13-10-2025

2001CMD303021250011 MD

PHYSICS

1) A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark
fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is :-

(1) 1.2 cm
(2) 1.2 mm
(3) 2.4 cm
(4) 2.4 mm

2) In a YDSE apparatus, d = 2 mm, λ = 600 nm, D = 1m. The slits individually produce same
intensity on the screen. Find the position of point from CBF where intensity is 3/4 times of the
maximum intensity on screen :-

(1) 0.01 mm
(2) 13 × 10–4 mm
(3) 0.05 mm
(4) 1.5 × 10–4 mm

3) In a Young's double slit experiment, slits are separated by 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed 150
cm away. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, is used to obtain
interference fringes on the screen. The least distance from the common central maximum to the
point where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide is:-

(1) 15.6 mm
(2) 1.56 mm
(3) 7.8 mm
(4) 9.75 mm

4) In the ideal double-slit experiment, when a glass-plate (refractive index 1.5) of thickness t is
introduced in the path of one of the interfering beams (wavelength λ), the intensity at the position
where the central maximum occurred previously remains unchanged. The minimum thickness of the
glass-plate is :-

(1) 2λ

(2)

(3)

(4) λ

5) In a Young's double slit experiment λ = 500 nm, d = 1.0 mm and D = 1.0 m. Find the minimum
distance from the central maximum for which the intensity is half of the maximum intensity :-
(1) 5 m
(2) 7 m
(3) 2.5 m
(4) 1.25 × 10–4 m

6) In Young's double slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path

difference is λ is I . The intensity of light at a point where the path difference becomes
0
is:-

(1) I0

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) If two line slits are illuminated by a wavelength 5 x 10-7 m and the distance between two bright
fringes is 0.005 m on a screen 1 m away, then the distance between the slits is:-

(1) 10 cm
(2) 1 cm
(3) 10–1 cm
(4) 10–2 cm

8) When a polaroid sheet is rotated between two crossed polaroids then the transmitted light
intensity will be maximum for a rotation of :

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 45°

9) The light of wavelength 6328 Å is incident on a slit of width 0.2 mm perpendicularly, the angular
width of central maxima will be.

(1) 0.36°
(2) 0.18°
(3) 0.72°
(4) 0.09°

10) What will be the angle of diffracting for the first minimum due to Fraunh offer diffraction with
sources of light of wave length 550 nm and slit of width 0.55 mm.

(1) 0.001 rad

(2) 0.01 rad
(3) 1 rad
(4) 0.01 rad

11) Two ideal slits S1 and S2 are at a distance d apart, and illuminated by light of wavelength λ
passing through an ideal source slit S placed on the line through S2 as shown. The distance between
the planes of slits and the source slit is D. A screen is held at a distance D from the plane of the slits.

The minimum value of d for which there is darkness at O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) In young’s double slit experiment, the distance between the slits varies with time as
where d0 and ‘w’ are positive constants. The difference between the largest
and the smallest fringe width obtained over time is ______
(D = distance between slits and screen & wavelength of light used)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A light source, which emits two wavelengths λ1 = 400 nm and λ2 = 600 nm, is used in a Young's
double slit experiment. If recorded fringe widths for λ1 and λ2 are β1 and β2 and the number of
fringes for them within a distance y on one side of the central maximum are m1 and m2, respectively,
then incorrect option is :-

(1) β2 > β1
(2) m1 < m2
(3) From the central maximum, 3 maximum of λ2 overlaps with 5 minimum of λ1
rd th

(4) The angular separation of fringes of λ2 is greater than λ1

14) In YDSE, intensity of light passes through both slit is equal. A 100% transparent thin film is
placed infront of one of the slits. Now the intensity on the centre becomes 25% of the previous
intensity. The wavelength of light is 4000 Å and refractive index 1.5. The minimum thickness of the
glass slab is :-
(1) 1.23 × 10–7 m
(2) 2.67 × 10–7 m
(3) 4 × 10–7 m
(4) None of these

15) An unpolarised light of intensity I0 is passed through a system of three polariser. Such that the
1st and 3rd polariser are crossed with each other and the transmission axis of middle polariser makes
an angle of 30º with the transmission axis of 1st polariser then?

Percentage of intensity
(a) of light passed through (i) 50%
3rd polariser.

Percentage of intensity
(b) of light blocked by 1st (ii) 12.5%
polariser.

Percentage of light
(c) passed through 2nd (iii) 9.375%
polariser.

Percentage of light
(d) blocked by 2nd (iv) 37.5%
polariser.
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

16) In the far field diffraction pattern of a single slit under polychromatic illumination, the first
minimum with the wavelength λ1 is found to be coincident with the third maximum at λ2. So

(1) 3λ1 = 0.3λ2

(2) 3λ1 = λ2
(3) λ1 = 3.5λ2
(4) 0.3λ1 = 3λ2

17) The angle of incidence of light is equal to Brewster's angle.

Consider the following statements :-
(a) reflected ray is perpendicular to refracted ray
(b) refracted ray is parallel to reflected ray
(c) reflected light is polarized having its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence
(d) refracted light is polarized
Select the correct options :-

(1) (a) and (d) are true

(2) (a) and (b) are true
(3) (a) and (c) are true
(4) (b) and (c) are true
18) In telescope, if the powers of an objective and eye lens are + 1.25 D and + 20 D respectively,
then for relaxed vision, the length of tube and magnification will be :-

(1) 85 cm and 25
(2) 85 cm and 16
(3) 21.25 cm and 16
(4) 21.25 cm and 25

19) Thin lens of refractive index µ0 has focal length f0 in air. What is it focal length when immersed in
a liquid of refractive index µ.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) An equiconvex lens of glass (µg = 1.5) of focal length 10cm is silvered on one side. It will behave
like a :-

(1) concave mirror of focal length 10 cm

(2) convex mirror of focal length 5.0 cm
(3) concave mirror of focal length 2.5 cm
(4) convex mirror of focal length 20 cm

21) Which of the following image formation is not possible in convex lens ?

(1) Real object → Real image

(2) Real object → Virtual image
(3) Virtual object → Real image
(4) Virtual object → Virtual image

22) A light ray is incident perpendicular to one face of a 90° prism and is totally internally reflected
at the glass-air interface. If the angle of reflection is 45°, we conclude that the refractive index n:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Find the focal length of lens ?

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm

(3)

(4) None of these

24) If a lens of power (P) & focal length (ℓ) is cut to halves as shown in figure then find the power &

focal length of both pieces :

(1) P, F

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Assertion :- In modern microscope multicomponent lenses are used for both objective and eye
piece. Reason :- Multicomponent lenses increase the magnification.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

26) A microscope has an objective of focal length 1.5 cm and eye piece of focal length 2.5 cm. If the
distance between objective and eyepiece is 25 cm. What is the approximate value of magnification
produced for relaxed eye ?

(1) 75
(2) 110
(3) 140
(4) 25

27) Magnification produced by astronomical telescope for normal adjustment is 10 and length of
telescope is 1.1 m. The magnification when the image is formed at least distance of distinct vision (D
= 25 cm) is -

(1) 14
(2) 6
(3) 16
(4) 18

28) In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment a straight black line of length L is drawn on
inside part of objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The length of this image is
l. The magnification of the telescope is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Figure shows graph of deviation δ versus angle of incidence for a light ray striking a prism.

Angle of prism is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

30) In the displacement method , a convex lens is placed in between an object and a screen. If
one of the magnification is 3 and the displacement of the lens between the two positions is 24
cm, then the focal length of the lens is :-

(1) 10 cm
(2) 9 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 16/3 cm

31) The position of final image formed by the given lens combination from the third lens will be at a
distance of, f1 = +10 cm, f2 = –10 cm, f3 = +30 cm.

(1) 15 cm
(2) infinity
(3) 45 cm
(4) 30 cm

32) An object is placed 10 mm away from objective of a compound microscope . The lenses are 30
cm apart and intermediate image is formed 50 mm from the eyepiece. Overall magnifying power is :

(1) 125X
(2) 12.5X
(3) 14X
(4) 1.4X

33) In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is

(1) Virtual, erect and magnified

(2) Real, erect and magnified
(3) Real, inverted and magnified
(4) Virtual, erect and reduced

34) A light ray is incident on a prism in minimum deviation position and suffers a deviation of 40°, If
the shaded half of the prism is removed off, then the same ray will suffer a deviation of :-

(1) 20°
(2) 40°
(3) 80°
(4) 0°

35) The light ray is incidence at angle of 60° on a prism of angle 45°. When the light ray falls on the
other surface at 90°, the refractive index of the material of prism µ and the angle of deviation δ are
given by :-

(1) µ = , δ = 30°
(2) µ = 1.5, δ = 15°
(3)
µ= , δ = 30°

(4)
µ= , δ = 15°

36) A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm on
the other side of the lens. At what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10
cm be placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it :-

(1) 12 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 60 cm

37) The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in figure is :

(1) v0

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) In an AC circuit :

I = 5 sin
and V = 200 sin 100t.
The power consumed is :

(1)
(2) 1000
(3) 500
(4) Zero

39) The value of alternating emf E in the given circuit will be :

(1) 220 V
(2) 140 V
(3) 100 V
(4) 20 V

40) When 100 volt D.C. is applied across solenoid, a current of 1.0 amp flows in it. When 100 volt
A.C. is applied across the same coil, the current drops to 0.5amp. If the frequency of the A.C. source
is 50Hz, the impedance and square of inductance the solenoid are -

(1) 200ohm and 0.55 henry2

(2) 100ohm and 0.86 henry2
(3) 200ohm and 0.30 henry2
(4) 100ohm and 0.93 henry2

41) A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal
magnetic induction as shown in Fig. At the position MNQ, the speed of the ring is v. The potential

difference developed across the ring is :-

(1) Zero

(2)
BvR2 and M is at higher potential
(3) πRBv and Q is at higher potential
(4) 2RBv and Q is at higher potential

42) The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in Fig. The
variation of induced emf with time would be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) An A.C source is connected to a resistive circuit. Which of the following is true ?

(1) Current leads the voltage and both are in same phase
(2) Current lags behind the voltage and both are in same phase
(3) Current and voltage are in same phase
(4) Any of the above may be true depending upon the value of resistance

44) Shown in the figure is a circular loop of radius r and resistance R. A variable magnetic field of
induction B = B0e–t is established inside the coil. If the key (K) is closed, the electrical power

developed right after closing the switch is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Consider the situation shown in fig. The wire AB is slide on the fixed rails with a constant
velocity. If the wire AB is replaced by a semicircular wire, the magnitude of the induced current
will:-

(1) increase
(2) remain the same
(3) decrease
increase or decrease depending on whether the semicircle bulges towards the resistance or
(4)
away from it.

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following will not give Cannizzaro reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Products
Products will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

+
(4)

3)

Which of the following compound give aldol reaction?

(1) Formaldehyde
(2) Benzophenone
(3) Acetone
(4) Benzaldehyde

4)

Which of the following compound is not formed in good yield in wurtz's reactions

(1) Propane
(2) Butane
(3) Ethane
(4) Hexane

5)

Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft’s reaction easily :-

(1) Toluene
(2) Cumene
(3) Xylene
(4) Nitrobenzene

6) Which of the following group is ortho para direction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which is the correct order of rate of nitration ?

(1) A > B > C
(2) A < B < C
(3) A = B = C
(4) B > A > C

8) (I) (II)

(III)
Correct order of rate of ESR for the following compound is

(1) I > III > II

(2) I > II > III
(3) III > II > I
(4) II > III > I

9) Major product; is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

10)
Identify major product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
11) Correct order of reactivity in nucleophilic addition reaction is :

(1) iii > i > ii > iv

(2) iii > ii > i > iv
(3) ii > iv > i > iii
(4) iv > ii > iii > i

12) The order of reactivity of phenylmagnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds :

is :

(1) III > II > I

(2) II > I > III
(3) I > III > II
(4) I > II > III

13) Less reactivity of ketone is due to

(1) + I inductive effect decrease positive charge on carbonyl carbon atom

(2) due to resonance
(3) sp3 hybridised carbon atom of carbonyl carbon atom
(4) None of these

14)

Reactivity order towards Nucleophilic Addition Reaction in the following is -

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)
(1) i > ii > iii > iv
(2) iv > iii > ii > i
(3) i > ii > iv > iii
(4) ii > i > iv > iii

15) Which of the following structures contains a hemiacetal group ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) When propanoic acid react with [NaOH + CaO] it gives

(1) Methane
(2) Ethane
(3) Propane
(4) Butane

17) Major product ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

18) Correct order of rate of reaction with HBr :-

(1) R > P > Q

(2) R > Q > P
(3) P > R > S
(4) P > S > R

19) Correct match is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (2) and (3)

20)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Product
Identify the product.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)
Correct statement about the product is

(1) A and B have the same functional group

(2) A and B are Tautomers
(3) A and B show functional group isomer
(4) None of these

23) The major product obtained in the following reaction is

(1) 4-Iodo-4-methylhexane
(2) 4-Iodo-3-methylhexane
(3) 3-Iodo-3-methylhexane
(4) 3-Iodo-4-methylhexane

24)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
25)
A and B are respectively :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26)
P and Q are respectively :-

(1) CH3CH2CHO, CH3COCH3

(2) CH3COCH3, CH3CH2CHO
(3) CH3CH2CHO(both)
(4) CH3COCH3(both

27)
Among the following which can not be X, Y or Z :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28) Major product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) CH3–CH=CH2 Product

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) it involves cyclic bromonium ion formation

(2) reaction proceeds with anti addition
(3) this reaction acts as test of unsaturation
(4) All of these

30) Which of the following compound does not show bromine water test :-
(1) But-1-ene
(2) Benzene
(3) But-1-yne
(4) Pent-1-ene-4yne

31) major product of the reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32)
one of the stereoisomer which is formed as a product in the reaction given above :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) CH3 – CH = CH2 Product, which is not the possible product :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The product formed in Kolbe electrolysis of Sodium acetate is

(1) CH4
(2) C2H6
(3) C3H8
(4) C4H10

35) Select the meta directing group

(1) -NO2
(2) -CN
(3) -CCl3
(4) All of these

36) Find the major product :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

37) 2,2-Dimethyl butane A is :-

(1) 3,3-Dimethyl pentanoic acid
(2) 4,4-Dimethyl pentanoic acid
(3) 2,3,3-Trimethyl butanoic acid
(4) All of above

38) When ethyl chloride and n-propyl chloride undergoes wurtz reaction which is not obtained :-

(1) n-butane
(2) n-pentane
(3) n-Hexane
(4) 2-Methylbutane

39) ,
B is :-

(1) Butane
(2) 2,2 dimethyl butane
(3) 2,3 dimethyl butane
(4) Hexane

40) If isopropyl chloride and propyl chloride both react with Na in presence of dry ether which
alkane obtains ?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

(1) a, b only
(2) a, c, d only
(3) b, c, d only
(4) All of these

41) The reaction of HBr with the following compound would produce :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42)

In the following reactions,

The major products (A) and (C) are respectively-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

43) Major product will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Which of the following can never formed during the reaction of isopropyl chloride and methyl
chloride with Na/dryether.
(1) ethane
(2) 2, 3 dimethyl butane
(3) 2-methyl propane
(4) 2-methyl butane

45) Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?

(1) n-Butane
(2) n-Hexane
(3) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(4) n-Heptane

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the salient features of human genome?

(1) Less than 2 per cent codes for proteins.

(2) Repeated sequences make up very large portion.
(3) Over 60 per cent of the discovered genes functions are known the rest are unknown
It contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bps and scientists have identified about 1.4 million SNP
(4)
locations.

2) Which of the following statement forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

(1) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA.

(2) The relative differences in satellite DNA of different individuals.
(3) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva of same person.
(4) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints.

3) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases

(2) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins
(3) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome
(4) Chromosome Y has most genes (2968) and X has the fewest (231)

4) Assertion (A) :- DNA fingerprinting is very well-known for its application in paternity testing in
case of disputes.
Reason (R) :- It employs the principle of RNA polymorphism.

(1) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

5) What is the correct sequence of DNA finger printing?

(a) Seperation of desired DNA by gel electrophoresis
(b) Digestion by restriction endonuclease
(c) Isolation of DNA
(d) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(e) Southern blotting

(1) a b c d e
(2) b d e a c
(3) c d a b e
(4) c b a e d

6) Allelic sequence variation has traditionally been described as a DNA polymorphism if more than
one variant (allele) at a locus occurs in human population with a frequenccy :-

(1) Greater than 0.1

(2) Greater than 0.01
(3) Less than 0.1
(4) Less than 0.01

7) Assertion: Repetitive sequences form a large portion of human genome.

Reason: Repetitive sequences do not code for any proteins.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

8) Select the incorrect pair w.r.t. Lac operon.

(1) Structural gene - Transcribes mRNA for polypeptide synthesis

(2) Operator gene - Interact with inducer and prevent the transcription of structural gene
(3) Promoter gene - Possess site for RNA polymerase attachment
(4) Regulatory gene - Controls the activity of operator gene

9) Gene regulation governing lactose operon of [Link] that involves the lac-I gene product is :-

(1) Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription

(2) Negative and repressible because repressior protein prevents transcription.
(3) Feedback inhibition because excess of β-galactosidase can switch off transcription.
(4) Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose.

10) In lac-operon, repressor protein binds to :-

(1) Regulator gene

(2) Operator gene
(3) Promoter gene
(4) Structural gene

11)

Identify A, B, C & D in lac operon diagram :-

(1) A = Inducer, B = Repressor mRNA, C = Operator, D = β-galactosidase.

(2) A = Repressor mRNA, B = Operator, C = Transacetylase, D = β-galactosidase.
(3) A = Repressor mRNA, B = Inducer, C = Operator, D = Transacetylase.
(4) A = Operator, B = Repressor mRNA, C = β-galactosidase, D = Transacetylase.

12) Consider the following statements

A. Expression of gene is regulated by metabolic, physiological or environmental conditions
B. The development and differentiation of embryo into adult organism are also a result of the
coordinated regulation of expression of the several sets of genes.
C. The genes in a cell are expressed to perform a particular function or a set of functions.
D. Jacob and Monod were first to elucidate a transcriptionally regulated system in [Link].
Select the correct option :-

(1) Only A, B and D are correct

(2) Only A, C and D are correct
(3) Only B, C and D are correct
(4) A, B, C and D are correct

13) Match the following.

Column-I Column-II

(A) i-gene (1) β-Galactosidase

(B) z-gene (2) Permease

(C) a-gene (3) Repressor

(D) y-gene (4) Transacetylase

(1) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(2) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

14) In prokaryotes, the predominant site for control of gene expression is the :
(1) Transcription initiation
(2) Processing level
(3) Transport of mRNA
(4) Translation level

15) Read the following statements (A-D).

(A) DNA is an acidic substance
(B) The two chains of DNA have antiparallel polarity
(C) 5-Methyl uracil is another chemical name of thymine
(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right handed fashion How many of above statements are
correct ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

16)

In an organism DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The
percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :-

(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%

(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%

17) Read the following statements & select the correct option?
(A) RNA was the first genetic material
(B) 5 - methyl uracil is found in DNA.
(C) DNA being double stranded and having complementary base pairing resist changes by evolving a
process of repair. (D) DNA polymerase III does not require RNA primer

(1) A,B and C

(2) A,B,C,D
(3) Only A and B
(4) Only A

18) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of structures. Which
one of this is correctly identified in the option given below :-

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

Structure Location Function

Packaging
(1) (A) Nucleosome Chromosome
of DNA

(2) (B) tRNA Nucleus Translation

(3) (C) DNA-RNA Nucleus Replication

(4) (D) Ribosome Cytoplasm Splicing

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) A molecular biologist analysed a nucleic acid sample and found that it contain Nitrogen bases in
following proportion A = 20%, T = 15%, C = 35%, G = 30%. This data indicates that –

(1) Nucleic acid in the sample is single stranded DNA

(2) Nucleic acid in the sample is double stranded DNA
(3) Nucleic acid in the sample is double stranded RNA
(4) Nucleic acid in the sample is single stranded RNA

20) A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of all the following except :

(1) t-RNA molecule

(2) m-RNA molecule
(3) another DNA strand
(4) protein synthesis

21) Properties of populations are not present in the ___ "A" ___ but arise as a result of interactions
among the ___ "B" ___ comprising the population. "A" and "B" are :-

(1) Organisms and ecosystems

(2) Biomes and organisms
(3) Organism and organisms
(4) Ecosystems and communities.

22) Ecology at the organismic level is essentially physiological ecology which tries to understand
that how :-

(1) Ecosystems interact among themselves.

(2) Different population interact and comprise a community.
Different organisms adapt to their environment in terms of not only survival but also
(3)
reproduction
(4) Different ecosystem forms a biome.

23) Identify the correct match

Column-I Column-II

(a) Egret bird and cattle (i) Protoco-operation

(b) Orchid and ophrys (ii) Sexual deceit

(c) Fitness of both species decreased (iii) Commensalism

(d) Sea anemone and hermit crab (iv) Competition

(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii
(2) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i
(3) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
(4) a–iv, b–ii, c–i, d–iii

24) Connell's elegant field experiment exhibits :-

(1) Competitive release

(2) Co-existence
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) Exclusion principle

25) The Abingdon tortoise became extinct on Galapagos island within a decade of the introduction of
goats, it is an example of :-

(1) Resource partioning

(2) Competitive release
(3) Competitive exclusion
(4) Interference competition

26) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i. Visiting flamingoes and resident

1. Mutualism a. (+, –)
fishes in south american lakes

ii. Starfish pisaster in american

2. Competition b. (+, 0)
pacific coast

3. Predation c. (+, +) iii. Cattle egret birds and cattle

 4. Commensalism d. (–, –) iv. Lichens
(1) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(2) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(3) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - iii, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - i
(4) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - b - ii, 4 - a - iii

27) ____ is a specific place (or locality) where an organism usually lives :-

(1) Habitat
(2) Stress zone
(3) Fundamental Niche
(4) Hypervolume Niche

28) Niche is

(1) all the biological factors in the organism environment

(2) the physical space where an organism live
(3) the range of temperature that the organism needs to survive
(4) the functional role played by the organism in its habitat

29) Community is defined as aggregation of :-

(1) Individuals of the same kind

(2) Individuals of same species
(3) Individuals of a population
(4) Populations of different species.

30) In ecological hierarchy the abiotic factors are first time included at which hierarchical level

(1) Community Level

(2) Population Level
(3) Ecosystem Level
(4) Landscape Level

31) Biosphere is :

(1) a component in the ecosystem

(2) composed of the plants present in the soil
(3) life in the outer space
(4) composed of all living organisms present on earth which interact with the physical environment

32) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ecology is concerned with the interactions among organisms and between the organism
and its physical (abiotic) environment.
Statement II: Ecology is only concerned with the study of individual organisms and not with
populations, communities, or biomes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

33) What does the shape of the given age pyramids (A to C) reflect about the growth status of

populations ?

A B C

(1) Declining Stable Expanding

(2) Stable Expanding Declining

(3) Expanding Stable Declining

(4) Declining Expanding Stable

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) The carrying capacity of a population is determined by its :

(1) Limiting resources

(2) Natality
(3) Mortality
(4) Population Growth Rate

35) A _____ has certain attributes that an individual organism does not :-

(1) Population
(2) Community
(3) Biome
(4) All of these

36) Exponential growth or geometric growth is represented by :-

(1) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]

(2)

(3)
(4)

37) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Under a particular set of selection pressures, organisms evolve towards the most
efficient reproduction strategy.
Statement-II : Most of the birds and mammals breed only once in their lifetime.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

38) Birth rate = B, Death rate = D, Emigration = E and Immigration = I.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Population is increasing (i) B+I=D+E

(b) Population is decreasing (ii) B+I<D+E

(c) Population is stable (iii) B+I>D+E

(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii

39) How many statements are correct?

(a) A group of individuals resulting even from asexual reproduction is also considered a population
for the purpose of ecological studies.
(b) Population ecology is an important area because it links ecology to population genetics and
evolution.
(c) An individual organism has certain attributes whereas, a population does not.
(d) An individual may have births and deaths, but a population has birth rates and death rates.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

40) Select the incorrect statement from the following?

The tiger census in our national parks and tiger reserves is often based on pug marks and fecal
(1)
pellets.
(2) The size of a population for any species is a static parameter.
 Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to
(3)
the initial population density.
Emigration is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone
(4)
elsewhere during the time period under consideration.

41) Match list I with list II and choose the correct option :-

List-I List-II

(A) Pacific salmon (i) Verhulst Pearl Logistic growth

rt
(B) Nt = N0e (ii) Breeds only once in life time

(C) Oyster (iii) Exponential growth

(D) (iv) A large number of small sized offsprings

(1) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii

(2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(3) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
(4) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i

42) Read statements (A–D)

(A) Sparrow eating seeds is no less a predator
(B) Magnitude of ‘r’ for Norway rat is 0.015
(C) Calotropis produces cardiac glycoside that's why no cattle is grazing on this plant
(D) Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to predators
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Three

43)

Predator are important for a natural ecosystem because :–

(a) They keep prey population under control.
(b) Help in maintaining species diversity
(c) They are used in biological control method.

(d) They reduce the intensity of competition among competiting prey species.
(1) Only a, c, d
(2) Only a, b, c
(3) Only a, b, d
(4) All of the above

44)
 Column I Column II

(a) Camouflaged (1) Acacia

(b) Distasteful (2) Calotropis

(c) Morphological (3) Monarch

defence butterfly

(d) Cardiac
(4) Frogs
glycosides
(1) a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d -2
(2) a - 3, b - 4, c - 2, d -1
(3) a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d -3
(4) a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d -2

45) Ecology is the study of interaction of organisms with their environment

What are the levels of ecology, from the smallest level to largest level ?

(1) Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biosphere

(2) Community, Biosphere, Population, Ecosystem, Organism
(3) Population, Organism, Community, Biosphere, Ecosystem
(4) Biosphere, Ecosystem, Community, Population, Organism

46) RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotic organism as a method of -

(1) Insect resistance

(2) Cellular defense
(3) Translation
(4) Transcription

47) Which of the following technique is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction ?

(1) Polymerase chain reaction

(2) ELISA
(3) Gene therapy
(4) Recombinant DNA technique

48) Which of the following statement is true for mature insulin -

(1) It is composed of 3 peptide chains

(2) Only A - peptide and C - peptide chain is present
(3) A and B peptide chains are joins together by disulphide bond
(4) C - peptide is present in mature insulin.

49) Match the column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II
 Treatment of
A. Transgenic cow i.
emphysema

Human protein α-
B. Transgenic mice ii.
lactalbumin rich

C. α-1 antitrypsin iii. Polio vaccine safety

D. cry I Ab gene iv. Corn borer

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

50) Match the following column

Column I Column II

A Bt cotton i ADA deficiency

B RNA interference ii cry I Ab gene

Nematode resistant
C Corn borer iii
tobacco

Resistant to boll
D Gene therapy iv
worm
(1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(3) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
(4) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv

51) Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains A and B that are linked together by

(1) Peptide bond

(2) ionic bond
(3) Disulphide bridge
(4) Phosphodiester bonds

52) Which of the following is true for golden rice ?

(1) It is vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil.

(2) It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis.
(3) It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector.
(4) It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of rice.

53) GEAC makes decisions regarding

(1) The validity of GM research

(2) The safety of introducing GM organisms for public services.
(3) The validity of biopatents
(4) Option 1 & option 2 both are correct

54) Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria, do not kill the bacteria themselves because -

(1) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin

(2) Toxin is immature
(3) Toxin is inactive
(4) Bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac

55) Recombinant therapeutic drugs are preferred over products isolated from non-human sources,
because :-

(1) Recombinant therapeutics are cheaper

(2) Recombinant therapeutics don't induce unwanted immunological responses.
(3) Recombinant therapeutics are easy to produce
(4) Recombinant therapeutics provide permanant cure.

56) The C-peptide is :-

(1) Not present in proinsulin

(2) Present in mature insulin
(3) Removed during maturation of insulin
(4) Also present in artificial insulin

57) Match the column–I with column–II ?

Column - I Column - II

(i) Golden rice (A) Increased shelf life

(ii) Flavr savr tomato (B) Insulin

(iii) [Link] (C) Vitamin A

(iv) Bt. brinjal (D) Insect resistant

(1) (i) – C, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – D
(2) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – C, (iv) – D
(3) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – D
(4) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C

58) Read the following statement and choose correct option :-

I. Recombinant DNA technology is used to improve crop plants by increasing their productivity, by
making them more nutritious and by developing disease resistance
II. Bt cotton is resistant to bollworm infestation
III. Bacillus thuringiensis is not harmed by self Cry protein because of its occurrence as protoxin
(inactive)
IV. Protoxin Cry protein is changed into active Cry protein in the stomach of insects due to acidic pH
in stomach
(1) All are correct
(2) I and IV are correct
(3) Only IV is false
(4) All are false

59) Which of the following is not the use of transgenic animal ?

(1) Study of normal physiology and development

(2) Testing of vaccine safety
(3) Production of biological products
(4) Molecular diagnosis

60) Which enzyme was targeted during the first clinical gene therapy given in 1990 to a 4 year old
girl?

(1) Monamine oxidase

(2) Tyrosine oxidase
(3) Adenosine deaminase
(4) Pyruvate dehydrogenase.

61) Transgenic plants are the ones :-

(1) Grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the crop field

(2) Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium
(3) Generated by introducing a foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
(4) Produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium

62) Why insulin is not administered orally to diabetic patient ?

(1) It is bitter in taste

(2) It is peptide & can be digested
(3) It will lead to sudden decrease in blood sugar if given orally
(4) It leads to peptic ulcer if given orally

63) Assertion : PCR serves the purpose of early diagnosis.

Reason : Very low concentration of a bacteria or virus can be detected by amplification of their
nucleic acids by PCR

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

64) A single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with a radioactive molecule is known as :

(1) Primer
(2) Probe
(3) Plasmid
(4) Both (1) and (2)

65) Assertion : Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not a permanent cure for ADA deficiency.
Reason : Lymphocytes are immortal.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and Reason is false
(4) Both assertion and Reason are false.

66) PCR is routinely used for the following except:

(1) To detect mutation in genes in suspected cancer patients.

(2) To identify many genetic disorder.
(3) To detect the presence of antigens.
(4) To detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.

67) Match the column :

(a) Vaccine safety (i) Phenylketonuria

(b) Transgenic model (ii) Transgenic cow
(c) Biological products (iii) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Rosie (iv) Transgenic mice
(1) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)
(2) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(3) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)

68) 'Trichoderma' which are used as biological control agent for different plant disease is :-

(1) Virus
(2) Free living fungus
(3) Free living Bacteria
(4) Symbiotic Bacteria

69) Which of the following bacteria was associated with discovery of penicillin ?

(1) Propionibacterium
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Streptococcus
(4) Staphylococcus

70) Which of the following is a blood cholesterol lowering agent, produced by Monascus purpureus :-
(1) Cyclosporin-A
(2) Statins
(3) Streptokinase
(4) Amylase

71) Correctly match column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

Trichoderma
(A) (i) Biofertilisers
species

(B) Rhizobium (ii) Clot buster

(C) Cyclosporin A (iii) Biocontrol agents

Trichoderma
(D) Streptokinase (iv)
polysporum
(1) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(iv)
(2) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(iv), D–(i)
(3) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(i)
(4) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(ii)

72) Which of the following is called Baker's yeast ?

(1) Rhizopus
(2) Penicillium
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Mucor

73) Which one is not a biofertilizer ?

(1) Nostoc
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Agrobacterium
(4) Rhizobium

74)

Which of the following pair is examples of bio fertilisers ?

(1) Rhizobium and Aphids

(2) Rhizobium and Anabaena
(3) VAM and Baculovirus
(4) Azotobacter and Ladybird beetle

75) Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of

(1) Vitamin D
(2) Vitamin A
(3) Vitamin B12
(4) Vitamin E

76) Assertion :- 'Cyclosporin-A' is used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant

patients.
Reason :- 'Cyclosporin-A' is produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.

77) Match Column –I with Column–II and select the correct option using the codes given below

Column-I Column-II
(a) Citric acid (i) Trichoderma
(b) Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium
(c) Statins (iii) Aspergillus
(d) Butyric acid (iv) Monascus

Codes :-
a b c d

(1) i iv ii iii

(2) iii iv i ii

(3) iii i ii iv

(4) iii i iv ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Match different organisms in column-I with their uses in column-II and select the correct answer
from codes given below.

Column-I Column-II
Lactobacilus
(A) (i) Formation of dough
acidophilus
Saccharomyces
(B) (ii) Single cell proteins
cerevisiae
Propionibacterium
(C) (iii) Conversion of milk into curd
sharmanii
(D) Spirulina (iv) Formation of swiss cheese
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)

79) Assertion (A) : Patenting of Basmati rice variety by a foreign company is an example of
biopiracy.
Reason (R) : Biopiracy refers to the unauthorised use of bioresources/traditional knowledge
without compensation.

(1) Both A & R true; R explains A

(2) Both A & R true; R not explanation
(3) A true; R false
(4) A false; R true

80) Which of the following statement regarding baculoviruses as bio-control agent is/are correct ?
(a) Baculoviruses are pathogen that attack insect and other arthopods
(b) They do harm plants, mammals, birds, fish and other non-target insects
(c) Most of these biocontrol agents belong to the genus nucleopolyhedrovirus
(d) Baculovirus are helpful in Integrated Pest Managment (IPM) programme in which beneficial
insects are conserved.
Choose the correct option:-

(1) a, b, and d
(2) a and b
(3) a, c and d
(4) All of these

81) The BOD test measures the rate of :

(1) O2 uptake by microbes in a sample of water to oxidise organic matter

(2) Organic matter production
(3) Air quality
(4) Organic matter used by herbivore fishes

82) Cyclosporin A is used for -

(1) dissolving blood clots

(2) lowering cholesterol level
(3) immunosuppression
(4) enhancing tenderness of meat

83) Streptokinase, used as a ‘clot buster’ is obtained from

(1) Streptococcus
(2) Staphylococcus
(3) Lactobacillus
(4) Saccharomyces
84) Which bacteria is utilized in gobar gas plant ?

(1) Methanogens
(2) Ammonifying bacteria
(3) Denitrifying bacteria
(4) Nitrifying bacteria

85) Primary steps that can be taken towards attaining reproductive health are :-
(a) Counselling and creating awareness among
people about reproductive organs,
adolescence and associated changes.
(b) Safe and hygienic sexual practices
(c) Creating awareness about STDs including AIDS, etc
(d) Ban on MTP and amniocentesis

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d

86) Which of the following is not true about lactational amenorrhoea.

(1) Inhibition of menstrual cycle in lactating mother is due to high concentration of prolactin
As a natural method of contraception, it has been reported to be effective only upto a maximum
(2)
period of six months following parturition
(3) Side effects are almost nil, if we consider it as a natural method of contraception
(4) Chances of failure of this natural method of contraception are very low

87) Consider the following statements given below and choose the option. Which include correct
statements only?
(A) Contraception pills include administration of progesterone or progesterone–estrogen
combinations.
(B) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is safe during third trimester.
(C) First seven days and last seven days of menstrual cycle is called risk period.
(D) Intrauterine devices like Cu–T are effective contraceptives.

(1) B & D
(2) A & D
(3) B & C
(4) A, B & D

88) In the given four statements (A–D) select the options which include all the correct ones only:-
(A) Tubectomy is the terminal method of contraception in males
(B) Oral pills prevents the ovulation from ovary.
(C) Copper releasing IUD's releases Cu ions which suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing
capacity of sperm.
(D) Condoms are the barrier method of conception.
(1) Statement A, B, C
(2) Statement B, C, D
(3) Statement A, C, D
(4) Statement A, B, D

89) Major threat to a healthy society with respect to reproductive health, out of the following is

(1) sex limited inheritance

(2) sexually transmitted disease
(3) sex linked inheritance
(4) sexually transmitted characters

90) Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhea, trichomoniasis ?

(1) Trichomoniasis is a STD whereas others are not

(2) Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial
(3) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
(4) hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 3 1 4 2 4 4 1 1 3 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 2 1 2 3 1 3 2 2 4 1 3 1 4 3 3 4 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 3 1 4 1 3 2 1 4 1 4 1 1 1 2 3 1 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 3 2 3 2 4 1 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 1 4 4 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 3 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 4 3 4 2 2 2 1 2 3 4 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 2 1 3 2 1 4 4 3 4 1 3 1 4 2 2 1 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 4 1 1 2 2 3 1 1 3 1 4 3 2 3 1 3 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 1 2 3 3 1 2 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 1 1 3 4 2 2 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Width of central bright fringe

= 2.4 × 10–3 m
= 2.4 mm

2)

3)

4)

5)

6) Imax = I0

7)

d=

8)

Let I0 be intensity of unpolarised light incident on first polaroid.

I1 = Intensity of light transmitted from 1st polaroid =

θ be the angle between 1st and 2nd polaroid
ϕ be the angle between 2nd and 3rd polaroid
(as 1st and 3rd polaroid are crossed)

I2 = Intensity from 2nd polaroid

 I3 = Intensity from 3rd polaroid

I3 will be maximum when sin 2θ = 1

9) Problem Explanation:
We need to find the angular width of the central maximum in a single-slit diffraction pattern
for light of wavelength 6328 Å incident on a slit of width 0.2 mm.

Concept : Single slit diffraction

Formula :
Formula For single-slit diffraction, the angle for the first minimum is given by the equation :

sin θ = (for n = 1, 2, 3, ....)

For the angular width of the central maximum, we use n – 1, and the angular width is twice the
angle.

Calculation :
1. Given:

A. Wavelength λ = 6328 Å = 6328 × 10–10 m.

B. Slit width a = 0.2 mm = 0.2 × 10–3 m.

2. Apply the formula: sin θ = = 0.003164 3. Calculate θ: θ = sin–1 (0.003164) ≈ 18° 4.

Angular width of the central maximum is twice this angle: Total angular width = 2 × 0.18° = 0.36°

10) Solution:
Angle of first minimum in Fraunhofer single slit diffraction.
Concept: Fraunhofer single slit diffraction.

Formula: (for nth minimum, here n = 1)

Calculation / Explanation:
Given : λ = 550 nm = 550 × 10-9m, a = 0.55 mm = 0.55 × 10-3m

θ= = 0.001 rad
Final answer: Option (1) 001 rad
11) SS2 = S2O = D & S1S2 = d
Now in ΔSS1S2

Δx = SS1O – SS2O

...(1)
For destructive interference at O

...(2)
From eq (1) and eqn(2)
n

For minimum distance n = 1

12)

13) ⇒ β 2 > β1

y = m1 = m2

= ⇒ m1 > m2
 Angular separation ∝ λ

14) I1 = I2 = I'
Maximum Intensity = 4I'
I = I 1 + I2 +
I' = I' + I' +
I' = 2I' + 2I'cosϕ
1 = 2(1 + cosϕ)

cosϕ =

ϕ = 120° or

Δx =

= (μ – 1)t

= (1.5 – 1)t
t = 2.67 × 10–7 m

15)

i = i0 cos2 θ

16)

n1λ1 =

17)

tan θp = μ

18)

f0 = 80 cm
fe = 5 cm
ℓ = f0 + fe = 85 cm

19)
Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how the focal length of a thin lens changes when it is
taken from air and immersed into a liquid with a different refractive index. Specifically, it
wants the new focal length of the lens when placed in a liquid with refractive index , given its
original focal length in air and its own refractive index .

Underlying Concept: The core concept involved is the lensmaker's formula, which relates the
focal length of a lens to the refractive indices of the lens material and the surrounding
medium, as well as the curvature radii of the lens surfaces. When a lens is immersed in a
medium other than air, the effective refractive index difference changes, thus altering the
focal length.

Relevant Formulas: The lensmaker's formula in air is:

\[ \frac{1}{f_0} = (\mu_0 - 1) \left( \frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2} \right), \]
where: - is the focal length in air, - is the refractive index of the lens material, - and
are the radii of curvature of the two lens surfaces.
When immersed in a liquid with refractive index , the formula becomes:
\[ \frac{1}{f} = \left( \frac{\mu_0}{\mu} - 1 \right) \left( \frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2}
\right). \]
The final relation between the new focal length and is:
\[ f = \frac{\mu (\mu_0 - 1)}{\mu_0 - \mu} f_0. \]

Step-by-Step Calculation: Starting from the lensmaker's formula in air and in the liquid,
divide the two formulas to eliminate the curvature terms:
\[ \frac{1/f}{1/f_0} = \frac{\frac{\mu_0}{\mu} - 1}{\mu_0 - 1}. \]
Simplify the numerator on the right:
\[ \frac{\mu_0}{\mu} - 1 = \frac{\mu_0 - \mu}{\mu}. \]
Therefore,
\[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{\mu_0 - \mu}{\mu (\mu_0 - 1)} \cdot \frac{1}{f_0}. \]
Taking reciprocal gives:
\[ f = \frac{\mu (\mu_0 - 1)}{\mu_0 - \mu} f_0. \]

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the focal length changes whenever the surrounding medium
changes because the effective refractive index contrast changes. Always write the lensmaker's
formula with respect to the ratio when the medium is not air.

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to ignore the change in surrounding medium's

refractive index, assuming focal length remains the same as in air. Another error is to
incorrectly apply the formula without adjusting for the refractive index of the liquid.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices where the numerator involves or
are incorrect because they do not arise from the proper rearrangement of the
lensmaker's formula. The sign and factors must reflect the difference and the
subtraction of 1 from the lens refractive index, not an addition.

20) For equiconvex lens

|R1| = |R2| = f = 10 cm if µg = 1.5

fm = = –5 cm

or

= (1.5–1)
Therefore, the system will behave like a concave mirror.

21)

Fact

22) TIR : [i > θc]

45° > θc
sin45° > sinθc

23)
F = 20 cm

24)

25)

Fact

26)
 0
27) ; f + fe = 1.1 m = 110 cm
10 fe + fe = 110 cm
fe = 10 cm
f0 = 10fe = 100cm

MP=

28)

29)

30)

d = u2 – u1 = 24 cm ..... (1)

or u2 = 3u1
∴ from (1), 3u1 – u1 = 24
u1 = 12 cm , u2 = 36 cm
So, D = 12 + 36 = 48 cm

Now, = 9 cm

31)

Explain Question : To find out the position of final formed by thord lens, by given lens
combination if given.

Concept : Image formation in combination of lenses.

Formula :
Visual Aid :

Solution : As per given image formation by lens u (v = ? u = –30, f1 = + 10 cm )

⇒ v1 = +15
Image I1 just behind the lens at
15 – 5 = 10 cm (focal of lens)
when well be virtual object at focles.

So element ray well patroller the Pineapple Axis and well pass there L3 ⇒

Final Answer : option (4)

32)

h' = 25 h

33)

Real, inverted and magnified

34) δ = (i – r) + (i – r')
Deviation by two portions is same, if one half is removed deviation due to remaing portion =
20°

35)
From figure it is clear that
From A = r1 + r2
⇒ r1 = A = 45°

Also from i + e = A + δ ⇒ 60 + 0 = 45 + δ ⇒ δ = 15°

36)
37)

38) Explanation:
The power consume in AC circuit.
Concept:
Power loss depends on rms value of V & i and power factor.

Formula:
< P > = [Link]ϕ
when ϕ = phase dift b/w applied voltage and current.

Calculation:
Given that : i = 5sin (100t – π/2)
V = 200 sin (100t)

<P> =
⇒ <P> = 0\
Correct Ans. zero
Correct option: (4)

39)

= 100V

40)

200ohm and 0.55 henry2

41) Asking about:

Potential difference developed across the ring

Formula:
ε = BUleff
C MF is uniform

Solution:
EMF developed across the ring
ε = BUlMQ = Bv (ZR)
ε = 2 buR
Note: positive charge with accumulate at the end Q.
It with be at higher potential
Correct option: (4)

42)

EMF

43) Asking about:

phase difference b/w current and voltage in a purely resistive AC circuit.

Concept:
Purely resistance AC ckt

Solution:

in purely resistance circuit

∵ phase diff. ϕ = 0

⇒ current and voltage are in same phase

Correct option: (3)

44)

Generated by Allie
 Problem Statement: The question asks to find the electrical power developed in a circular
loop of radius r and resistance R when a time-varying magnetic field B = B_0 e^(-t) is applied
inside the loop and the switch connected to the loop is closed.

Underlying Concept: The problem involves electromagnetic induction, specifically Faraday's

law of induction, which states that a time-varying magnetic flux through a loop induces an
electromotive force (emf) in the loop. The induced emf causes current to flow through the
resistance, producing electrical power.

Relevant Formulas: Magnetic flux through the loop is given by Induced emf

is Power dissipated in resistance R by current due to emf E is Where

, is the radius, and is the resistance.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Calculate magnetic flux: Step 2: Find

induced emf using differentiation: Step 3: Evaluate emf

right after closing switch (t=0): Step 4: Calculate power dissipated using

Tips and Tricks: Keep track of the negative sign in Faraday's law but note that power
depends on the square of emf, which makes it positive. Also, the area of the loop is , which
is essential to calculate flux.

Common Mistakes: Forgetting to differentiate the exponential term correctly or ignoring the
negative sign. Another mistake is calculating power using just emf without squaring it or
dividing by resistance.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that do not square the magnetic field term or
the area, or that incorrectly include extra powers of r or constants, are incorrect. The correct
answer must have , , and in the numerator divided by .

45) Effective length of the wire remains same ∴ induced emf is same and external resistence is
not changed so current is also same ideally.

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaination: Question asks that which of the following will not give cannizzaro reaction.
Concept: Cannizzaro reaction.
Solution:
Carbonyl compound having no. α–H give cannizzaro reaction.

(1) No. α–H

give cannizzaro reaction.

(2) No. α–H

give cannizzaro reaction.

(3) No. α–H but it does not give cannizzaro reaction

It favoured halofrom reaction due to good leaving group
(CCl3)

(4) No. α–H

Give cannizzaro reaction.
Therefore CCl3CHO will not give cannizzaro reaction.
Final Answer: Option (3)

47)

The given reaction is Cannizzaro reaction in which the aldehydes which does not have
undergoes both oxidation and reduction.
This reaction is also called as disproportionation reaction.

48)

Add condensation

49)

Unsymmetrics alkane

50)

Question Explanation :
Which compound will not undergo Friedal Craft's reaction easily.

Concept :
This question is based on Friedal Craft Reaction.

Solution :
Strongly deactivated ring does not give Friedal Craft reaction easily.

–NO2 is –m group and strongly deactivating group, hence nitrobezene doe snot give Friedal
Craft's reaction.

Hence,
Option (4) is correct

51)

Question Explanation :
Which is ortho/para directing group.

Concept :
This question is based on + m groups are ortho/para directing groups.

Solution :

is + m group and it increases the electron density at ortho and para positions of
benzene ring. So, the incoming electrophile is introduced at ortho and para position, hence it
is ortho/para directing group.

and are – m groups and meta directing groups.

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

52)

No kinetic isotope effect

53) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about correct order of rate of ESR is :

Concept:

This question is based on

Solution :
* Rate of ESR is more if +M and +H groups are attached on benzene ring. -M and -H groups
decrease the rate of ESR.
* Correct order of ESR : I > II > III

Final Answer :
Option (2)

54)

O-is O/pdirector

55)

Explaining the Question :- Major product

Concept:- Nitration
Solution :-

Final Answer :- Option (4)

56)

Aldehyde > Ketone, "Less steric crowding increasing rate

57)

58) + I inductive effect decrease positive charge on carbonyl carbon atom

59) Asking About :- Reactivity towards NAR

Concept :- reactivity towards NAR depends on electrophilicity & steric hinderance across
carbonyl group.

Soln / Explanation :- Reactivity towards NAR

Aldehyde is more reactive than ketone towards NAR.
Aromatic ketone & aldehydes are less reactive than aliphatic ketone & aldehyde as
electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon is reduced by resonance of aromatic ring with carbonyl
group.

60)

Because Hemiacetal max Me - OR and One -OH group

61)

Sodium process

62)

63)

EDG increasing rate of EAR

64)

Noperoxide effect in (2) and that reaction (3) produce 2° alcohol

65)

Electrophilic addition reaction

66)

⇒ Anti markonikov addition takes place

⇒ H Comes from B2H6

⇒ OD Comes from & D2O2

So

67)

They are not chain isomers, only position isomers

68)
-HI does not affected by peroxide. - Major product obtained by Markownikoff rule.

69)

Markovnikov addition

70)

71)

NCERT-11; Page no. # 317

72)

Based on EAR mechanism

73)

Anti-Markovnikov's addition and syn addition

74)

Reaction based

75)
Bromine water test not shown by alkane (no C = C)

76)

Anti-addition

77)

Anti-addition on double bond gives Racemic

78)

Cl+ in available in reaction mixture

79)

Symmetrical alkane

80)

All of these

81)

dip director

82)

2,2-dimethylbutane can come from all

83)

Given seven carbon alkane

84)

85)

Possible alkanes are a, c, d only

 86)

87)

Dihydration flowed by EAR

88)

89)

2-Methyl butane cannot form

90)

n-Heptane

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT_11_PG_120_2021-22

92) DNA fingerprinting is a test to identify and evaluate the genetic information called DNA
(deoxyribonucleic acid) in a person’s cells. DNA fingerprinting is a form of identification based
on specific non-coding portions of DNA (Satellite DNA) that are known to have a high degree
of variability from person to person. These sections are known as tandem repeats. The test is
used to determine whether a family relationship exists between two people, to identify
organisms causing a disease, and to solve criminal cases.

93) NCERT Pg. # 104,Human Genome Project.

94) NCERT Pg. # 105,DNA Fingerprinting.

95)

NCERT Pg. No. 106

96)

Ncert Pg No: 122

97)

NCERT Page No. 105

98) Ncert Page 100 and 101.

99) NCERT XII Pg. # 116, 117

100) Solution:
The correct answer is:
2. Operator gene Explanation: In the lac operon, the repressor protein binds to the operator
gene. This binding prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural genes necessary
for lactose metabolism. When lactose is present, it binds to the repressor, causing it to release
from the operator, allowing transcription to occur

101) NCERT XIIth Pg.#117

102)

NCERT-XII Pg#100

103) NCERT Pg. # 100,The Lac Operon.

104) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 100

105) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 97, para 2,3,5

106)

Question Explanation: Applying Chargaff's rules to determine the percentages of all bases.

Concept: Chargaff's Rule.

Solution: According to Chargaff's rule for double-stranded DNA:

A. Given: Cytosine (C) = 17%.

B. Therefore, Guanine (G) must also be 17%.

 C. Total G + C = 17% + 17% = 34%.

D. The remaining percentage is for A + T, which is 100% - 34% = 66%.

E. Since A = T, the amount of Adenine (A) is 66% / 2 = 33%, and Thymine (T) is also 33%.
So, the percentages are G=17%, A=33%, T=33%.
Final Answer: 2. G 17%, A 33%, T 33%

107)

NCERT XII Pg, 103,104

108) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 99, 109, 114, 115

109) Question Explanation: Identifying the type of nucleic acid based on base composition.

Concept: Chargaff's Rule

Solution:
Chargaff’s Rule (A = T, C = G) applies to double-stranded DNA.
Given A ≠ T (20% ≠ 15%) and C ≠ G (35% ≠ 30%), so it is not double-stranded DNA.
Thymine (T) is present, meaning it is DNA, not RNA.
Since Chargaff’s rule is not followed and T is present, it must be single-stranded DNA.

Final Answer: Option (1)

110) Explaining the Question:

Asking about molecule that can't synthesize by DNA directly.

Concept:
Replication / Transcription

Solution:

Process of protein synthesis not directly related with DNA, it directly related with m-RNA.
While other options are directly related with DNA.
So correct answer is protein synthesis in which DNA not directly involve.

Final Answer:
Option (4) protein synthesis
111)

Population properties like density, birth rate, and growth rate are not found in a single
organism but arise due to interactions among multiple organisms in a population.

112) NCERT Pg. # 220

113) Question Explanation: Matching ecological interactions.

Concept: Population Interactions
Solution: This question requires matching different types of population interactions. The
correct matches are: (a) Egret bird and cattle demonstrate Commensalism, where the egret
benefits by eating insects stirred up by the cattle, while the cattle are unaffected. (b) The
relationship between an orchid and the flower Ophrys is an example of Sexual Deceit, where
the flower mimics a female bee to attract a male pollinator. (c) When the fitness of both
species decreases, it's a result of Competition. (d) The relationship between a sea anemone
and a hermit crab is Protocooperation, a mutually beneficial relationship that is not essential
for survival.
Final Answer: (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

114) Question Explanation: The result of Connell's experiment.

Concept: Competitive Release
Solution: Connell's experiment involved two barnacle species on a rocky seashore. He found
that when one barnacle species was removed, the other species expanded its range,
demonstrating that its realized niche was smaller than its fundamental niche due to
competition. This phenomenon is called competitive release.
Final Answer: Competitive release

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 199

116) Explanation:
Column - I Column - I Column - III
Explanation
I
1. Mutualism c. (+,+) iv. Lichens Both
species benefit in lichens, algae and fungi have mutual benefits.
2. Competition d. (-, -)
3. Predation a. (+, -) ii. Starfish Pisaster
feeds on mussels classic
predator example
4. Commensalism b (+, 0) iii. Cattle egret and cattel
bird benefits cattel unaffected
Correct Ans. 2. 1-c-iv,2-d-i, 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii

117) NCERT Pg. # 220

118)

NCERT Pg. No. 221

119) A community in ecology refers to a group of populations of different species living in a

specific geographical area and interacting with each other. For example, in a forest, various
species of plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms form a community.

120)

In the ecological hierarchy, abiotic factors (such as temperature, sunlight, water, and soil) are
first included at the ecosystem level. This is because the ecosystem consists of both biotic
components (organisms) and abiotic components (physical environment), and their
interactions form the basis of ecosystem functioning.

121) The biosphere refers to the global sum of all ecosystems, including all living organisms
(plants, animals, microorganisms) on Earth, as well as their interactions with the physical
environment (air, water, and land). It is the zone of life on Earth, extending from the surface to
the atmosphere.

122) Statement I: Correct. Ecology is indeed concerned with the interactions among organisms
and between organisms and their physical (abiotic) environment.
Statement II: Incorrect. Ecology is not only concerned with the study of individual organisms
but also includes the study of populations, communities, and biomes, as mentioned in the text.

123)

Question Explanation: Interpreting population age pyramids.

Concept: Population age pyramids

Solution: Age pyramids show the number of individuals in pre-reproductive, reproductive,

and post-reproductive age groups. Pyramid A has a large base of young individuals, indicating
an expanding population. Pyramid B has a more even distribution, showing a stable
population. Pyramid C has a narrow base, indicating a declining population.

Final Answer:(3) Expanding, Stable, Declining

124)

Question Explanation: Factors affecting population size limit.

Concept: Carrying capacity

Solution: Carrying capacity (K) is the maximum population size an environment can
sustain. It is primarily determined by the availability of limiting resources, such as food,
water, and space. When a population reaches carrying capacity, its growth rate slows down
 and stabilizes.

Final Answer: Limiting resources

125) NCERT Pg. # 227

126)

Question Explanation: Identifying the equation for exponential growth.

Concept: Exponential growth equation

Solution: Exponential or geometric growth happens when resources are unlimited. The
equation dN/dt=(b−d)×N describes this, where dN/dt is the change in population density,
(b−d) is the intrinsic rate of natural increase (r), and N is the population size. This simplified
equation shows that the growth rate is proportional to the current population size.

Final Answer: dN/dt=(b−d)×N

127) Question Explanation: Checking statements on reproduction strategies.

Concept: Life history variation

Solution: Statement I: Evolution favors traits that increase fitness. Under certain selection
pressures, organisms indeed evolve optimal reproductive strategies to maximize their fitness
in that specific environment. This statement is [Link] II: Most birds and
mammals are iteroparous, meaning they reproduce multiple times throughout their lifetime.
Semelparity, or breeding only once, is common in some insects and plants (e.g., salmon,
bamboo), but not most birds and mammals. Thus, this statement is incorrect.

Final Answer: Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

128)

Question Explanation: Matching population dynamics with equations.

Concept: Population growth

Solution: Population change is determined by the balance of factors that increase it (births B
and immigration I) and those that decrease it (deaths D and emigration E).

A. Population Increasing: Occurs when factors increasing the population are greater than
those decreasing it. So, B + I > D + E. (a-iii)
B. Population Decreasing: Occurs when factors decreasing the population are greater than
those increasing it. So, B + I < D + E. (b-ii)
C. Population Stable: Occurs when factors increasing the population are equal to those
decreasing it. So, B + I = D + E. (c-i)
Final Answer: a-iii, b-ii, c-i

129) Question Explanation: Counting correct statements on population ecology.

Concept: Population ecology

Solution:
(a) "A group of individual resulting even from asexual reproduction is also considered a
population for the purpose of ecological studies".
This is correct
(b) "Population ecology is an important area because it links ecology to population genetics
and evolution".
This is correct.
(d) "An individual may have births and deaths but a population has birth rates and death
rates".

Final Answer: Correct option: (2) Three

130)

Question Explanation: Finding the incorrect statement.

Concept: Population Attributes

Solution: The size of a population is not static; it is a dynamic parameter that changes over
time due to factors like natality, mortality, immigration, and emigration.

Final Answer: The size of a population for any species is a static parameter.

131)

Question Explanation: Match organisms with growth.

Concept: Population growth models.

Solution: Pacific Salmon → breeds once, Nt=N0ert → exponential, Oyster → many small
offspring, logistic eqn → Verhulst Pearl.

Final Answer: A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i

132) NCERT XIIth Pg # 233,234

133)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 233-234

134) NCERT - Pg. # 232

 135)

The correct answer is [Link], Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biosphere.

A. Organism - Individual living being.

B. Population - Group of individuals of the same species in an area.
C. Community - Different populations interacting in the same habitat.
D. Ecosystem, - Community + physical (abiotic) environment.
E. Biosphere - All ecosystems on Earth.

136) NCERT Page No. # 209

137)

The correct answer is: 2. ELISA

1. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR): This method is all about amplifying DNA sequences. It
doesn’t involve any antigen-antibody interactions.

2. ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay): This technique hinges on the very specific
relationship between antigens and antibodies to identify and measure substances.

3. Gene therapy: This approach focuses on altering genes to tackle diseases. It doesn’t directly
engage with antigen-antibody interactions.

4. Recombinant DNA technique: This method is about manipulating DNA sequences, and it
also doesn’t involve antigen-antibody interactions

138)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the structural composition of mature insulin.
Concept: Hormones – Biosynthesis and maturation of insulin.
Solution:
Mature insulin is formed after the removal of C-peptide from proinsulin.
It consists of A-peptide and B-peptide chains linked together by disulphide bonds.
The C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.

Final Answer: Option (3)

139) NCERT Page No. # 212, 213

140) NCERT Page-208,209,211

141)

Explanation :
1.. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR): This method is all about amplifying DNA sequences.
It doesn’t involve any antigen-antibody interactions.
2. ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay): This technique hinges on the very
specific relationship between antigens and antibodies to identify and measure substances.

3. Gene therapy: This approach focuses on altering genes to tackle diseases. It doesn’t
directly engage with antigen-antibody interactions.

4. Recombinant DNA technique: This method is about manipulating DNA sequences, and it
also doesn’t involve antigen-antibody interactions.

Final Answer : (2)

143) NCERT-XII Pg. # 213 (E) ; 234 (H)

144) NCERT-XII Pg. # 215 (E) ; 236 (H)

145)

Explanation : Why recombinant therapeutic drugs are favored over those extracted from non-
human sources.
Concept : The concept based on Application of biotechnology in medicine.
Solution : Because recombinant therapeutics are less likely to trigger undesirable immune
reactions.
Final Answer : Option(2)

146)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

147)

Solution:
(i) Golden rice is known for its high (C) Vitamin A content.
(ii) Flavr Savr tomato was developed for (A) Increased shelf life.
(iii) E. coli is used for producing (B) Insulin through genetic engineering.
(iv) Bt. brinjal is genetically modified to be (D) insect resistant.

Hence,
Correct option: (1) (i) – C, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – D

148)

Explanation : The question asks to identify the correct statement(s) regarding r-DNA
technology and Bt. cotton.

Concept : The concept based on Application of Biotechnology in agriculture.

Solution : The activation of protoxin dry protein occurs in the alkaline pH of the insects
midgut (not the stomach)
Final Answer : (3)

149)

Explain Question : Identify which is not a valid application of transgenic animals.

Concept : This question is based on Transgenic animals.

Solution : The correct answer is option 4

A. Molecular diagnosis does not involve transgenic animals; it relies on lab techniques like
PCR, ELISA.

Final answer : option (4)

150)

Explain Question : Identify the enzyme targeted in the first successful gene therapy
treatment.

Concept : This question is based on Gene therapy.

Solution : The correct answer is option 3.

A. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine
deaminase (ADA) deficiency. This enzyme is crucial for the immune system to function.

Final answer : option (3)

151)

Explain Question : This question asks how transformants (cells that have taken up
recombinant DNA) are distinguished from non-transformants.

Concept : This question is based on Vectors(biotechnology).

Solution : The correct answer is option 1 (Antibiotics)

A. Selectable markers are genes introduced into a host cell along with the gene of interest.

B. These markers help in identifying transformants by providing resistance to specific

antibiotics like ampicillin, tetracycline, etc.

C. Cells that survive on antibiotic-containing media are considered transformants.

 Final answer : option (1)

152) The correct answer is option (2) It is peptide & can be digested.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Insulin is a protein (a peptide). if taken orally, it would be broken down by digestive enzymes
in the stomach and intestines before it could be absorbed into the bloodstream.

Hence, option (2) is correct.

153)

NCERT-XII, Page # 183

154) The correct answer is option 2: Probe

Solution/Explanation:

A. Probe: A probe is a single-stranded DNA or RNA fragment that is labeled with a radioactive
isotope or other detectable marker. It is used to detect complementary sequences in a sample
through hybridization.

155) The correct answer is option (3) Assertion is true and Reason is false.

Solution/Explanation:
While gene therapy using genetically engineered lymphocytes can help treat ADA deficiency.
it's not a permanent cure because:

A. Lymphocytes have a limited lifespan : They eventually die and need to be replaced. The
genetically engineered cell are not self-renewing in the long term.
B. The introduced gene might not be stably integrated : The introduced gene might not
integrate into the lymphocyte's genome in a way that ensures long-term expression.

Hence, option (3) is correct.

156) The correct answer is option 3: To detect the presence of antigens.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Antigens are molecules that trigger an immune response, usually proteins. Detecting antigens
is done using techniques like ELISA or agglutination, not PCR.

157) The correct answer is option (1) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii).

Solution/Explanation:

A. Vaccine safety: Tested on transgenic mice.

B. Transgenic model: Used to study rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Biological products: Help diagnose/treat phenylketonuria.
 D. Rosie: A famous transgenic cow.

Hence, option (1) is correct.

158)

NCERT XII Pg # 157

159)

NCERT XII Pg. # 182

160)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 183

161)

NCERT XII Pg. # 183

162) Saccharomyces

163)

The correct answer is 3. Agrobacterium.

Explanation: Nostoc, Mycorrhiza, and Rhizobium are biofertilizers because they enhance soil
fertility through nitrogen fixation or nutrient uptake. However, Agrobacterium is not a
biofertilizer; it is a bacterium used in genetic engineering for plant transformation,
particularly in the creation of genetically modified plants.

164)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 158

165)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 151

166) NCERT Pg. # 153 (E), 168 (H)

167)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 153

168)
NCERT-XII; Page No #151

169) Solution: Patents on traditional bioresources without benefit sharing = biopiracy; India’s
Patents Bill addresses this.
Final Answer : (1)

170) NCERT-XII ; Pg # 156, 157

171)

Question Explanation: What BOD measures in water

Concept: Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)

Solution: BOD test measures the rate of oxygen consumption by microbes as they oxidize
organic matter in water.

Final Answer: O₂ uptake by microbes in a sample of water to oxidise organic matter

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174) NEW NCERT 12 Pg-155

175)

Let's evaluate each option to check primary steps that can be taken towards attaining
reproductive health are:

(a) Counselling and creating awareness –Correct. This is a crucial step toward reproductive
health.

(b) Safe and hygienic sexual practices – Correct. Absolutely important to prevent STDs and
promote overall health.

(c) Creating awareness about STDs including AIDS –Correct. Key to reducing the spread of
infections.

(d) Ban on MTP and amniocentesis – Incorrect. MTP and amniocentesis are not to be banned
outright. While misuse (e.g., for sex-selective abortion) should be controlled, these procedures
have legitimate medical uses and are part of safe reproductive healthcare.

So, the correct answer is option 3. a, b and c

 176)

Lactational amenorrhoea is not highly reliable as a contraceptive method; chances of failure

are not very low, especially after 6 months postpartum. After six months, or if the
breastfeeding pattern changes (e.g., introduction of supplementary feeds), the risk of ovulation
and pregnancy increases significantly.
The correct answer is option 4. Chances of failure of this natural method of contraception are
very low

177)

Let's analyze each statement:

(A) Contraception pills include administration of progesterone or progesterone–estrogen

combinations – Correct.

(B) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is safe during third trimester – Incorrect.

A. MTP is considered safe only up to 20 weeks of pregnancy (primarily the first trimester and
early second). It's risky and generally not allowed in the third trimester except in life-
threatening cases.

(C) First seven days and last seven days of menstrual cycle is called risk period – Incorrect.

A. These days are generally considered the safe period, not the risk period.

(D) Intrauterine devices like Cu–T are effective contraceptives – Correct.

A. They prevent fertilization by affecting sperm motility and egg implantation.

So, the correct statements are A and D. The correct answer is option 2.

178)

Let's analyze each statement:

(A) Tubectomy is the terminal method of contraception in males – Incorrect, because
tubectomy is a terminal method in females. In males, it's called vasectomy.
(B) Oral pills prevent the ovulation from ovary – Correct, as oral contraceptive pills inhibit the
release of an egg (ovulation).
(C) Copper releasing IUDs release Cu ions which suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing
capacity of sperm – Correct, this is exactly how copper IUDs work.
(D) Condoms are the barrier method of conception – Correct, condoms prevent sperm from
reaching the egg by acting as a physical barrier.
Therefore the correct answer is option 2. Statement B, C, D(correct statements)

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