28th, 2nd Shift
28th, 2nd Shift
EN
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. distinct points B and C. If the centroid of the
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 7 4 2
triangle ABC is , , then (BC) is equal to :
Ans. (2) 3 3
Sol. Statement I : 13 13 13 13 (1) 41 (2) 80
25 + 3 + 20 + 8
(3) 89 (4) 32
25
R' 7 4 3 f' Coordinates of centroid of triangle ABC are
2 2 2 7 5
R R' 2 25 C0 725 25 C2 723 4 3 ....
2
(t1 t 2 1) t12 t 22
3 3 2
A
I + f + f’ = even integer 4 4
I = odd integer (t1 t 2 ) t1 + t2 = 1
3 3
0 < f + f' < 2 f + f' = 1
3
t1 t 2
2
Both the statements are correct t12 t 22 2t1t 2 t1t 2
4
2. The sum of the coefficients of x499 and x500 in
(t1 – t2)2 = (t1 + t2)2 – 4t1t2 = 4
(1 + x)1000 + x(1 + x)999 + x2 (1 + x)998 +…….+ x1000 is
16 t1 t 2
2 2
(1) 1001C501 (2) 1002C500 (BC)2 4 t12 t 22
(3) 1002C501 (4) 1000C501
(BC)2 = 80
Ans. (2)
1
4. The probability distribution of a random variable X cos x x 1
is given below : Sol. f(x) sin(x 1)
(x 1) x 1
30 32 34 36 38 40 sin(x 1)
X 4k k k k k k k 6k RHL lim 1
7 7 7 7 7 7 x 1 (x 1)
2 1 2 1 1 2 1 1
P(X) LHL lim cos x 1 , f(1) = –1
15 15 15 5 15 15 5 15 x 1
P(X)
526k 263
15 7 15
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
2 1 2
15 15 15
19
1
5
k
1 2
7
2
15 15
11
1
5
EN
1
15
6.
f(x) is discontinuous at x = –1
Considering the principal values of inverse
trigonometric functions, the value of the expression
(1)
16
33
56
2
tan 2 sin 1
1 3
2 cos
13
(2)
is equal to :
10
(4)
33
56
16
(3)
LL
P(X < 20) = P(X) 63 63
X 14 15
Ans. (2)
2
2 3
cos x x sin(x 1) Sol. Let sin 1 & cos1
5. Let f(x) lim 2 , x R .
13 10
0
1 x (x 1)
2 3
sin & cos
Consider the following two statements : 13 10
1 tan 2 tan 2
(II) f(x) is continous at x = - 1.
2 tan
Then, tan 2
1 tan 2
(1) Neither (I) nor (II) is True 12 3
(2) Both (I) and (II) are True 5 4
12 3
1 .
(3) Only (II) is True 5 4
33
(4) Only (I) is True
56
Ans. (1)
2
1 1 5 x
7. Let the arithmetic mean of and be , a > 2. Sol. Statement 1: f(x)
a b 16 1 | x |
If is such that a, 4, , b are in A.P., then the x
1 x x0
equation x – ax + 2( – 2b) = 0 has :
2
f(x)
x x0
(1) One root in (1,4) and another in (–2,0)
1 x
(2) One root in (0,2) and another in (– 4, –2)
(3) Complex roots of magnitude less than 2
(4) Both roots in the interval (–2, 0) y=1
Ans. (1)
Sol. a = 4 – d, = 4 + d, b = 4 + 2d y=–1
(4 + d)x – (4 – d)x + 2(4 + d – 8 – 4d) = 0
2
f(x) is one-one
(4 + d)x2 – (4 – d)x + 2(–4 – 3d) = 0
x2 4x 30 30 5
1 1 Statement 2: f(x) , f(0)
x 8x 18
2
18 3
5
Also a b
d=2
1
2
2
1
16
4 d 4 2d
Equation becomes
6x2 – 2x – 20 = 0
3x2 – x – 10 = 0
x = 2,
5
5
16
EN 9.
5 x 2 4x 30
3 x 2 8x 18
On solving x = 0, –1
f(0) f(1)
f(x) is many-one
5
3
is many-one. CA1 = a = 4
x 2 8x 18
CF1 = ae = 2
In the light of the above statements, choose the
1
correct answer from the options given below : e
2
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
a
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. LR = 2e ae
e
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true .
1 4
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 2 2
2 1/ 2
Ans. (2) =6
3
x2 y2 P1
10. Let the ellipse E: 1 and the hyperbola
144 169 P2
Sol.
(–3,36)
x2 y2 (0, 27) (3,36)
H: 1 have the same foci. If e and L
16 2
O
respectively denote the eccentricity and the length
of the latus rectum of H, then the value of 24(e + L)
Area bounded between P1 & P2 is
is : 3
(x 27) (4x 2 ) dx
2
(1) 296 (2) 126
3
(3) 148 (4) 67
(P.O.I. of P1 & P2 is x = ±3)
Ans. (1)
3
2 (27 3x 2 )dx 2 27x x 3 0
3
y2 x 2
Sol. Equation of hyperbola : 2 1 0
16
= 2[81 – 27] = 108
x2 y2 Area bounded between P1 & L is 18 sq. units
1
EN
Equation of ellipse :
144 169
2 8a 2
(Area between x = 4ay & line x = my) is
144 5 3m3
e’ = 1
169 13 y y
Area between x 2 & x is
4
focus (0, 5)
2
1
16 8.
1 2 5 16 18
3
1
3.
2 + 16 = 25
LL
=3 8
16 16.16 18 3 = 26.33
Eccentricity of hyperbola = 1 3
2 3 3
(16) 32 = 12
Length of latus rectum of hyperbola =
3 3 12. Let the circle x2 + y2 = 4 intersect x-axis at the
5 2 points A(a, 0), a > 0 and B(b,0). Let P(2 cos,
24(e + ) = 24 = 8× 37 = 296
3 3
2 sin), 0 < < and Q(2 cos, 2 sin) be two
A
2
11. Let P1 : y = 4x2 and P2 : y = x2 + 27 be two
parabolas. If the area of the bounded region points such that ( – ) = . Then the point of
2
enclosed between P1 and P2 is six times the area
intersection of AQ and BP lies on :
of the bounded region enclosed between the line
(1) x2 + y2 – 4y – 4 = 0
y = x, > 0 and P1, then is equal to :
(2) x2 + y2 – 4x – 4 = 0
(1) 8 (2) 15 (3) x2 + y2 – 4x – 4y = 0
(3) 12 (4) 6 (4) x2 + y2 – 4x – 4y – 4 = 0
Ans. (3) Ans. (1)
4
Sol. Let point of intersection R(h,k) 14. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
2sin
dy
mBR = mBP
k
k
tan equation x y x 2 cot x, x (0, ) .
h 2 2 cos 2 h2 2 dx
2sin sin
mAR = mAQ k
cot If y , then 6y 8y is equal to :
h 2 2cos 2 cos 1 2 2 2 6 4
(1) 3 (2) - 3
(3) - (4)
2 2 4
Ans. (3)
tan tan 1 Sol. xdy – ydx = x2 cotx dx
2 2 4
y
x 2d x 2 cot x dx
tan tan x
2 2 1
y
1 tan tan d cot x dx
2 2 x
y
k h2
d x cot x dx
13.
h2
h2 k 2 4
2
4k
2
k
k 2 h
1
1
h 2 k
x + y – 4y – 4 = 0
1
k 2 h2 4
k(h 2)
4
h2
1
c = 1
given y
2 2
y = x(loge sinx + 1)
y [ log e 2 1]
6 6
LL
2
12(3 [x])
3 [sin x] [cos x] dx is equal to:
1
y [ log e 2 1]
2
4 4 2
(1) 15 + 4 (2) 11 6y 8y
6 4
(3) 13 (4) 12
1
Ans. (2) = log e 2 1 2 log e 2 1
2
A
12(3 [x])dx = [1 – 2] = –
Sol. I 2
2 3 [sin x] [cos x] 15. The sum of all the elements in the range of
f(x)=Sgn(sinx)+Sgn(cosx)+Sgn(tanx)+Sgn(cotx),
1 12(1)dx 0 12(2)dx 1 12(3)dx 12(4)dx n
I 2 x , n Z,
2 2 1 2 0 3 1 3
2
1, if t 0
I 6 1 12(0 1) 12(1 0) 16 1 where Sgn(t) = , is
2 2 1 if t0
I = 3 –6 + 12 + 12 + 8 – 16 (1) 4 (2) 2
(3) –2 (4) 0
I = 11 + 2
Ans. (2)
5
Sol. x(0, /2) y = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4 17. Let P be a point in the plane of the vector
x(/2, ) y = 1 – 1 – 1 – 1 = –2 AB 3iˆ ˆj kˆ and AC ˆi ˆj 3kˆ such that P
x(, 3/2) y = –1 – 1 + 1 + 1 = 0 is equidistant from the lines AB and AC. If
x(3/2, 2) y = –1 + 1 – 1 – 1 = –2 5
AP , then the area of the triangle ABP is :
Range of y is {–2, 0, 4} 2
Required sum = –2 + 0 + 4 = 2
3
16. Let Q(a, b, c) be the image of the point P(3, 2, 1) in (1) 2 (2)
2
x 1 y z 1
the line . Then the distance of Q
1 2 1 30 26
(3) (4)
x 9 y 9 z 5 4 4
from the line is
3 2 2 Ans. (3)
(1) 6
3 1 3 1
(2) 8 Sol. cos2
11. 11 11
(3) 7
(4) 5
Ans. (3)
Sol.
(r+1,2r,r+1)
P(3,2,1)
Q
<1,2,1>
EN B
1 2sin 2
1
A
2sin 2
12
C
sin
6
LL
drs of PN = < r – 2, 2r – 2, r > 11 11 11
1.(r – 2) + 2(2r – 2) + 1.(r) = 0
1 5 6 30
6r = 6 r = 1 Area(APB) 11
2 2 11 4
N (2, 2, 2)
Q (1, 2, 3) 18. Let
Q(1,2,3)
A = z : z 2 4 and
A
A
B = z : z 2 z 2 5 .
(9,9,5) M <3,2,–2>
Then the max z1 z 2 : z1 A and z 2 B is
AQ 64 49 4 117 15
(1) (2) 8
24 14 4 34 2
AM 2 17
944 17
17
(3) (4) 9
QM 117 68 49 7 2
Ans. (3)
6
Sol. |z – 2| 4 (x –2) + y2 16 6 10.1 10.2 10.22 10.224
20. + + + + ...+ is
x2 y2 326 325 324 323 3
| z 2 | | z 2 | 5 1
a 2 b2 equal to
4x 2 4y 2 (1) 225 (2) 226
1
25 9 (3) 325 (4) 326
Ans. (2)
6 10 (6)25 1
Sol. S
B (z2) A(z1) 326 325 6 1
(2,0) (6,0) 6 10 625 1
S
326 325 5
2 1
S 25 2 2 25 25
3 3
5 17 S=2
26
Maximum value of | z1 z 2 | 6
2 2 SECTION-B
a + b is equal to:
(1) –18
(3) –11
Ans. (3)
x
2
3
dx
2x
1
2
(2) –5
(4) –26
EN
be such that f(0) = –26 + 24 21.
Sol.
If
25
r 1
r
r 4 r 2 1
=
p
q
, where p and q are positive
S
1 25
2
1
2
r
(r r 1)(r 2 r 1)
2
1
2 r 1 r r 1 r r 1
LL
dx
Sol. f(x)
x 2 /3
2x1/2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
...
Put x = t dx = 6t5dt
6 2 1 3 3 7 601 651
1 1
6t 5dt (t 2 4) 4
6 t 2 dt 2 1 651
t 4 2t 3
1 650 325
1
6 (t 2)dt 4 dt 2 651 651
t2
p 325
t2 p + q = 976
6 2t 4 n(t 2) C
A
q 651
2
= 3x1/3 – 12x1/6 + 24n(x1/6 + 2) + C 22. Three persons enter in a lift at the ground floor.
The lift will go upto 10th floor. The number of
f(0) = 24n2 + C = –26 + 24n2 (given)
ways, in which the three persons can exit the lift at
C = –26 three different floors, if the lift does not stop at
Now first, second and third floors, is equal to ______ .
f(1) = –35 + 24n3 = a + bn3 (as given in ques.) Ans. (210)
a = –35 & b = 24 Sol.
7
C3 3
a + b = –11 = 210
7
23. Let f be a differentiable function satisfying 24. If the distance of the point P(43, , ), < 0, from
x
the line r = 4iˆ kˆ + (2iˆ 3k)
ˆ , R along a
e
(x t)
f(x) = 1 – 2x + f(t) dt, x R and let
0 line with direction ratios 3, –1, 0 is 13 10 , then
x 2 + 2 is equal to ________.
(f (t) 2)15 (t – 4) (t + 12) dt, x R.
6 17
g(x) =
0
Ans. (170)
If p and q are respectively the points of local x 43 y z
Sol. P1(43 + 3, – , )
minima and local maxima of g, then the value of 3 1 0
|p + q| is equal to _________ . x 4 y z 1
Ans. (9) P1(2µ + 4, 0, 3µ – 1)
2 0 3
x
EN + = 170
2 2
e–xf(x) – e–xf(x) = –2e–x + (1 – 2x)e–x(–1) + e–xf(x)
f(x) – 2f(x) = 2x – 3 3 4
25. Let A = and B be two matrices such that
dy
– 2y = 2x – 3 1 1
dx A100 = 100B + I. Then the sum of all the elements
y.e2x e2x (2x 3)dx of B100 is ______.
x 3
15
x 4 x 12
6 17 100
100 r
A100 I M
100
M .I
r 0 r
– + – –
–12 3 4 A100 = I + 100M = I + 100B
Local maxima q = 3 0 0
M = B M100 = B100 =
Local minima p = –12 = |p + q| = 9 0 0
A
8
JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY 2026
(HELD ON WEDNESDAY 28th JANUARY 2026) TIME : 3:00 PM TO 6:00 PM
1 1 1 1 1
1/3 Sol.
R 1 v u fnet f1 f2
R
27.
EN 2
A plane electromagnetic wave is moving in free
space with velocity c = 3 × 108 m/s and its electric
field is given as E 54sin kz t ˆj V / m, where
ˆj is the unit vector along y-axis. The magnetic
m=
v 30 30 60
v 60
u 30
1
1
= –2
1 1
15
1 1
(1.5 1) (1.2 1)
12
(2) 10 2 108
54
B sin(kz t)(ˆi)
3 108
(3) 2 2 108
= – 1.8 × 10 sin (kz – t) î
–7
1
30. Two p-n junction diodes D1 and D2 are connected 32. In an experiment, a set of reading are obtained
as shown in figure. A and B are input signals and –1.24 mm, 1.25 mm, 1.23 mm, 1.21 mm. The
C is the output. The given circuit will function as a
expected least count of the instrument used in
____.
recording these readings is _____mm.
Vdc = 5V
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.001
R
D1 (3) 0.1 (4) 0.05
A
Ans. (1)
B C
D2 Sol. Least count will be 0.01 mm.
(1) OR Gate (2) NOR Gate 33. A particle starts moving from time t = 0 and its
(3) NAND Gate (4) AND Gate
coordinate is given as x(t) = 4t3 – 3t.
Ans. (4)
Sol. If either A or B is zero, in that case current flow A. The particle returns to its original position
and vc = 0. (origin) 0.866 units later
Hence the Gate will be AND Gate B. The particle is 1 unit away from origin at its
31. A wheatstone bridge is initially at room
turning point.
EN
temperature and all arms of the bridge have same
value of resistances (R1 = R2 = R3 = R4). When R3
resistance is heated to some temperature, its
resistance value has gone up by 10%. The potential
difference (Va – Vb) (after R3 is heated) is _____V.
Va
R1
R2
R3
Vb
R4
40V
C. Acceleration of the particle is non-negative.
D. The particle is 0.5 units away from origin at its
turning point.
E. Particle never turns back as acceleration is
non-negative.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
LL
(1) 1.05 (2) 0 (3) 0.95 (4) 2 (1) A,C,D only (2) A,B,C only
Ans. (3)
(3) C,E only (4) A,C only
Sol.
C 40 Ans. (2)
R 1.1R 3
20 Sol. x = 0 t 0,
B A 40V 2
v = 12t2 – 3
R R At turning point, v = 0
i2 i1
A
1 4 3
D0 t = x 1
2 8 2
V a = 24t (always positive)
VA
2 34. The speed of a longitudinal wave in a metallic bar
V V
VB R is 400 m/s. If the density and Young's modulus of
2.1R 2.1
the bar material are increased by 0.5% and 1%
1 1
VA VB V
2 2.1 respectively then the speed of the wave is changed
0.1 approximately to _____ m/s.
VA VB 40
2 2.1
(1) 399 (2) 398 (3) 402 (4) 401
4
VA – VB 0.95 Ans. (4)
4.2
2
Y 36. Number of photons of equal energy emitted
Sol. Vsound =
per second by a 6 mW laser source operating at
663 nm is _____.
V 1 Y 1
100 100 100 (Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 J.s and c = 3 × 108 m/s)
V 2 Y 2
(1) 5 × 1016 (2) 5 × 1015
1 1 (3) 10 × 10
15
(4) 2 × 1016
1 0.5
2 2
Ans. (4)
V 1
100 nhC
V 4 Sol. P
1 V
V n 6.63 1034 3 108
4 100 6 103
663 109
V = 1m/s
n = 2 × 1016 photons
Vfinal = 400 + 1 = 401 m/s
35. Identify the correct statements : 37. When the position vector r xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ changes
A. Effective capacitance of a series combination sign as r , which one of the following vector will
EN
of capacitors is always smaller than the smallest
capacitance of the capacitor in the combination.
B. When a dielectric medium is placed between
the charged plates of a capacitor, displacement
of charges cannot occur due to insulation
property of dielectric.
C. Increasing of area of capacitor plate or decreasing
of thickness of dielectric is an alternate method to
not flip under sign change ?
(1) Linear momentum
(2) Velocity
(3) Acceleration
(4) Angular momentum
Ans. (4)
Sol. r xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ
increase the capacitance. dr
v x ˆi v y ˆj v z kˆ
LL
v
D. For a point charge, concentric spherical shells dt
centered at the location of the charge are p mv
equipotential surfaces.
L m(r v)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (xiˆ yjˆ zk)
ˆ m(v ˆi v ˆj v k)
x y z
ˆ
(1) A, B and C only
When sign of r changes, L remains same.
(2) C and D only
A
3
39. A long cylindrical conductor with large cross 2L
(1)
section carries an electric current distributed gsin 2 a 0 (1 cos 2)
uniformly over its cross-section. Magnetic field
4L
due to this current is : (2)
gsin 2 a 0 (1 cos 2)
A. maximum at either ends of the conductor and
minimum at the midpoint 4L
(3)
B. maximum at the axis of the conductor g cos 2 a 0 sin cos
EN
Sol. Solid cylinder
B
Bmax
r
Sol.
Now using,
L 1
1
L
mgsin – ma0cos = ma
a = gsin – a0cos
S ut a down t 2
2
Assuming that initially the small block is at the top when charge is greater than zero.
of the inclined plane, the time it takes to reach the C. The Gauss-Law is valid only for inverse-square
force.
lowest point of the inclined plane is ________. D. The workdone in moving a charged particle in a
static electric field around a closed path is zero.
E. The motion of a particle under Coulomb’s force
must take place in a plane.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
a0 below :
(1) A, B, D, E Only (2) A, B, C, D Only
(3) B, C, D, E Only (4) A, C, E Only
Ans. (3)
L
Sol. Theoretical
4
42. As shown in the figure, a spring is kept in a 44. The time period of a simple harmonic oscillator is
stretched position with some extension by holding k
the masses 1 kg and 0.2 kg with a separation more T 2 . The measured value of mass (m) of
m
than spring natural length and are released.
the object is 10 g with an accuracy of 10 mg, and
Assuming the horizontal surface to be frictionless, time for 50 oscillations of the spring is found to be
the angular frequency (in SI unit) of the system is : 60 s using a watch of 2 s resolution. Percentage
error in determination of spring constant(k) is
k = 150 N/m _______%.
1 kg 200g
(1) 3.43 (2) 3.35 (3) 7.60 (4) 6.76
(1) 30 (2) 27 (3) 20 (4) 5 Ans. (4)
Ans. (1) K 2 T m
Sol.
m1m 2 1 0.2 K T m
Sol. 60
m1 m 2 1.2 T 1.2sec
50
1 2
T
6 50
k 150 K 2 2 10 103
= 30 0.0676
1/ 6 K 50 1.2 10
43.
EN
For a transparent prism, if the angle of minimum
deviation is equal to its refracting angle, the
refractive index n of the prism satisfies.
(1) 2n2 2
(3) n 2
Ans. (4)
(2) 1 < n < 2
(4)
5
SECTION-B 49. A beam of light consisting of wavelengths 650 nm
and 550 nm illuminates the Young’s double slits
46. Two tuning forks A and B are sounded together
with separation of 2 mm such that the interference
giving rise to 8 beats in 2 s. When fork A is loaded fringes are formed on a screen, placed at a distance
with wax, the beat frequency is reduced to 4 beats of 1.2 m from the slits. The least distance of a point
in 2 s. If the original frequency of tuning fork B is from the central maximum, where the bright
380 Hz, then the original frequency of tuning fork fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide, is
A is ______ Hz. ______ × 10–5 m.
Ans. (384) Ans. (429)
Sol. |fA – fB| = 4 D
|fA – 380| = 4 Sol. yn
d
So, fA = 384 Hz or 376 Hz y1 = y2
on loading with wax fA decreases D D
n11 n 2 2
So, fA = 384 Hz d d
47. A thermodynamic system is taken through the n1 2 550 11
cyclic process ABC as shown in the figure. The n 2 1 650 13
total work done by the system during the cycle 1D 11 650 109 1.2
y 11
EN
ABC is ______ J.
300
P(Pa)
100
A
2
B
5
C
V(m3)
d
y = 429 ×10
–5
2 103
6
JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY 2026
(HELD ON WEDNESDAY 28th JANUARY 2026) TIME : 3:00 PM TO 6 :00 PM
1
1 57. Consider the following statements about
55. The plot of log10K vs gives a straight line. The
T manganate and permanganate ions. Identify the
intercept and slope respectively are (where K is correct statements :
equilibrium constant). A. The geometry of both manganate and
2.303R 2.303R S H permanganate ions is tetrahedral.
(1) , (2) ,
H S 2.303R 2.303R B. The oxidation states of Mn in manganate and
SR HR H S permanganate are +7 and +6, respectively.
(3) , (4) , C. Oxidation of Mn(II) salt by peroxodisulphate
2.303 2.303 2.303R 2.303R
Ans. (2) gives manganate ion as the final product.
D. Manganate ion is paramagnetic and
H o So
Sol. log10K = permanganate ions is diamagnetic.
2.303RT 2.303R
E. Acidified permanganate ion reduces oxalate,
So nitrite and iodide ions.
y-intercept =
2.303R Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
H o (1) A, C and D Only (2) A, B and C Only
Slope =
2.303R (3) A, D and E Only (4) A and D Only
56. EN
Ans. (2) is correct.
Ans. (3)
Sol. Reaction given Alcohol N2Cl– Br
(2) Cu2Br2/HBr
(A) CH4 + O2
Mo2O3
HCHO
(B) 2CH3CH3 + 3O2
(CH3COO)2 Mn
CH3COOH CH3 CH2Br
(3) Br2, h
(C)
KMNO 4
OH
CH3
(D) 2CH4 + O2 Cu
CH3–OH
523K, 100 atm. (4) Br2, Fe
Ortho and para Bromotoluenes
KMNO 4 /H
(E) CH3COOH dark
Ans. (1)
And. (3) C, D
2
CH3 CH2–Br 60. The cyclic cations having the same number of
h
A.
N2Cl Br
(2) Cu2Br2/HB
B.
CH3 CH2–Br
(3) Br
2
h
C.
CH3 CH3 CH3
Fe
+ Br2 Br +
(4) dark D.
Br
EN
Major product of reaction (1) will be
CH3
+ Br2 h
below :
C 3 108
(2) Wavelength of B () = =
1016
–8 –9
= 3 × 10 = 30 × 10 = 30 nm.
1 1 (C) 6H
(3) Wavelength of C() = = 10–4 cm
104
= 10–6 m = 1000 nm
Here C > A > B
1 (D) 5H
Energy(E)
So EB > EA > EC
Ans. (2) is correct. Ans. – (1) A & C
3
61. Structures of four disaccharides are given below. 62. Match List-I with List-II according to shape.
Among the given disaccharides, the non-reducing List-I List-II
A. XeO3 I. BrF5
sugar is :
B. XeF2 II. NH3
OH C. XeO2F2 III. [I3]–
OH
O O H D. XeOF4 IV. SF4
H H CH2
(1) H Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
OH H O OH OH (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
H
HO
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
H OH OH H (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
OH OH Ans. (2)
O O Sol. XeF2 & I3 : 2 bond pair 3 lone pair ; Linear
H H H H
(2) H H
XeOF4 & BrF5 : 5 bond pair 1 lone pair ; Square
OH H O OH H pyramidal
HO OH
XeO2F2 & SF4 : 4 bond pair 1 lone pair ; See saw
(3)
EN HO
H
H
H
OH
OH
O
OH
H
H
O
HO
H
H
OH
OH
OH
H
OH
H
63.
XeO3 & NH3 : 3 bond pair 1 lone pair ; Pyramidal
A student performed analysis of aliphatic organic
compound 'X' which on analysis gave C = 61.01%,
H=15.25%, N=23.74%.
This compound, on treatment with HNO2/H2O
produced another compound 'Y' which did not
contain any nitrogen atom. However, the
H OH H OH compound 'Y' upon controlled oxidation produced
LL
another compound 'Z' that responded to iodoform test.
OH OH The structure of 'X' is:
O O (1) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (2) Ph – CH – NH2
H H OH
H H CH3
(4) O
OH H OH H CH3
HO H H (3) CH – NH2 (4)CH3 – CH2CH – CH3
CH3
H OH OH NH2
A
H
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1) Sol.
Sol. Structure (1) given is of sucrose which is
NH2 N2 OH
non reducing. HNO
2
–N
2
H2O
(Y)
For non reducing sugar compound should have
Oxidation
acetal linkage not hemi acetal linkage.
O
OR
(Z)
OR
Give iodoform
test
4
64. Consider the following aqueous solutions. Sol. Correct order of acidic strength of major product
I. 2.2 g Glucose in 125 mL of solution. formed in the given reaction is
II. 1.9 g Calcium chloride in 250 mL of solution. NH2 COOH
III. 9.0 g Urea in 500 mL of solution. (1) NaNO + HCl
(A)
2
EN
(I) Mglucose =
(II) MCaCl2
(III) Murea =
Molarity
2.2 1000
180 125
111 250
9 1000
= 0.098
1.9 1000
0.068
0.3
i×m
0.098 × 1
0.068 × 3
0.3 × 1
N, N-Dimethylmethanamine,
N-Methyl methanamine, Phenylmethanamine,
N-propylaniline, N-phenylaniline,
N, N-Dimethylaniline, Allyl amine,
Isopropyl amine
(1) 4 (2) 2
60 500 (3) 8 (4) 5
LL
20.5 1000 0.08 × 5 Ans. (1)
(IV) MAl2 (SO4 )2 0.08
342 750
Sol. 2° Amine are insoluble with hinsberg reagent.
Order of Tb = Al2(SO4)3 > Urea > CaCl2 > Glucose
Ph–NH–CH3, Me–NH–Me,
So order of BP = Al2(SO4)3 > Urea > CaCl2 > Glucose Ph–NH–CH2–CH2–CH3, Ph–NH–Ph
So Answer will be I < II < III < IV Ans. (1) 4
65. The correct order of acidic strength of the major 67. Consider the following reactions.
A
5
Sol.
Na 2 B4 O7 2NaBO 2 B2O3 69. The correct increasing order of spin-only magnetic
X moment values of the complex ions
[MnBr4]2– (A), [Cu(H2O)6] (B), [Ni(CN4)] (C)
2+ 2–
2+
and [Ni(H2O)6] (D) is:
2
CuSO 4 B2O3
Non-Luminous flame
Cu(BO 2 ) 2 SO3 (1) A = B < C < D (2) A = B < D < C
(Blue bead)
( Z)
(3) C = D < B < A (4) C < B < D < A
2Cu(BO2)2 + 2NaBO2 + C
Lu min ous Flame
Ans. (4)
1
Sol. Mn2+ 3d5 n = 5
2 Cu BO 2 + Na2B4O7 + CO
Colorless
(Q) Cu2+ 3d9 t 2,2,2
2g eg2,1 n = 1
68. For the given reaction; Ni2+ 3d8 square planar n = 0
CaCO3 + 2HC1 CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 Ni2+ 3d8 tetrahedral e2,2 t 2,1,1
2 n=2
If 90 g CaCO3 is added to 300 mL of HCl which 70. A student has been given 0.314 g of an organic
contains 38.55% HCl by mass and has density compound and asked to estimate Sulphur. During
EN
1.13 g mL–1, then which of the following option is
correct?
Given molar mass of H, Cl, Ca and O are 1, 35.5,
40 and 16 g mol–1 respectively.
(1) 64.97 g of HCl remains unreacted
the experiment, the student has obtained 0.4813 g
of barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur
present in the compound is ________ .
(Given Molar mass in g mol–1 S:32, BaSO4 : 233)
(1) 42.10%
(3) 21.05%
(2) 63.15%
(4) 48.24%
(2) 32.85 g of CaCO3 remains unreacted Ans. (3)
LL
(3) 97.30 g of HCl reacted 32 0.4813
Sol. %S = 100
233 0.314
(4) 60.32 g of HCl reamains unreacted = 21.052%
Ans. (1) Ans. (3) 21.05%
6
h 73. For strong electrolyte m increases slowly with
Sol. d
2m K.E. dilution and can be represented by the equation
Here KE is same i.e. 200 k eV m = m – Ac½
1
So d Molar conductivity values of the solutions of
m
strong electrolyte AB at 18°C are given below :
d m1 m2 c [mol L–1] 0.04 0.09 0.16 0.25
4 2
d m 2 m1
m [S cm2 mol–1] 96.1 95.7 95.3 94.9
d m1 = 2 d m
2
The value of constant A based on the above data
So x = 2. [in S cm2 mol–1/(mol/L)1/2] unit is _______.
72. A B (first reaction) Ans. (4)
C D (second reaction)
Sol. Using equation : m = m – A c
Consider the above two first-order reactions. The
rate constant for first reaction at 500 K is double of 96.1 = m – A 0.04
the same at 300 K. At 500 K, 50% of the reaction
96.1 = m – A × 0.2 ……..(1)
EN
becomes complete in 2 hour. The activation energy
of the second reaction is half of that of first
reaction. If the rate constant at 500 K of the second
reaction becomes double of the rate constant of
first reaction at the same temperature; then rate
constant for the second reaction at 300 K is
_______ × 10–1 hour–1 (nearest integer). 74.
95.7 = m – A × 0.09
2 4 intermediate calculations
ln 2
(K1)at 500 K =
2 Given : E oHSnO– |Sn (OH)2– 0.9 V
2 6
(K2)at 500 K = ln2
E oBi2O3 |Bi –0.44V
Now for C K2
D
pKa (H2CO3 ) 6.11
(K 2 )at 500K ln 2 R 1500 1 1 1
ln 2.303RT
(K 2 )at 300K 4 R 300 500 0.059V
F
ln 2 Anti log (1.29) 19.5
(K2)at 300 K = = 0.49
2
Allen Ans. (Bonus)
(K2)at 300 K = 4.9 × 10–1
NTA Ans. (78)
Ans is 5.
7
Sol. We have considered 75. The number of isoelectronic species among Sc3+,
o
E[Sn(OH) 0.9V
2
6 ] /HSnO2 Cr2+, Mn3+, Co3+ and Fe3+ is 'n'. If 'n' moles of AgCl
Pt|HSnO2–(aq),[Sn(OH)6]2–(aq),OH–(aq)|Bi2O3(s)|Bi(s)|
is formed during the reaction of complex with
0.5M 0.05M
E°cell = + 0.9 – 0.44 = 0.46 V formula CoCl3(en)2NH3 with excess of AgNO3
Oxidation Half :
solution, then the number of electrons present in
HSnO2– + H2O + 3OH– [Sn(OH)6]2– + 2e–
Reduction Half : the t2g orbital of the complex is _______.
Bi2O3 + 3H2O + 6e 2Bi + 6OH
– –
EN
1 + pOH = 7.6
pOH = 6.6
6
10 2 0.2247
log
OH
0.059
pH = 14 – 6.6 = 7.4
= 7.6
[HCO3 ]
[OH ]
Mn+3 22
Co
Fe
+3
+3
24
23