04-08-2024

9610ZMD801332240003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A man in a balloon rising vertically with an acceleration of 4.9 m/s2 releases a ball 2 s after the
balloon is let go from the ground. The greatest height above the ground reached by the ball is
(g=9.8m/s2):-

(1) 14.7 m
(2) 19.6 m
(3) 9.8 m
(4) 24.5 m

2) Particle moves in straight line with constant velocity of 10 m/s for 5 sec, then with constant
retardation of 10 m/s2. Find its total displacement before coming to rest :-

(1) 50 m
(2) 55 m
(3) 45 m
(4) 60 m

3) A particle is projected with initial speed m/sec at an angle 60° from horizontal from ground.
At what time its velocity becomes perpendicular to initial velocity :-

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 3 sec
(4) 4 sec

4) A stone dropped from the top of a tower travels th of the height of tower during the last second
of fall. Height of the tower is: (take g = 10 m/s2):-

(1) 52 m
(2) 36 m
(3) 45 m
(4) 78 m

5) A body starts from the origin with an acceleration of 6 m/s2 along the x-axis and 8 m/s2 along the
y-axis. Its distance from the origin after 4 seconds will be

(1) 56 m
(2) 64 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 128 m

6) A ball is thrown horizontally from a height of 20m. It hits the ground with a velocity three times
its initial velocity. The initial velocity of ball is :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 7 m/s

7) A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10 m/s
to 20 m/s while passing through a distance 135 m in t second. The value of t is :-

(1) 12 sec
(2) 9 sec
(3) 10 sec
(4) 1.8 sec

8) If a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 144 km/h in 20 seconds, it covers a distance of :

(1) 20 m
(2) 400 m
(3) 1440 m
(4) 2980 m

9) A ball is thrown at an angle θ to the horizontal and the range is maximum. The value of tanθ is :

(1) 1
(2)

(3)

(4) 2

10) In the given diagram mass of rod AB is 4 kg and length of rod is 2m. Calculate the tension at

point P in the rod :-

(1) 4.8 N
(2) 10.4 N
(3) 8.8 N
(4) 15.2 N

11) A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g moving at a speed of 20 m/s. If the catching process
is completed in 0.1 s, the force exerted by the ball on the hand of the player is equal to :-
(1) 150 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 3 N
(4) 300 N

12) A machine gun fires bullet of mass 40 gm with a speed 1200 m/sec. The man holding it can exert
a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can be fired per second at the most?

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

13) Figure shows the thrust-time graph of a rocket. If the mass of the rocket is 1000 kg, then the

velocity of the rocket after 1 minute, starting from rest, is:-

(1) 18 ms–1
(2) 180 ms–1
(3) 1800 ms–1
(4) None of these

14) Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a
frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block, then the contact force
between A and B is :-

(1) 6 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 18 N
(4) 2 N

15) A bird is sitting in a large closed cage which is placed on a spring balance. It records a weight of
25 N. The bird of mass 0.5 kg flies upwards in the cage with an acceleration of 2m/s2. The spring
balance will now record a weight of :-

(1) 24 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 26 N
(4) 27 N

16) The coefficient of static friction between two surfaces depend on

(1) the nature of surface

(2) the shape of the surface in contact
(3) the area of contact
(4) all of the above

17)
Acceleration of the blocks shown in the figure. If all surfaces are smooth is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 1 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) Zero

18) An iron ball of mass 100g moving with a velocity of 10 m/s collides with a wall at an angle 30°
and rebounds at the same angle with the same speed . If period of contact between the ball and the
wall is 0.1 s, the force experienced by the wall is :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 100 N
(3) 1 N
(4) 0.1 N

19) Find tension T in the string :-

(1) 40 N
(2) 80 N
(3) 120 N
(4) 200 N

20) Three forces act on a particle that moves with unchange velocity m/s. If two of the
forces are and then the third force is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

21) A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing
water at a rate of 1 kg s–1 and at a speed of 5 ms–1. The initial acceleration of the block is:-

(1)
ms–2

(2)
ms–2

(3)
ms–2

(4)
ms–2

22) A lift is moving upwards with a uniform velocity ν in which a block of mass m is lying. The
frictional force offered by the block, when coefficient of friction is μ, will be :-

(1) Zero
(2) mg
(3) μmg
(4) 2μmg

23) A force f is acting on a block of mass m. Coefficient of friction between block & surface is µ. The

block can be pulled along the surface if :-

(1) tan θ ≥ µ
(2) cot θ ≥ µ

(3)

(4)

24) Three masses of 6kg, 4 kg and 2 kg are attached to a rigid support as shown in figure. If the
string attached to the support breaks and the system falls freely, then the tension in the string

connecting 4 kg and 2 kg mass is :

(1) Zero
(2) 8 kg wt
(3) 12 kg wt
(4) 6 kg wt

25) A rocket of mass 1000 kg is ejecting gases with a speed of 500 m/s. What should be the rate of
consumption of fuel to provide the rocket an acceleration of 5 m/s2 ?

(1) 50 kg/s
(2) 100 kg/s
(3) 10 kg/s
(4) 30 kg/s

26) A passenger in the bus finds that his suit-case suddenly starts sliding backwards. This means
that the bus is :-

(1) Turning left

(2) Turning right
(3) Accelerating
(4) Retarding

27) Which of the following conclusions is correct regarding a stationary body ?

(1) No force is acting on the body

(2) Vector sum of forces acting on the body is zero.
(3) The body is in vacuum.
(4) The forces acting on the body, do not constitute a couple.

28) Find the normal reaction force on the man of 50 kg, So that the system is in equilibrium ?

(1) 400 N
(2) 500 N
(3) 200 N
(4) 600 N

29) The figure shows the position - time (x – t) graph of one-dimensional motion of a body of
mass 0.4 kg. The magnitude of each impulse is

(1) 0.4 Ns
(2) 0.8 Ns
(3) 1.6 Ns
(4) 0.2 Ns

30) For the given force-time graph, impulse acting in first 3 second is :-

(1) 50 N-sec
(2) 150 N-sec
(3) 100 N-sec
(4) 200 N-sec

31) The adjoining figure shows a block of mass 10 kg connected to free end of a rope of mass 10 kg
and length 10 m. The tension of the rope at point A is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 170 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 130 N
(4) 70 N

32) The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift and in a lift accelerating downwards with
a uniform accleration 'a' is 3:2. The acceleration of the lift is-

(1) g/3
(2) g/2
(3) g
(4) 2g
33) Two blocks masses of 1 kg and 5 kg are attached to the ends of a massless string passing over a
pulley of negligible weight. The pulley itself is attached to a spring balance as shown in figure. The
blocks start moving, during this interval; the reading to spring balance will be :-

(1) More than 6 kg

(2) Less than 6 kg
(3) Equal to 6 kg
(4) None of the above

34) Find out mechanical advantage of given system :

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

35) A block of mass 0.1 kg. is pressed against a wall with a horizontal force of 5N as shown in the
figure. If the coefficient of friction between the wall and the block is 0.5 then frictional force acting

on the block will be (g = 9.8 m/s2) :-

(1) 9.8 N
(2) 2.5 N
(3) 0.98 N
(4) 0.49 N

SECTION-B
1) A person can throw a stone to a maximum distance of h metre. The greatest height to which he
can throw the stone is :-

(1) h
(2) h/2
(3) 2h
(4) 3h

2) In which case displacement is least :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A particle is thrown vertically upward. Its velocity at half of the height is 10 m/s, then the
maximum height attained by it: (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 8 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 16 m

4) A car moves a distance of 200 m. It covers first half of the distance at speed 60 kmh–1 and the
second half at speed ν. If the average speed is 40 kmh–1, the value of ν is :-

(1) 30 kmh–1
(2) 13 kmh–1
(3) 60 kmh–1
(4) 40 kmh–1

5) A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that its coordinate (x) varies with time (t) according to
the expression x = 2 – 5t + 6t2. Its initial velocity is :-
(1) –3 ms–1
(2) –5 ms–1
(3) 2 ms–1
(4) 3 ms–1

6) A car moving with speed 50 km/hr can be stopped by brakes in 6 m distance. If same car is
moving with 100 km/hr. Find stopping distance ?

(1) 6 m
(2) 18 m
(3) 12 m
(4) 24 m

7) Three forces are acting on a particle of mass m initially in equilibrium. If the 2 forces (R1 and R2)
are perpendicular to each other and suddenly the third force (R3) is removed, then the acceleration
of the particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) In the figure shown, a balloon is pressed against a wall. It is in equilibrium and maximum
compressed state:-

= force of balloon on hand of man; = force of balloon on wall; = friction; = weight of

balloon. Which of the following statements are correct :-

(1) and are action reaction pairs

(2) and are action reaction pairs
(3)
(4)

9) Three blocks of mass 1 kg, 4 kg and 2 kg are placed on a smooth horizontal plane as shown in the
figure. The contact force between 1 kg block and 4 kg block is :-
(1) 100 N
(2) 120 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 110 N

10) Two weights of 15 kg each are attached by means of two strings to the two ends of a spring
balance, as shown in the diagram. The pulleys are frictionless. The reading of the balance would be-

(1) zero
(2) 15 kg
(3) 30 kg
(4) 75 kg

11) The acceleration of system over the wedge as shown in the figure is :-

(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

12)

A book is lying on the table. What is the angle between the action of the book on the table and the
reaction of the table on the book?

(1) 0 rad

(2)
rad

(3)
rad
(4) π rad

13) Find the tension T2 in the system shown in Figure :-

(1) 1g N
(2) 2g N
(3) 5g N
(4) 6g N

14) In which of the following cases the net force acting on the body is not zero ?

(1) A drop of rain falling down with a constant speed.

(2) A cork of mass 10 g floating on the surface of water.
(3) A car moving with a constant speed of 20 km h–1 on a rough road.
(4) A pebble of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards.

15)

If cabin is desending vertical with acceleration a and action by mass M on floor of cabin is ,
then a equals to :-

(1) g

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Valency expresses generally :

(1) Total e– in an atom
(2) Atomicity of an element
(3) Oxidation number of an element
(4) Combining capacity of an element

2) Variable covalency is exhibited by:-

(1) P and S
(2) N and O
(3) N and P
(4) F and Cl

3) In C3O2 , the hybridization state of C is–

(1) sp2
(2) sp
(3) sp3
(4) dsp2

4) The number of excited state of centre atom to the formation of, IF7, PCl5, SO2Cl2 and NH3 are x, y,
z and w respectively, the correct order of

(1) x > z > y > w

(2) x = z = y = w
(3) x > z = y > w
(4) x < z < y < w

5)

In which of the following overlapping σ-bond strength is highest?

(1) 2s-2p
(2) 1s-1s
(3) 2s-2s
(4) 2p-2p

6) Among KO2, AlO2–, BaO2 and NO2+ unpaired electron is present in :

+
(1) NO2 and BaO2
–
(2) KO2 and AlO2
(3) KO2 only
(4) BaO2 only

7) Which of the following combination leads to formation of π bond (Molecular axis is z axis)
(A) py + py
(B) dyz + dyz
(C) px + dzx
(D) dxy + dyz

(1) If A, B and C options are correct.

(2) If A & B both are correct.
(3) If B & D both are correct.
(4) If A & C both are correct.

8) In Cl2O7 the π-bond between Cl–O is formed by the over lapping of :-

(1) sp3–2p
(2) sp2–sp
(3) sp3–sp3
(4) 2p–3d

9) Which of the following would result in the formulation of strongest “π Bond” if the molecular Axis
is “x axis”?

(1) 2px – 2px

(2) 3py – 3py
(3) 3py – 3dxy
(4) 2pz – 4pz

10) How many nodal plane(s) is/are present in antibonding molecular orbital?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) Zero

11) In which of the following reaction hybridisation of underlined atom doesn't change ?

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)

12) Assertion (A): Though the central atom of both NH3 and H2O molecules are sp3 hybridised, yet
H–N–H bond angle is greater than that of H–O–H.
Reason (R): This is because nitrogen atom has one lone pair and oxygen atom has two lone pairs.

(1) A and R both are correct

(2) A and R both are incorrect
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
13) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R),
Assertion (A): Dipole moment of NF3 is less than that of NH3
Reason (R): Polarity of N—F bond is less than that of N—H bond.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

14) Assertion (A): Sulphur forms many compounds in which the octet rule is may not obeyed.
Reason (R): Due to the absence of d-orbitals in sulphur, it follows the octet rule.

(1) Both A and R are correct.

(2) Both A and R are incorrect.
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect; R is correct.

15) Statement-1 :- Ionic bonds will be formed more easily between elements with comparatively
low ionization enthalpies and elements with comparatively high negative value of electron gain
enthalpy
Statement-2 :- NH4+ ion forms the cation in a number of ionic compounds.

(1) Statement-1 and statement-2 both are correct

(2) Statement-1 and statement-2 both are incorrect
(3) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct

16) Which of the following molecule is not polar :

(1) XeF4
(2) XeF6
(3) ClF3
(4) NH3

17) Which of the following molecule does not possess a permanent dipole moment :-

(1) H2S
(2) SO2
2–
(3) SO3
(4) CS2

18) Which of the following pair is isoelectronic as well as non-polar.

(1) XeF2, BeCl2

(2) BF3, ClF3
(3) SF4, XeF4
(4) C6H6, B3N3H6

19) The correct order of increasing bond stability of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Statement-1 : N2 and NO+ both are diamagnetic substances.

Statement-2 : NO+ is isoelectronic with N2.

(1) If statement-1 is true but the statement-2 is false.

(2) If statement-1 is false but the statement-2 is true.
(3) If both statements are false.
(4) If both statements are true

21) Which of the following statements is not correct from the point of view of molecular orbital?

(1) Be2 is not a stable molecule

(2) He2 is not stable but is expected to exist
(3) Bond strength of N2 is maximum amongst the homonuclear diatomic molecules
(4) The order of energies of molecular orbitals in F2 molecule is

22)

Ionic character is maximum with -

(1) Large cation and small anion

(2) Small cation and small anion
(3) Small cation and large anion
(4) large cation and large anion

23)

LiCl is soluble in organic solvent while NaCl is not because

(1) Littice energy of NaCl is less than that of LiCl

(2) Ionisation potential of Li is more than that of Na
(3) Li+ has more hydration energy than Na+ ion
(4) LiCl is more covalent compound than that of NaCl
24) The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous solutions is :-

(1) K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+

(2) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
(3) Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+
(4) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+

25) Dissolution of ionic solid in water is accompanied by release of energy represented by

ΔHsolution. This implies that :-

(1) ΔHlattice > ΔHhydration

(2) ΔHlattice = ΔHhydration
(3) ΔHhydration > ΔHlattice
(4) ΔHlattice : ΔHhydration = 1 : 2

26) The order of conductivity in ionic compounds is :

(1) Solid < Aqueous < Fused

(2) Solid > Aqueous > Fused
(3) Solid < Fused < Aqueous
(4) Solid > Fused > Aqueous

27) Assertion :- Ionic compounds exhibits electrical conductivity in solution state.

Reason :- In solution state electrons of ionic compounds are free.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

28) An ionic compound A+B– is most likely to be formed when:

(1) the ionization energy of A high and electron affinity of B is low

(2) the ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of B is high
(3) both, the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are high
(4) both, the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are low

29) The electronic configuration of meal 'M' is 1s2 2s1 and of the non metal 'X' is 1s2 2s2 2p3. When
these two elements combines, the formula of the compound will be

(1) MX3
(2) M3X
(3) M2X3
(4) M3X2

30)
Which salt on heating does not give brown coloured gas ?

(1) LiNO3
(2) KNO3
(3) PbNO3
(4) AgNO3

31) Which species has the same shape as NH3 ?

2–
(1) SO3
2–
(2) CO3
–
(3) NO3
(4) SO3

32) In which compound central atom have maximum number of lone pair : ––

–
(1) ClO3
(2) XeF4
(3) SF4
(4) CH4

33) Correct set of species with zero dipole moment is:

(i) CO2 (ii) COCl2 (iii) CH2Cl2 (iv) BCl3

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (iii), (iv)

34) The dipole moment of o, p and m-dichlorobenzene will be in the order:

(1) o > p > m

(2) p > o > m
(3) m > o > p
(4) o > m > p

35) BF3 and NF3 both are covalent compounds but NF3 is polar whereas BF3 is non-polar. This is
because:

(1) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom

(2) N—F bond is more polar than B—F bond
(3) NF3 is pyramidal whereas BF3 is planar triangular
(4) BF3 is electron deficient whereas NF3 is not

SECTION-B
1) Assertion (A): BrF5 and SF6 both have same hybridisation.
Reason (R): BrF5 is square pyramidal, while SF6 molecule is octahedral.

(1) Both A and R are incorrect

(2) Both A and R are correct
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect; R is correct.

2) Assertion (A): The correct Lewis structure of O3 may be drawn as :

Reason (R): In O3, the formal charges on atom 1, 2 and 3 are +1, 0 and –1, respectively.

(1) Both A and R are correct

(2) Both A and R are incorrect
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect; R is correct.

3) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Lewis theory explains the shape of a molecules.
Statement-II : It explain the relative stability and energy of the molecules.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.

4) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Most ionic compounds have cations from metallic elements and anion from non-
metallic elements.
Statement-II : The ammonium ion (made up off two non-metallic elements) is an exception.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct

5) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Lattice energy of an ionic solid is defined as the energy required to completely
separate one mole of ionic solid in its constituent atoms.
Statement-II : Solubility of an ionic compound depend on its lattice energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct

(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I and II both are correct

6) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : C2 molecule has four electrons in it's two degenerate 'π' molecular orbitals.
Statement-II : ion is diamagnetic nature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct
(3) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

7) Match the species in Column I with the type of hybrid orbitals in Column II and choose the correct
option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

(A) SF4 (i) sp3d2

(B) IF5 (ii) sp

(C) (iii) sp3d

(D) (iv) sp3

(1) A–i; B–iv; C–ii; D–iii

(2) A–iii; B–i; C–ii; D–iv
(3) A–ii; B–iv; C–iii; D–i
(4) A–iv; B–ii; C–iii; D–i

8) The compound containing co-ordinate bond is :-

(1) PCl5
(2) H2CO3
(3) H3PO4
(4) H2SO4

9) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R) .
Assertion (A) : B2 molecule is Paramagnetic.
Reason (R) : B2 has 2 unpaired e¯ in
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) (A) & (R) both are correct.

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(3) (A) is in correct and (R) is correct.
(4) (A) & (R) both are incorrect.

10) Which amongst following is incorrect statement?

(1) C2 molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate π molecular orbitals.
(2) ion has one electron
(3) ion is diamagnetic.
(4) The bond orders of and are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively.

11) Select the correct order of (O—O) bond length in following ion / molecule.

(1) Superoxide ion > Peroxide ion > Oxygen molecule

(2) Peroxide ion > Superoxide ion > Oxygen molecule
(3) Oxygen ion > Superoxide ion > Peroxide ion
(4) Superoxide ion = Peroxide ion > Oxygen molecule

12) Which of the following has maximum thermal stability ?

(1) K2O2
(2) Rb2O2
(3) Cs2O2
(4) BaO2

13) Which of the following gives paramagnetic gas on heating?

(A) LiNO3
(B) CaCO3
(C) NaNO3
(D) NH4NO2

(1) If A, B and C options are correct.

(2) If A & B both are correct.
(3) If B & D both are correct.
(4) If A & C both are correct.

14) Match list-I with list-II and identify correct option:-

List-I List-II

(P) SF4 (i) Distorted octahedral

(Q) XeF6 (ii) Trigonal bipyramidal

 (R) BrF5 (iii) Folded square or distorted tetrahedral

(S) PCl5 (iv) Square pyramidal

(1) P → (iv); Q → (i); R → (iii); S → (ii)
(2) P → (iii); Q → (i); R → (iv); S → (ii)
(3) P → (i); Q → (iv); R → (iii); S → (ii)
(4) P → (iii); Q → (i); R → (ii); S → (iv)

15) Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing dipole moment?

(1) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I

(2) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I
(3) CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I > CH3F
(4) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3I > CH3Br

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is not an Archaebacteria?

(1) Methanogen
(2) Thermoacidophile
(3) Halophile
(4) Actinomycetes

2) Identify the given diagram :-

(1) Diatoms
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Euglena
(4) Paramoecium

3) In class Phycomycetes, the mycelium is :

(1) Coenocytic and Aseptate

(2) Coenocytic and septate
(3) Multinucleated and aseptate
(4) (1) and (3) Both
4) The chemical composition of cell wall in Archaebacteria :-

(1) Is similar to that of fungi.

(2) Is similar to that of plants.
(3) Is not similar to other members of group monera.
(4) Is identical to cell wall of animals.

5) Select the wrong statement :-

(1) Mycoplasma is a wall less micro-organism.

(2) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.
(3) Cyanobacteria have flagellated cells.
(4) The walls of diatoms are indestructible.

6) Which of the following statement is true ?

(1) Bacteria are only photosynthetic

(2) Bacteria can also be autotrophic
(3) Bacteria are only heterotrophic
(4) Bacteria are only chemosynthetic

7)

The protein coat of the virus is called :-

(1) Capsule
(2) Pellicle
(3) Capsid
(4) Prion

8) Match the features given in column-I with protistans given in column-II and select the correct
option :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Cheif producer in Oceans (i) Slime moulds

(B) Stiff cellulosic cell wall (ii) Diatoms

(C) Mixotropic nutrition (iii) Dinoflagellates

(D) Lack chlorophyll (iv) Euglenoids

(1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)

9) Which of the following causes Red tides ?

(1) Red Algae
(2) Red dinoflagellates
(3) Red diatoms
(4) Red desmids

10) Majority of Euglenoids are Fresh water organisms found in stagnant water. Instead of cell wall,
they have a protein rich layer called ____(a)____which makes their body flexible. They have
_____(b)______flagella.

(1) (a) Pellicle (b) One

(2) (a) Pellicle (b) Three
(3) (a) Gelatinous sheath (b) Many
(4) (a) Pellicle (b) Two

11) Which of the following is not one of the basis for the division of kingdom fungi into various
classes ?

(1) Morphology of mycelium

(2) Mode of spore formation
(3) Complexity of cell
(4) Fruiting bodies

12) Read the statements (A-D)

(A) Dikaryotic stage is absent in Trichoderma and Neurospora.
(B) In fungi, asexual reproduction, takes place by conidiospores, takes place by sporangiospores and
by basidiospores.
(C) Coenocytic mycelium is found in Mucor and Albugo.
(D) Puffballs and Morels belong to ascomycetes.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

13) Mycoplasma are classified under which of the following kingdoms ?

(1) Animalia
(2) Protista
(3) Monera
(4) Fungi

14) Identify the four categories of bacteria marked as A,B,C and D based on their shapes :
(1) A = Spirilla, B = Cocci, C = Vibrio, D = Bacilli
(2) A = Bacilli, B = Cocci, C = Vibrio, D = Spirilla
(3) A = Vibrio, B = Bacilli, C = Cocci, D = Spirilla
(4) A = Cocci, B = Bacilli, C = Spirilla, D = Vibrio

15) Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its taxonomic group?

(1) Paramoecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicillium.
(2) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of Protista.
(3) Desmids and Euglena belong to the same kingdom as that of Trypanosoma .
(4) Lichen is a composite organism from the symbiotic association of an algae and a protista.

16) Which of the following is abnormally folded protein ?

(1) Viroids
(2) Mycorrhizae
(3) Prions
(4) Virus

17) An organism with following characters, belongs to :-

Cell wall cellulosic and xylem present.

A. Well defined nucleus

B. Photosynthesis takes place in chloroplast

(1) Kingdom monera

(2) Kingdom protista
(3) Kingdom fungi
(4) Domain Eukarya

18) Which of the following statements are true about dinoflagellates ?

(a) They are mostly marine and photosynthetic.
(b) They are microscopic and float passively in water current.
(c) This group includes diatoms and desmides
(d) They have two flagella.

(1) a and d only

(2) a, b and c only
(3) b and d only
(4) c and d only

19) Mushrooms, bracket fungi and puffballs are placed in :-

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Phycomycetes

20) Which of the following option is incorrect about bacterial pili :-

(1) They are made up of pilin protein

(2) They are shorter than flagella
(3) They help in genetic recombination
(4) They play an important role in movement

21) Members of deuteromycetes are :-

(1) Albugo, Alternaria, Puccinia

(2) Aspergillus, Ustilago, Trichoderma
(3) Alternaria, Colletotrichum, Trichoderma
(4) Penicillium, Yeast, Mucor

22) Identify true (T) & false (F) statements in the following.
(a) Diatoms are microscopic & float passively in water currents.
(b) Dinoflagellates release toxins which may kill other marine animals.
(c) Slime moulds form aggregation called plasmodium under unsuitable condition.
(d) Diatomaceous earth is formed due to indestructible cell membrane.

(1) A-T, B-T, C-T, D-F

(2) A-T, B-T, C-T, D-T
(3) A-T, B-F, C-F, D-F
(4) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F

23) The eukaryotic cells have all of the following except :-

(1) The 80S ribosome

(2) Peptidoglycan in the cell wall
(3) Nuclear membrane
(4) Mitochondria

24) Organisms living in salty areas are called as :-

(1) Methanogens
(2) Halophiles
(3) Heliophytes
(4) Thermoacidophiles

25) Archaebacteria can survive in extreme harsh habitats due to presence of :-

(1) Cell membrane/Cell wall

(2) DNA with core histone
(3) Capsule
(4) Slime layer

26) What is common among Porphyra, Agaricus, Chlorella and Spirulina ?

(1) They all are placed under same kingdom according to five kingdom classification.
(2) They all have nuclear membrane
(3) They all may be used as food or food supplement.
(4) They all are autotrophic

27) (i) Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous plant.

(ii) Gametophyte of pteridophyte is called prothallus.
(iii) In Cycas, stems are unbranched.
(iv) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
How many statement/s is/are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

28) What is common among Porphyra, Agaricus, Chlorella, Spirulina ?

(1) They all are photosynthetic

(2) They have eukaryotic cell organization
(3) They all are single celled
(4) They all used as food or food supplements

29) Motile, flagellated asexual spore is :-

(1) Zygote
(2) Zygospores
(3) Aplanospores
(4) Zoospores

30) The members of Rhodophyceae are commonly called Red algae because of the :-

(1) They are found in greater concentrations of warmer area of Ocean.

(2) They have floridean starch as a stored food.
(3) Prodominance of r-phycoerythrin in their body.
(4) They show complex post fertilization developments.

31) Select the mismatch among the following:-

(1) Rhodophyta : chlorophyll-a,d,; Floridean starch

(2) Chlorophyta ; chlorophyll-a, b ; Starch
(3) Phaeophyta ; chlorophyll-a, c; Carrageen
(4) Pyrrophyta; chlorophyll-a, c; cell wall of cellulose

32) Select the mis match from following :-

(1) Chlorophyceae – Starch

(2) Phaeophyceae – Laminarin
(3) Rhodophyceae – Mannitol
(4) Cyanophyceae – Cyanophycean granules

33) Multicellular endosperm in gymnosperm is developed from :-

(1) One megaspore

(2) Two megaspores
(3) Three megaspores
(4) Four megaspores

34) Protonema occurs in the life cycle of:-

(1) Riccia
(2) Funaria
(3) Chlamydomonas
(4) Spirogyra

35) Rhizoids are :-

(1) Structures homologous to roots

(2) Structures analogous to roots
(3) Root but unbranched
(4) None of the above

SECTION-B

1) According to five kingdom classification. Which of following group have oxygenic photosynthetic
autotrophs ?

(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Eubacteria
(3) Both Eubacteria and Cyanobacteria
(4) Archaebacteria and mycoplasma
2) Heterotrophic bacteria are helpful in :

(1) Making curd from milk

(2) Production of antibiotics
(3) Fixing nitrogen in legume roots
(4) All of the above

3) Select the mismatch in given pair –

(1) Virus - Tobacco mosaic virus

(2) Prions - CJD in human
(3) Ascomycetes - Aspergillus
(4) Deuteromycetes - Albugo

4) Assertion (A) : All bacteria are prokaryotic in nature.

Reason (R) : Bacteria do not have free nucleus & membrane bound cell organelles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Assertion: Ascomycetes commonly known as sac fungi.

Reason: In Ascomycetes, Ascospores are produced endogenously in sac like structure Ascus.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Assertion : In Basidiomycetes the basidium is produced by fusion of two vegetative or somatic

cells of different genotypes.
Reason : Absence of sex organ in Basidiomycetes, cause two different strain of mycelium fuse by
plasmogamy that produce fruiting bodies.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) Assertion : Lichens are very good pollution indicator.

Reason : Lichen do not grow in polluted area.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

8) Assertion: A virus is a nucleoprotein.

Reason: Viruses contain protein and genetic material (RNA or DNA).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) Assertion (A) :- Protozoans are heterotrophs and live as predators or parasites.

Reason (R) :- All protozoans lack chlorophyll in their cell.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

10) Assertion :- Slime moulds can survive through adverse conditions.

Reason :- They forms plasmodium.

(1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A & R are wrong.
(3) Both A & R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(4) A is correct R is wrong.

11) Agar is extracted from which algae :

(1) Gelidium
(2) Gracilaria
(3) Chondrus
(4) Both (1) and (2)

12) A well developed archegonium with neck consisting of 46 rows and neck canal cells,
characterises

(1) Gymnosperms and flowering plants

(2) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
(3) Gymnosperms only
(4) Bryophytes and pteridophytes

13) Which of the following plants is mocoecious?

(1) Carica papaya

(2) Chara
(3) Marchantia
(4) Cycas circinalis

14) Pteridophytes differ from Mosses in having?

(1) Dependent gametophyte

(2) Independent and dominant sporophyte
(3) Independent and dominant gametophyte
(4) Present of leafy gametophytes

15) Read the following statements and select incorrect only :-

(a) Ulothrix and Volvox are filamentous algae.
(b) A few algae of marine forms such as kelps, form massive plant body.
(c) Chlamydomonas is microscopic, unicellular algae.
(d) Porphyra, Volvox and Spirogyra is used as food.

(1) b and d
(2) a and d
(3) a and b
(4) b and c

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is correct for Endosperm in gymnosperm plants ?

(1) Formation at the time of fertilization

(2) Formation before fertilization
(3) Formation after fertilization
(4) Formation along with embryo development

2) Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having :-

(1) Seeds
(2) Motile sperms
(3) Cambium
(4) Vessels

3) Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes?

(1) Spirogyra
(2) Sargassum
(3) Ectocarpus
(4) Ulothrix

4) In ferns, fertilization does not involves :-

(1) Archegonia
(2) Water
(3) Pollen tube
(4) Flagellated anterozoids

5) Multicellular, walled autotrophic organisms are belong to kingdom -

(1) Plantae
(2) Fungi
(3) Animalia
(4) Protista

6) Members of Chlorophyaceae normally contain rigid cell wall, which is made up of …………

(1) Outer layer = cellulose, Inner layer = algin

(2) Outer layer = pectose, Inner layer =peptidoglycan
(3) Outer layer = pectose, Inner layer = cellulose
(4) Outer layer = chitin, Inner layer = pectose

7)
Identify the algae and label the structure ‘‘A’’ correctly:-

(1) Laminaria ; Hold fast

(2) Fucus ; Air bladder
(3) Laminaria ; Air bladder
(4) Dictyota ; Stipe

8) Which of the following is not found in algae ?

(1) Meiosis
(2) Embryo
(3) Zygote
(4) Fertilization

9) In which of the following would you place the plants having vascular tissue, lacking seeds?
(1) Algae
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Gymnosperms

10) Identify the following diagram (A, B, C & D) and select the correct option:-

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Laminaria Funaria Salvinia

(2) Dictyota Sphagnum Salvinia

(3) Fucus Chara Salvinia

(4) Polysiphonia Sphagnum Salvinia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Which of the following pair is an example of heterosporous Pteridophyte ?

(1) Psilotum and Adiantum

(2) Salvinia and Selaginella
(3) Lycopodium and Dryopteris
(4) Nephrolepis and Adiantum

12) The gametophyte of pteridophytes requires to grow-

(1) Warm, damp and shady place

(2) Cool, damp and shady place
(3) Warm, dry and shady place
(4) Cool, dry and place of well sunshine

13) In which of the following sexual reproduction is of oogamous type and accompained by complex
post fertilization development :-
(1) Ulothrix
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Polysiphonia
(4) Ectocarpus

14) Alternation of generations is found in :-

(1) Monera kingdom

(2) Protista kingdom
(3) Plantae kingdom
(4) Fungi kingdom

15)

Which of the following category has fewer characters in common ?

(1) Order
(2) Family
(3) Phylum
(4) Class

16) Panthera leo, Panthera pardus and Panthera tigris represent :-

(1) They are member of same species.

(2) They are species of different genus.
(3) They are different species of same genus.
(4) Panthera is a name of species while leo, pardus and tigris represent variety

17) Which of the following is a correct name ?

(1) Solanum tuberosum

(2) Solanum Tuberosum
(3) Solanum tuberosum Linn.
(4) All the above

18) Number of obligate taxonomic categories are:-

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 4

19) Choose the correct taxonomic hierarchy in the descending order–

(1) Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
(2) Kingdom-Phylum-Order-Class-Family-Genus-Species
(3) Species-Genus-Family-Order-Class-Phylum-Kingdom
(4) Species-Genus-Family-Class-Order-Phylum-Kingdom

20) In the name Panthera leo and Solanum melongena, the words leo and melongena represent–

(1) Generic name

(2) Name of sub-species
(3) Name of specific epithet
(4) Name of family

21)

In the following which is not a correct match for classification of Mango :-

(1) Family - Anacardiaceae

(2) Genus - Mangifera
(3) Class - Monocotyledonae
(4) Order - Sapindales

22)

The group of organisms which are capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offsprings is
called:-

(1) Taxonomic species

(2) Biological species
(3) Specific epithet
(4) Subspecies

23) Solanum, Pentunia and Datura belongs to :-

(1) Same family

(2) Three family
(3) Two family
(4) Same species

24) Order of housefly is :-

(1) Primata
(2) Diptera
(3) Poales
(4) Sapindales

25) Poales represents :-

(1) Class
(2) Order
(3) Family
(4) Division

26) Assertion : Category is a part of overall taxonomic arrangement.

Reason : Classification is not a single step process, involves hierarchy of steps in which each step
represent rank/category.
Options-

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false and Reason is true.

27) As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of common characteristics, goes on
____(A)_____. Higher the category greater is the _____(B)_____ of determining the relationship to other
taxa at the same level :-

(1) A = Increasing, B = Difficulty

(2) A = Decreasing, B = Difficulty
(3) A = Decreasing, B = Simplicity
(4) A = Increasing, B = Simplicity

28) Which of the following is the family of Mango:-

(1) Muscidae
(2) Anacardiaceae
(3) Poaceae
(4) Sapindales

29) Choose the odd one out :-

(1) Solanum
(2) Petunia
(3) Datura
(4) Poaceae

30) Mark the odd one with respect to taxonomic category.

(1) Felidae
(2) Hominidae
(3) Canidae
(4) Carnivora

31) Choose odd one out with respect to Panthera leo

(1) Common name of tiger

(2) Panthera represents generic name
(3) leo represents specific epithet name
(4) Panthera represents higher level of taxon than leo

32) Select correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus
Linnaeus:

(1) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.

(2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) Mangifera indica
(4) Mangifera Indica

33) Match column I with column II and selected the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

(a) Family i. tuberosum

(b) Kingdom ii. Polymonials

(c) Order iii. Solanum

(d) Species iv. Plantae

(e) Genus v. Solanaceae

(1) a → v;b → iv;c → ii;d → i;e → iii
(2) a → v;b → iv;c → i;d → iii;e → ii
(3) a → i;b → ii;c → iii;d → v;e → iv
(4) a → ii;b → i;c → iii;d → iv;e → v

34) What was the biggest spin off (outcome) of systematic studies?

(1) Recognition of the sharing of similarities among living organisms only horizontally
(2) Recognition of the sharing of similarities among living organisms only vertically
(3) Recognition of the sharing of similarities among living organisms horizontally as we as vertically
(4) Recognition of importance of non-living.

35) The term ‘systematics’ refers to:

(1) Identification and classification of plants and animals

(2) Nomenclature and identification of plants and animals
(3) Study of diversity of organisms and their evolutionary relations.
(4) Different kinds of organisms and their classification

SECTION-B

1) Marchantia is :-

(1) Monoecious
(2) Dioecious
(3) Heterosporous
(4) Phanerogams

2) Classification of algae is mainly based on :-

(1) Photosynthetic pigments

(2) Cell wall composition
(3) Store food
(4) Mode of nutrition

3) Which one of the following is not common between Funaria and Selaginella?

(1) Archegonium
(2) Embryo
(3) Flagellated sperms
(4) Roots

4) Pteridophyta have advancement over Bryophyta in :-

(1) Presence of vascular tissues

(2) Presence of roots
(3) Necessity of water for fertilisation
(4) (1) and (2) both

5) Assertion : Plant form different bodies - haploid gametophyte and diploid sporophyte.
Reason : In plants both haploid and diploid cell can be divided by mitosis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Assertion :- Bryophyta are amphibians of plant kingdom.

Reason :- Bryophyta are first seed producing plants.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) Taxonomically known number of species is :

(1) 1.7 billion

(2) 1.7 lakh
(3) 5- 20 million
(4) 1.7 million

8) Biodiversity means :-

(1) Number & types of plants on earth.

(2) Number & types of animals on earth.
(3) Number of organism on earth.
(4) Number & types of organisms on earth.

9) The relation of Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae with Polymoniales is similar to the relation
occuring in:-

(1) Felidae and canidae with Carnivora

(2) Primata and Carnivora with Mammalia
(3) Amphibia and reptilia with Chordata
(4) Solanum and Petunia with Solanaceae

10) Taxomomic hierachy is given following; select the correct match :

Taxonomic
Examples
Category

(1) Class Sapindales, Insecta

(2) Order Primata, Diptera

(3) Genus Musca, Poales

(4) Family Triticum, Muscidae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) According to hierarchical system of classification which of the following is correct

(A) Similarities decrease from species to kingdom
(B) Similarities increase from kingdom to species
(C) Dissimilarities decrease from division to species
(D) Similarities decrease from species to class

(1) Only ABC

(2) Only BCD
(3) Only BC
(4) ABCD all

12)

In taxonomic hierarchy, given below organisms are representative of how many families ?
Wheat, Potato, Brinjal, Mango
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

13) Statement-I : All living organisms-present, past & future are linked to one other by the sharing
of the common genetic material, but to varying degrees.
Statement-II : All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit metabolism.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

14) 'X' and 'Y' are the components of binomial nomenclature. This naming system was proposed by
'Z' :

(1) X-Generic name, Y-Specific epithet, Z-Carolus Linnaeus

(2) X-Specific epithet, Y-Generic name, Z-R.H. Whittaker
(3) X-Specific epithet, Y-Generic name, Z-Carolus Linnaeus
(4) X-Generic name, Y-Specific epithet, Z-R.H. Whittaker

15) Which of the following is / are not correctly match?

Common Name Genus Family

(i) Man Homo Hominidae

(ii) Housefly Musa Muscidae

(iii) Mango Mangifera Anacardiaceae

(iv) Wheat Triticum Poaceae

(1) i & ii
(2) only i
(3) only ii
(4) iii & iv
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 2 3 3 4 2 2 1 2 2 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 1 4 1 4 3 2 1 2 1 3 1 2 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 2 3 1 2 4 1 4 4 2 1 4 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 1 2 1 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 1 3 3 1 1 4 4 2 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 4 2 3 3 3 2 2 2 1 2 1 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 4 4 3 2 3 4 2 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 4 3 3 2 3 1 2 4 3 4 3 4 3 3 4 1 2 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 2 2 1 3 4 4 4 3 3 3 1 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 4 1 1 1 1 1 4 3 4 4 2 2 2

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 2 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 4 4 1 2 1 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 1 4 4 2 3 4 4 1 2 4 2 1 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

After 2 second v = 4.9 × 2 = 9.8

and h =
Greatest height

hmax =

2)

S1 = 10 × 5 = 50
Now, 02 = (10)2 – 2 × 10 × S2
S2 = 5
S1 + S2 = 50 + 5 = 55

3)

75t2 = 300
t = 2sec

4) Let T = time of flight and H = height of tower, then H = gT2 and H – H= g(T–1)2
⇒ T = 3s

So, height of the tower = (10) (3)2 = 45 m

5)
 6) 2gh + vx2 = v2
∵ v = 3vx
2gh + vx2 = 9vx2
vx = 7 m/s

7)

sec

8)

v = 144 × = 40 m/s

a= = 2 m/s2

s= at2 =

9)

For maximum range θ = 45°

So tanθ = 1

10)

20 – TP = 9.6 ⇒ TP = 10.4 N

11) F =
 12) F = nmV

13)

Change in momentum (Δp) = Impulse

m(v – u) = ⎰Fdt

v–0=
= 180 m/s

14)

a= = 2 m/s2

N = Ma = (3)(2) = 6 N

15)

mg = 25 N
Wapp = m(g + a)
= mg + ma = 25 + 2 (0.5) = 26N

16)

Friction force is free from contact area and shape of the surface in contact.

17)

18) F = = = = 10 N

19)

20)

=0 (∵ V = const)

21)
Force = V = ma
5(1) = 2a

22)

The mass m is not moving with respect to the lift. Hence, friction force acting on it is equal to zero.

23)

F sin θ ≥ f ...(1)
f = µ(mg – F cos θ) ...(2)
mgsinθ ≥ µmg(1-cosθ)

cot ≥µ

24)

In free fall, T = 0

0
25) Vr – Mg = Ma

500 – 1000 × 10 = 1000 × 5

= = 30 kg/sec

26) Due to law of inertia, suit-case maintains its initial state, It slides back means bus
increasing its speed.

27)

Net force on the body is zero.

28)

For block; T = 100

For man; N + T = mg
N = 500 – 100 = 400 N

29)

V1 =

V2 =
Impulse = |ΔP| = |m(V2 – V1)| = |0.4 (–1 –1)| = 0.8 Ns
 30) I = Area of F-t graph = = 50 N-sec

31)

TA = (10 + 3)g = 130 N

32)

33)

Suppose T be the tension in each part of the string passing over the pulley. T is given by : ––

T=
For equilibrium of the pulley there is an upward force of 2T acting on the string joining the pulley to
the spring. Therefore, reading of spring balance will be 2T = 10g/3. So reading will be 10/3 kg which
is less than 6 kg.

34)

M.A. =

35) (fr)max = µN = (0.5) (5) = 2.5 N

Friction required prevent the block from slipping down
fr = mg = (0.1) (9.8)
= 0.98 N
since fr < (fr)max

36)

R=

When 2θ = 90º, Rmax. = h, hence

Height H is given by : H =

when θ = 90°, H = Hmax =

37) (1) AB = 2r (2) AB = r

(3) AB = r (4) AB = r

38)
for ,

100 = u2 – 10h ...(i)

for h,
02 = u2 – 2(10)h
u2 = 20h – h ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
100 = 20h – 10h
h = 10m

39)

Time taken by the car to cover first half of the distance is

Time taken by the car to cover second half of the distance is

Average speed, vav =

v = 30 kmh–1

40) x = 2 – 5t + 6t2

v= = –5 + 12t
vi(at t = 0) = –5 m/s

41)
∵ s ∝ u2
∴ s2 = 4s1 = 4(6) = 24 m

42)

43)

Consider the FBD of ballon

Net force on balloon is zero. So

⇒
and can't be action-reaction pair because they do not act between the same two bodies.
Similarly for and .

44)

70 = 7a
⇒ a = 10
120 – F = 1 × 10
F = 110 N

45) At equilibrium reading or tension is 15 kg-force.

46)

47) Action and reaction are always opposite to each other.

48)
T2 = net mass × geff
below the string
= (2 + 3) × g = 5g

49)

As the rain drop is falling down with a constant speed, its acceleration, a = 0. Hence, net force on
the drop = ma = 0. As the cork is floating on the surface of water, its weight is balanced by the
upthrust. Hence net force on the cork is zero.
The force exerted by the engine is balanced by the friction due to rough road. As the car is moving
with constant velocity, its acceleration, a = 0. Hence, net force on the car, F = ma = 0.
Whenever a body is thrown vertically upwards gravitational pull of earth gives it a uniform
acceleration, a = g in downward direction.
Hence, net force on the pebble = mg : 0.05 × 10 = 0.5 N vertically downwards.

50) Gravitational pull by Earth to m = Mg downward Action by M on floor of cabin

= downward

By third law,

Reaction by floor on block = upward

Fnet on m = Mg – downward

By second law, = Ma ⇒ a =

CHEMISTRY

51) Valency is defined as combining capacity of an element either in ground state or excited
state.

52) Due to presence of vacant d-orbitals-

53) O = C = C = C = O
hybridisation = sp

54) x = 3 z=2
y=1 w=0
x > z > y > w.
 55) In 1s-1s extent of overlapping is highest so bond strength is highest.

56) KO2 has K+ O2– structure having one unpaired electron.

57)

58)

π-bond is not formed by hybrid orbital.

59)

Strongest π bond is due to more direction character.

 60)

61)

62)

> H2O
B.A 107° 104.5°

63) Bond polarity (ΔEN) N – F > N – H Bond

64)

Sulphur has vacant d-d-orbital.

66)

Non polar means μ = 0 for XeF4

67) CS2 ΔEN = 0

EN = same

68)

C6H6 (e = 42 e–)→ Non polar ⇒ symmetric

N3B3H6 (e = 42 e–) → Non polar ⇒ Symmetric

69)

Stability and if B.O is same

∴

70)

N 2 and NO + both are diamagnetic substances as both have zero unpaired electron. NO + is
isoelectronic with N2.

71) σ2pz < π2px = π2py

72) Ionic character ∝ Polarity .

74)

77)

In solution state ions of ionic compounds are free so Ionic compound in solution state exhibits
conductivity.

80) Rest of all will produce NO2 gas Which is brown coloured

81)

→ Pyramidal

⇒ Pyramidal with 1 LP and 3 BP

82) In XeF4 ,

Maximum number of lone pair = 2.

83)
is trigonal planar hence net polarity of both molecules is zero.

84)

In case of aromatic compounds, when both substituents are either electron releasing or electron
with drawing group; then dipole moment of ortho isomer is highest.

85)

86)

BrF5 → AB5L1 sp3d2

SF6 → AB6L0 sp3d2

87) F.C = Total valence e¯ of atom – unshared e¯ –

89) Theoretical.

90) Theoretical.

91) has one unpaired e¯ in it π* 2px or π*2py so it is paramagnetic.

 93)

(1) H2SO4

(2) H2CO3

(3) SO3

94)

B2 is paramagnetic due to 2 unpaired electrons in

95)
s1s2 < s*1s2 < s2s2 < s*2s2 <
< < < s*2pz
1 unpaired electron is present in p*(ABMO) so paramagnetic.

96)

B.O.
Superpxide → 1.5
Peroxide → 1.0
Oxygen → 2.0

97)

Common ion is ⇒ O2–2 ⇒ Large

98)
 99)

SF4 = Seesaw/folded square/distorted tetrahedral

XeF6 = distorted octahedral
BrF5 = Square pyramidal
PCl5 = Trigonal pyramidal

100)

BIOLOGY-I

101) NCERT XI Pg. # 19

102)

NCERT Pg. No. # 101, Para-03

104)

NCERT XI Pg # 19

107) NCERT Pg # 26

111)

NCERT XI Pg. # 23

113)

NCERT Pg # 20

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27, Para-2.6

117)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 343 (Supliment)

121)

NCERT, Pg. # 24

127)

NCERT XI Page No.# 38

 128) NCERT Pg. No. 33

130)

XI New NCERT Page No. 27

131)

NCERT Pg # 33

134) XI New NCERT Page No. 30

137)

NCERT Pg # 19, 20

138) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 25

139) NCERT Page No. 17

140)

NCERT Pg. # 23-24 (Para 2.3.2)

141)

NCERT-(XI), Pg. # 24

142)

NCERT Pg. # 27

143)

NCERT Pg. # 26

145)

NCERT XI Pg. 21, (2.2.4)

BIOLOGY-II

173) NCERT XI Pg. # 9, 1.3.3

174)

NCERT XI Pg. # 11 (Table)

175)
NCERT Pg. # 11, Para-Table 1.1

176)

NCERT Pg#08

190)

NCERT Pg. # 40

191) NCERT XI Pg. # 35

198)

NCERT Page No. 5