08-02-2026

9610WMD801939250022 MD

PHYSICS

1) An observer is moving along the line AB as shown. When image of object O is first visible to
observer, he starts from rest with the acceleration of 2cm/s2, then the time for which image is visible

to observer is :

(1) 3 sec
(2) 9 sec
(3) 12 sec
(4) None of the above

2) As shown in figure light P enters to slab at an angle 60° with normal and inside
slab Q makes total internal reflection. Find minimum refractive index of slab.

(1) 1.72
(2) 1.52
(3) 1.32
(4) 1.12

3) An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the
object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image
will be :

(1) 30 cm away from the mirror

(2) 36 cm away from the mirror
(3) 30 cm towards the mirror
(4) 36 cm towards the mirror

4) A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f at a
distance u from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is approximately equal to
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A telescope consisting of an objective of focal length 60 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm is

focussed to a distant object in such a way that parallel rays emerge from the eye piece. If the object
subtends an angle of 2° at the objective, then find the angular width of the image.

(1) 24°
(2) 26°
(3) 21°
(4) 20°

6) Water (with refractive index = ) in a tank is 18 cm deep. Oil of refractive index lies on water
making a convex surface of radius of curvature ‘R = 6 cm’ as shown. Consider oil to act as a thin
lens. An object ‘S’ is placed 24 cm above water surface. The location of its image is at ‘x’ cm above

the bottom of the tank. Then ‘x’ is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) A small object of trapezium shape is placed along principal axis of a concave mirror as shown in

the figure. which of the following figure is best representation of

image of the object ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) In the given figure, the face AC of the equilateral prism is immersed in a liquid of refractive index
‘n’. For incident angle 60° at the side AC, the refracted light beam just grazes along face AC. The

refractive index of the liquid . The value of x is_____ . (Given refractive index of glass = 1.5)

(1) 18
(2) 27
(3) 9
(4) 36

9) Optical axis of a thin equiconvex lens is the x-axis. The coordinates of a point object and its image
are (–40 cm, 1 cm) and (50 cm, –2cm) respectively. Then lens is located at :

(1) x = 20 cm
(2) x = –30 cm
(3) x = –10 cm
(4) origin

10) A narrow beam of ultrasonic waves reflects from a liver tumer at some depth inside the liver as
shown in figure. The speed of the ultrasonic wave is 25% less in the liver than in the surrounding

medium. Then depth of the tumor in cm will be:

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 18/4

11) AB is the semi-circular object of diameter (f/2) where f is the focal length, placed on the principal
axis of a concave mirror with point A at the centre of curvature. A' B' is the image formed. Find the
correct option:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) If light travels a distance x in time t1 sec in air and 10x distance in time t2 in a certain medium,
then find the critical angle of the medium.

(1)
sin–1

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. On the other
side of the lens, an convex mirror is placed at its focus such that the image formed by the
combination coincides with the object itself. The focal length of the convex mirror is

(1) 20 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 30 cm

14) Consider a concave mirror and a convex lens (refractive index = 1.5) of focal length 10 cm each,
separated by a distance of 50 cm in air (refractive index = 1) as shown in the figure. An object is
placed at a distance of 15 cm from the mirror. Its erect image formed by this combination has
magnification M1. When the set-up is kept in a medium of refractive index 7/6 the magnification

becomes M2. The magnitude is.

(1) 7
(2) 14
(3) 9
(4) 3

15) The graph shows how the magnitude of magnification produced by a thin plano-convex lens for a
real image varies with image distance v. Which of the following is correct?
(1) focal length of lens is b/c.

(2) if the refractive index of the lens material is µ. then the radius of curved surface will be
.

if the lens is placed in contact with another thin lens of focal length , the focal length of
(3)
combination will be .
(4) None of these

16) In case of a curved mirror if the distance of object (u) and image (v) are measured from the pole
and a graph is ploted between (1/u) and (1/v), the graph is a

(1) Straight line passing through the origin

(2) Straight line making an intercept with both 1/u and 1/v axes
(3) Parabola
(4) Hyperbola

17) Find the value of x so that image of object formed at infinite from a quarter cylinder of refractive
index μ = 4

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 1

18) An observer can see through a pin–hole the top end of a thin rod of height h, placed as shown in
the figure. The beaker height is 3h and its radius h. When the beaker is filled with a liquid up to a
height 2h, he can see the lower end of the rod. Then the refractive index of the liquid is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A fish is rising up vertically inside a pond with velocity 4 cm/s and notices a bird, which is diving
vertically downward and its velocity appears to be 16 cm/s (to the fish). What is the real velocity of
the diving bird (in cm/sec.), if refractive index of water is 4/3.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 12
(4) 9

20) A plane mirror is moving with velocity . A point object in front of the mirror moves
with a velocity . Here, is along the normal to the plane mirror and facing towards the
object. The velocity of the image is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) A thin prism of glass is placed in air and water respectively. If , then the
ratio of deviation produced by the prism for a small angle of incidence when placed in air and water
separately is:

(1) 9 : 8
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 3 : 4
(4) 4 : 1
22) The following figure shows different arrangements of two identical pieces of thin plano-convex
lenses. The refractive index of the liquid used is less than that of the glass. The effective focal
lengths in the three cases are related as:

(1) f1 = f2 > f3
(2)
(3) f1 = f2 < f3
(4) f1 = f2 = f3

23) An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when
viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm)
of the slab is :-

(1) 9
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 18

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following carbanion is resonance stabilised ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Which of the following molecules has longest C=C length ?

(1) CH2=C=CH2
(2) CH3–CH=CH2

(3)

(4)

3) Identify which of the following does not show +M effect ?

(1) –NH2
(2) –OΘ

(3)

(4)

4) In which of following option 1st is more stable than IInd ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Select the correct order of basicity

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) Assertion : Anisole undergoes electrophilic substitution at ortho and para position.

Reason : Anisole is an aromatic compound.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

7) Order of stability of carbocations :-

(1) I > IV > III > II

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) I > III > IV > II
(4) II > III > IV > I

8) Which among these can exhibit tautomerism ?

(1) II only
(2) I only
(3) III only
(4) II and III

9) Hyperconjugation occurs in :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

10) The abstraction of proton will be fastest in which carbon in the following compounds ?

(1) X
(2) Y
(3) Z
(4) P

11) Which of the following species is an intermediate in the reaction shown below ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
12)
The compound (X) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Statement-I :- Iodination of alkanes is very fast.

Statement-II :- Iodination of alkanes is carried out in the presence of an oxidizing agent

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.

14) Assertion :- Tropylium cation is aromatic in nature .

Reason :- The only property that determines the aromatic behaviour is it’s planarity.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

15) For the given reaction, how many products (mono substituted) will be obtained including stereo.
all isomers ?
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

16)
Products B & C are :

(1) Position isomers

(2) Enantiomer
(3) Geometric isomers
(4) None of these

17) Which of the following is/are the major product, of the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

18) Which of the following is true ?

(1) Acetylene is more reactive than ethylene to an electrophilic attack

(2) Acetylene is less reactive than ethylene towards electrophilic attack
(3) Acetylene may show more reactivity or less reactivity towards electrophilic reagent
(4) Acetylene and ethylene show identical reactivities towards an electrophilic attack
19) The increasing order of reduction of alkyl. halides with zinc and dilute HCl is :

(1) R — Cl < R — I < R — Br

(2) R — Cl < R — Br < R — I
(3) R — I < R — Br < R — Cl
(4) R — Br < R — I < R — Cl

20)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which of following catalyst is best for single step conversion of CH4 into formaldehyde ?

(1) Cu / 300°C
(2) Mo2O3 / Δ
(3) (CH3COO)2 Mn / Δ
(4) KMnO4 / Δ

22) Order of acidic strength of following alcohols :

A. CH ≡ C – CH2OH
B. CH2 = CH – CH2OH

C.
D. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(1) A > B > C > D
(2) D > C > B > A
(3) A > C > B > D
(4) B > C > D > A

BIOLOGY

1) Chemotaxonomy is connected with :-

(1) Classification of plants on the basis of chemicals found in them.

(2) Use of chromosome structures.
(3) Application of chemicals, obtained from plants for experiment.
(4) Use of statistical methods in chemical yielding plants.

2) Numerical taxonomy is based on :

(1) All observable characters in organisms

(2) Cytological informations
(3) Chemical constituents in plants
(4) Economic importance of plants

3) Taxonomy which is based on chromosomal number, structure and behaviour is called as :-

(1) Chemo-taxonomy
(2) Alpha taxonomy
(3) Cytotaxonomy
(4) Numerical taxonomy

4) The basis of modern taxonomic studies are :-

(a) External structure only
(b) Structure of cell
(c) Development process
(d) Ecological informations

(1) a and b only

(2) a, b and c only
(3) a, c and d only
(4) b, c and d

5) ICBN stands for :-

(1) International class of biological nomenclature

(2) International code of biological nomenclature
(3) Indian code of botanical nomenclature
(4) International code of botanical nomenclature
6) Unicellular organisms shows growth and reproduction through :-

(1) Cell division

(2) Sexual reproduction
(3) Only binary fission
(4) Vegetative propagation

7) Read the following statements :

Statement A : Non living objects do not exhibit metabolism.
Statement B : Isolated metabolic reaction(s) outside the body of an organism, performed in a test
tube is neither living nor non-living.

(1) Only statement (A) is correct

(2) Only statement (B) is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct

8) Which one of the following name is correct representation of binomial nomenclature ?

(1) Mangifera Indica Linnaeus

(2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) mangifera indica Linn
(4) Mangifera indica Linn

9) Read the following statements. Find out which are correct.

(A) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are related and included in sapindales.
(B) Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed in the family solanaceae
(C) Genera are aggregates of closely related species
(D) Sapindales and polymoniales are related so they are included in one class dicotyledonae

(1) A, B, C and D are correct

(2) A, C and D are correct
(3) A and D are correct
(4) B, C and D are correct

10) Statement-1 : Genus comprises a group of related species which has less characters in common
in comparison to species of other genera.
Statement-2 : Genus Panthera and genus Felis are included in the family felidae.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is the correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.

11) Which of the following is an unique feature of chemosynthetic autotrophs ?

(1) Mucilagenous sheath
(2) Chitin - cell wall
(3) Oxidation of inorganic substance for ATP production
(4) Cellular body organisation

12) Read the following statements (A-D) :

(A) In the five kingdom classification Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in Protista.
(B) Entamoeba coli a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine.
(C) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicillium.
(D) Hydrogen donor in photosynthesis of purple sulphur bacteria is H2S.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

13) In oogamy, fertilization involves :-

(1) A small motile female gamete and a small non–motile male gamete.
(2) A small non–motile female gamete and a large motile male gamete.
(3) A large non–motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete.
(4) A large non–motile female gamete and a large non–motile male gamete.

14) Statement-I : Pigments of euglenoids are identical to higher plant.

Statement-II : Euglena have two equal flagella.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

15) Which of the following is mismatched pair of protozoan group and its example?

(1) Amoeboid protozoan – Entamoeba histolytica

(2) Flagellated protozoan – Trypanosoma
(3) Ciliated protozoan – Paramoecium
(4) Sporozoan – Gonyaulax

16) Which of the following combinations of characters is true for slime moulds?

(1) Parasitic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by air currents.

(2) Saprophytic, plasmodium with walls, spores dispersed by water.
(3) Parasitic, plasmodium without walls, spore dispersed by water.
(4) Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by air current.
17) The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to:

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Phycomycetes

18) Identify A and B given below:

A - DNA virus - Cauliflower mosaic virus

(1)
B - RNA virus - Pox virus
A - RNAvirus - T.M.V.
(2)
B - DNA virus - Bacteriophage
A - RNA virus - Hepatitis B virus
(3)
B - Reterovirus - T. M.V.
A - RNA virus - Hepatitis B virus
(4)
B - RNA virus - Bacterophage

19)

Select incorrectly matched pair :

(1) Mucor — Phycomycetes

(2) Albugo candida — Ascomycetes
(3) Agaricus bisporus — Edible basidiocarp
(4) Puccinia graminis — Black rust fungi

20) “Slime Moulds (B) forms Fruiting bodies".

In the above mentioned incomplete statement, labelling represents

(1) A - Aggregation, B - Plasmodium, C - During favourable condition

(2) A - Suitable conditions, B - Plasmodium, C - Aggregation
(3) A - Aggregation, B - Plasmodium, C - During unfavourable condition
(4) A - Suitable conditions, B - Pseudoplasmodium, C - Aggregation

21) Choose the wrong statement for fungi.

(i) They prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
(ii) Their bodies consist of long, slender thread-like structures called hyphae.
(iii) The cell walls of fungi are composed of chitin and polysaccharides.
(iv) The spores are produced in distinct structures called fruiting bodies.
(v) Fusion of protoplasm of two gametes called karyogamy.
(vi) Fusion of two nuclei called plasmogamy.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii)
(4) (v) and (vi)

22) Match the entities in column I with their character in column II:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Puccinia (I) Parasitic fungi on mustard

(B) Dikaryon (II) Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes

(C) Rhizopus (III) Smut fungi

(D) Albugo (IV) Wheat rust

(E) Ustilago (V) Bread mould

(1) A–IV, B–II, C–V, D–III, E–I
(2) A–IV, B–II, C–V, D–I, E–III
(3) A–IV, B–II, C–IV, D–III, E–I
(4) A–III, B–V, C–I, D–IV, E–II

23) The black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by -

(1) Albugo candida

(2) Puccinia graminis tritici
(3) Ustilago nuda
(4) Cleviceps purpurea

24) Indestructible cell wall is due to ________ and present in ________.

(1) Silica, Ceratium and Gymnodinium

(2) Cellulose, Physarum
(3) Pectin, Diatoms
(4) Silica, Diatoms

25) Arrange the following events of sexual reproduction in fungi in the correct sequence:
(a) Karyogamy (fusion of nuclei).
(b) Meiosis in zygote.
(c) Plasmogamy (fusion of protoplasm).
(d) Formation of haploid spores.

(1) a → b → c → d
(2) c → a → b → d
(3) c → b → a → d
(4) b → c → a → d

26) Consider the following statements about Kingdom Protista:

(a) All protists are eukaryotic organisms.
(b) Most protists are multicellular with organ system level of organization.
(c) They exhibit locomotion with cilia, flagella, or pseudopodia.
(d) Being eukaryotes, protists have membrane-bound organelles.
Choose the correct option:

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, d

27) Read the following pair and select correct one :-

(a) Diatoms — haploid body
(b) Dinoflagellates — water bloom
(c) Slime mould — decomposer
(d) Euglenoids — some time act as predator
(e) Protozoa — unicellular prokaryotes

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) b, c, d, e
(4) a, c, d, e

28) In Carl Woese classification, how many kingdom have unicellular organisms :-

(1) Two kingdom

(2) One kingdom
(3) Three kingdom
(4) Unicelluar organism are placed in domain not in kingdom

29) NH3 NO2

NO2 NO3
In the above reaction A & B are respectively :-

(1) Rhizobium, Pseudomonas

(2) E. coli, Pseudomonas
(3) Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter
(4) Nitrobacter, Nitrosomonas

30) Select the incorrect match :

(1) Trichoderma — Phycomycetes
(2) Puff balls and toad stools — Basidiomycetes
(3) Early blight of potato — Alternaria solani
(4) Late blight of potato — Phytophthora infestans

31) Match column A with column B -

Column A Column B

a. Mycorrhiza i. Pollen grain

b. Coralloid roots ii. Pinus

c. Male gametophyte iii. Cycas

d. Selaginella iv. Sequoia

e. Giant redwood v. Lycopsida

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c - (iii), d- (iv), e - (v)
(2) a-(v), b-(iv), c - (iii), d- (ii), e - (i)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iii), c - (i), d- (v), e - (iv)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c - (v), d- (i), e - (ii)

32) Mosses are attached to soil through ___(A)___ and ___(B)___ rhizoids.

(1) A→Branched, B→unicellular

(2) A→Unicellular, B→branched
(3) A→Multicellular, B→branched
(4) A→Multicellular, B→unbranched

33) Which of the following not belongs to similar taxonomic group ?

(1) Polysiphonia
(2) Porphyra
(3) Sargassum
(4) Gelidium

34) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Cycas i. Heterosporous fern

B. Pinus ii. Homosporous fern

C. Salvinia iii. Pinnate leaves

D. Adiantum iv. Needle like leaves

(1) A → iv; B → iii; C → ii; D → i
(2) A → iv; B → iii; C → i; D → ii
(3) A → iii; B → iv; C → i; D → ii
(4) A → iii; B → iv; C → ii; D → i

35) Choose the correct statement regarding gymnosperm -

(1) Seeds are developed pre-fertilization

Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed, both before and after
(2)
fertilization
(3) They show double fertilization
(4) They form haploid endosperm after fertilization

36) Choose the incorrect statement from the following:-

(1) Main plant body of pteridophytes is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
(2) Large and small types of leaves are present in pteridophytes
(3) Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess xylem and phloem.
Most of the pteridophytes produce two kinds of spores, macro and micro spores by
(4)
meiotic division.

37)
Identify the plants given in the figure (a) and (b).

(1) Selaginella and Pteris

(2) Equisetum and Salvinia
(3) Selaginella and Equisetum
(4) Salvinia and Azolla

38) Which of the followings is/are not an ecological importance of mosses ?

(A) They form dense mats on soil, thus they reduce the impact of falling rain and prevent soil
erosion.
(B) They provide food for herbivore mammals, birds and other animals.
(C) They are used as packing material for trans shipment of living materials.
(D) Alongwith lichen they are first to colonise rocks.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) Only C
(4) C and D
39) Statement–1 :- Bryophytes are also called amphibians of plant kingdom. Statement–2 :-
Bryophytes can live in soil but are dependent on water for fertilization.

Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true; Statement–2 is not the correct explanation

(1)
of Statement–1.
(2) Statement–1 is false, Statement–2 is true.
(3) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is false.
Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true; Statement–2 is the correct explanation of
(4)
Statement–1.

40) The following flow chart related to life cycle of moss :-

Select the correct option with respect to "X" given in flow chart (life cycle) :-

(1) X (Slender) axis bearing spirally arranged leaves.

(2) "X" have multicellular root
(3) This stage bear the sex organs.
(4) Creeping green, branched and filamentous stage

41) In the list given below, how many members belong to chlorophyceae ?
Porphyra, Fucus, Volvox, Spirogyra, Dictyota, Chara, Ulothrix

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

42) Which of the following alga is rich in proteins and used as food supplement by space travellers ?

(1) Porphyra
(2) Chlorella
(3) Laminaria
(4) Gelidium

43) Assertion : In Fucus, sexual reproduction takes place through fusion between one large, non-
motile female gamete and a smaller, motile male gamete. Reason : Fucus show oogamous type of
sexual reproduction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

44) The algae whose gametes are pyriform and bear two laterally attached flagella :-

(1) Green algae

(2) Red algae
(3) Brown algae
(4) Blue green algae

45)

Arrange the following events in a correct sequence in the life cycle of fern :-
(I) Fertilization (II) Liberation of spores
(III) Prothallus (IV) Embryo

(1) II, III, I, IV

(2) IV, III, II, I
(3) I, II, III, IV
(4) I, IV, III, II
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 4 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 1 3 2 4 2 4 2
Q. 21 22 23
A. 4 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
A. 4 4 4 3 2 2 1 1 3 1 4 2 4 3 1 3 2 2 2 1
Q. 44 45
A. 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 3 4 4 1 4 2 4 4 3 3 3 1 4 4 2 2 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 2 4 2 2 2 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 2 4 3 3 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explain Question:
An observer moves down along the line AB. A plane mirror (vertical) of length h = 27 is at left;
an object O is 10 cm in front of the mirror. The observer’s line AB is 10 cm right of the object
(so the observer is 20 cm from the mirror). When the image of O becomes visible the observer
starts from rest with the acceleration a = 2 cm/s2. Find for how long the image remains visible
(i.e. the time during which the observer passes the vertical span where the mirror reflects the
image to his eye).

Concept:
Field of view.

Solution:

From two similar triangles in the diagram we can write.

x = 81cm
Image is visible for a distance on AB = 81cm
Now using equation of motion for calculating time.

S=

81 =
t=

Final answer: option (2)

2) sin2 i = n12 – n22

sin2 60° = n12 – 1

n1 = = 1.32

3)
(i)

(ii)

= – 60 cm

Displacement of image = v2 – v1 = – 36 cm
= 36 cm away from the mirror

4)

5)

β = 24

6)

7)

Image will be magnified

8)
Using snell’s law at face AC
1.5 sin 60º = n × sin 90°

1.5 × =n=

x = 27
Final Answer : (2)

9) Let optical centre of lens is at (x, 0)

(50 – x) = 2(x + 40)

–30 = 3x
–10 = x

10) µ =
1 sin 53° = µ sin r

r = 37°

d = 8 cm
Final Answer : (3)

11) Image of A will be at A as A is at centre of curvature

For B :

So, length of image =

12) μ =

sinθC = ⇒ θC =sin–1 .

13) To retrace the path after reflection from mirror rays after refraction from lens must
incident towards centre of curvature of mirror image by lens

fm = 10 cm

14) Mirror :

Lens : u = – (50 - 30) = – 20 = – 2f

∴ V = + 2f

∴ M 1 = m1 × m2 = – 2 × – 1 = 2
In medium :-
m1 = – 2 (Remain same)

∴ m2 =
M2 = m1 × m2 = – 2 × –7 = 14

∴
Final Answer : (1)
15) ,

,
So f = c/b

16)

y = –mx + c

17)

18)
PQ = QR = 2h
∴ ∠ i = 45º
∴ ST = RT = h = KM = KN
19) vB = 16 cm/sec; 4 cm/sec

20)

21)

22)
 23)

CHEMISTRY

24) 'S' atom has vacant d-orbital where the negative charge of a carbanion can be delocalised.

25)
Due to Hyperconjugation single bond character aries in double bond so bond length increase
B.L. of double bond ∝ No. of α-H atoms ∝ hyperconjugation

26) do not contain lone pair or negative charge on first atom.

27) In option 1, 2nd compound is tropylium cation which is more stable due to aromaticity.
In option "4" 2nd compound is more stable than Ist because Ist compound has ring strain.

Ist is more stable than IInd because in resonating structure of Ist compound, octet of carbon is
complete. So it is highly stable.

28) Acidic strength order

[CH3–CH3 < CH2=CH2 < NH3 < CH≡CH < H2O]

29) OR(OCH3) is ortho-para directing (cause +R effect).

30) +I or –I effect depends on EN. as well as distance. In Ist structure only +I group present so
it increase stability of carbocation.

31)

32) As hyper conjugation is directly proportional to the No. of α-hydrogens.

with the help of resonating structure, this structure is represented in two

ways. (α-hydrogen present)
Hence, option (3) is correct.

33) Abstraction of proton in the given compound create anionic species and It is shown below.

X proton abstraction
Y proton abstraction

Z proton abstraction

P proton abstraction
In all the structures, on X-proton abstraction (Comparatively) a long resonance sequence is
formed which is able to stablies the compound. Therefore, option (1) is correct.

34) This reaction occurs via cyclic halonium ion formation.

35)

36) Since, iodination of alkanes is very slow and a reversible process, hence iodination of
alkanes is carried out in the presence of an oxidizing agent like HIO3 or HNO3.

37) Tropylium is planar, having conjugated double bonds and follow 4n + 2 rule.
38)

39)
Kolbe's electrolysis follows free radical mechanism.
 40) The reaction is an example of electrophilic addition reaction & the intermediate here is a
carbocation.

41) Option (2) is correct i.e., Acetylene is less reactive than ethylene towards electrophilic
attack.

42) The reactivity of halogens with alkane is F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2. Hence, reduction of alkyl
halide with Zn and dilute HCl follows reverse order i.e., R–I > R–Br > R–Cl. Further, the
reactivity of this reduction increases as the strength of C–X bond decreases.

43) Addition of halogens in non polar solvent occurs in anti manner.

44)

45)

BIOLOGY

46) Explain Question : Question asking about Chemotaxonomy.

Concept : This question is based on type of taxonomy.
Solution : chemotaxonomy, that uses the chemical constituents of the plant.
Final answer : (1)
47) Explanation: Basis of numerical taxonomy.
Concept: Numerical Taxonomy
Solution: Numerical taxonomy, also known as phenetics, is a classification method based on
all observable characters of an organism. It uses computers to assign a numerical score to a
large number of traits, giving equal importance to each character. This approach aims to
create an objective classification based on overall similarity.
Final Answer: (1)

48) Question Explanation: Question is asking about which type of taxonomy which is based
on chromosomal number, structure and behaviour.
Concept: Taxonomy type, definition
Solution: Cytotaxonomy, that is based on cytological information like chromosome number,
structure, behaviour.
Final answer: option (3)

49) Explanation: Question asking about which are basis of modern taxonomic studies.
Concept: Taxonomy type, definition
Solution: In modern taxonomical studies, taxonomists use external and internal structure,
along with the structure of cell, developmental processes and ecological information of
organisms, so only external structure is not the basis of modern taxonomy.
Final answer: (4)

50) Explain Question: Question is asking about full form of ICBN

Concept: Nomenclature
Solution: For plants, scientific names are based on agreed principles and criteria, which are
provided in International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN).
Final answer: (4)

51)

Explain Question : Question asking about growth and reproduction in Unicellular organisms.

Concept : This question is based on living world

Solution : Unicellular organisms grow by cell division. Unicellular organisms like bacteria,
unicellular algae or Amoeba, reproduction is synonymous with growth, i.e., increase in number
of cells. We have already defined growth as equivalent to increase in cell number or mass.
Hence, we notice that in single-celled organisms, we are not very clear about the usage of
these two terms – growth and reproduction.

Final Answer : option (1)

52) Solution : (A) Non-living objects do not exhibit metabolism. (B) Isolated metabolic
reactions outside the organism (in a test tube) are neither living nor non-living.
Final Answer : (4)

53) Explanation: Identifying correct binomial nomenclature.

Concept: Binomial Nomenclature
Solution: The rules of binomial nomenclature require the genus name to start with a capital
letter and the species name to start with a lowercase letter. Both parts must be italicized or
underlined. The name of the author (e.g., Linnaeus) is written after the scientific name, often
in an abbreviated form, and is not italicized.
Final Answer: (2)

54) Solution : (A) Family convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are included in the order
polymoniales, not in sapindales.
Final Answer : (4)

55) Explain Question: Question is asking given two statement about taxonomic categories
like genus,family and order,select correct or incorrect statement.
Concept: Taxonomic categories
Solution:
Statement-1 : Genus comprises a group of related species which has less characters in
common to species of other genera. incorrect
Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in
comparison to species of other genera.
Statement-2 is Correct
Final answer: 4

56) Solution : Oxidation of inorganic substance for ATP production.

Final Answer : (3)

57) Solution :
(B) Entamoeba is not a bacterium but it is a sporozoan (Protozoa).
(C) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to kingdom protista but Penicillium belongs to
kingdom fungi.
Final Answer : (3)

58) Concept :
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

59) Solution : Euglenoids Pigments similar to higher plants but flagella are of unequal in size.
Final Answer : (1)
60) Explaining : Gonyaulax is a dinoflagellates
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

61) Explaining : Under suitable conditions they form an aggregation which may grow and
spread over several feet called plasmodium. During unfavourable conditions plasmodium
forms fruiting bodies, which bear spores at their tip. The spores posses true walls. They are
extremely resistant and survive for many years, even under adverse conditions. The spores are
dispersed by air current.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

62) Explaining : A large number of members of this class are decomposers of litter and help
in mineral cycling.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

63) Explaining :

Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

64) Explaining : Albugo candida — It causes "White rust or white spots disease" in the
members of cruciferae family member of class Phycomycetes.
Final Answer : (2)

65) Explaining : Under suitable conditions they form an aggregation which may grow and
spread over several feet called plasmodium. During unfavourable conditions plasmodium
forms fruiting bodies, which bear spores at their tip. The spores posses true walls. They are
extremely resistant and survive for many years, even under adverse conditions. The spores are
dispersed by air current.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)
 66) Solution :
(v) Fusion of protoplasm of two gametes called plasmogamy.
(vi) Fusion of two nuclei called karyogamy.
Final Answer : (4)

67) Solution : A–IV, B–II, C–V, D–I, E–III

(A) Puccinia (IV) Wheat rust

(B) Dikaryon (II) Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes

(C) Rhizopus (V) Bread mould

(D) Albugo (I) Parasitic fungi on mustard

(E) Ustilago (III) Smut fungi

Final Answer : (2)

68) Explaining : Rust Fungi: - Puccinia graminis (black rust of wheat)

Final Answer : (2)

69) Explaining: The cell wall(shell) of diatoms is made up of cellulose in which silica particles
are embedded in at many places. Due to which the cell wall appears to be made up of silica.
This silicated cell wall is called "shell" or "frustule"
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

70) Solution : c → a → b → d
Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Meiosis → Formation of haploid spores
Final Answer : (2)

71) Solution : All protists are unicellular with cellular organisation.

Final Answer : (2)

72) Solution : (a) Diatoms — Diploid body ; (b) Protozoa — Unicellular eukaryotes
Final Answer : (2)

73) Solution : Three kingdom : Archaebacteira, Monera, Protista

Final Answer : (3)

74) Solution : Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter

Final Answer : (3)

75) Solution : Trichoderma — belong to Deuteromycetes.

Final Answer : (1)
 76) Question Explanation: Question asks about matching plant structures/groups in Column
A with their correct associations in Column B.
Concept: Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms
Solution: a–ii, b–iii, c–i, d–v, e–iv.
Mycorrhiza → found in Pinus
Coralloid roots → found in Cycas
Male gametophyte → Pollen grain
Selaginella → belongs to Lycopsida
Giant redwood → Sequoia
Final Answer: (3)

77) Solution : Mosses are attached to soil through multicellular and branched rhizoids.
Final Answer : (3)

78) Question Explanation : The question asks to find the organism that does not belong to
the same major taxonomic group
Concept : The question is based on class of algae
Solution : Polysiphonia, Porphyra and Gelidium—are members of the class Rhodophyceae
(red algae). Sargassum belongs to the class Phaeophyceae (brown algae)
Final answer : (3)

79) Solution : A → iii; B → iv; C → i; D → ii

A. Cycas iii. Pinnate leaves

B. Pinus iv. Needle like leaves

C. Salvinia i. Heterosporous fern

D. Adiantum ii. Homosporous fern

Final Answer : (3)

80)

Explain Question : Question asking select correct statement regarding gymnosperm.

Concept : This question is based on Gymnosperm-general characters ,life cycle.
Solution :
1 Seeds are developed pre-fertilization-Incorrect
Correct is-The seeds that develop post-fertilisation,
2 Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed, both before and after
fertilization-correct
3 They show double fertilization--Incorrect
Correct is-double fertilisation characteristic feature of angiosperm
4 They form haploid endosperm after fertilization--Incorrect
In gymnosperm endosperm form before fertilization and it is a haploid endosperm.
Final answer : 2

81) Explain Question : Question asking select incorrect statement about life cycle of
pteridophytes.
Concept : This question is based on pteridophytes
Solution :
1. Main plant body of pteridophytes is differentiated into root, stem and leaves. (Correct)
2. Large and small types of leaves are present in pteridophytes. (Correct)
3. Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess xylem and phloem. (Correct)
4. Most of the pteridophytes produce two kinds of spores, macro and micro spores by meiotic
division. (Incorrect)
In the majority of the pteridophytes all the spores are of similar kinds; such plants
are called homosporous. Some pteridophytes (Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia)
which produce two kinds of spores, macro (large) and micro (small) spores, are
known as heterosporous.
Final Answer : (4)

82) Concept : Intra of Pteridophytes

Solution : The given figures (a) Selaginella and (b) Equisetum
Final answer : (3)

83) Explain Question :The question asks to identify which of the provided statements are not
considered an ecological importance of mosses.
Concept : This question is based on mosses.
Solution : C is not an ecological importance but rather a human use of mosses (Economic
importance).
Final answer : (3)

84) Question Explanation : The question provides two statements about bryophytes and asks
you to evaluate whether they are true or false, and whether Statement-2 correctly explains
Statement-1.
Concept:
This question is based on Bryophytes.

Solution: Statement-1: Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom - True
Statement-2: Bryophytes can live in soil but are dependent on water for fertilization - True
Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom because these plants can live in
soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction. They usually occur in damp, humid
and shaded localities.
Final answer: 4. Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct
explanation of Statement-1

85) Explain Question :The question asks to identify the correct description for the stage
labeled "X" in flowchart of the life cycle of a moss
Concept : This question is based on life cycle of a moss
Explanation :"Creeping green, branched and filamentous stage" This is the precise
description of a protonema
Final answer :4

86) Explain Question : The question provides a list of algae genera and asks How many of
them belong to the class Chlorophyceae (green algae)
 Concept : This question is based on Chlorophyceae (green algae)
Explanation : "Chlorophyceae (green algae) are mostly freshwater and have chlorophyll a and
b as major pigments. Common members include Volvox, Spirogyra, Ulothrix, and Chara."
Final answer : (2)

87) Explain Question : The question asks you to identify a specific type of alga that is known
for its high protein content and has been used as a food supplement, particularly by space
travelers
Concept : This question is based on Chlorophyceae
Explanation : "Chlorella is a unicellular green alga rich in protein and used as a food
supplement by space travellers."
Final answer : 2

88) Explain Question :The question asks you to analyze an Assertion and a Reason and
determine the correct relationship between them
Concept : This question is based on Phaeophyceae
Solution :
Assertion: Fucus has large, non-motile female gametes and small, motile male gametes.
True — matches the definition of oogamy.
Reason: Fucus shows oogamous reproduction.
True — Correct classification of the reproductive strategy.
Oogamy directly explains the fusion of a large, non-motile egg with a small, motile sperm.
Final answer : (1)

89) Explain Question :The question asks to identify the specific group of algae based on the
unique characteristics of their gametes.
Concept : This question is based on Brown algae (Phaeophyceae)
Explanation :The gametes of brown algae are pyriform and have two laterally inserted
flagella of unequal length.
Final answer :3

90) Correct Answer: Option 1: II, III, I, IV

Explanation: The life cycle of a fern (pteridophyte) follows the haplodiplontic pattern,
alternating between the sporophyte (2n) and gametophyte (n) stages. The correct sequence of
events is:

A. Liberation of Spores (II) – The sporophyte (diploid) produces spores (haploid) through meiosis,
which are released into the environment.
B. Prothallus Formation (III) – The haploid spores germinate to form a small, independent
gametophyte (prothallus). This prothallus carries out photosynthesis and develops
reproductive structures.
C. Fertilization (I) – The antheridia (male) release motile sperm, which swim in water to fertilize
the egg in the archegonia (female), forming a diploid zygote.
D. Embryo Formation (IV) – The zygote develops into a young sporophyte (embryo), which later
matures into the dominant fern plant.

Final Answer : (1)