Quality control 1 and 2 (PACOP REVIEWER) B. Koettsdorfer number​ E.

Acetyl number
C. Unsaponifiable matter

10. In potentiometric titration, the equivalence point in

1. Acceptable glassware to be used to deliver an the first derivative plot is signified by:
exact volume of a certain standard solution to be used
for titration: A. The steepest part of the curve ​ ​
B. The line that crosses 0 in the x axis ​
A. Beaker​ ​ ​ D. Analytical balance C. Maxima or minima of the plot ​ ​
B. Buret​ ​ ​ E. Volumetric flask ​ D. Sharp change in pH reading ​ ​
C. Graduated cylinder E. Change in color of the solution
2. An inert type of stainless steel used in dissolution 11. An instrument that measures the durability of
apparatus recognized by the USP:​ ​ tablets to withstand shock and abrasion during
A. Type 114​ ​ ​ D. Type 489​ ​ transport:
B. Type 239​ ​ ​ E. All of the choices ​
C. Type 316 A. Hardness tester​ ​ D. Polarimeter
B. Caliper ​ ​ ​ E. Friabilator ​
3. Volumetric apparatus designed to contain a definite C. Analytical balance
volume of liquid:
12. USP definition of negligible:
A. Beaker​ ​ ​ D. Volumetric flask
B. Buret​ ​ ​ E. B and C​ A. A quantity of not exceeding 0.25 mg ​
C. Pipet B. A quantity of not exceeding 0.50 mg​
C. A quantity of not exceeding 2.5 mg​ ​
4. Titrant employed for non-aqueous alkalimetric D. A quantity of not exceeding 5.0 mg​ ​
titration: E. None of the choices
A. Ammonium Hydroxide​ ​ ​ 13. An example of drying oil:
B. Hydrochloric Acid VS​ ​ ​
C. Perchloric Acid in Glacial Acetic Acid VS​ A. Cod liver oil​ ​ ​ D. Sesame oil ​
D. Potassium Hydroxide VS​ ​ ​ B. Olive oil ​ ​ ​ E. Lard ​
E. Sodium Methoxide VS C. Coconut oil

5. USP specifies that the standardization of Sodium 14. Orthophenanthroline TS undergoes a color
Hydroxide VS should be done using ______ as transition from ______ to ______:
standard:
A. Colorless to pink​ ​ D. White to black
A. Hydrochloric Acid VS​ ​ ​ B. Yellow to red​ ​ E. Blue to yellow
B. Sodium Carbonate​ ​ ​ ​ C. Red to blue
C. Tromethamine​ ​ ​ ​
D. Potassium Biphthalate​ ​ ​ 15. A tightly closed container of suitable size and
E. Potassium Dichromate design that maintains an atmosphere of low moisture
content by means of appropriate drying agents:
6. Gravimetric analysis is an appropriate method for:
A. Desiccator​ ​ ​ ​ ​
A. Determination of Atropine content of Belladonna B. Muffle furnace​ ​ ​ ​
leaf​ ​ ​ ​ ​ C. Oven ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Assay of Sodium Chloride, USP​ ​ D. Glass stoppered bottle
C. Assay of Zinc Chloride, USP​ ​
D. Assay of Sodium Nitrite, USP​ ​ 16. Apparatus used for determination of
E. Assay of Sulfurated Potash, USP alcohol-soluble extractives of benzoin:

7. Volhard Method in volumetric precipitation involves A. Acetylization flask​ ​ ​ ​

the use of what indicator? B. Cassia flask ​ ​ ​ ​
C. Babcock bottle ​ ​ ​ ​
A. Eosin TS​ ​ ​ ​ ​ D. Soxhlet apparatus ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Ferric Ammonium Sulfate TS ​ ​ E. Clavenger apparatus
C. Phenolphthalein TS ​ ​ ​
D. Potassium Chromate TS ​ ​ ​ 17. Calculate the normality factor for 0.1N Sodium
E. Orthophenanthroline TS Thiosulfate VS given the following data: ​
Weight of Potassium Dichromate=0.2256g
8. Nitrogen content determination of foods and Volume of titrant consumed during
pharmaceuticals involves what method? standardization=34.55mL​ ​ ​
Volume of titrant consumed during blank
A. Fajan’s method​ ​ D. Gravimetric method determination=0.05mL​​ ​
B. Gay-Lussac method​​ E. Winkler method Molecular Weight of Sodium Thiosulfate=248.19g/mol
C. Kjeldahl method Molecular Weight of Potassium
Dichromate=294.18g/mol
9. Fat constant that states the degree of unsaturation
in fats and fixed oils: A. 1.5801​ ​ ​ D. 1.3337​
B. 0.2635​ ​ ​ E. 1.8153​
A. Polenske number​ ​ D. Iodine number C. 0.6669
18. Titrant used for the official assay of ascorbic acid A. Free iodine extracted by chloroform​​
dosage forms: B. Intense purple color of permanganate ion​
C. Blue color of starch-iodo complex ​ ​
A. Sodium Tetraphenylboron VS​ ​ D. Use of Diphenylamine TS as indicator ​
B. Iodine VS ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ E. None of the choices
C. Potassium Hydroxide VS ​ ​ ​
D. Disodium Edelate VS ​ ​ ​ 28. A piece of soft rubber tubing fitted to the end of a
E. Dichlorophenol-Indophenol VS glass rod. It is used to loosen from the walls of the
containing vessel adhering particles that are not
19. Equivalence factor for potassium permanganate removable by a stream of water from the wash bottle:
as an oxidizing agent:
A. Erlenmeyer flask​ ​ D. stirring rod ​
A. 2​ ​ ​ ​ D.10​ ​ B. Policeman ​ ​ ​ E. Watchglass
B. 3​ ​ ​ ​ E. 23 ​ ​ C. Spatula
C. 5

20. Assay of volatile oil which involves bisulfate

addition method: 29. Assay involves an acidimetric type of titration:

A. Olive oil​ ​ ​ D. Peppermint spirit A. Determination of total alkalinity of NaOH ​

B. Caraway oil​ ​ ​ E. Clove oil​ B. Phosphomolybdate assay for phosphates ​
C. Lemon oil C. Assay of Precipitated Sulfur using oxygen flask
combustion​ ​ ​ ​ ​
21. A glassware usually used in gravimetric analysis D. Assay of Cupric Sulfate​ ​ ​
that has a perforated bottom upon which is bedded of E. Assay of Zinc Chloride
asbestos that is used for separation of precipitates by
use of suction filtration: 30. Extraction of alkaloids could be done by using:

A. Aspirator​ ​ ​ D. Soxhlet apparatus A. Clavenger apparatus​ D. Separatory funnel

B. Buchner funnel​ ​ E. Reflux condenser B. HPLC​ ​ ​ E. Spectrophotometer
C. Gooch Crucible C. Brine shrimp assay

22. For samples which contain 50-100% of the active 31. Stability projection for shelf life of pharmaceuticals
constituent, the difference in percent between two are commonly based on ______ equation:
determinations should be:
A. Arrhenius equation​ ​ ​ ​
A. 0.03-0.05%​ ​ ​ D. 0.30-0.45%​ B. Clausius-Clapeyron equation ​ ​
B. 0.10-0.20%​ ​ ​ E. Not more than 3% C. Dieterici equation ​ ​ ​ ​
C. 0.20-0.25% D. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation ​ ​
E. Van Deemter equation
23. In analytical chemistry, cleaning solution is
basically a solution containing: 32. A plot of the absorbance of the analyte vs.
wavelength which determines the λmax at which the
A. Nitric acid​ ​ ​ D. Chromic acid absorbance of the standard and unknown solutions
B. Joy®​ ​ ​ E. Liquid Sosa® will be made:
C. Sodium phosphate
A. Beer’s plot​ ​ ​ ​ ​
24. pH-adjusting agent used in EDTA titrations using B. Planck’s constant​ ​ ​ ​
Dithizone TS as indicator: C. Rf value​ ​ ​ ​ ​
D. Spectral absorbance curve​ ​ ​
A. 3N HCL​ ​ ​ ​ ​ E. None of the choices
B. CH3COOH-CH3COONa buffer ​ ​
C. NH3-NH4Cl buffer ​ ​ ​ ​ 33. A suitable detector for radioactive samples:
D. 1N NaOH ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
E. Any of the choices A. UV detector​​ ​ D. Vanillin reagent
B. Echelette grating​ ​ E. Iodine vapour
25. Acid color of phenol red: C. Geiger-Muller Counter
A. Colorless​ ​ ​ D. Yellow​ 34. Type of crucible that can withstand high
B. Red​​ ​ ​ E. Green​ temperature and is suitable for use in ignition of drugs
C. Blue and precipitates:
26. Reducing titrant that is susceptible to bacterial A. Borosilicate Glass​ ​ D. B and C​
degradation: B. Sintered crucible​ ​ E. A, B and C​
C. Porcelain
A. Oxalic Acid VS ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Potassium Permanganate VS ​ ​ 35. In the official assay, Boric Acid, NF acts as a
C. Sodium Thiosulfate VS ​ ​ ​ strong monobasic acid due to the addition of what
D. Ferrous Ammonium Sulfate VS ​ ​ sugar alcohol:
E. Ceric Sulfate VS
A. Erythritol​ ​ ​ D. Sorbitol​
27. Actual indicating species in the assay of Hydrogen B. Glycerol​ ​ ​ E. Xylitol​
Peroxide Topical Solution: C. Mannitol
36. Measures the free fatty acid present in a given 45. In what case/s will addition of nitrobenzene be
sample of fats of fixed oil: unnecessary in Volhard analysis?

A. Acid Value​ ​ ​ ​ ​ I.​ Determination of chloride ​ ​ ​

B. Ester Value​ ​ ​ ​ ​ II.​ Determination of bromide ​ ​
C. Crude Fiber​​ ​ ​ ​ III.​ Determination of iodide
D. Iodine Value​​ ​ ​ ​
E. Unsaponifiable Matter A. I only​ ​ ​ D. III only​
B. II and III​ ​ ​ E. I, II and III​
37. Assay method for Sodium Hypochlorite Solution, C. I and II
USP:
46. Solve for the acid number of a 2g sample of cod
A. Acidimetry​ ​ ​ ​ ​ liver oil which required 4.5mL of 0.02 KOH in the
B. EDTA titration ​ ​ ​ ​ titration.(MW of KOH 56.11g/mol):
C. Iodometry ​​ ​ ​ ​
D. Permanganometry ​ ​ ​ ​ A. 0.25%​ ​ ​ D. 2.5mg/g ​
E. Volumetric precipitation B. 2.5%​ ​ ​ E. 0.25mg/g
C. 25mg/g
38. Official method of water content determination of
pharmaceutical samples: 47. Diazotization assay is used for analysis of what
class of analytes?
A. Azeotropic distillation​ D. A and C​
B. Gravimetric determination​ E. A, B and C ​ A. Mercaptans​ ​ ​ D. Cyanides ​
C. Karl Fischer method B. Sulfonamides​ ​ E. Volatile oils ​
C. Alkaloids
39. Analyte that involves an alkalimetric type of assay:
48. Optical rotation is measured using what
A. Magnesium Sulfate​ ​ D. 2-Phenoxyethanol instrument?
B. Sodium Chloride​ ​ E. Selenium Sulfide
C. Hydrogen Peroxide Solution A. Refractometer​ ​ D. Polarimeter
B. ph meter​ ​ ​ E. Spectrophotometer
40. Most popular indicator electrode for pH C. HPLC
determinations that involves the exchange of
hydrogen ions on its surface: 49. Masking agent that permits the determination of
Mg+2 in the presence of Al+3 ions:
A. Standard Hydrogen Electrode ​ ​
B. Glass electrode ​ ​ ​ ​ A. Absolute alcohol​ ​ ​ ​
C. Fluoride electrode​ ​ ​ ​ B. Ammonium Fluoride​​ ​ ​
D. Quinhydrone electrode ​ ​ ​ C. Triethanolamine​ ​ ​ ​
E. Calomel electrode D. Potassium Sodium Tartrate ​​ ​
E. Nitric acid
41. The use of potassium chromate TS as indicator in
Volumetric precipitation is also known as the ______ 50. A parameter that checks the homogeneity of the
method: active ingredient in tablets and is usually done by
assaying a certain number of tablets individually:
A. Fajan’s Method​ ​ D. Dumas Method
B. Gay-Lussac Method​​ E. Volhard Method A. tablet hardness​ ​ D. Content Uniformity
C. Mohr Method B. Tablet thickness​ ​ E. Weight variation
C. Dissolution
42. An aqueous solution composed of potassium
iodide and red mercuric iodide used for the detection 51. Insufficient sulphuric acid added to the analyte
of alkaloids: solution during permanganate titration will:

A. Dragendorff’s reagent ​ D. Valser’s reagent A. Will turn the solution intense purple ​
B. Hubl’s reagent​ ​ E. Wagner’s reagent B. Promote formation of a brown precipitate ​
C. Mayer’s reagent C. Will discharge the color of permanganate ion
D. Promote completion of the reaction​​
43. The reciprocating cylinder, basket apparatus and E. Will turn the solution green
paddle apparatus are used for what in-vitro test for
tablets? 52. EDTA titration using dithizone TS as indicator
should be conducted at what pH?
A. Assay​ ​ ​ D. Dissolution
B. Content Uniformity​ ​ E. Friability​ A. 2​ ​ ​ ​ D. 10​ ​
C. Disintegration B. 4.6​ ​ ​ ​ E. 13​ ​
C. 7
44. In weight variation test for tablets, a 5.0%
difference in average tablet weight is accepted for 53. The water content of an 875.4mg samle of dried
tablets with an average weight of: neem leaves was determined with a moisture
analyzer. What is the % w/w H2o in the leaves if the
A. 130 mg or less​ ​ D. A and B ​ final mass was found to be 545.8mg?
B. 130 mg to 324 mg​ ​ E. A, B and C​
C. More than 324 mg A 1.60%​ ​ ​ D. 98.40%​
B. 37.85%​ ​ ​ E. 5.42% ​
C. 62.35%
54. This value represents the percentage of test C. Starch with high α-amylose content​​
material which is volatilized and driven off under the D. A and B​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
condition specified: E. A, B and C

A. Water content Determination ​ ​ 64. Reagent added during preparation of Sodium

B. Ignition to constant weight ​ ​ ​ Thiosulfate VS that imparts stability to the volumetric
C. Loss on drying ​ ​ ​ ​ solution by acting as an antimicrobial preservative
D. Loss on ignition ​ ​ ​ ​ and suppresses acid-catalyzed hydrolysis of the
E. Acid insoluble ash volumetric solution:

55. Potassium biphthalate is a primary standard used A. Hydrochloric acid​ ​ [Link] tetrachloride
for standardization of ______: B. Sodium bicarbonate​​ E. Starch​ ​
C. Sodium carbonate
A. Sulfuric Acid VS ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Sodium Hydroxide VS ​ ​ ​ 65. Volumetric solution that is used for analysis of
C. Ammonium Thiocyanate VS ​ ​ vitamin C raw material according to USP:
D. Potassium Permanganate VS ​ ​
E. Disodium Edetate VS A. Potassium Arsenite VS​ ​ ​ ​
B. Sodium Nitrite VS​ ​ ​ ​ ​
56. Type of chromatography wherein the mobile C. Iodine VS​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
phase is polar in nature and the stationary phase is D. Dichlorophenol-indophenol VS​ ​ ​
nonpolar in nature: E. Ceric Sulfate VS

A. Thin layer chromatography ​​ ​ 66. Preservative in Starch TS:

B. Ion-exchange chromatography ​ ​
C. Normal phase chromatography​ ​ ​ A. Sodium thiosufate​ ​ D. Carbon disulfide
D. Reversed-phase chromatography​ ​ ​ B. Red mercuric iodide​​ E. Arsenic trioxide​
E. Paper chromatography C. Saliva

57. Tromethamine is a primary standard used for the 67. Titrant which involves the formation of iodine
standardization of what VS? monochloride during titration:

[Link] Nitrite VS​ ​ D. Silver Nitrate VS​ A. Iodine VS​ ​ ​ ​ ​

B. Ammonium Thicyanate VS ​E. Perchloric Acid VS B. Perchloric acid Vs​ ​ ​ ​
C. Sulfuric Acid VS C. Potassium iodate VS​ ​ ​ ​
D. hydrochloric acid VS​ ​ ​ ​
58. Stationary phase in paper chromatography: E. Sodium Thiosulfate VS

A. Cellulose​ ​ ​ D. Water​ ​ 68. Koppeschaar’s Solution:

B. Acetic acid​ ​ ​ E. Methanol​ ​
C. Acetonitrile A. 0.1N Bromine VS​ ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Chlorine Water​ ​ ​ ​ ​
59. Method of detection for TLC:​ C. 0.1N Iodine VS​ ​ ​ ​ ​
D. Phosphoric Acid​ ​ ​ ​ ​
A. Iodine vapour​ ​ D. Vanillin Reagent​ E. Ammonium Phosphomolybdate TS
B. Sulfuric acid​​ ​ E. All of the choices
C. UV lamp 69. A 1.4500g sample of liquefied phenol was
dissolved in enough water to make 1000mL. A 30mL
60. What does G stand for in silica gel G? sample of the solution was treated with 30mL of 0.1 N
Bromine Vs and HCL. The mixture was treated with
A. Gauss ​ ​ ​ D. Gall​​ ​ potassium iodide and titrated with 7.38mL of 0.1N
B. Germanium​ ​ ​ E. Ghrelin​ ​ sodium Thiosulfate VS. It was also found that 21mL of
C. Gypsum 0.1N Sodium thiosulfate VS was required in the
titration of the iodine liberated when 20mL of 0.1N
61. Purpose of potassium iodide in preparation of
bromine VS was treated with KI and HCL. Calculate
Iodine VS:
the % phenol in the sample. (MW phenol=94.11g/mol)
A. To protect iodine from microbial degradation​
A. 29.00%​ ​ ​ D. 65.56%​ ​
B. To permit dissolution of iodine in water​ ​
B. 86.99%​ ​ ​ E. 13.33%​ ​
C. As an Antioxidant​ ​ ​ ​ ​
C. 8.70%
D. A and B​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
E. A, B and C 70. What is the pH of a 0.400M HNO3 solution?
62. Iodometry is a suitable method for: A. 0.40​​ ​ ​ D. 4.12​​
B. 2.05​​ ​ ​ E. 1.67​​ ​
A. Ascorbic acid​ ​ D. Sugar alcohol​
C. 0.60
B. Mercaptans​ ​ ​ E. Antimony K Tartrate
C. Sulfites 71. calculate the NaHCO3 content of a 1.2500g
sample of a mixture containing sodium carbonate and
63. Suitable form of starch for the preparation of
sodium bicarbonate requiring 13.80mL of 0.5250N
Strach TS:
HCL on titration to phenolphthalein endpoint and an
A. Arrowroot starch​ ​ ​ ​ ​ additional 16.30mL on further titration to a methyl
B. Soluble Starch ​ ​ ​ ​ orange endpoint.(MW NaHCO3=84.01g/mol)
A. 61.4%​ ​ ​ D. 30.7%​ ​ E. Determination of peroxide by permanganate
B.8.82%​ ​ ​ E. 70.22%​ ​ method
C. 17.64%
81. An example of drying agent used in desiccators:
72. When organic compound is placed on a very high
magnetic field, the protons absorb radiant energy and A. Anhydrous calcium chloride​D. Silica gel​ ​
produce characteristics peaks due to the organic B. Solid potassium hydroxide​ E. All of the choices​
groups associated with the protons: C. Phosphorus pentoxide

A. UV spectrophotometry​ D. HPLC​ ​ 82. Appropriate glassware to be used in the assay of

B. Colorimetry​ ​ ​ E. Polarography​ cupric sulfate, USP:
C. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
A. Beaker​ ​ ​ D. Iodine flask​ ​
73. Method in Iodine Value determination which B. Buret​ ​ ​ E. Volumetric flask​
employs the use of Iodobromide Ts as source of C. Erlenmeyer flask
iodine:
83. Reproducibility of data within a series of results is
A. Hanus method​ ​ D. Karl Fischer method usually reported as:
B. Hubl’s method​ ​ E. Winkler method​
C. Wij’s method A. Absolute error​ ​ D. t-test​ ​
B. Relative error​ ​ E. Q-test​ ​
74. A polarity scale of solvent arranged according to C. Standard deviation
increasing eluting power:
84. Appropriate indicator for a strong acid-weak base
A. Electromotive series​​ D. pH scale​ ​ titration:
B. Eluotropic series​ ​ E. Partition coefficient
C. Irving-Williams scale A. Phenolphthalein​ ​ D. Diphenylamine​
B. Methyl red​ ​ ​ E. Starch​ ​
75. The assay of Opium for % Morphine content is an C. Eriochrome black T
example of:
85. Several acids, dissolved in a solvent, are
A. Limit Test​ ​ ​ D. Identification Test B. completely ionized. The solvent can be classified as a
Trace Constituent Analysis​ E. Proximate Assay​ ______ solvent:
C. Ultimate Assay
A. Differentiating​ ​ D. Protophilic​ ​
76. An unknown sample of a soluble sulphate B. Leveling​ ​ ​ E. Aprotic​ ​
weighing 1.8000g yielded 0.9000g of barium sulphate. C. Protogenic
Calculate the % sulfur present in the unknown. (MW
of barium sulfate=233.40g/mol, MW of 86. Analyte that is can be assayed by ferric chloride
sulfur=32.06g/mol). titration:

A. 6.87%​ ​ ​ D. 3.43%​ ​ A. Antimony potassium tartrate​D. Titanium Dioxide​

B.7.28%​ ​ ​ E. 14.56%​ ​ B. Precipitated sulfur​ ​ E. Vanadyl Sulfate​
C. 13.74% C. Sodium Fluoride

77. The acid value of a certain fixed oil is .96 and the 87. Assayed by iodimetry:
ester value is 2.48. What is the saponification number
A. Iodine Tincture for Iodine Content​ ​ ​
of the sample?
B. Sodium Thioglycollate​ ​ ​ ​
A. 0.50​​ ​ ​ D. 7.44​​ ​ C. sodium metabisulfite​ ​ ​ ​
B. 2.48​​ ​ ​ E. 12.30​ ​ D. A and B​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
C. 3.72 E. A, B and C

78. Unsaponifiable matter in the plant matter may 88. Equivalence factor when arsenic trioxide is used
represent: for standardization of iodine VS:

A. Unsaturated fatty acid​ D. Silica​ ​ A. 1​ ​ ​ ​ D. 4​ ​ ​

B. Paraffin​ ​ ​ E. Rancidity​ ​ B. 2​ ​ ​ ​ E. 5​ ​ ​
C. Phytosterol C. 3

79. Alcoholic hydroxyl groups present in fatty acids is 89. Titrations involving oxidation of sugar alcohols
estimated using what fat constant? involve the use of what oxidizing agent?

A. Acetyl value​​ ​ D. Iodine value​​ A. Ammonium thiocyanate​ D. Oxalic acid​ ​

B. Acid value​ ​ ​ E. Ester value​ ​ B. Potassium periodate​ E. Sodium thiosulfate
C. Unsaponifiable matter C. Potassium permanganate

80. Assay which involves back titration: 90. Titrimetric assay for ferrous salts employ what
method?
A. alkalimetric determination of esters​ ​ ​
B. Total alkalinity of fixed alkalis​ ​ ​ A. Cerimetry ​ ​ ​ D. Precipitimetry​
C. Determination of chloride by fajan’s method​​ B. Acidimetry​ ​ ​ E. Gravimetry​ ​
D. EDTA titration of zinc ion​ ​ ​ ​ C. Iodometry

91. Equivalence factor for sodium thiosulfate:

A. 1​ ​ ​ ​ D. 6​ ​ ​ A. Systematic, methodic error​ ​ ​ ​
B. 2​ ​ ​ ​ E. 10​ ​ ​ B. Systematic, instrumental error​ ​ ​
C. 3 C. Indeterminate, personal error​ ​ ​
D. Indeterminate, absolute error​ ​ ​
92. Determination of bulk density of a power can be E. Gross
done using:
102. What is the pH of a 0.1M solution of acetic acid?
A. Scott volumeter ​ ​ D. A and B​ ​ (Ka=1.75x10-5):
B. Graduated cylinder​ ​ E. A, B and C​ ​
C. Viscometer A. 5.00​​ ​ ​ D. 7.00​ ​
B. 2.88​​ ​ ​ E. 9.24​ ​
93. Assayed by precipitation as calcium oxalate, C. 4.76
conversion to oxalic acid and titrating with acidified
permanganate: 103. the direct or residual titrimetric determination of
organic or inorganic acids using an accurately
A. cherry juice for malic acid​ ​ ​ ​ measured volume of base:
B. sodium nitrite​ ​ ​ ​ ​
C. titanium dioxide​ ​ ​ ​ ​ A. Acidimetry​ ​ ​ D. Precipitimetry​
D. Selenium sulfide​ ​ ​ ​ ​ B. Alkalimetry​ ​ ​ E. Oxidimetry​ ​
E. hydrogen peroxide topical solution C. Potentiometric titration

94. Formes a chelate with divalent and multivalent 104. the current official assay for aspirin tablets
cations: employs what method?

A. Ammonia​ ​ ​ D. Oxalate ion​​ A. Residual alkalimetry​ D. HPLC​ ​

B. Ededate ion​​ ​ E. All of the choices B. TLC​​ ​ ​ E. bioassay​ ​
C. Fluoride ion C. UV spectrophotometry

95. Extrction using two immiscible solvents using a 105. Alcohol content determination in the USP
separatory funnel is governed by _______: involves ______ step to separate the alcohol from the
sample matrix followed by determination of _____ to
A. Le Chatelier’s principle​ D. common-ion effect determine its concentration:
B. Nernst’s law​​ ​ E. Law of entropy​
C. Rf value A. HPLC, viscosity​ ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Extraction using immiscible solvent, TLC​ ​
96. Organic precipitant employed for the assay for C. Distillation, specific gravity​ ​ ​ ​
MgO content of magnesium citrate oral solution: D. Soxhlet extraction, optical rotation​ ​ ​
E. Acetylization, titration
A. Cupferron​ ​ ​ D. DMG​ ​
B. Nitron​ ​ ​ E. Ferroin​ ​ 106. An instrument that produces ions the substance
C. Oxine under investigation, separates them according to m/z
(charge to mass) ratio, and records the relative
97. A parameter that denotes the nearness of the abundance of each ionic species present:
experimental dta of the true value:
A. NMR​ ​ ​ D. HPLC​ ​
A. Accuracy​ ​ ​ D. Ruggedness​ B. MS​ ​ ​ ​ C. FTIR​ ​
B. Deviation between trials​ E. B and C​ ​ E. Fluorimeter
C. Precision
107. Riboflavin assay:
98. Chromatography is useful for:
A. HPLC​ ​ ​ D. Turbidimetry​
A. Resolution of mixtures into constituents parts​ B. TLC​​ ​ ​ E. Colorimetry​​
B. ID test by comparing the unknown to a standard​ C. Fluorimetry
C. Determination of homogeneity​ ​ ​
D. Indication of molecular structure​ ​ ​ 108. if an air-dried drug containing 10% moisture
E. All of the choices 2.5% ash calculated ion the basis of the air-dried
drug, what percent of ash would the moisture-free
99. Examples of in-plane bending vibration of atoms: drug contain?
A. Scissoring and twisting​ ​ ​ ​ A. 25% ​ ​ ​ D. 6.25%​ ​
B. Rocking and wagging​ ​ ​ ​ B. 4%​ ​ ​ ​ E. 7.5%​ ​
C. Wagging and twisting​ ​ ​ ​ C. 2.25%
D. scissoring and rocking​ ​ ​ ​
E. All of the items mentioned 109. Reagents that are used to prepare Bromine VS:
100. Appropriate weighing vessel for liquid samples: A. Bromine and water​ ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Bromine and potassium bromide​ ​ ​
A, Beaker​ ​ ​ D. Dropper bottle​ C. potassium bromide and potassium bromate​​
B. Weighing bottle​ ​ E. Volumetric flask​ D. Potassium hypoiodite and potassium perbromate
C. Watchglass E. Potassium bromide and hydrochloric acid
101. Faulty calibration of laboratory apparatus can 110. If a 10.0mL sample of clove oil yields 1.4mL of
result in what type of error? residual liquid in a cassia flask, what is the % eugenol
content of the sample?
A. 14% ​ ​ ​ D. 86%​​ ​ cylinder and its volume was 8.5mL. the graduated
B. 28%​​ ​ ​ E. 100%​ ​ cylinder was tapped repeatedly following USP
C. 43% guidelines and the volume of the powder after tapping
was 4.2 mL. what is the hausner ratio of the powder?
111. Assayed for ketone content:
A. 0.49​​ ​ ​ D. 6.35​​ ​
A. Caraway oil​ ​ ​ D. A and B​ ​ B. 2.00​​ ​ ​ E. 35.7​​ ​
B. Spearmint oil​ ​ E. A, B and C​ ​ C. 2.25
C. Cinnamon oil
120. Elastomeric closures are assayed by:
112. Saponifying agent used for the analysis of
volatile oils and fixed oils: A. Agar diffusion test​ ​ D. Elution test​ ​
B. Cylinder plate method​ E. leaker test​ ​
A. alcohol KOH VS​ ​ D. A and B​ ​ C. Bacterial endotoxins test
B. NaOH VS​ ​ ​ E. A, B and C​ ​
C. strong ammonia solution 121. Vitamins assayed by fluorometric method:

113. Used to determine the content of inorganic A. Thiamine ​ ​ ​ D. A and B​ ​

impurities in an organic substance. This involves a B. Riboflavin​ ​ ​ E. A, B and C​ ​
procedure to measure the amount of substance not C. Cyanocobalamin
volatilized from a sample when the sample is ignited
in the presence of sulfuric acin: 122. A nitrometer is employed in:

A. Total ash​ ​ ​ D. A and C​ ​ A. Column Chromatography​ ​ ​ ​

B. Loss on drying​ ​ E. A, B and C​ ​ B. Soxhlet extraction​ ​ ​ ​ ​
C. Residue on ignition C. Gasometric analysis​​ ​ ​ ​
D. NMR​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
114. type of ionization in mass spectrometry which E. Polarography
involves a high energy beam of neutral atoms,
typically Xe or Ar, causing ionization of the sample. 123. The biological assay for digitalis employs what
This is useful for determination of molecular weight: test animal?

A. Electron impact​ ​ ​ ​ ​ A. Rats​​ ​ ​ D. Pigeons​ ​

B. Chemical ionization​ ​ ​ ​ ​ B. Guinea pigs​​ ​ E. rabbit​ ​
C. Fast atom bombardment​ ​ ​ ​ C. dogs
D. MALDI-TOF​​ ​ ​ ​ ​
E. Electrospray ionization 124. Gonad-stimulating principle of placental origin
prepared from the urine of pregnant women:
115. The microbial assay for niacin and calcium
pantothenate employs: A. Estrogen​ ​ ​ D. Vasopressin​​
B. Chorionic gonodotropin​ E. Progesterone​
A. Lactobacillus plantarum​ ​ ​ ​ C. Human growth hormone
B. Lactobacillus leichmannii​ ​ ​ ​
C. Pediococcus acidilactici​ ​ ​ ​ 125. Equivalence factor for dichromate ion when it
D. Streptococcus pyogenes​ ​ ​ ​ acts as an oxidizing agent:
E. Streptomyces venezuelae
A. 2​ ​ ​ ​ D. 7​ ​ ​
116. test animal used in pyrogen testing: B. 3​ ​ ​ ​ E. 10​ ​ ​
C. 6
A. Cat​ ​ ​ ​ D. Horseshoe crab​
B. Dog​​ ​ ​ E. rabbit​ ​ 126. Assayed residually by EDTA titration:
C. guinea pig
A. Calcium carbonate​ ​ D. Acetic acid​ ​
117. IR region that is used in the identification of B. Aluminum hydroxide​​ E. Sodium thiosulfate
functional groups sucs as carbonyl, amino and C. Zinc sulfate
hydroxyl groups, present in an organic compound:
127. Spectrometric method tha measures the amount
A. Fingerprint region​ ​ ​ ​ ​ of light scattered by a suspension:
B. Radiofrequency region​ ​ ​ ​
A. Spectophotometry​ ​ D. Colorimetry​ ​
C. Group frequency region​ ​ ​ ​
B. Turbidimetry​​ ​ E. Flame photometry
D. Absorption spectrum​ ​ ​ ​
C. Nephelometry
E. Near-IR region
128. Sodium and potassium ions are determined by
118. Samples to be subjected to titration should
this method which involves the emission of energy of
consume approximately how many mL of titrant such
a particular wavelength when diluted solution of a
that errors in buret readings and weighings will not be
metallic ion is sprayed into a colorless flame. The
significant?
intensity of the emitted radiation is determined by a
A. 5mL​​ ​ ​ D. 30mL​ ​ suitable spectrometer and compared to the standard:
B. 8mL​​ ​ ​ E. 45mL​ ​
A. Atomic absorption spectroscopy​ ​ ​
C. 15mL
B. Supercritical fluid extraction​​ ​ ​
119. A sample of sodium bicarbonate powder weighs C. Flame photometry​ ​ ​ ​ ​
5.6424g. The powder was transferred to a graduated
D. Tandem mass spectrometry​​ ​ ​ 137. Extemporaneously compounded 10% potassium
E. Refractometry chloride should be used within _______ when stored
at cold temperatures:
129. A self-indicating volumetric solution:
A. 7days​ ​ ​ D. 60days​ ​
A. Iodine VS​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ B. 14days​ ​ ​ E. 120days​ ​
B. Ceric sulfate VS​ ​ ​ ​ ​ C. 30days
C. Potassium permanganate VS​ ​ ​
D. Ammonium thiocyanate VS​​ ​ ​ 138. Assay which employs the use of a jones
E. sodium hydroxide VS redactor:

130. Alkalimetric assay which involves a preliminary A. Alkaloid content of opium​ ​ ​ ​

oxidation step via oxygen flask combustion prior to B. Cherry juice for malic acid​ ​ ​ ​
titration. C. Titanium dioxide​ ​ ​ ​ ​
D. Selenium sulfide​ ​ ​ ​ ​
A. Ethyl acetate​ ​ ​ ​ ​ E. Dimercaprol
B. Formaldehyde solution​ ​ ​ ​
C. Zinc undecylenate​ ​ ​ ​ ​ 139. Kjeldahl method:
D. Precipitated sulfur​ ​ ​ ​ ​
E. Sodium metabisulfite A. Water content deretmination​ ​ ​
B. Nitrogen content determination​ ​ ​
131. Preferred titrant for the analysis of ferrous salts C. Oxygen flask combustion​ ​ ​ ​
in mixtures that contain excipient or diluents that have D. Nonaqueous titration​ ​ ​ ​
a reducing action on permanganate: E. Specific gravity determination

A. Silver nitrate VS​ ​ ​ ​ ​ 140. The following tests cannot be done by ignition:
B. Ceric sulfate VS​ ​ ​ ​ ​
C. Sodium thiosulfate VS​ ​ ​ ​ A. Moisture content determination​ ​ ​
D. Disodium EDTA VS​​ ​ ​ ​ B. Ash content determination​ ​ ​ ​
E. Hydrochloric acid VS C Extractives​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
D. A and B​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
132. Oxidizing agents are assayed titrimetrically by: E. A, B and C

A. Acidimetry​ ​ ​ D. Iodometry​ ​ 141. In method II of water content determination, the

B. Cerimetry​ ​ ​ E. Iodimetry​ ​ sample should yield about _____ mL of water for
C. Miscellaneous redox accurate readings:

133. The law which relates the power of the incident A. 5-8mL​ ​ ​ D. 1-3mL​ ​
and transmitted beams to the thickness and B. 3-6mL​ ​ ​ E. None of the choices
concentration of solution containing the absorbing C. 2-4mL
chemical species:
142. Glassware employed in method II of water
A. Beer-Lambert’s law​ ​ D. Snell’s law​ ​ content determination in USP:
B. fick’s law​ ​ ​ E. hess’ law​ ​
C. Nernst’s law A. Soxhlet apparatus​ ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Toluene moisture apparatus​​ ​ ​
134. Calibration weights that are used as working C. Clavenger apparatus​ ​ ​ ​
standards for calibration, built-in weights for analytical D. Babcock bottle​ ​ ​ ​ ​
balances, and laboratory weights for routine analytical E. Reflux condenser
work:
143. Azeotropic distillation is utilized in the USP for
A. Class P or class 4​ ​ ​ ​ ​ determination of ______ of pharmaceutical articles:
B. Class s-1 or class 3​​ ​ ​ ​
C. Class S or class 2​ ​ ​ ​ ​ A. Alcohol content​ ​ D. Water content​
D. class M or class 1​ ​ ​ ​ ​ B. Aflatoxins​ ​ ​ E. Steroid content​
E. none of the choices C. Bacterial endotoxins

135. A substance of known purity that is used for 144. Calculate for Rf value given the following data:
deyermination of the exact soncentration of a Distance travelled by solvent=8.7cm​ ​
volumetric solution: Distance travelled by solute=3.2cm

A. Analyte​ ​ ​ D. Primary standard​ A. 0.37​​ ​ ​ D. 0.63​​ ​

B. Blak determination​ ​ E. Titer value​ ​ B. 2.72​​ ​ ​ E. 5.95​​ ​
C. Equivalence factor C. 27.84

136. The eye should be at same level as the 145. Powder flow testing:
meniscus to prevent ______:
A. Angle of repose​ ​ D. Shear cell​ ​
A. Color blindness​ ​ D. Calibration error​ B. Compressibility index​ E. All of the choices​
B. Number bias​ ​ E. Capillary action​ C. Hausner ratio
C. Parallax error
146. Total alkalinity of sodium hydroxideis due to what
chemical species?
A. Carbonate ion ​ ​ D. A and B​ ​ ​ II. Quaternary salts
B. hydroxide ion​ ​ E. A, B and C​ ​
C. Phosphate ion ​ III. Silver ions

147. For stability testing purposes, the Philippines is A.​ I only​ ​ D. I,II and III
categorized in what climatic zone: B.​ I and II​​ E. I and III
A. I​ ​ ​ ​ D. IV​ ​ ​ C.​ II and III
B. II​ ​ ​ ​ E. V​ ​ ​
C. III 156. An excellent solvent for fats and fatty oils used in
the determination of extractive content of a plant
148. Calcium pantothenate assay employs what sample:
method?
A. alcohol​ ​ D. Hexane
A. Refractometry​ ​ D. NMR​ ​
B. TUrbidimetry​ ​ E. Potentiometric​ B. Diluted alcohol​ E. water
C. HPLC
C. Ether
[Link] solution:
157. Temperature equivalent of dull-red heat:
A. Arrhenius Equation​ ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Clausius-Clapeyron equation​ ​ ​
A. 500-550oC​ ​ D. 1000-1200oC
C. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation​ ​ ​
D. Nernst equation​ ​ ​ ​ ​ B. 550-700oC​ ​ E. 1200-1600oC
E. Whitney-Noyes equation

150. In pharmaceutical assaying, the official C. 800-1000C

requirement of diluted acids is expressed on __ basis.
158. Represent the inorganic salts naturally occurring
A. Molarity​ ​ D. Percent volume in volume in the drug and adhering to it, but may also include
inorganic matter added for the purpose of
[Link] weight in weight [Link] adulteration.

C Percent weight in volume A. Ash content​ ​ D. Water content

151. Titanium Dioxide is assayed by what method? B. Crude fiber​ ​ E. Unsaponifiable matter

A. Alkalimetry​ ​ D. Gravimetry C. Loss on ignition

B. Iodometry​ ​ E. Volumetric pricipitation 159. Vitamin b12 activity assay employs what method
of analysis?
C. Permanganometry
A. fluorimetry​ ​ D. Turbidimetry
152. Equivalence factor for assay of Phosphoric Acid,
NF: B. HPLC​ ​ E. Reverse osmosis

A. 1​ ​ ​ D. 4 C. Colorimetry

B. 2​ ​ ​ E. 10 160. Official methods of demonstrating antimicrobial

activity:
C. 3
A. Turbidimetric assay​ ​ D. A and C
154. Given the following log Kf values for the
following metal ion-EDTA complexes, which of the B. Brine shrimp assay​ ​ E. B and C
following cannot be titrated successfully with EDTA?
C. Cylinder-plate assay
​ I. Ba-EDTA-2 = 7.76
161. Cultute media of fungi:
​ II. Co-EDTA-2 = 16.39
A. V5 agar​ ​
​ III. V-EDTA = 25.9
B. Eosin- Methylene blue media​
​ IV. Sr-EDTA-2 = 8.63
C. Thioglycollate media
A.​ II and III​ D. III only
B.​ I and IV​ e. I, II, III AND IV D. Saboraud’s dextrose media
C.​ I only
E. Soy-bean- casein digest media
155. Sodium tetraphenylboron will quantitavely
162. Plane polarized light is produced by what type of
precipitate:
optical lens?
​ I. Alkaloids
A. Echelette grating​ ​ D. LASER sodium hydroxide would be required in the back
titration? (MW of ZnO= 81.38 g/mol).
B. Iceland spar​ ​ E. Concave lens
A. 42.54 mL​ ​ D. 2.27 mL
C. Oil immersion objective
B. 27.48 mL​ ​ E. 0.00mL
163. Assayeed by double titration:
C. 12.47 mL
A. Sodium hydroxide​ ​ D. Sodium bromide
169. Starch TS is a satisfactory indicator for what
B. Sodium nitrite​ E. Calcium Disodium Edetate volumetric solution?
C. Dibasic sodium phosphate A. HCl VS​ ​ D. Sodium Thiosulfate VS
164. Which of the following volumetric solution should B. Potassium Iodate VS E. Silver nitrate VS
be read using upper meniscus?
C. Cerric sulfate VS
A. Ceric sulphate
170. A type of redox reaction that leads to n increase
B. Ferrous ammonia sulfate VS in positive valence of a chemical species:
C. HCl VS A. Oxidation​ ​ D. Combustion
D. Potassium permanganate VS C. Reduction ​ ​ E. Displacement
E. Sodium nitrite VS E. Decomposition
[Link] titration of calcium salts requires a pH of __ 171. A specific gravity bottle that has a thermometer
to ensure to complete reaction. stopper and a capillary overflow tube:
A. 2​ ​ D. 14 A. Geissler pycnometer ​ D. Lovi’s beads
B. 4.6​ ​ E. None of the choices B. Pycnometer ​ ​ E. Saccharometer
C. 13 C. hygrometer
166. Determine the %w/w of alakaloids present in the 172. A nicol prism is an intergral part of what
belladonna leaf ( calculated as atropine) if 15 ml of instrument?
0.0210 N sulfuric acid was added to the extracted
alkaloids and 7.30 ml of 0.0198 N sodium hydroxide A. Refractometer​ D. IR spectrometer
was required for the residual titration. The weight of
the powder of Belladona leaf was 10.21 g. in that B. Polarimeter​​ E. Analytic balance
reaction, 2 moles of atropine consume 1 mole of
C. HPLC
sulfuric acid during titration. (MW of atropine= 239.8
g/mol). 173. Failure to judge color change sharply during
titration can lead to what type of error?
A. 0.966%​ ​ D. 96.60%
A. Interminate error​ D. Personal error
B.0.483%​ ​ E. 24.20%
B. Instrumental error​ e. Number bias
C. 0.242%
C. Methodic error
167. An acetylization flask is used in the
determination of: 174. Given the ff. Ksp values for the ff. sulfides, rank
the ff. insoluble sulfides according to increase
A. Total ester content of peppermint oil
solubitliy:
B. Total menthol content of peppermint oil
​ MnS= 3.0 x 10 -14
C. Carvone content of caraway oil
​ CdS= 8.0 x 10-28
D. Benzaldehyde
​ Cos = 4.0 x 10-21
E. Clove oil
A. CdS>Cos> Mns​ D. CoS< CdS < MnS
168. If a 1.2500 g sample of Zinc oxide, 95.0% ZnO,
B. CdS<Cos< Mns ​ E. None of the choices
were treated with 50.00% ml of 1.1230 N sulphuric
acid in the casual way, what volume of 0.9765 N C. CdS>MnS>CoS
175. Suitable precipitate for the determination of 182. Addition of an excess titrant to permit complete
mercury content by gravimetric analysis: reaction of the analyte with the titrant and then the
unreacted excess titrant with another standard
A. Sodium Sulfate TS​ ​ D. Magnesia Mixture soulution:
B. Ammonia TS​ ​ E. Barium Chloride A. Blank determination​ D. Residual titration
C. Hydrogen Sulfide B. Direct titration​ E. Displacement titration
176. Sulfated potash is assayed gravimetrically by C. Double titration
converting it to __, which is then weighed.
183. In the assay of Rochelle’s salt, the compound
A. Barium sulfate​ ​ formed after ignition prior to titration is:
B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate A. Carbonate​ ​ D. Carbon
C. Zinc oxide B. Oxide​ ​ E. Tartaric Acid
D. Cupric oxide E. Bicarbonate and carbonate
E. Potassium bipthalate 184. primary interference present during alkalimetric
titration:
177. Appropriate laboratory apparatus for carrying
out ignition: A. Carbonate​ ​ D. Saliva
A. Oven​ ​ D. Fume hood B. Metal ions​ ​ E. Halides
B. Electric furnace ​ E. Hot plate C. Organic matter
C. Biosafety cabinet [Link] weight of a substance chemically equivalent
to 1mL of a standard solution:
178. Appropriate solvent for resins for extraction
purposes; A. Equivalent weight​ ​ D. Mole
A. Ether ​ ​ D. Ethanol B. Titer​​ ​ ​ E. Calibration standard
B. Water​ ​ E. Petroleum Ether E. Molecular weight
C. Hexane 186. Acid titrant preferred for hot titrations:
179. Residue consisting chiefly of cellulose that A. Percholic acid VS​ ​ D. Acetic acid VS
remains undissolved after successive treatment with
boiling acid and alkali: B. HCl VS​ ​ ​ E. Nitric acid VS

A. Total ash​ ​ D. Unsaponifiable Matter E. Sulphuric scid VS

B. Crude Fiber​​ E. Looss on Drying 187. Purpose of chloroform in the assay of Phenol.
USp:
C. Sulfated Ash
A. Serves as extracting indicator for liberated iodine
180. A solution that contains methanol, iodine. during titration
Sulphur dioxide, and pyridine:
B. To act as co-solvent for the analyte
A. Wij’s rgt.​ ​ D. Koppeschaar’s Solution
C. To dissolve tribomophenol for clesar
B. Mayer’s rgt.​ ​ E. Deniges’ rgt. observation of endpoint
[Link] fischer rgt. D. all of the choices
181. Standard solution that is most susceptible t air 188. In iodometric titration, what should be the color
oxidation? be the color of the solution prior to the addition of
Stratch TS?
A. Ferrous ammonium sulphate TS
A. Intense brown ​ D. Colorless
B. Oxalic Acid VS
B. Amber​ ​ E. Intense blue
C. Sodium thoisufate VS
E. Green
D. Titanium trichloride

E. Potassium arsenite
189. How many gram-atom of iodine is liberated by C. Sodium carbonate
one of sodium hypochlorite in the assay of sodium
hypochlorite solution? 196. Suitable backtitrant for titration involving the use
of excess silver nitrate VS:
A. 1​ ​ D.10
A. Ammonium thiosulfate VS
B. 2​ ​ E.46
B. Sodium tetraphenylboron VS
C. 4
C. Lithium methoxide VS
190. Type of reaction that is involved for compounding
such as aniline and resorcinol; assayed by D. Potassium Ferrocyanide VS
bromination:
E. Ceric Sulfate VS
A. Rearrangement​ D. Free radical formation
197. Complementary color of yellow:
B. Substitution​ ​ E. Condensation
A. Red​​ D. Yellow-green
C. Elimination
B. Purple ​ ​ E. Blue-green
191. A volumetric Solution that is prepared from a
C. Blue
very pure substance and hence do not require
standardization step: 198. Energy of a molecule that is NOT involve in
spectroscopic studies:
A. Iodine VS​ D. Dichlorophenol-Iodophenol VS
A. electronic​ ​ D. translational
B. Silver Nitrate VS​ E. Bromine VS
[Link]​ ​ E. A and B
C. Potassium Iodate VS
C. rotational
192. In ash content determination, incomplete
combustion leads to formation of: 199. Suitable method of separating highly volatile
compounds:
A. Carbon dioxide​ D. Carbonyl
A. Chiral chromatography
B. Carbon​ ​ E. Carbide
B. Supercritical fluid chromatography
E. Carbonate ion
C. Gas chromatohraphy
193. Fat constant that aids in the detection of the
presence of glyceridesof acides containing less than D. Medium pressure liquid chromatography
16 or more that 18 carbon atoms:
E. Medium pressure liquid chromatography
A. Acid value​ ​ D. Reichert-Messl number
200. In the equation HF + H2O H30 + F-:
B. Saponification value​ E. Polenske value
A. H2O is a base, and HF is its conjugated acid.
C. Ester value
B. H2O is an acid, and HF is the conjugated base.
194. In the assay of peppermint oil for total ester, the
blank determination serves to: C. HF is an acid and F is its conjugated base.

A. Account for an absorption if CO2 by the base D. HF is a base and H3O is its conjugated acid.

B. Corrects any alkalinity arising from interaction of E. HF is a base. And F is its conjugated acid.
the analyte solution with the glass
201. This type of airflow has a varying velocity and is
C. Accounts for air-oxidation of analyte which might usually for Class 1000 and 10000,
have occurred
A. Laminar fairflow​ D. Down flow
D. A and B
B. Unidirectional airflow E. Up flow
E. A, B and C
C. Non-uniderectional airflow
[Link] that provides a blanket of inert
202. It is a property of liquids that is closely related to
atmosphere during iodometric determination:
resistance to flow
A. HCl​ ​ ​ ​ D. Strach TS
A. Surface tension​ ​ D. Temperature
B. Sodium bicarbonate​ ​ E. KI
B. Rheology​ ​ ​ E. Melting Range A. 10​ ​ D. 30

C. Viscosity B. 15​ ​ E. AOTA

203. In the absolute scale, viscosity is measured in C. 20

the poise of centipose. In the kinematic scale, it is
measured in the __. 210. The ff. are official tests employed in semisolid
dosage forms, EXCEPT:
A. Poise​ ​ D. Newton
A. viscosity . [Link] size distribution estimation
B. Contipoise​ ​ E. Milinewton
B. pH ​ ​ E. AOTA
C. Stokes
C. spreadability
204. This test determines the resistance to water
attack of new glasses containers EXCEPT: 211. It is designed to limit to a level considered to be
objectionable the number and size of discrete metal
A. Powdered glass test particles that may occur in ophthalmic ointments.

B. Surface attack test A. particle size distribution​ D. deliverable volume

[Link] attack test B. metal particles​ ​ E. NOTA

D. Acidimetry C. minimum fill

E. NOTA 212. the consistency values of semisolid form can be

determined using a:
205. it is an indirect measure if inorganic molecules
present in pharmaceutical waters measured as A. viscometer​ D. mechanical tap density tester
carbon.
B. Spatula​ E. Rheometer
A. Total inorganic Carbon D. Choices B and C
C. penetrometer
B. Total organic carbon E. NOTA
213. Minimum fill is applicable to any of the ff.,
C. Organic Carbon EXCEPT:

206. this date limits the time during whick the product A. container with a labeled amount of 60g or less
may be dispensed or used.
B. . container with a labeled amount of 150g or less
A. Manufacturing date D. Choices B and C
C. . container with a labeled amount of 150g
B. Exiration date​ E. NOTA
D. . container with a labeled amount of more than
C Use date 150g

207. It is a measure of propensity of a powder to be 214. Minimum fill can be applied to such articles,
compresed: EXCEPT:

A. Bulk density​​ D. Carr’s index A. creams​ ​ D. lotion

B. Tapped Density​ E. AOTA B. gels​​ ​ E. NOTA

C. angle of repose [Link]

[Link] Variation method can be applkied to the 215. Color comparison tubes are used for what official
ff. dosage forms EXCEPT: C?

A. Liquid filled soft capsule A. Limit test for chlorides

B. Transdermal system B. color comparison test

C. Singe unit for inhalation C. test for readily carbonizable substance

D. Sterile solid with no added active substance D. limit test for sulfates

E. Hard gelatin capsule E. NOTA

209. Initially, how many samples are required for 216. All of the ff. are used as colorimetric standars,
minimum fil? except:
A. Ferric chloride CS​ D. Calcium Chloride CS A. limit of free p-aminophenol

B. Cupric sulfate CS​ E. NOTA B. limit of free salicylic acid

C. Cobaltous chloride CS C. FECl3 test

217. This Raw Material Quality Control test entails D. limit for magnesium
addition if silver nitrate to a HCl acid standard.
E. NOTA
A. Limit test for Chloride
223. Method II of water determination involves
B. limit test for sulfates
A. tartration​ ​ D. stoichiometry
C. limit test for sulfides
[Link] distillation E. NOTA
D. litim test for chlorates
[Link]
E. limit test for acetates
224. In HPLC analysis, the official measure of column
[Link] Raw Material Quality Control test entails efficiency is
addition of barium chloride to a sulfuric acid __
standard. A. Retention time ​ D. width

A. Limit test for Chloride B. tailing factor​ E. AOTA

B. limit test for sulfates C. number of theoretical plates

C. limit test for sulfides 225. The official measure of peak symmetry in HPLC
is:
D. litim test for chlorates
A. retention time​ D. width
E. limit test for acetates
[Link] factor​ ​ E. AOTA
[Link] Raw Material Quality Control test entails the
use if lead acetate paper: C. number of theoretical plates

A. Limit test for Chloride 226. Which of the ff. is used to identify peaks in the
chromatogram?
B. limit test for sulfates
A. Retention time ​ D. width
C. limit test for sulfides
B. tailing factor​ E. AOTA
D. litim test for chlorates
C. number of theoretical plates
E. limit test for acetates
227. The test od weight variation is applicable for the
220. This official ID test entails comparison of ff. dosage forms, EXCEPT:
retention factor.
A. Uncoated tablets​ D. Solution in soft capsule
[Link] layer chromatography
B. Film-coated tablets​ [Link]-coated tablets
[Link]
[Link]
C. IR
228. The test for conformity is required for the ff.
[Link] dosage forms EXCEPT:

E. NMR A. Suppositories​ D. Solutions in soft

capsules
[Link] where the sample is diverted from
the manufacturing process, and maybe returned to B. Transdermal system​ E. NOTA
the process stream.
C. Suspension
A. At-line​ ​ D. Off-line
230. The performance variationtest is performed in
B. On-line​ ​ E. NOTA dissolution apparatus 1 and 2 using

C. In-line [Link] Aspirin Tablet RS

222. which of the ff. is an official ID test for Aspirin B. USP Salicilic acid RS
C. USP Prednisone Tablet RS​ E. NOTA

D. USP Chlorpheneramine Maleate Extended 237. The test limit for powdered glass test of general
Release Tablets RS purpose glass is

E. AOTA A. 1.0mL​ ​ D. 15mL

231. The performance variation test is performed in B . 8.5mL​ ​ E. 18mL

dissolution apparatus 1 and 2 using
D.10mL
[Link] Aspirin Tablet RS
238. This is a purified water that has been boiled
B. USP Salicilic acid RS vigorously for 5 min. or more and allowed to cool
while protected from absorption for carbon dioxide
C. USP Prednisone Tablet RS​ from the atmosphere
D. USP Chlorpheneramine Maleate Extended A. Distilled water​ [Link]-dioxide free water
Release Tablets RS
[Link] water​ E. Nitrogen-free water
E. AOTA
[Link] treated water
232. Official temperature for determination of specific
gravity 239. For measurement of viscosity, the temperature of
the substance should be held to within
A. 10oC​​ D. 30oc
A.+0.1​ ​ D. +0.4
B.20​oc​ ​ E.35oc
B. + 0.2​ E. +0.5
C.25oc
C. 0.3+
233. Powders with an angle of repose equivalent to
30o is said to have [Link] following dissolution apparatus can be used
for the drug release requirement of transdermal
A. Excellent flow property​ [Link] flow property delivery system except:
B. Good flow property E. Very poor flow property A. Apparatus 4​​ D. Apparatus 7
C. Fair flow property B. Apparatus 5​​ E. Apparatus 8
234. Powders with compressibility index of 18% and C. Apparatus 6
has a hausner’s ratio of 1:20 has a/an
241. Reciprocating cylinder is also known as:
A. Passable flow character
A. Apparatus 1​​ D. Apparatus 4
B. Fair flow character
B. Apparatus 2​​ E. Apparatus 5
C. Good flow character
C. Apparatus 3
D. Excellent Flow character
242. The ff. are dissolution media employed in the
E. NOTA comparative dissolution profile testing for
bioequivalence, except:
235. The test limit for powdered glass test of highly
resistant, borosilicate glass is A. pH 1.2 buffer​ D. pH 7.5 buffer
A. 5.0mL​ ​ D. 1.5mL B. pH 4.5 buffer​ E. NOTA
B. 8.5mL​ ​ E.1.8mL C. pH 6.8 buffer
C. 1.0mL 243. Method I of measuring bulk density
236. The critical test parameter for each dissolution A. Measurement in a graduated cylinder
apparatus is true, except:
B. Measurement in a volumeter
A. Apparatus 1-Rotation speed
C. Measurement in a tachometer
B. Apparatus 2- Rotation speed
D. Measurement in a manometer
C. Apparatus 3-Dip rate
E. Measurement in a rheometer
D. Apparatus 4- Flow rate of medium
244. Method II of measuring bulk density B. Assay​ ​ E. Disintegration

A. Measurement in a graduated cylinder E. Moist content

B. Measurement in a volumeter 255. This test shows how well a resists chipping ang
crumbling when external stresses are applied.
C. Measurement in a tachometer
A. Weight variation​ D. Hardness
D. Measurement in a manometer
B. Assay​ ​ E. Disintegration
E. Measurement in a rheometer
E. Moist content
245. A carr’s index of 27 implies a/an
256. This test shows how well a resists chipping ang
A. Excellent flow​ D. Poor flow crumbling when external stresses are applied.
B. GOOD flow​ ​ E. Very poor flow A. Weight variation​ D. Hardness
C. Passable flow B. Assay​ ​ E. Disintegration
246 Dissolution testing should be conducted at this E. Moist content
temperature
257. This hardness tester is based on compressing
A 37+0.5oC​ ​ D. 37+2oC tablets between two jaws via a spring gauge and
screw
B. 37+2oC​ ​ E. 37+0.1oC
A. Erweka​ ​ D. Strong-Cobb
C. 37+0.2oC
B. Monsanto​ ​ E. Varian
247. Disintegration testing should be conducted at
this temperature E. Pfizer
A 37+0.5oC​ ​ D. 37+2oC 258. Powder fineness can be blassified using this
method.
B. 37+2oC​ ​ E. 37+0.1oC
A. Optical Microscopy​ D. Sedimentation
C. 37+0.2oC
B. Analytical Seiving​ E. Strokes
248. delayed release tablet can also be called
C. Moisture content
[Link] coated tablet​ ​ D. SGF
resistant tab 259. The ff. shoud be strictly avoided when using
analytical sieves, except:
B. Avid resistant tablet​​ E. 0.1N HCl resistant
A. Oven drying
C. SIF resistant tablet
B. Cleaning using liquid stream
249. Buccal tablet should disintegrate within
C. Removal of blockade by brushing
A. 1hr​ ​ D. 4hr
D. Rinsing with nitric acid
B. 2hr​ ​ E. 5hr
E. Choices C and D
C. 3hr
260. The following are methods of sieving, EXCEPT:
252. This test determines whether the dose in a batch
of units is uniform and it the dosage form can deliver A. Mechanical method- Dry sieving​ ​ ​
the right amount of dose in each patient B. Air Entrapment method-Air jet sieving​ ​
C. Air Entrapment method- sonic sifter sieving​​
A. Weight variation​ D. Hardness D. AOTA​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
E. NOTA
B. Assay​ ​ E. Disintegration
261. Method 1 in determining particulate matter in
E. Moist content injection involves:

253. This test stimulus the physiological conditions of A. Light obscuration particle count test​​ ​
the body and can therefore predict bioavailability as B. Sedimentation Test​ ​ ​ ​ ​
C. Microscopic particle count test​ ​ ​
this prerequisite of absorption.
D. minimum fill​​ ​ ​ ​ ​
E. Melting range
A. Weight variation​ D. Hardness
262. This test determines the consistency of dosage A. 8.1mL​ ​ ​ D. 8.4mL​ ​
units and if each unit in a batch has a drug substance B. 8.2mL​ ​ ​ E. 8.5mL​ ​
within a narrow range around the label claim. C. 8.3mL

A. Content uniformity​ ​ D. Solubility​ ​ 271. Based on the previous problem, the volume(mL)
B. Weight variation​ ​ E. Minimum fill​​ of the test liquid necessary for one titration should be:
C. Spreadability
A. 25.0​​ ​ ​ D. 125​ ​ ​
263. This test will determine whether a suspension B. 50.0​​ ​ ​ E. 130​ ​ ​
will not settle out rapidly in the container, will become C. 100
fluid on shaking, and will remain so long enough for a
dose to be dispensed: 272. Referring to item # 70, the extraction solutions
are analyzed by titration. How many trials are
A. Sedimentation volume​ D. Minimum fill​​ required?
B. Viscosity​ ​ ​ E. Assay​ ​
C. Deliverable volume A. 2​ ​ ​ ​ D. 5​ ​ ​
B. 3​ ​ ​ ​ E. 6​ ​ ​
264. This test provides assurance that oral liquids will, C. 4
when transferred from the original container, deliver
the volume of dosage form that is declared on the 273. The volume(mL) of 0.02N H2SO4 for treated soda
label of the article: lime glass with a volume of 80mL should not exceed:

A. Sedimentation volume​ D. Minimum fill​​ A. 0.2​ ​ ​ ​ D. 1.0​ ​ ​

B. Viscosity​ ​ ​ E. Assay​ ​ B. 0.7​ ​ ​ ​ E. 1.2​ ​ ​
C. Deliverable volume C. 0.9

265. This test classifies whether the suspension is 274. the filing volume is the volume to be filled with
flocculated or deflocculated one: _____ in the container for the purpose of the test:

A. Sedimentation volume​ D. Minimum fill​​ A. Purified water​ ​ D. 0.02N NaOH​

B. Viscosity​ ​ ​ E. Assay​ ​ B. water for injection​ ​ E. NOTA​ ​
C. Deliverable volume C. 0.02N H2SO4

266. Method 1 of determining particulate matter in 275. Sterile filling facilities are usually:
injections cannot be applied to, EXCEPT:
A. Class100​ ​ ​ D. Class100000​
A. Emulsions​ ​ ​ D. Solutions​ ​ B. Class1000​ ​ ​ E. Class1000000​
B. Colloids​ ​ ​ E. NOTA​ ​ C. Class10000
C. Liposomes
276. For ampoules the filling volume is the volume up
267. This method of determining particulate matter in to the height of the ____:
injections utilizes a binocular microscope:
A. Neck​ ​ ​ D. Vent​​ ​
A. Method 1 ​ ​ ​ D. Method 4​ ​ B. Shoulder​ ​ ​ E. NOTA​ ​
B. Method 2​ ​ ​ E. NOTA​ ​ C. Tip
C. Method 3
277. A glass container intended to provide protection
268. An analyst performed powdered glass test. The form light should meet requirement of what test?
volume of 0.02N H2SO4 consumed for trials 1 and 2
were found to be 0.70mL and 0.75mL, respectively, A. light transmission test​ ​ ​ ​
and corrected for a blank. The general description of B. Arsenic test ​​ ​ ​ ​ ​
the container should be: C. Light deflection test​ ​ ​ ​ ​
D. light absorption/ionization test​ ​ ​
A. Highly resistant, borosilicate glass​ ​ ​ E. Absorption
B. Treated soda-lime glass​ ​ ​ ​
C. soda lime glass​ ​ ​ ​ ​ 278. Sublingual tablets must disintegrate within:
D. General- purpose soda-lime glass​ ​ ​
A. 30mins​ ​ ​ D. 4hours​ ​
E. NOTA
B. 60mins​ ​ ​ E. As specified in the
269. Example/s of product/s where containers of type monograph​ ​ ​ C. 1hour
1 glass are generally used:
279. This refers to the ratio of the mass of an
A. Oral suspensions​ ​ ​ ​ ​ untapped powder sample and its volume including the
B. Hair cream​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ contribution of the interparticulate void volume:
C Dextrose 5% in water​ ​ ​ ​
A. Bulk density​​ ​ D. Hausner’s ratio​
D. Salicylic acid ointment​ ​ ​ ​
B. Tapped density​ ​ E. NOTA​ ​
E. AOTA
C. Angle of response
270. 6 ampoules were filled with medium up to height
280. This method of determining the type of emulsion
of the shoulder and the volumes were found to be in
utilizes the knowledge that a water soluble dye will
8.21mL, 8.24mL, 8.21mL, 8.25mL, 8.23mL and
dissolve in the aqueous phase of an emulsion while
8.25mL. The filling volume for the particular ampoule
an oil-soluble dye will taken up by the oil phase:
lot is:
A. Dilution Test​​ ​ D. B and C​ ​ A. class5​ ​ ​ D. class8​ ​
B. Conductivity test​ ​ E. NOTA​ ​ B. class6​ ​ ​ E. class9​ ​
C. Dye-solubility test C. class7

281. This test is designed to limit to a level considered 290. it refers to the time a certain constituents passes
to be unobjectionable the number and size of discrete through the HPLC column.
metal particles that may occur in ophthalmic
ointments: A. Retardation factor​ ​ D. Retention Time​
B. Retardation time​ ​ E. NOTA​ ​
A. Sterility​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ C. Retardation factor
B. Metal particles in ophthalmic ointment​ ​
C. Microbial count​ ​ ​ ​ ​ 291. These are the four basic mechanisms in which
D. pH​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ fibrous air filter remove contamination from
E. Arsenic release airstreams:

282. This test is an indication of crystal habit, A. sieving​ ​ ​ D. Diffusion​ ​

presence of polymorphic form etc.: B. impaction​ ​ ​ E. AOTA​ ​
C. interception
A. Optical microscopy​ ​ ​ ​ ​
B. particle size distribution estimation​ ​ ​ 292. This refers to the contamination of a starting
C. viscosity​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ material, intermediate product, or finished product
D. Minimum fill​​ ​ ​ ​ ​ with another starting material or product during
E. Deliverable volume manufacture.

283. This test is intended is to determine the A. mixed-ups​ ​ ​ D. Scale up​ ​

temperature at which the semisolid melts and B. cross contamination​​ E. AOTA​ ​
therefore indicates proper storage and application: C. Sanitation

A. Loss on drying​ ​ D. thickness​ ​ 293. This is the heart of a clean room:

B. Melting range​ ​ E. Friability​ ​
C. solubility A. Barometer​ ​ ​ D. HEPA filter​ ​
B. HPLC​ ​ ​ E. Laminar flow wood
284. What is/are the required immersion fluid/s for C. oven
coated tablets?
294. This is a room or area where the product is
A. water​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ formulated, filled and sealed:
B. simulated gastric fluid​ ​ ​ ​
C. simulated intestinal fluid​ ​ ​ ​ A. critical area​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
D. A and B​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ B. Controlled area​ ​ ​ ​ ​
E. B and C C. assimilated Area​ ​ ​ ​ ​
D. Think-tank area​ ​ ​ ​ ​
285. This test stimulates the flow of a bed of powder E. filling area
or granules in a hopper:
295. This is the zone/part of room where filling of
A bulk density​ ​ ​ D. Carr’s index​​ sterile products or other sterile processes take place:
B. tapped density​ ​ E. Hausner’s ratio​
C. angle response A. critical area​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Controlled area​ ​ ​ ​ ​
286. Efficiency of separation could be increased with: C. assimilated Area​ ​ ​ ​ ​
D. Think-tank area​ ​ ​ ​ ​
A. Increase in plate height​ ​ ​ ​ E. filling area
B. Decrease in plate height​ ​ ​ ​
C. decrease in plate count​ ​ ​ ​ 296. This type of pressure must be maintained to
D. Decrease in pressure​ ​ ​ ​ ensure airflows from the cleanest space to less clean
E. increasing in tailing space:

287. This test is intended for type 1 containers for A. Negative pressure​ ​ ​ ​ ​
aqueous parenteral preparation: B. Positive pressure​ ​ ​ ​ ​
C. Intermittent pressure​ ​ ​ ​
A. powedered glass test​ D. surface glass test​ D. slight pressure E. isobaric pressure
B. arsenic release​ ​ E. NOTA​ ​
C. water attack test 297. This type of airflow is used where particle sizes
are relatively large.
288. Explosives can be identified by what color of
placards? A. Unidirectional Airflow​ ​ ​ ​
B. Non-unidirectional airflow​ ​ ​ ​
A. red​ ​ ​ ​ D. yellow​ ​ C. down flow​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
B. orange​ ​ ​ E. blue​​ ​ D. up flow​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
C. green E. NOTA

289. Oxidizers and organi peroxides fall under class: 298. This type of airflow is used when low airborne
concentrations of particles or bacteria are present:
A. critical area​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Controled area​ ​ ​ ​ ​
C. assimilated Area​ ​ ​ ​ ​
D. Think-tank area​ ​ ​ ​ ​
E. filling area

299. A synthetic contaminant often used to test high

efficiency filters is composed of atomized droplets of
hot di-octyl-phthalate. This test refers to:

A. DOP testing​​ ​ D. Two flow testing​

B. Leak testing​​ ​ E. Scan testing​​
C. HC emery

300. It measures the ability of a HEPA filter to remove

fine particles

A. Arrestance​ ​ ​ D. Adsorption​ ​
B. Efficiency​ ​ ​ E. interference​​
C. Integrity