal, hollow and single central nervous system.
(c) Ventral, solid, and double central nervous system.
(d) A Post anal tail is present.
(e) Ventral heart

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

26)

Which statement is incorrect for animal belonging to class chondrichthyes ?

(1) Presence of placoid scales.

(2) Absence of air bladder.
(3) Presence of cartilaginous endoskeleton.
(4) Notochord is present only at larval stage after that it disappears.

27) Air-bladder, cycloid scales, homocircle caudal fin, terminal mouth, poikilothermus. These
features are true for

(1) Labeo
(2) Petromyzon
(3) Torpedo
(4) Tadpole larva of amphibia

28) Consider the following statements :-

(A) Protochordates are exclusively marine
(B) In Cephalochordates, notochord extends from head to tail region.
(C) In Urochordates, notochord is present only in larval tail.
(D) Cranium and vertebral column are bony in Cyclostomates.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(1) A alone
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) All

29) Assertion :- Reptiles are poikilotherms.

Reason :- Reptiles possess eggs with shells which helped them to adapt in land environment.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but the reason is true.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

30) Which one of the followings is correct statement for animals having hollow nerve cord in their
body?

(1) Related animals having hollow bones in their body like reptiles
(2) Related animals having 4 chambered heart with hollow bones in their body like birds
(3) Related animals having 4 chambered heart with presence of hairs like birds & mammals
(4) Related animals having placoid scales with claspers in their body like bony fishes

31) Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t identification and characteristics of the animal
shown?

Animal Identification Characteristics

(i)
Homeothermous
(ii) Air sacs
(1) Neophron connected to
lungs to
supplement
respiration

(i) Mammary
glands present
(2) Macropus
(ii) External ears
present

(i) Epidermal
scales
(3) Calotes
(ii)
Poikilothermic

(i) Oviparous
(4) Chelone (ii) Internal
fertilization

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Match the column A & B –

A B

(a) Cyclostomata (i) Hyla

(b) Chondrichthyes (ii) Lamprey

(c) Osteichthyes (iii) Carcharodon

(d) Amphibia (iv) Clarias

Choose the correct match for above.
(1) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
(2) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
(3) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(4) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv

33) Assertion : The unique features of mammals are the presence of mammary glands and hair on
the skin.
Reason : Mammals commonly exhibit viviparity.

(1) Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion incorrect but reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

34) Which of the following character is common between the given animals?

(1) Presence of dorsal heart

(2) They are poikilothermous
(3) Presence of 4 pairs of gills
(4) Sexes are separate

35) Notochord is persistent throughout their life in

(1) Sting ray and flying fish
(2) Amphioxus and great white shark
(3) Doliolum and Labeo
(4) Hagfish and Hippocampus

36) Choose the correct statement w.r.t a mesodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the
dorsal side during embryonic development in some animals.

(1) In Salpa, it extends from head to tail region.

(2) It is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in all chordates.
(3) In Branchiostoma, it is present only in larval tail.
(4) It is ventral to the nerve cord.

37) Which one of the following characteristics is shared by birds and mammals ?

(1) Sexes are separate

(2) Homoiothermous
(3) Internal fertilization and direct development
(4) All

38) Aquarium fishes are :

(1) Betta and Clarius

(2) Labeo and Pterophyllum
(3) Betta and Pterophyllum
(4) Torpedo and Fighting fish

39) Identify the poisonous snakes :

(1) Naja, Alligator, Vipera

(2) Cobra, Bangarus, Viper
(3) Krait, Chelone, Calotes
(4) Phrenosoma, sphenodon, python

40) Select the correct option about the given diagrams :

(1) A=Calotes = Dry cornified skin = 3 chambered heart

(2) B = Pteropus = Oviparous = Uricotelic
(3) A = Chameleon = Oviparous = skin is moist and scale less.
(4) B=Ornitorynchus=Oviparous = 4 chamberbed heart

41) Mark the correct option in which example is correctly match with their taxon and characters :

Animal Taxon Character

Marine, Notochord is present only

(1) Ascidia Urochordata
in larval tail

Marine, Notochord only in Larval

(2) Amphioxus Cephalochordata
stage

(3) Doliolum Cephalochordata Triploblastic, Radial symmetry

(4) Salpa Urochordata Coelomate, Ventral Nerve Cord

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Statement-I : Members of cyclostomata are the chordate and are ectoparasite on fishes.
Statement-II : Gnathostomata has two superclasses, Chondrichthyes & Tetrapoda.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II incorrect.

(2) Statement-I correct & Statement-II incorrect.
(3) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(4) Statement-I incorrect but Statement-II correct.

43) Which one is a true fish ?

(1) Jelly fish, Devil fish, Fighting fish

(2) Dog fish, Electric fish, Flying fish
(3) Star fish, Silver fish, Angel fish
(4) Devil fish, Crayfish, Saw fish

44) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement-I : Nervous system of cockroach consists of a series of fused, segmentally arranged
ganglia joined by paired longitudinal connectives.
Statement-II : In cockroach, head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along
the dorsal part of the body.

(1) Statement I is correct.

(2) Statement II is correct.
(3) Both I and II statement are incorrect.
(4) Only statement II is incorrect.

45) Number of cranial nerves and spinal nerves in frog is :

(1) 10 and 20
(2) 10 and 10
(3) 20 and 10
(4) 20 and 20
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 4 2 4 3 3 4 3 3 2 3 4 1 2 4 1 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 2 1 3 4 1 2 1 2 2 1 4 2 2 2 1 3 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 4 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 2 1 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 1 3 1 2 3 3 4 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 2 1 1 3 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 3 3 2 1 1 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 2 4 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 3 3 1 2 2 2 4 4 3 2 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 2 4 2 1 1 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 4 4 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 3 3 4 4 2 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 4 4 4 4 4 1 3 2 2 3 2 1 4 2 4 4 3 2 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 2 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation:
The displacement of a particle is given by y = 4 sin wt cos wt. We need to determine if the
motion is Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) and find its amplitude and period.

Concept Based:
• A motion is SHM if it can be expressed in the standard form:
y = A sin(wt + ϕ)
• We use trigonometric identities to simplify the given equation and extract amplitude and
time period.

Formula Used:
• Product-to-Sum Identity:

sin A cos A = sin 2 A

• General SHM equation:
y = A sin (w't + ϕ)
• Time period in SHM:

Calculation:
• Given displacement equation:
y = 4 sin wt cos wt

• Using identity sin A cos A = sin 2A:

y = 2 sin 2ω bt
• This is in the form y Asin(w't) where:
• Amplitude A = 2 cm
• New angular frequency w' = 2w
• Time period T:

Final Answer: Option 3 (A, B)

• SHM with amplitude 2 cm

• SHM with period

2)
For given situation,
⇒ ⇒

⇒ = 864 sec

3) From the given equation, a = 5 and ω = 4

∴ = 16

4) The relation for kinetic energy of S.H.M. is given by

= mω2 (a2 – x2) ...(i)

Potential energy is given by

= mω2x2 ...(ii)
Now for the condition of question and from equaitons (i) and (ii),

mω2(a2 – x2) = mω2x2

or mω2a2 or x2 = a2

So, x = = 0.866 a ≈ 87% of amplitude.

5) Given that ω = 3.5 rad/s and maximum acceleration ω2r = 7.5.

We get for the amplitude r.

6) For A, if spring const. = K, then for B, spring const. for each = 3K

TA = 2π

TB = 2π ( Keq = 9K, for B)

7) x = 3 sin 100 t + 8 cos250t

= 3 sin 100 t + 8
= 3 sin 100 t + 4 cos 100t + 4
x = 5 sin (100t) + 4
⇒A=5

8) For , θ is 180°.
∴

9)

Comparing with

⇒ ω2 = 80 ⇒

⇒ T= sec.

10)
y = 6t – 3.75t2

so point of suspension has acceleration in downward direction

so geff = g–a
= 10 – 7.5 = 2.5

11) When mass 700 gm is removed, the left out mass (500+400)gm oscillates with a period of
3 sec

∴ 3 = t = 2π (i)
When 500 gm mass is also removed, the left out mass is 400 gm.

∴ t’ = 2π (ii)

⇒ ⇒

12) Both the spring are in series

∴ Keq =
Time period
T = 2π where m =

Here μ =

∴ T = 2π

13) according to graph

x = Asinωt
A = 1 cm
and T = 8 s
so acceleration = –Aω2sinωt

= –(1)

= = cm/s2

14) Given
x = A cos ωt

P.E. (U) = mω2x2 = mω2A2cos2ωt

On plotting a graph between potential energy U and time t, we shall get a curve I and graph
between U and x we shall get curve III.
P.E. is minimum at x = 0
P.E. is maximum at x = ±A

15)

Question Explanation : A particle performs SHM with amplitude A. At t = 3T/4, it is at x =

A/√2 moving towards the origin. Find the displacement equation for subsequent motion.

Concept: SHM displacement-time relation: x = A sin(ωt + ϕ)

Solution:
Let x = A sin(ωt + ϕ)
At t = 3T/4, x = A/√2 moving towards origin:
A/√2 = A sin(ω × 3T/4 + ϕ)
sin(3π/2 + ϕ) = 1/√2 → ϕ = –3π/4
So, the equation of motion :
x(t) = A sin(ωt – 3π/4)
At t = 3T/2, displacement :
x = A sin(ω × 3T/2 – 3π/4)
x = A sin(3π – 3π/4) ⇒ x = A/√2
Velocity direction: dx/dt = Aω cos(ωt + ϕ) → positive → moving away from origin
 Final Answer: Option (2)

16)

Question Explanation:

A particle starts SHM from mean position; find time to complete 5/8 of an oscillation.

Concept:

Distance in one complete oscillation = 4A ; time is proportional to distance traveled in SHM.

Solution :

distance in one oscillation = 4A

so distance travelled in oscillation is

so total time =
Final answer : Option (4)

17)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks for the formula of the time period of a simple
pendulum that is suspended inside a vehicle moving without friction down an inclined plane
with an angle of inclination . It wants to know how the pendulum's oscillation period is
affected by the vehicle's motion on the incline.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves understanding the effect of acceleration on a
pendulum in a non-inertial frame. When the vehicle moves down the inclined plane without
friction, there is an effective gravitational acceleration experienced by the pendulum due to
the combination of real gravity and pseudo force arising from acceleration. The effective
acceleration modifies the restoring force and thus changes the pendulum's period.

Relevant Formulas: The period of a simple pendulum is given by:

where: - is the length of the pendulum, - is the effective gravitational acceleration in the
frame of the moving vehicle, which is in this problem.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Decompose gravity into components relative to the inclined

plane: along the plane and perpendicular to it. 2. Since the vehicle
accelerates down the plane with acceleration , the pseudo force cancels the
component of gravity along the incline. 3. The only remaining effective acceleration that
influences the pendulum is . 4. Substitute into the pendulum period

formula: 5. This matches the first given option in the question.

Tips and Tricks: When a system is accelerating, the effective gravity changes. Remember
that for acceleration along an incline, the component perpendicular to incline often determines
oscillatory behavior for pendulums within that frame.

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to ignore the pseudo force effect and consider the
full in the formula, leading to the incorrect period . Another is confusing which
component of gravity affects the pendulum.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options involving or incorrectly use the
parallel component of gravity or its ratio, which does not represent the restoring force in the
vehicle's frame. The pure option ignores the vehicle's acceleration effect.

18) Velocity of system after collision v1 = = let amplitude of SHM be a then Ka2

= (2m) ⇒a=v

19) Question Explanation: Finding the time period of oscillation for a block touching two
springs.
Concept: Time period of a spring-mass system with non-continuous force.
Solution:
Block is not connected to either of the springs. So, during half oscillation, block is in contact
with spring of spring constant k and during the other half it is in contact with spring of spring
constant 4k.
Calculation:

T=
Final Answer
 The correct option is (3)

20) k = = or λ = 50 cm

21) Question Explanation :

The displacement equation of a particle in a medium is given. find the speed of the wave.

Concept:
This question is based on Wave Speed.

Formula :

Calculation :

Hence,
Option (2) is correct

Difficulty level : Easy

22) Question Explanation: Analyzing particle motion in a wave.

Concept: Transverse Wave Properties.

Solution:

A. Direction of Wave: We are given that point A is moving upward. For this to happen, the
wave shape must be moving to the left. If it were moving right, point A would be moving
downward. So, statement (1) is correct.
B. Amplitude: In a simple harmonic wave, every particle of the medium oscillates with the same
amplitude (maximum displacement). So, statement (2) is correct.
C. Velocity of C: Since the wave is travelling to the left, we can determine the motion of point C.
The part of the wave to the right of C is lower. As the wave moves left, point C must move
downward to match the approaching shape. So, statement (3) is correct.

Since all three statements are correct, the final answer is "All the above".

Final Answer:(4)

23) Explanation :
The question asks about the propagation of tranverse waves, which involve particle motion
perpendicular to wave direction and whether they can travel in solids and gases.

Concept :
Propogation of transverse wave.
 Explanation :

A. Transvers methmetical required shear strees for propagation, which is possible in solids due to
their rigidity.
B. Gases cannot sustain shear stress, so transverse mechanical waves cannot travel in gases.
C. But electromagnetic waves which are transverse in nature can propegate in both the medium.
D. Therefore we can say transverse wave can propagate in both solids and gases.

So option (2) is correct.

24)

(Vp)max = 2V

k = 2πc

25) Concept:
A function qualifies as a traveling wave if it depends on (x ± vt) and remains finite and well-
defined for all x and t.

Formula:
A function represents a traveling wave if: y = f(x ± vt), where y is finite for all x, t.
Calculation:
Checking each option for wave form and validity:

A. Option 1: (x – vt)2
A. As x → ∞, (x – vt)2 → ∞
B. This function does not remain finite.
B. Option 2: ln(x + vt)
A. Depends on x + vt, but is undefined when x + vt = 0, making it not a valid wave.
C. Option 3:
A. Depends on x – vt, but as x → ∞, (x – vt)2 → ∞, causing the exponent to approach zero.
B. This function remains finite for all x, t, making it a valid traveling wave.

D. Option 4:
A. Becomes infinite when x + vt = 0, making it invalid.

Final Answer:(3)
Correct option:→

26)
f1 = = 450 – 375 = 75

λ= × = = 2m
–3
m = µ × 2 = 8 × 10 kg

27)

Explain question
We are given initial wave speed and tension. We must find how much the tension should
increase (in percent) to raise wave speed by 20%
Concept :-
wave speed on a string depends on square root of tension divided by mass per unit length
Formula :-

Calculation :-
New speed u2 –1.2 × 150 = 180 m/s

⇒ =

squaring : T2 =

Increase =
answer option 1 (44%)

28)

Question Asking About:

The question asks for the ratio of the velocity of sound in hydrogen (H2) and oxygen(O2) at the
same temperature. The speed of sound in a gas depends on molecular mass.

Key Concept:
Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportion to the square root of its molar mass at
constant temperature.

Formula

Since γ, R and T are constant,

where M is the molar mass of gas.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
For H2, M1 = 2, and for O2 M2 = 32

=4

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

29) Question Explanation :

We need to determine the speed of sound in a gaseous mixture of 1 mole of Helium and 1 mole
of Hydrogen at 127ºC, using the concept of the speed of sound in gases.

Concept :
This question is based on Speed of Sound in a Gaseous Mixture.

Formula Used :
Speed of sound in a gas:

v=
Where, symbols have their usual meaning.

Molar mass of the mixture:

M=
For a mixture, the adiabatic index is given by:

γmix =
where Cp and Cv are specific heat capacities.

Calculation :
Given Data:
Temperature T = 127ºC = (127 + 273) K = 400K
Molar masses:
Helium (He) = 4g / mol
Hydrogen (H2) = 2g / mol
Number of moles: 1 mole He and 1 mole H2
Step 1: Calculate Molar Mass of the Mixture

Step 2: Calculate γmix

For Helium (monoatomic gas):

Cp = , Cv = , γ=
For Hydrogen (diatomic gas):

Cp =

Using the formula:

 =

Step 3: Calculate Speed of Sound

Using the formula:

v=
Substituting values:

v=

=
v ≈ 1290 m / s

Final Answer:(1)

30) Question Explanation

Two vibrating tuning fork's produce progressive wave given by y1 = 4 sin (500λt) and y2 =
2sin/(506λt) . If the tuning fork's held near the car of a person, than find beds and Intensity
ratio between maxima and mininea

Concept :
Beats and Intensity of wave

Formula :
fbeats = |f2 –f1|
I ∝ A2
Solution
• for F1
• w1 = 500π
2 π f1 = 500π ∵ w = 2π f
f1 = 250
• for f2
• w2 = 506 π
2 π f2 = 506 π
f2 = 253
fbeat = |f2 – f1|
= (253–250)
fbeat = 3

Amax = 4 + 2 = 6 Amax = |A1 + A2|

 Amin = 4 –2 = 2 Amin = (A1 – A2)

• 3 beats with intensity ratio between maxima and minina equal to 9

Final Answer:(2)

Level : Medium

31)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

A source of unknown frequency (f) produces 4 beats/s with a 250 Hz source, its second
harmonic gives 5 beats/s with a 513 Hz source. The unknown frequency is determined.

Concept:

A. Beat frequency is the absolute difference between two frequencies. The second harmonic is
twice the fundamental frequency. Solve using beat frequency equations.

Formula:
fbeat = |funknown - fknowns|
Second harminic = 2 funknown

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

A. Given:

|f - 250| = 4
|2f - 513| = 5

A. Solving first equation:

f = 250 ± 4
Possible values: f = 254 Hz or f = 246 Hz

A. Solving second equation

2f = 513 ± 5
Possible value 2f = 518 ⇒ f = 259 Hz or 2f = 508 ⇒ f = 254 Hz

A. Common value f = 254 Hz

Final Answer: (2)

32)

n + 55 b = 3 n
n=
n = 110 Hz

33) Question Explanation: We have to calculate phase difference between the two waves
Concept: Interference of Waves

Solution: The resultant intensity (IR​) from the interference of two waves is given by the

formula:
Here, I1​=I, I2​=9I, and the resultant intensity IR​=7I.
Let's plug these values into the formula:

Now, solve for cosϕ: −3I=6Icosϕ

The angle ϕ for which cosϕ=−1/2 is 120°.

Final Answer:(4)

34)

nA = n + 2% n

nA = n +
nB = n – 3% n = 0.97 n
1.02 n – 0.97 n = 6

0.05 n = 6 ⇒ n =
nA = 1.02 n = 1.02 × 120 = 122.4

35)
2HM = 1 OT = 1 Loop

36)

37)

38) Question Explanation: Find a fork's frequency using a sonometer.

Concept: Sonometer & Beat Frequency

Solution: Let the frequency of the tuning fork be 'f'. The frequency of a sonometer wire (fwire​)
is inversely proportional to its length (L), so fwire​⋅L is constant. The shorter wire (20 cm) has a
higher frequency, f1​, and the longer wire (21 cm) has a lower frequency, f2​. Since the beat
frequency (5 Hz) is the same in both cases, the fork's frequency 'f' must lie between the two
wire frequencies.

Therefore, f1​=f+5 and f2​=f−5.

Using the relation f1​L1​=f2​L2​:
(f+5)×20=(f−5)×21
20f+100=21f−105
205=f
=> f = 205 Hz

Final Answer:(3)

39) Speed of sound is given by :

and

or

40) Question Explanation : The problem asks which type of wave does not carry energy,
However stationary (Standing) waves result from interference, where energy is confined to the
medium and not transported
Concept :
This question is based on Energy carrying waves.

Solution and Explanation : Progressive, transvers, and electromagnetic waves carry energy,
However, stationary (Standing) waves result from interference, where energy is confined to
the medium and not transported.
Formula :
Energy carried by a wave : E ∝ A2
In standing waves, nodes have zero amplitude, leading to no net energy transfer.

Calculation : Standing waves from due to interference of two waves traveling in opposite
directions. Since energy oscillates between kinetic and potential forms without net transport,
they do not carry energy. Thus, the correct answer is stationary waves, energy is confined
between the nodes.

Final Answer:(1)
41) Given, 3

Now, n =m

or = = = or
Thus, n = 9 and m = 6.

42) Question Explaination: Finding frequency from resonance.

Concept: Resonance in a Closed Pipe

Solution: In a resonance tube, a maximum sound intensity (resonance) corresponds to a node

in the standing wave pattern, and a minimum intensity corresponds to an antinode. The
distance between a consecutive node and antinode is one-quarter of the wavelength (λ/4).

The problem states that moving the piston by 8.75 cm causes the sound to go from a maximum

to a minimum. Therefore,

This gives the wavelength λ=4×8.75=35 cm, which is equal to 0.35 m.

Now, we can find the frequency (n) using the wave speed formula v=nλ:

Final Answer: (2)

43) Question Explanation: Identify points in the same phase.

Concept: Phase of a Wave

Solution: Two points on a wave are in the same phase if they have the same displacement
from the equilibrium position and are moving in the same direction. Essentially, they're at
identical points in their respective [Link], points that are separated by a full
wavelength (λ) are in the same phase. In the diagram, both B and F are troughs (lowest points
of the wave) and are separated by exactly one wavelength. Therefore, they're in the same
phase.

Final Answer:(4)

44) N – A =

So,
 ∴

45) =

CHEMISTRY

46) (i) Cu + 2H+ → Cu2+ + H2

= 0 – 0.34

(ii) Zn + 2H+ → Zn2+, H2

(iii) 2Ag + 2H+ → 2Ag+ + H2

For spontaneous reaction, emf of cell must be positive.

47)

Explanation: Identify the strongest reducing agent from the given standard electrode
potentials.

Given Data:

A. Zn²⁺/Zn = -0.762 V
B. Cr³⁺/Cr = -0.740 V
C. 2H⁺/H₂ = 0.00 V
D. Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺ = 0.770 V

Concept:

A. Standard Reduction Potential (E°): A measure of the tendency of a chemical species to be

reduced. A more negative E° indicates a stronger reducing agent.
B. The species that is the strongest reducing agent is the one that is most easily oxidized. Thus,
the species that has the most negative reduction potential, when written in the reverse
direction, will be the strongest reducing agent.

The most negative reduction potential is -0.762 V, corresponding to Zn²⁺/Zn. Therefore, Zn(s)
is the strongest reducing agent.
Final Answer: Zn(s) is the strongest reducing agent.

Correct Option: 1

48)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how many Faradays of electric charge are needed to
convert 1 mole of dichromate ions (Cr₂O₇²⁻) into chromium ions (Cr³⁺). Essentially,
it involves finding the total number of electrons transferred in this reduction and relating that
to Faraday's constant.

Underlying Concept: This problem is based on the concept of redox reactions and
electrochemistry. Specifically, it involves the reduction of dichromate ions where chromium
changes its oxidation state from +6 to +3. The number of electrons gained per mole of
dichromate determines the charge needed, which is expressed in Faradays (1 Faraday = 1
mole of electrons).

Step-by-Step Calculation: The half-reaction is: Each

chromium ion gains 3 electrons as it reduces from +6 to +3. Since there are 2 chromium

atoms in one dichromate ion, the total electrons transferred are: Since 1
Faraday corresponds to the charge of 1 mole of electrons, the total charge required is 6
Faradays.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the number of electrons transferred in a redox reaction
corresponds directly to the change in oxidation states multiplied by the number of atoms
undergoing change.

Common Mistakes: A common error is to consider only 1 chromium atom instead of both in
the dichromate ion, leading to underestimating the number of electrons (and Faradays)
required.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: '3F' corresponds to electrons needed for one chromium,
not for the entire dichromate ion. '2F' and '5F' do not match the correct total electron transfer
based on the oxidation states. Only '6F' correctly accounts for both chromium atoms and their
electron gain.

49)

A: Question Explanation
Cu and Zn powders added to 1.0 M Cu²⁺ and Zn²⁺ — identify redox changes.

B: Concept
Electrochemical series (reactivity of metals)

C:SOLUTION
 Zn is more reactive than Cu:
Zn (s) + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Cu (s)
Result: Zn oxidized, Cu²⁺ reduced
Excess Zn²⁺ and Cu metal formed
D: Final Answer
More of Cu and Zn²⁺ ions (Option 1)

50)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
The question asks for the molar ratio of silver (Ag), calcium (Ca), and aluminum (Al) metals
liberated at the electrodes when 3 Faradays of electricity are passed through three electrolytic
cells connected in series.
Concept: Faraday's Laws of Electrolysis

A. Faraday's Laws of Electrolysis: The amount of substance deposited is directly proportional to

the quantity of electricity passed.
B. Series Connection: In a series connection, the same amount of electricity passes through each
cell.
C. Electrode Reactions:

Ag+ + e– → Ag
Cae+ + 2e– → Ca
Al3+ + 3e– → Al
Calculation:
1. Electrode Reactions and Moles of Electrons:
Ag+ + e– → Ag (1 mole of electrons per mole of Ag)
Cae+ + 2e– → Ca (2 moles of electrons per mole of Ca)
Al3+ + 3e– → Al (3 moles of electrons per mole of Al)
2. Moles of Metal Deposited:
Since 3 Faradays of electricity are passed, this means 3 moles of electrons are available.
Moles of Ag = 3 moles of electrons / 1 electrons per Ag = 3 moles
Moles of Ca = (3 moles of electrons / 2 electrons per mole of Ca = 3/2 moles
Moles of Al = 3 moles of electrons / 3 electrons per Al = 1 mole
3. Molar Ratio:
Ag: Ca : Al = 3 : 3/2 : 1
To get whole numbers, multiply each term by 2:
Final Answer:
The molar ratio in which the three metal ions are liberated at the electrodes is 6 : 3 : 2. Therefore,
option 3 is correct.

51)

Explain the question : Find E° for: 3OCl– + 2Cr + 3H2O → 2Cr3+ + 3Cl⁻ + 6OH⁻ using given
standard half-reactions.
Concept : This question is based on (electrode potentials and cell emf)
Solution :
Reduction half: -Cl– + H2O + 2e– → Cl– + 2OH–; E° = 0.94 V
Oxidation half; Cr → Cr3+ + 3e–; E° = -0.74 V
 E°cell = E°(cathode) − E°(anode) = 0.94 − (−0.74) = 1.68 V.
Final Answer : 2

52)

Explanation:
This is a redox reaction where magnesium (Mg) is oxidized and copper ions (Cu2+) are reduced.
Given Data:

A. Standard reduction potential of Mg: E∘Mg2+/Mg​=−2.37 V

B. Standard reduction potential of Cu: E∘Cu2+/Cu​=+0.34 V

Concept:
The standard cell potential (E∘cell​) is calculated as: E∘cell​=E∘cathode​−E∘anode​
Since oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction at the cathode, we identify:

A. Anode (oxidation): Mg → Mg2++2e− (E° = –2.37 V)

B. Cathode (reduction): Cu2++2e−→Cu (E° = +0.34 V)

Calculation:

A. E∘cell​=E∘cathode​−E∘anode​

=(0.34 V)−(−2.37 V)
=0.34+2.37 =2.71 V The emf of the cell is +2.71 V.
Answer option 3, (+2.71 V).

53)

Explanation: with the help of given standard reduction potential for two different reactions
are given and standard emf for the cell reaction is to be found.

Given Data:

A. Standard reduction potential for Zn²⁺/Zn: E° = -0.76 V

B. Standard reduction potential for Fe²⁺/Fe: E° = -0.41 V
C. Cell reaction: Fe²⁺ + Zn → Zn²⁺ + Fe

Concept:

A. Standard emf (E°cell) of a cell is calculated as: E°cell = E°cathode - E°anode

B. The half-cell with a higher reduction potential act as the cathode (where reduction occurs).
C. The half-cell with a lower reduction potential act as the anode (where oxidation occurs).

Calculation:

A. E°cell = E°(Fe²⁺/Fe) - E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = (-0.41 V) - (-0.76 V) = +0.35 V

Final Answer: The standard emf for the given cell reaction is +0.35 V.
Correct Option: 2

54)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given statements about galvanic
(Daniell) cells and their operation is correct. It involves understanding the nature of galvanic
cells, how their potential relates to their operation, and the roles of electrodes within them.

Underlying Concept: A galvanic cell (also called a voltaic cell) converts chemical energy from
a spontaneous redox reaction into electrical energy. The Daniell cell is a common example. In
galvanic cells, oxidation occurs at the anode, which is negatively charged relative to the
solution during operation. Applying an external voltage greater than the cell's potential can
reverse the reaction, causing the galvanic cell to function as an electrolytic cell.

Tips and Tricks: Associate the anode with oxidation and negative polarity in galvanic cells;
cathode with reduction and positive polarity. Know the standard cell potential of a Daniell cell
(about 1.1 V) to understand when it switches behavior under external voltage.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the anode and cathode charges; thinking oxidation happens at
the positive electrode; or misunderstanding that applying an external voltage can turn a
galvanic cell into an electrolytic cell.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: If one claims only some statements are correct, they
might overlook that all listed facts about galvanic cells and the Daniell cell's behavior under
external potential are well-established and accurate.

55)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks you to write the correct cell notation (electrochemical
cell representation) for the given redox reaction: 2Ag⁺(aq) + H₂(g) → 2H⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s).
You need to identify which of the given options properly represents the cell setup with correct
electrode and solution placement.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves understanding oxidation-reduction (redox)

reactions and how they are represented in electrochemical (galvanic) cells. The oxidation half-
reaction occurs at the anode, and the reduction half-reaction occurs at the cathode. Electrodes
and electrolytes are arranged with the anode on the left and cathode on the right, separated
 by a salt bridge. Inert electrodes like platinum (Pt) are used when the electrode itself does not
participate in the reaction but provides a surface for the reaction.

Tips and Tricks: Recall that cell notation places the anode reaction components on the left
and cathode on the right, separated by double vertical lines (salt bridge). Solid metals are
included at the electrode interface; gases and ions are positioned accordingly.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the position of anode and cathode in cell notation, or
forgetting to include Pt as the inert electrode for the hydrogen half-cell. Also omitting the salt
bridge symbol or misplacing species order.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that place silver electrode on the anode side
incorrectly represent the oxidation-reduction roles. Similarly, omitting Pt or reversing the
order of hydrogen species does not conform to standard cell notation conventions.

56) Question Explanation:

Find the products formed when an aqueous solution of NaBr is electrolyzed using inert
electrodes.

Concept:
This question is based on electrolysis of aqueous halide solutions.

Solution:
During electrolysis of NaBr(aq):
• At cathode : H2 is formed instead of Na (because water is reduced more easily than Na+).
• At anode: Br2 is liberated (Br– is oxidized).
•The solution becomes basic due to formation of NaOH.
Products: H2 (cathode), Br2 (anode), NaOH(solution).​​

Final Answer: Option (3)

57)

Explain Question: We need to find the KCl solution that has the lowest value of equivalent
conductance.

Concept :
Solution: Equivalent conductance Λ = (κ × 1000) / C

For KCl v.f. = 1, So N = M

N↑ ⇒ λeq ↓ or M↑ ⇒ λeq ↓
Order: Λeq(1 M) < Λeq(0.1 M) < Λeq(0.01 M) < Λeq(0.001 M)
Final Answer: Option (1)

58) Explain the question : We need to find Λm if specific conductance (K) and molarity are
given.
Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
Λm = 10.61 S cm2 mol–1
Final answer : 3

59) Question Explanation: Find the equivalent conductivity (Λeq) from given resistance, cell
constant, and concentration.
Concept : This question is based on conductivity (κ) = Cell constant / Resistance, Equivalent
conductivity (Λeq) = (κ × 1000) / N
Solution:
Given:
Cell constant = 0.66 cm⁻¹
Resistance = 210 Ω
Normality (N) = 0.01 N
κ = 0.66 / 210 = 0.0031428 mho cm⁻¹
Λeq = (0.0031428 × 1000) / 0.01 = 314.28 mho cm² eq⁻¹
Final Answer: Option 1

60) If same quantity of electricity is passed then equivalent of Cu+2 = equivalent of Cu+

61) Explain the Question : Find solubility of AgBr in g L−1 using its specific conductance and
ionic conductivities.
Concept : This question is based on for a sparingly soluble salt, molar conductivity at
saturation (Λm) = (x + y).
Molarity (S) = k × 1000/Λm = k × 1000/(x + y).
Solubility in g L−1 = S × molar mass.
Solution :
S (mol L−1) = (k × 1000)/(x + y)
Solubility (g L−1) = S × 188 = (k × 1000 × 188)/(x + y)
Final answer : 3

62) Explain Question:

We need to find Ka for CH3COOH if and molarity of CH3OOH and and are
given.

Concept:

,
 Solution:

Final answer: option (3)

63) Solution :

Ion H+ K+ Cl– CH3COO–

349.8 73.5 76.3 40.9

So
= 349.8 + 40.9
= 390.7 Scm2/mole

= 73.5 + 76.3
= 149.3 Scm2/mole
So statement-I is wrong or False.
As the concentration decreases, the dilution increases which increases the degree of dissociation,
thus increasing the no. of ions, which increases the molar conductance.
So statement-II is false.
Final Answer : Option (4)

64) in (4) option reaction is endothermic and in step II activation energy is high.

65)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the correct rate equation (rate law) for a
chemical reaction involving reactants A and B, given initial concentrations and the
corresponding initial reaction rates. We need to determine how the rate depends on the
concentrations of A and B.

Underlying Concept: The core concept is the rate law in chemical kinetics, which expresses
the reaction rate as a function of the concentrations of reactants, each raised to a power
(order) that must be determined experimentally. The exponents (orders) tell us how changing
concentration affects the rate.

Relevant Formulas: Rate law assumed: where: - = reaction rate, - = rate

constant, - and = concentrations of reactants A and B, - , = reaction orders with
respect to A and B respectively (to be found).

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Using experiments 1 and 2 (keeping [B] constant at 0.1 M): -
Concentration of A increases from 0.1 M to 0.4 M (4 times increase). - Rate increases from
to M/s (2 times increase). - Setup equation: which gives .
2. Using experiments 2 and 3 (keeping [A] constant at 0.4 M): - Concentration of B increases
from 0.1 M to 0.2 M (2 times increase). - Rate increases from to M/s (4
times increase). - Setup equation: which gives .

Thus, the rate law is:

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the order with respect to each reactant corresponds to how
the rate changes with its concentration, often found by dividing rate change factor by
concentration change factor using logarithms.

Common Mistakes: Assuming reaction orders from stoichiometric coefficients directly;

ignoring which reactant concentration is held constant when comparing experiments; mixing
up the order of exponents when calculating.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: - : Suggests rate quadruples when [A]
quadruples, but data shows rate only doubles. - : This conflicts with data since
doubling [B] causes rate to quadruple (which implies second order in B). - : Would
imply rate quadruples when [A] quadruples, but data shows rate only doubles, so order in A
cannot be 1.

66)

A question explanation

Identify the correct statements about the effect of a catalyst on a chemical reaction.

B concept

A. Catalysts speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy.

B. Catalysts do not affect the thermodynamics of a reaction (ΔG, Keq).

C. Catalysts only affect the kinetics of a reaction.

D. Catalysts do not allow non-spontaneous reactions to become spontaneous.

C Analyses -

A. (A) is true: Catalysts lower activation energy.

 B. (B) is true: ΔG remains unchanged.

C. (C) is false: Catalysts do not make non-spontaneous reactions spontaneous. They only
speed up spontaneous reactions.

D. (D) is true: The equilibrium constant (Keq) is unchanged.

D final answer

A. A, B and D

67)

k=

in k = in A –
on T↑ k↑ exponentially

68)

1 × 10–3 = k[0.05]α [0.05]β ...(i)

3 × 10–3 = k[0.15]α [0.05]β ...(ii)
9 × 10–3 = k[0.05]α [0.15]β ...(iii)
From (i) and (ii), α = 1 and form (i) and (iii), β = 2
∴ rate = k [NO]2 [CI2]1

69) NCERT Pg. 81

70) Rate of
= 5 × 10–4 mol L–1 sec–1

71) Slope = ⇒ Ea = R = 2 calorie

72)

Explain the question : The graph shows how molar conductivity (Λm) varies with √C for NaCl,
HCl, and NH4OH. The curve shapes reveal which are strong or weak electrolytes.
Concept : This question is based on (molar conductivity vs concentration for strong and weak
electrolytes)
Solution :

​• Strong electrolytes (HCl, NaCl) show a linear decrease in Λm with √C.

• Weak electrolyte (NH4OH) shows a sharp increase at low concentration due to ionization.
• HCl, a strong acid, and have H+ ion has the highest Λm → curve I.
• NaCl, a strong electrolyte, but lower Λm → curve II.
• NH4OH, weak base → curve III.
Final Answer : 2

73)
2k = k' = 4k"

74) Explain the question : Identify the species produced in one step and consumed in a
subsequent step (reaction intermediate).
Concept : This question is based on reaction intermediates.
Solution : Main (overall reaction) : 2NO + 2H2 → N2 + 2H2O.
Step-I forms N2O2 (2NO → N2O2).
Step-II consumes N2O2 to give N2O (N2O2 + H2 → N2O + H2O).
Step-III consumes N2O (N2O + H2 → N2 + H2).
Therefore N2O2 (and N2O) are intermediates; among the options only N2O2 appears.
Final answer : 4

75)

From slow step

KC[P2] = [P]2

[P] =
r = KKC1/2[P2]1/2[Q2]1
r = K(P2)1/2(Q2)1

Order =
76)

Explain Question : Write the rate law for reaction 2A + B → C when overall order is zero.
Concept : This question is based on zero-order rate law.
Solution :
Zero-order means rate is independent of concentrations and sum of powers of reactants
concentration should be 0, so among the following options correct rate law is → rate =
k[A]⁰[B]⁰.
Final answer : 4

77)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to evaluate the truthfulness of two statements
related to chemical reactions: Statement-1 defines molecularity, and Statement-2 discusses the
applicability of reaction order to elementary and complex reactions. We have to determine
which of the given options correctly identifies the truth or falsity of these statements.

Underlying Concept: The core concepts involved are molecularity and order of a chemical
reaction. Molecularity refers to the number of reacting species that collide simultaneously in
an elementary step to cause a reaction. Order of a reaction is an empirical parameter that
describes how the rate of reaction depends on the concentration of reactants and applies to
both elementary and complex reactions, derived from experimental rate laws.

Tips and Tricks: To distinguish between molecularity and order, recall that molecularity is
always an integer and refers strictly to elementary steps, while order can be fractional and is
based on experimental data covering all steps.

Common Mistakes: A common error is to assume that order is only meaningful for
elementary reactions; however, orders are determined experimentally and apply broadly.
Similarly, confusing molecularity with overall reaction order leads to misunderstanding.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options declaring both statements true or both false
overlook that order does apply to complex reactions. If statement-2 incorrectly asserts order
applies only to elementary reactions, it is false even though statement-1 is correct.

78)

Explain Question:
To identify That A and R is correct or not.

Concept:
Molecularity

Solution:
⇒ In complex reaction. The RDS 8is slowest step and it controls overall reaction.
⇒ Molecularity refers to No. of molecules involved in an elementary step.
⇒ A step with lowest molecularity is not always RDS.
Final answer: Option (3)

79)

Explain Question : Determine the possible values of molecularity of a reaction.

Concept : This question is based on molecularity of a reaction.
Solution :
Molecularity is the number of reactant molecules taking part in an elementary reaction.
It must be a whole positive number: 1 (unimolecular), 2 (bimolecular), 3 (termolecular), etc.
It cannot be zero, fractional, or negative.
Final answer : 3

80) For an elementary reaction molecularity is sum of stoichiometry coefficient of reactant.

So molecularity of given reaction is 3.

81)

82) Question Explanation

We must choose why reactions of order >3 are uncommon.

Concept
this question is based on molecularity & collision probability

Solution
For higher-order reactions, many molecules must collide at the same instant with proper
orientation and energy. Such multi-body simultaneous collisions are extremely improbable.
Final Answer
Option 1

83) 1

84)
 Explain Question: The question asks which of the four provided diagrams represents the
state of the reaction 3 minutes.

Concept: Half life method of first order reactions.

Solution:
Given Data:
• First-order reaction: A → B
• Diagram at t = 0 min, 8 A, 0B molecules
• Diagram at t = 1 min: 4 A, 4B molecules

Now we can conclude that 1min is half life.

So, no. of Molecules at 3 min:

After 3min. 1A, 7B molecules remaining.

Final Answer: Option (3)

85)

86)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the correct signs for the cell potential
(E₍cell₎) and Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) for the given metal concentration cell.

Concept: In a concentration cell, the standard cell potential (E°₍cell₎) is zero, and the actual
potential depends on the concentration gradient; for a spontaneous reaction, E₍cell₎ must be
positive and ΔG must be negative.

Solution:

Parameter Calculation / Reason Result

Standard Potential For identical electrodes in a concentration cell, E°₍cell₎ = 0. E°(cell) = 0
Cell Reaction Net: M+ (cathode, 1M) → M⁺ (anode, 0.05M) Spontaneous flow
E(cell) = 0 − (0.059/1) log (0.05/1) = −0.059 × log (5 ×
Cell Potential (E(cell) E(cell) > 0
10⁻²)
Based on the relation ΔG = −nFE(cell), if E(cell) is positive,
Free Energy (ΔG) ΔG < 0
ΔG is negative.

Final answer: The correct option is 1 (E(cell) > 0, ΔG < 0).

0
87) Explain the Question : Negative E shows the tendency of a species to lose electrons
easily compared to
H+/H2.
 0
Concept : This question is based on If E < 0 → stronger reducing agent than H+/H2.
0
If E > 0 → stronger oxidising agent than H+/H2.
Solution :
0
Since E is negative, the species donates electrons more easily than hydrogen and acts as a
strong reducing
agent.
Final answer : 1

88) Efficiency of cell =

89)

90) Explain Question:

Find the correct rate relation for the reaction 3A + 2B → C

Concept:
This question is based on stoichiometric ratio and of disappearance/formation.

Solution:
Reaction: 3A + 2B → C

Rate relation:

So, rate disappearance of A in terms of B:

Rate of disappearance of A 3/2 times rate of disappearance of B.

Final answer: Option (3)

BOTANY

91) NCERT (XII) (E) Pg. # 38,39, (H) Pg. # 41

92)

NCERT - Pg. # 37

93)
 NCERT XIIth Pg.#38

94)

Question Explanation: Identifying the labeled parts A, B, C, and D in the diagram of a grass
embryo.

Concept: Monocot Embryo

Solution: Scutellum,(B) Coleoptile,(C) Epiblast and (D) Coleorhiza

Final answer: 4

95)

The correct answer is:

Inner integument
Explanation:
The seed coat in a seed typically has two layers:

A. Testa: Derived from the outer integument.

B. Tegmen: Derived from the inner integument.

Final Answer:
Inner integument

96)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the group of plants in which the nucellus
persists in the seed as perisperm.

Concept : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Seed structure – Perisperm

Solution : In some seeds the nucellus is not completely consumed during development and
remains as perisperm. Typical examples of plants having persistent nucellus (perisperm) are
black pepper and beet.

Final answer : Option (1)

97) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 18

98)

Explain Question : The question asks to the final product of sexual reproduction.

Concept : This question is based on Seed - Structure.

Solution : The ultimate product of sexual reproduction in flowering plants, resulting from the
maturation of the ovule and the ovary, is the dispersal unit, the seed (enclosed in the fruit).
 Final Answer : Option (3) Seed

99) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 35(E)

100) NCERT XII Pg 34(E), 35-37(H)

101)

Explain Question : The question asks to Evaluate the assertion and reason about double
fertilization in angiosperms.

Concept : Double Fertilization.

Solution :

A. Assertion: During sexual reproduction in flowering plants, double fertilization occurs in

an embryo sac.
(True)

B. Reason: Double fertilization involves two types of fusion, syngamy and triple fusion, in the
embryo sac.
C. (True)

A. The two specific fusions (syngamy and triple fusion) define and explain why the event is called
double fertilization.

Final Answer : option (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation
of the Assertion

102)

NCERT-XII, Page No. 33

103) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29

104)

Question Explanation: Identifying the labeled anther wall layers in the transverse section
diagram.
Concept: Anther Wall Layers
Solution: The diagram shows the concentric layers from outside (A) inwards (E):
A → Epidermis (outermost protective layer).
B → Endothecium (fibrous layer, aids dehiscence).
C → Middle layer (ephemeral layers).
D → Tapetum (innermost nutritive layer).
E → Microspore mother cells (central sporogenous tissue).
F → Connective (central sterile tissue).
Final Answer: option (2)
105)

Question Explanation: The question asks to calculate total pollen grains from a flower with
specified stamens and mother cells.
Concept: Microsporogenesis Calculation
Solution: A tetramerous flower with six stamens is considered. A typical stamen has four
microsporangia (pollen sacs).
Total microsporangia in the flower = 6 stamens×4 microsporangia/stamen = 24.
Each pollen mother cell (PMC) undergoes one meiotic division to produce four pollen grains.
Pollen grains produced per microsporangium = 30 PMCs × 4 pollen/PMC = 120.
Total pollen grains produced by the flower = 24 microsporangia × 120
pollen/microsporangium = 2880.
Final Answer : Option (4)

106) NCERT XII, Page # 5

107) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Ploidy of :
(i) nucellus = 2n
(ii) megaspore mother cell = 2n
(iii) functional megaspore = n
(iv) embryo sac = n
Final Answer : (3)

108) NCERT XII, Page # 26

109) Question Explanation :

Match ovule structures in Column I with their correct descriptions in Column II.

Concept :
Structure of ovule.

Solution :
Food storage tissue in seed → nucellus.
Place where integument is absent → micropyle.
Remaining part of nucellus in seed → perisperm.
Junction between ovule and funicle → hilum.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

110)

NCERT XI, Pg # 240

111)
 NCERT XI, English Page No. # 241 (middle para)

112)

NCERT (XIth) (E) Pg. # 241 and 242

(Topic = Phases of growth)

113) Solution: Genetic factor is internal factor, present inside the cell.
Final Answer : (3)

114) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 244

115) NCERT Pg # 243, 244

116) NCERT XI Page # 243, Figure 15.6

117)

Explain Question : The question shows a linear growth curve (straight line) for plant height
over time and asks which statements are not correct about the growth type shown.

Concept : Arithmetic growth:

A. Only one daughter cell produced by a meristematic cell continues to divide, the other
differentiates.
B. Growth is linear → height increase by the same amount per unit time.
C. Equation: Lt=L0+rt (linear equation, not exponential).

Geometric (Exponential) growth:

A. Both daughter cells continue dividing.

B. Growth curve is sigmoid (S-shaped) in whole organisms, but exponential in the early phase.
C. Equation: W1=W0ert

Solution :
It is a straight line, so it's arithmetic growth.
Statement (a) → "Observed at early stage of zygotic division" → Wrong, that's geometric
growth, not arithmetic.
Statement (b) → "Only one daughter cell continues to divide..." → Correct, matches arithmetic
growth.
Statement (c) → "Represents exponential growth" → Wrong, exponential growth is curved, not
linear.
Statement (d) → "Represented by W1=W0ert → Wrong, that's the formula for exponential
growth, not arithmetic.

Final Answer : option (3) a, c and d only

118)

The hormone that promotes female flowers in cucumber is Ethylene.

119)

Explain question : The question asks about matching plant hormones with their correct
physiological roes and finding how many matches are incorrect
Concept : This question is based on plant growth regulator
Explanation :
(A) GA - extend market period of fruits correct
(B) Ethylene - increas\e surface are of absorption - correct
(C) CK - Apical hook formation - incorrect (done by ethylene)
(D) GA - Internodal elongation in deep water rice plant - incorrect (done by ethylene)
Final answer :- 1

120)

Explain Question : Which of the following features are correctly matched with plant
hormones?
Concept : This question is based on plant growth regulators (PGRs) are hormones controlling
plant growth and development.
Explanation :
(a) Elongation of apple and shape improvement → Gibberellin
(b) Flowering in pineapple → Ethylene (not GA)
(c) Increase in sugarcane stem length → Gibberellin
(d) Bolting in beet → Gibberellin
(e) Lateral shoot growth → Cytokinin (not GA)
Correctly matched group with Gibberellin is a, c, d
Final answer : 1

121) NCERT XI Page # 249

122)

Explain Question: The question asks about the characteristic feature of the exponential (log)
phase of cell growth.

Concept: Phase of growth

Solution: (1) Incorrect — cells do not divide meiotically.

(2) Incorrect — progeny cells retain division ability.
(3) Correct — progeny cells are formed by mitosis and continue to divide.
(4) Incorrect — division ability is retained.

Final answer: 3

123) NCERT XI English page # 248 (Last para) 249 (Fig. 15.11)
 124) NCERT XI Eng. Page no. # 250 (Ist para)

125)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 246

126) NCERT XI Pg. # 178

127) NCERT-XI Page 243 (last paragraph)

128) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 230

129)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 249

130) NCERT Pg. # 23,24

131) NCERT - XII, Pg. # 27, 28

132) NCERT XII Pg. # 9

133) Allen Study Package

134) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 36

135) NCERT (XII) (E) Pg. # 23, (H) Pg.#24 figure 2.5(a)

ZOOLOGY

136)

Question Explanation: Identifying incorrect match for cockroach parts.

Concept: Cockroach anatomy
Solution: Hepatic caecae are located at the junction of the foregut and midgut, not the midgut
and hindgut. The other options correctly describe the functions of the crop, gizzard, and the
number of Malpighian tubules.
Final Answer: Hepatic caeca - at junction of midgut and hindgut

137) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 112, 114

138) 3

139) NCERT Pg.3112 (E), 113 (H)

140)

Question Explanation: Identifying parts of cockroach alimentary canal.

Concept: Digestive system of cockroach
Solution: A is the salivary gland, which secretes saliva. B is the crop, which stores food. C is
the Malpighian tubules, which are for excretion. D is the colon, which is part of the hindgut.
Final Answer: A-Salivary gland ; B-Crop ; C-Malpighian tubules ; D-Colon

141) NCERT Pg. # 113

142) NCERT XIth Pg. No. # 112, Fig.7.15 (b)

143)

Ncert Page 113.

144) With the help of ommatidia, a cockroach can receive several images of an object. The
image received by them is compound and made up of large number of separate images which
is contributed by single ommatidium. Thus, the image seen by the whole eye is made up of
many

145)

NCERT-XII Page No. 117

146) Testes : Pair of testes in frog are elongated or avoid, light yellow body attached to upper
part of kidney.
Adrenal gland : Found on kidneys.
Bidder canal : Longitudinal canal present at inner margin of kidney.
Vasa efferentia : 10-12 fine tubes connecting testes to kidney on each sides.

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg.#116

148) Page No. 80

149) NCERT Pg # 81
 150) Module, Pg. # 234

151) NEW NCERT Biology XI Page no. 80 Para 7.2 Line 1

152) Ref. NCERT-XI, Page # 80

Body of frog is divisible on to (X)–Head & (Z)–trunk.

153)

NCERT XI Pg # 80

154) NCERT–I Pg. # 59

155) NCERT Pg. # 58

156) NCERT Pg. # 57,58

157) NCERT Pg. # 56-57

158)

NCERT Pg. # 57, 58, 59

fig.4.20(a), 4.21(b), 4.23(b), 4.22(b)

159) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 55

160) NCERT XIth Pg # 57, 58, 59, 60 (E) (AD - 42)

161)

NCERT XI Page No. 56

162) NCERT (XI) Page No. # 57

163)

Pg. No. 55 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

164)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 58

165) NCERT XII, Page no. # 56, 57, 58, 59

166)

Pg. No. 58, 59 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

167) NCERT Pg. # 56 & 57

168)

Question Explanation: Evaluate Assertion and Reason on mammals.

Concept: Mammalian defining characteristics.

Solution: The Assertion is correct; mammary glands and hair are unique features of all
mammals.
The Reason is also correct; most mammals exhibit viviparity (giving birth to live young).
However, the presence of mammary glands and hair is not explained by viviparity.
They are independent characteristic features. Thus, both are correct, but the Reason is not the
correct explanation.

Final Answer
: Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

169)

NCERT Reference:
Zoology-XI Page No.-55, 57, 56, 59

170)

NCERT Reference:
Zoology-XI Page No.-55, 56, 57

171)

NCERT Reference:
Zoology-XI Page No.-55

172) NCERT Pg.#59,60

173) Pg. No. 57 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

174) Question Explanation: Identifying poisonous snakes.

Concept: Reptile Classification
Solution: Cobra (Naja naja), Bungarus (krait), and Viper (Vipera) are all well-known examples
of poisonous snakes. They possess specialized fangs to inject venom. Alligators and Chelone
(turtles) are non-venomous reptiles, while python is a non-venomous snake.
Final Answer: Cobra, Bungarus, Viper

175)

NCERT XI, Pg # 58 to 59

176)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 55

177) NCERT Pg. # 61

178) Dog fish (Scolidon)

Electric fish (Torpedo)
Flying fish (Exocoetus)

179) Solution
Head holds a bit of nervous system while the rest is
situated along the ventral part of its body

180) 20 and 20