25-01-2026

1902CMD303031250095 MD

PHYSICS

1) A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. Consider three points B at the surface, A at
centre and C at a distance R/2 from the centre. The electric potential at these points are such that

(1) VA = VB = VC
(2) VA = VB ≠ VC
(3) VA ≠ VB ≠ VC
(4) VA ≠ VB = VC

2) An electric dipole of dipole moment is lying along a uniform electric field . The work done in
rotating the dipole by 90° is :–

(1) 2pE
(2) pE
(3)

(4)

3) The potential difference between two points

x = 10 m and 20 m in the field of E = 100/x2 will be in volts:

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 4

4) A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is surrounded by an uncharged concentric

conducting hollow shperical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid
sphere and that of the outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge of
–3Q, the new potential difference between the same two surface is :-

(1) V
(2) 2V
(3) 4V
(4) –2V

5) Three charges Q, + q and + q are placed at the verticles of a right – angled isosceles triangle as
shown. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero if Q is equal to :-
(1)

(2)

(3) –2q
(4) +q

6) The figure below shows two equipotential lines in XY plane for an electric field. The scales are
marked. The X-component Ex and Y-component Ey of the electric field in the space between these

equipotential lines are respectively-

(1) +100 V/m, –200 V/m

(2) +200 V/m, +100 V/m
(3) –100 V/m, +200 V/m
(4) –200 V/m, –100 V/m

7) A particle of mass m and charge q is projected in a region where an electric field given by
exists with a velocity from the origin at time t = 0, then choose the correct statements (assuming
).

(1) radius of curvature of the particle when its x-coordinate becomes x0 is 2x0.
(2) radius of curvature of the particle when its x-coordinate becomes x0 is .
(3) speed of the particle when its x-coordinate becomes x0 is .
(4) speed of the particle when its x-coordinate becomes x0 is 2v0.

8) An uniformly charged ring has radius R and linear charge density λ. Electric field and potential at
centre will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Two charges –9µC and +9µC are placed at the points P (1, 0, 4) m and Q (2, –1, 5) m located in

the electric field . Calculate torque acting on the dipole.

(1) 25 × 10–7 N - m
(2) 25 × 10–5 N - m
(3) 15 × 10–7 N - m
(4) 15 × 10–5 N - m

10) P is the dipole moment of two small dipoles shown in the figure. What is the potential at point A?

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A cavity is cut inside a uniformly charged solid dielectric sphere then electric field intensity
inside the cavity is :

(1) Zero
(2) Constant
(3) Increases with distance from centre of cavity
(4) Decrease with increasing distance from centre of cavity

12) A negatively charged particle is placed in uniform horizontal electric field. Charge particle move
under the action of electric force and gravitational force. If initially charge particle is at rest, then
which of the following diagram correctly represent the path of the particle :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A body is projected up with th the escape velocity from earth's surface. The height reached by
the body is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A stone is dropped from height 'h' reaches to Earth surface in 1 sec. If the same stone taken to
Moon and dropped freely from same height then it will reach the surface of the Moon in the time
(The 'g' of Moon is 1/6 times of Earth):–

(1) second
(2) 9 second
(3) second
(4) 6 second

15) A particle of mass M is situated at the center of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The

gravitational potential at a point situated at distance from the center will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The mass of a planet is six times of that of the earth. The radius of the planet is twice of that of
earth. If the escape velocity from the earth is v then the escape velocity from the planet is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) Three particles of equal mass m are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ℓ.
They are moving in a circle in influence of their mutual gravitational interaction. Then their time
period of revolution is directly proportional to :-

(1) ℓ1/2
(2) ℓ-1/2
(3) ℓ3/2
(4) ℓ–3/2

18) By what amount, the energy of a satellite of mass m has to be increased to shift it from an orbit

of radius r to orbit of radius ? (mass of earth is M)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The depth from the surface of the earth at which the effective value of acceleration due to

gravity is is (Re = radius of earth)

(1) Re

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Find gravitational field at point (2, 3) if gravitational potential is given by V = 5x2y.

(1) 0
(2)
(3)
(4)

21)

The angular speed of rotation of earth for which weightlessness is made at pole, is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

22) A sphere of mass M and radius R2 has a concentric cavity of radius R1 as shown in the figure.
The gravitational force exerted by the sphere on a particle of mass m located at a distance r from the

centre of the sphere varies with distance r, as (0 ≤ r ≤ ∞)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at

a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively. Then the ratio is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) If both the mass and the radius of the earth decrease by 1% then the value of the acceleration
due to gravity at earth's surface will :-

(1) Decrease by 1 %
(2) Increase by 1%
(3) Increase by 2%
(4) Remains unchanged

25) A satellite of mass m is circulating around the earth with constant angular velocity. If radius of
the orbit is R0 and mass of the earth M, the ratio of angular momentum of the satellite about the
centre of the earth and its kinetic energy will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Read the following statements :

S1 : An object shall weight more at pole than at equator when weighed by using a physical balance.
S2 : It shall weight the same at pole and equator when weighed by using a physical balance.
S3 : It shall weight the same at pole and equator when weighed by using a spring balance.
S4 : It shall weight more at the pole than at equator when weighed using a spring balance.
Which of the above statements is /are correct ?

(1) S1 and S2
(2) S1 and S4
(3) S2 and S3
(4) S2 and S4

27) Two point masses having mass M and 4M are placed at distance equal to [Link] gravitational
potential at a point where gravitational field intensity is zero will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Three solid sphere each of mass m and radius R are released from the position shown in figure.
The speed of any one sphere at the time of collision would be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Near the earth's surface time period of a satellite is 1.4 hrs. Find its time period if it is at the
distance '4R' from the centre of earth :-

(1) 32 hrs.

(2)
hrs.
(3) hrs.
(4) 16 hrs.

30) Gravitational field at the centre of a semicircle formed by a thin wire AB of mass m and length ℓ
is :-

(1)
along + x axis

(2)
along + y axis

(3)
along + x axis

(4)
along + y axis

31) Two bodies, each of mass M, are kept fixed with a separation 2L. A particle of mass m is
projected from the mid-point of the line joining their centres, perpendicular to the line. The
gravitational constant is G. The correct statement(s) is (are) :-
(a) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two bodies is

(b) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two bodies is

(c) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two bodies is

(d) The energy of the mass m remains constant

(1) a, b
(2) b, d
(3) a, c
(4) a, d

32) A potential difference of 200 V is applied to a coil at a temperature of 15°C and the current is
10A. What will be the temperature of the coil when the current has fallen to 5A, the applied voltage
being the same as before :-

(Given α = at 0°C)

(1) 364°C
(2) 164°C
(3) 464°C
(4) 264°C

33) Six equal resistance are connected between points P, Q and R as shown in figure. Then net
resistance will be minimum between:

(1) P and R
(2) P and Q
(3) Q and R
(4) Any two points

34) Consider a copper wire of length L, cross-sectional area A. It has n number of free electrons per
unit volume. Which of the following is the correct expression of drift velocity of the electrons when
the wire carries a steady current I :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten percent. Its new resistance and specific
resistance become respectively :-

(1) Both remain the same

(2) 1.1 times, 1.1 times
(3) 1.2 times, 1.1 times
(4) 1.21 times, same

36) Assertion (A) : The average time of collisions decreases with increasing temperature.
Reason (R) : Increase in temperature resistance of metal increases

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

37) A uniform wire of diameter d carries a current of 100 mA when the mean drift velocity of

electrons in the wire is v. For a wire of diameter &nbspof the same material to carry a current of
200 mA, the mean drift velocity of electrons in the wire is:
(1) 4 v
(2) 8 v
(3) v
(4) 2 v

38) The resultant of n wires each of resistance r ohms is R, when they are connected in parallel.
When these n resistances are connected in series, the resultant resistance will be

(1)

(2)

(3) nR
(4) n2R

39) Current density at a point is Am–2, then find out current through a cross sectional
area :

(1) 20 A
(2) 5 A
(3) 15 A
(4) 21 A

40) The resistance of a wire of length 2m and area of cross section 0.5 mm2 is 2.2Ω. The specific
resistance of the material of wire will be :-

(1) 5.5 × 10–7 Ω-m

(2) Zero
(3) 5.5 × 107 Ω-m
(4) 15.5 × 10–7 Ω-m

41) Pieces of aluminium (Al) and germanium (Ge) are cooled from T1 K to T2 K. The resistance of:-

(1) Each of them increases

(2) Each of them decreases
(3) Aluminium increases and that of germanium decreases
(4) Aluminium decreases and that of germanium increases

42) A potential difference is applied across the ends of a metallic wire. If the potential difference
applied is doubled, the drift velocity will be :-

(1) Doubled
(2) Halved
(3) Quadrepled
(4) Unchanged
43) At reference temperature (27.0°C) the resistance of heating element is 100 Ω. What is the
temperature of the element if the resistance is found to be 117Ω, given that the temperature
coefficient of the material of the resistor is 1.70 × 10–4 °C–1.

(1) 1027°C
(2) 1027 K
(3) 1300°C
(4) 900°C

44) Find potential difference across 24 Ω :-

(1) 48 volt
(2) 2 volt
(3) 4 volt
(4) 1 volt

45) In the circuit shown in figure, the power which is dissipated as heat in the 6Ω resistor is 6W.
What is the value of resistance R in the circuit?

(1) 6 Ω
(2) 10 Ω
(3) 13 Ω
(4) 24 Ω

CHEMISTRY

1) The substance that will reduce Ag+ to Ag but will not reduce Ni+2 to Ni is :-
(1) Zn
(2) Mg
(3) Aℓ
(4) Pb

2) Which of the following metals can be displaced by Zn from its aqueous solution :-

(1) Mg
(2) Cu
(3) Na
(4) Al

3) for the half cell

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) A current of 9.65 A is passed for 3 hours between nickel electrodes containing 0.5 L of a 2M
solution of Ni(NO3)2. The molarity of the solution after electrolysis would be :-

(1) 0.46 M
(2) 0.624 M
(3) 0.92 M
(4) 1.25 M

5) Equal quantities of electricity are passed through three voltameters containing FeSO4, Fe2(SO4)3
and Fe(NO3)3. Mark out the correct statement regarding the experiment :

(1) The amount of iron deposited in FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 are equal
(2) The amount of iron deposited in Fe(NO3)3 is two third of the amount of iron deposited in FeSO4
(3) The amount of iron deposited in Fe2(SO4)3 and Fe(NO3)3 is different
(4) The amount of iron deposited in all three volta-meter is same

6) Cost of electricity for the production of 'X' litre H2 at NTP at cathode is Rs. X, then cost of
electricity for the production 'X' litre O2 gas at NTP at anode will (assume 1 mole of electrons as one
unit of electricity) :-

(1) 2X
(2) 4X
(3) 16X
(4) 32X
7) A current is passed through 2 voltameters connected in series. The first voltameter contains
XSO4 and second has Y2SO4. The relative atomic masses of X and Y are in the ratio of 2 : 1. The ratio
of the mass of X liberated to the mass of Y liberated is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) None of the above

8) Electrolysis of a solution of HSO4– ions produces S2O82–. Assuming 75% current efficiency, what
current should be employed to achieve a production rate of 1 mole of S2O82– per hour ?

(1) 71.5 A
(2) 35.7 A
(3) 53.0 A
(4) None of these

9) The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for electrolyte BA and CA are 140 and 120 S
cm eq . The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for BX is 198 S cm2 eq–1 The
2 –1
(in units of
2 –1
S cm eq ) of CX is :-

(1) 178
(2) 198
(3) 218
(4) 130

10) If is 1.69 V and is 1.40 V, then will be :-

(1) 0.19 V
(2) 2.945 V
(3) 1.255 V
(4) None of these

11) A–2 + B → A + B–2

B–2 + C → No reaction
C–2 + A → C + A–2
The correct order of standard oxidation potential is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
12) Consider the following Galvanic cell :- By
what value the cell voltage change when concentration of ions in anodic and cathodic compartments
both increased by factor of 10 at 298 K.

(1) +0.0591
(2) –0.0591
(3) –0.1182
(4) 0

13) Calculate cell potential at 298 K for following galvanic cell

(1) 0.38
(2) – 0.38
(3) 0.36
(4) – 0.36

14) Find out incorrect relation in the following pair of compounds :

(1)
→ Ring chain isomer

(2)

→ Functional isomer

(3)
→ Chain isomer

(4)
→ Chain isomer

15) Total number of esters from the molecular formula C5H10O2 ?

(1) 9
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 7
16) Number of structural isomers only having three membered ring from the molecular formula
C6H12 ?

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 7

17) How many structural isomers form by C3H6BrCl is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

18) How many metamers are possible by trimethyl amine :

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Not shows metamerism

19) Which of the following pairs of compounds are functional group isomers :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Which type of isomerism is observed between I & II

(1) Functional isomerism

(2) Metamerism
(3) Optical isomerism
(4) None of these

21)

The correct structure of

6–amino–4–hydroxycyclohex–2–ene–1–sulphonic acid is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect :-

(1)
1,5-Dimethylcyclopentene

(2)
3,4-Dimethylpent-1-en-3-ol

(3)

6-Bromo-3,3-dimethylcyclohexene

(4)
5-Hydroxycyclopent-2-en-1-ol

23) What is the IUPAC name of the following compound ?

(1) 2-cyano-2-methyl hex-4-yne--ol

(2) 2-hydroxy methyl-2-methyl-hex-4-yne-nitrile
(3) 2-hydroxy methyl-2-methyl hex-5-yne-nitrile
(4) 1-cyano-2-hydroxymethyl-2-methyl-4-hexyne

24) Which is structure of Ethanoic propanoic anhydride?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) IUPAC name of 4-isopropyl-m-xylene is :

(1) 4-Isopropyl-1,3-xylene
(2) 1-isopropyl-2,4-dimethyl benzene
(3) 4-Isopropyl-3,5-dimethylbenzene
(4) 4-Isopropyl-1,3-diemthylbenzene

26) Which is incorrect combination of structure and IUPAC name ?

(1) CH2=CH–C≡CH But-1-en-3-yne

(2)
2-chloropent-2-en-4-yne

(3)

2-methy-3-propylbutan-1,4-dial
(4)
Ethyl-3-oxobutanoate

27) Out of following which has same hybridisation as that of central atom of CO2:-

(1)

(2) CH3CH2OH
(3) H2C=CH–CH3
(4) HC≡CH

28) The IUPAC name of the compound is

(1) 2-Cyano-2-methyl-4-oxopentane
(2) 4-Cyano-4-methyl-2-pentanone
(3) 4-Cyano-4-methyl-2-oxopentane
(4) 2, 2-Dimethyl-4-oxopentanenitrile

29) What is the IUPAC name of given compound ?

(1) 3-Chloropropane-1,2,3-trinitrile
(2) 1-Choloropropane-1,2,3-trinitrile
(3) 1-Chloropropane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile
(4) 3-Chloropropane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile

30) The number of carbon atoms present in first member of alkenyne Homologous series is

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

31) Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect:-

(1)

1,5-Dimethylcyclopentene

(2)
3,4-Dimethylpent-1-en-3-ol

(3)

6-Bromo-3,3-dimethylcyclohexene

(4)
5-Hydroxycyclopent-2-en-1-ol

32) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1) methoxy carbonyl methanoic anhydride

(2) ethoxy carbonyl ethanoic anhydride
(3) methyl carbonyl ethanoate
(4) methoxy carbonyl ethanoic anhydride

33) The IUPAC name of the compound :

(1) 1, 4-Dichloro-2, 6-dioxo-4-carbamoyl-1-oic acid

(2) 1, 4-Dichloro-2, 4, 6-dioxocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid
(3) 1,4-Dichloro-4-formyl-2,6 dioxocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid
(4) 2, 4-Dioxo-1, 4-dichlorocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid

34) The most stable conformer of 1,2 - diphenyl ethane is:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Which of the following conformations of n–butane is the least stable -

(1) Gauche
(2) Anti
(3) Partial Eclipsed
(4) Fully eclipsed

36) Which form of ethylene glycol will be most stable

(1) Gauche
(2) Anti form
(3) Fully eclipsed
(4) Partially eclipsed

37) Which of the following is most stable ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) All have same stability

38) Correct stability order of conformers of n-butane is :

(1) Anti > Gauche > Fully eclipsed > Partially eclipsed
(2) Gauche > Anti > Partially eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(3) Anti > Gauche > Partially eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(4) Fully eclipsed > Partially eclipsed > Anti > Gauche

39) Rotational angle require to get maximum stable conformer from minimum stable conformer in n-
butane is :

(1) 360°
(2) 180°
(3) 120°
(4) 240°

40)

Gauche-form is more stable when X is :-

(1) – CH3
(2) – C2H5
(3) – OH
(4) – H

41)

The standard reduction potentials of some half cell reactions are given below :
PbO2 + 4H+ + 2e– Pb2+ + 2H2O; E0 = +1.455 V
0
MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e– Mn2+ + 4H2O; E = +1.51 V
0
Ce4+ + e– Ce3+ ; E = +1.61 V
0
H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e– 2H2O; E = +1.71 V
Pick out the INCORRECT statement :

+4 2+
(1) Ce will oxidise Pb to PbO2
 – 2+
(2) MnO4 will oxidise Pb to PbO2
+2 –
(3) H2O2 will oxidise Mn to MnO4
+2 –
(4) PbO2 will oxidise Mn to MnO4

42) Equivalent conductivity of BaCl2, H2SO4 and HCl, are x1, x2 and x3 Scm-1 eq-1 at infinite dilution. If
conductivity of saturated BaSO4 solution is x Scm-1, then Ksp of BaSO4 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solution is of :-

(1) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid

(2) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid
(3) 0.1 M acetic acid
(4) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid

44) for NaCl, HCl and NaA are 126.4, 425.9 and 100.5 S cm2 / mol, respectively. If the
conductivity of 0.001 M HA is , degree of dissociation of HA is:

(1) 0.125
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.25

45) Statement-I : Decrease of free energy during the process under constant temperature and
pressure provides a measure of its spontaneity.
Because
Statement-II : A spontaneous change must have +ve sign of ΔSsystem.

(1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true ; Statement-II is correct explanation for Statement-I.
Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true ; Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-I
(3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true.

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Megasporogenesis : Formation of female gametophyte from megaspore
(2) Microsporogenesis : Formation of microspore from microspore mother cell
(3) Female gametophyte in angiosperm : Endosperm
(4) Embryogeny : Formation of embryo from primary endosperm cell

2) What will be ploidy of the cells of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional megaspore and
embryosac respectively

(1) n, 2n, 3n, 4n

(2) n, 3n, 4n, 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n
(4) 3n, 4n, 2n, n

3) Statement-I : Development of pollen grains begin only after pollination

Statement-II : Development of pollen grain take place only on stigma.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

4)

Incorrect statement is :-
A. Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of students and teachers
B. It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in liquid nitrogen
(196°C).
C. In some cereals pollen grain lose viability with in months of their release.

D. Parthenium came into india as a contaminant with exported wheat has become ubiquitous in
occurrence and causes pollen allergy.
(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) A and C
(4) B and D

5) Which of the following statement is wrong?

(1) Dithecous anthers are found in cruciferae family

(2) Middle layer is ephemeral
(3) Bamboo is monocarpic plant
(4) Endothecium releases ubisch bodies
6)
In the above diagrams identify i, ii, iii & iv and select the suitable options :-

(1) i-Vacuole, ii-Symmetrical spindle, iii-Vegetative cell, iv Generative cell

(2) i-Cytoplasm, ii-Asymmetrical spindle, iii-Generative cell, iv-Vegetative cell
(3) i-Nuclei, ii-Symmetrical spindle, iii-Tube cell, iv-Vegetative cell
(4) i-Vacuole, ii-Asymmetrical spindle, iii-Vegetative cell, iv-Generative cell

7) Which of the following pair has haploid structure?

(1) Central cell and nucellus

(2) Pollen mother cell and mega spore mother cell
(3) Synergid cell and antipodal cell
(4) Tube cell and tapetal cells

8) Gynoecium of Michelia and Papaver is similar in being

(1) Apocarpous
(2) Syncarpous
(3) Monocarpellary
(4) Polycarpellary

9) For the formation of 200 megaspore. How many megaspore mother cells are required ?

(1) 200
(2) 100
(3) 50
(4) 400

10) Identify the figure A,B, C and D

(1) A:Pollen grains B: Filament (Stalk) C: Line of Dehiscence D: Pollen sacs
(2) A: Line of dehiscence B: Filament (Stalk) C: Pollen grains D: Pollen sacs
(3) A: Filament (Stalk) B: Pollen grains C: Line of dehiscence D: Pollen sacs
(4) A: Pollen sacs B: Filament (Stalk) C: Line of dehiscence D: Pollen grains

11) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Monocarpellary (i) Pistils fused

(b) Multicarpellary (ii) Pistils free

(c) Apocarpous (iii) Single pistil

(d) Syncarpous (iv) More than one pistil

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) b-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

12) Largest cell in the embryosac _____

(1) Has two polar nuclei

(2) Involves in syngamy
(3) Posses filiform apparatus
(4) More than one options correct

13) Assertion : During megasporosgenesis, generally four functional megaspore is formed

Reason : Four functional megaspore forms ovule

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

14) How many statement is correct w.r.t. microsporophyll.

i. The long and slender stalk called the filament.
ii. The proximal end of the filament is attached to the anther.
iii. Often a transverse groove runs length wise separating theca.
iv. Intine is thick and continuous layer made up of sporopollenin.

(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

15) Match the column I with column II and choose the correct combination :-
 Column-I Column-II

(a) Funicle i Small opening of ovule

(b) Integuments ii Stalk of ovule

Protective envelopes of
(c) Chalaza iii
ovule

Junction part of ovule

(d) Hilum iv
and stalk

(e) Micropyle v Base of ovule

(1) a - ii, b - iii, c - v, d - iv, e - i
(2) a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv, e - v
(3) a - v, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii, e - i
(4) a - ii, b - iii, c - v, d - i, e - iv

16) Which is a correct sequence ?

(1) Gamatogenesis - Syngamy - Zygote - Embryogenesis

(2) Zygote - Embryogenesis - Syngamy - Gamatogenesis
(3) Syngamy - Gamatogenesis - Zygote - Embryogenesis
(4) Gamatogenasis - Syngamy - Embryogenesis - Zygote

17) Statement I : The proximal end of the filament is attached with the thalamus or the petal.
Statement II : The number and length of stamens are variable in flowers of different species.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false

18) Which one of following is base of ovule?

(1) Chalaza
(2) Micropyle
(3) Hilum
(4) Nucellus

19) Which of the following statements is incorrect about pollen mother cells (pmc) ?

(1) PMCs are the best cell to study meiosis

(2) PMCs represent the last stage of male sporophyte
(3) PMCs are the progenator of pollen grains
(4) PMCs are formed by meiosis

20) Arrange A, B, C, D and E in the sequence of dicot embryo development from zygote stage :-
(1) A → C → D → B → E
(2) C → B → D → E → A
(3) A → B → C → E → D
(4) B → D → A → E → C

21) Formation of embryo directly from nucellus or integument is

(1) Apospory
(2) Apogamy
(3) Adventitive polyembryony
(4) Diplospory

22) How many meiotic division require for formation of 50 male gametes

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 1

23)

Identify the structure A, B, C and D in given figure and select right option :-

A B C D

1 Pollen grains Pollen chamber Line of mid Filament

2 Pollen sac Pollen grains Line of dehiscence Stalk

3 Pollen grains Pollen sacs Line of dehiscence Stalk

4 Pollen grains Megasporangia Line of dehiscence Filament

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24)

Which one of the following diagrams represents endospermic dicot seed ?

(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C, D both
(4) A, B both

25)

If these are 10 chromosomes in one male gamete, then which of the following is correct for the
figure given below with respect to number of chromosomes ?

Pericarp Endosperm Scutellum Plumule Coleoptile Radicle

(1) 30 10 20 10 10 20

(2) 20 30 20 20 20 20

(3) 30 30 20 10 20 10

(4) 20 20 30 10 30 10
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Mature male gametophyte is :-

(1) One-celled
(2) Two celled
(3) One-celled and two-nucleate
(4) Three-celled

27) Which of the following type of pollination is functionally cross-pollination but genetically self
pollination ?

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Mesogamy
(4) Xenogamy

28) When diploid male plant is crossed with a tetraploid female plant, the ploidy of embryo and
endosperm will be respectively ?

(1) Diploid and triploid

(2) Tetraploid and pentaploid
(3) Triploid and pentaploid
(4) Pentaploid and triploid

29) Which of the following statements about sporopollenin is false ?

(1) No enzyme that degrades sporopollenin so far known.

(2) Sporopollenin is one of the resistant organic material.
(3) Sporopollenin can with stand high temperaure and strong acids.
(4) Germpores are the areas with high sporopollenin content

30)

Which one of the following is not an out breeding device :-

(1) Self sterility

(2) Dichogamy
(3) Dicliny
(4) Monocliny

31) Double fertilization is the characteristic feature of:

(1) Phanerogams
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Angiosperms
(4) Pteridophytes

32) Assertion (A) : Continued self-pollination results in inbreeding depression.

Reason (R) : In some plant species, pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

33) Thread-like (Ribbon shaped) pollen without exine are found in :-

(1) Hydrophily
(2) Entomophily
(3) Anemophily
(4) Chiropterophily

34) The unmodified (functioning) allele which represents the original phenotype is the __(a)__ and
the modified allele is __(b)__ the __(c)__ allele :

(1) (a) Recessive (b) generally (c) dominant

(2) (a) Dominant (b) always (c) recessive
(3) (a) Dominant (b) generally (c) recessive
(4) (a) Recessive (b) always (c) dominant

35) Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from :

(1) Diploid egg,

(2) Synergids
(3) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
(4) Antipodal cells

36) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is
called :

(1) Autogamy
(2) Xenogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Karyogamy

37) The special features of the endothecium of anther of Capsella :–

(1) Radially elongated cells

(2) Thickening of α-cellulose
(3) Hygroscopic
(4) All of the above

38) Cleistogamy is leading over anthesis, because-

(1) Pollinators are not required

(2) It assures heterozygosity
(3) Favours insect pollination
(4) It allows xenogamy

39)

In over 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at :

(1) 2-celled stage

(2) 3-celled stage
(3) 4-celled stage
(4) Either A and B

40)

Both autogamy and geitonogamy cannot occur in

(1) Papaya
(2) Cucumber
(3) Castor
(4) Maize

41) What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species
with 8 chromosomes in its synergids.?

(1) 16
(2) 24
(3) 32
(4) 8

42) Wind pollinated flowers are :

(1) Small, producing nectar and dry pollen

(2) Small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
(3) Small, producing large number of dry pollen grains
(4) Large, producing abundant nectar and pollen

43) Figure A and B show female reproduction organs of papaver and michelia, Respectively.
(1) A–Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil and B– Multicarpellary apocarpous pistil
(2) A–Multicarpellary apocarpous pistil and B–Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil
(3) Both (a) and (b) are multicarpellary and syncarpous pistils
(4) Both (a) and (b) are monocarpellary apocarpous pistil

44) Given below is the diagramatic sketch of a transverse section of young anther, Identify the parts

labelled A, B, C and D :- Option :

A B C D

(1) Epidermis middle layer Endothecium Tapetum

(2) Epidermis Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum

(3) Epiblema Tapetum Middle layer Endothecium

(4) Epidermis middle layer Endothecium Tapetum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Assertion : Filliform apparatus guides the pollen tube into the synergids.
Reason : It is special cellular thickening at micropylar tip that secrete chemotropic stimulus.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

46) Which of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man

(1) Homo habilis
(2) Ramapithecus
(3) Australopithecus
(4) Homo Neanderthalensis

47) How many of the following statement are correct?

(a) Homology indicate common ancestry and based on divergent evolution.
(b) Different structure evolving for same function-convergent evolution.
(c) Same structure developed along different direction-divergent evolution.
(d) Analogy indicate common ancestory & based on convergent evolution.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

48) The correct sequence of evolution of plants :-

(1) Chlorophytes – Tracheophytes – Rhynia type – Psilophytons – Progymnosperms

(2) Chlorophytes – Psilophyton – Tracheophytes – Rhynia type
(3) Chlorophytes – Progymnosperms – Lycopods
(4) Psilophyton – Tracheophytes – Zosterophyllum – Rhynia type

49) Which of the following statements are incorrect for Neanderthal man :-
(a) They had a brain size of 900 C.C
(b) They evolved in near east and central Asia between 10,0000-40,000 years back
(c) They used clothing
(d) They made colour painting in cave

(1) Statements (b), (c)

(2) Statement (a), (d)
(3) Statements (c), (d)
(4) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

50) The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point
and literally radiating to other area of geography (Habitats) is called :–

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Both 1 and 2

51) Select the correct sequence of evolution :-

(1) Sauropsid → Thecodont → Lizard

(2) Synapsid → Pelycosauras → Bird
(3) Sauropsid → Thecodont → Crocodile
(4) Synapsid → Thecodont → Mammals

52) A process in which heritable variations enabling better survival are enabled to reproduce and
leave greater number of progeny is called :-

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Natural selection
(3) Founder effect
(4) Both (1) and (3)

53) Identify the ancestor-A in the family tree of dinosaurs in the adjacent figure ?

(1) Synapsids
(2) Thecodonts
(3) Therapsids
(4) Pelycosaurs

54) Amphibians were dominant during

(1) Carboniferous
(2) Silurian
(3) Ordovician
(4) Cambrian

55) Which of the following statement is true

(1) Homo erectus is direct ancestor of Homo sapiens

(2) Neanderthal man is direct ancestor of modern man
(3) Australopithecus is direct ancestor of modern man
(4) Fossils of Cromagnon man first found in Ethiopia

56) Excess use of herbicides, pesticides, antibiotics etc has resulted in selection of resistant varieties
in a much lesser time scale, these are examples of evolution by :-

(1) Mutation
(2) Genetic drift
(3) Natural selection due to anthropogenic action
(4) Genetic drift

57) According to Hugo devries, the mechanism of evolution involves –

(1) a sudden abrupt, gradual and directional process.

(2) a sudden, abrupt random non-directional process.
(3) Small variation in a large population
(4) Small variations and called it saltation.

58) How many of the following set of mammals showing convergent evolution :
Mouse – Marsupial mouse, Numbat – Spotted cuscus, Mole – Marsupial mole, Lemur – Anteater,
Flying squirrel – Flying phalanger, Bob cat – Koala

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

59) Mark the option with correct matching of column-I with column-II and column-III

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) In a large population, 64% individuals are homozygous dominant, 20% heterozygous and
remaining individuals are homozygous recessive. In this population, calculate the frequency of
dominant and recessive alleles?

(1) Dominant – 0.74, Recessive – 0.26

(2) Dominant – 0.80, Recessive – 0.20
(3) Dominant – 0.32, Recessive – 0.68
(4) Dominant – 0.20, Recessive – 0.80

61) Rheumatoid arthritis is a :-

(1) Bacterial infection

(2) Auto-immune disorder
(3) Viral infection
(4) Allergy

62) Identify the A, B, C, D in the following life cycle.

Options :-

A B C D

Salivary
(1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites
gland

Salivary
(2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

(4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte Salivary gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Which provide micro-environment for the development and maturation of B-lymphocytes?

(1) Bone-marrow
(2) Spleen
(3) Thymus
(4) Both (1) and (3)

64) Given below are pairs of pathogens, disease caused by them and their classification. Which is
incorrectly matched ?

Causative
Disease Pathogen
agent
 Haemophilus
(1) Pneumonia Bacteria
influenzae

(2) Typhoid Salmonella Bacteria

(3) Filariasis Microsporum Round worm

Chikungunya
(4) Chikungunya Virus
Virus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Match the following column A & B ?

A B

(1) Cocaine (A) Erythroxylum coca

(2) Morphine (B) Claviceps purpurea

(3) Cannabinoids (C) Cannabis sativa

(4) L.S.D. (D) Papaver somniferum

(1) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(2) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
(3) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(4) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B

66) Match the following :-

Column I Column II

(A) Common cold (i) Dry & Scaly lesions

(B) Typhoid (ii) Haemophilus influenzae

Stool with mucous & blood

(C) Pneumonia (iii)
clots

(D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus

(E) Ringworm (v) Salmonella typhi

(F) Amoebiasis (vi) Haemozoin

(1) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iv, E–iii, F–v
(3) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–iii, F–i
(4) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–i, E–vi, F–iii

67) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) Health is affected by genetic disorders, life-style and infections.
(b) Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good health.
(c) Health is only "absence of disease" or "physical fitness".
(d) In allergic reactions, adrenaline is the life-saving drug.

(1) a, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d

68) Which of the following statements are not incorrect ?

(a) Smack is chemically diacetyl morphine which is obtained by acetylation of heroin
(b) Morphine is obtained from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum
(c) Drugs having their effects on cardiovascular system of body are being abused by some sports
persons.
(d) Crack interfers with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) c, d

69) Primary immune response is of ____(A)____ intensity. Subsequent encounter with the same
antigen or pathogen elicits a ___(B)___intensified ___(C)___ response.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) High Low Anamnestic

(2) Low High Primary

(3) Low High Secondary

(4) High Low Primary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

70)

Normal Cancerous
Properties
Cells Cells

Tumor formation A B

Contact inhibition C D

Metastasis E F
(1) A-Yes, B-No, C-No, D-Yes, E-No, F-Yes
(2) A-No, B-Yes, C-Yes, D-No, E-No, F-Yes
(3) A-No, B-Yes, C-No, D-Yes, E-No, F-Yes
(4) A-Yes, B-No, C-Yes, D-No, E-Yes, F-No

71) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) The adverse effects are just not restricted to the person who is using drug or alcohol.
At times, a drug/alcohol addict becomes the cause of mental and financial distress to his/her
(2)
entire family and friends.
Excessive doses of drug may lead to coma and death due to respiratory failure, heart failure or
(3)
cerebral haemorrhage.
(4) Withdrawal symptoms can never be severe or life threatening.

72) (a) Coke

(b) Diacetylmorphine
(c) Brown in colour
(d) Odourless
(e) Sweet compound
(f) Extracted from latex of Bhang plant
How many statements/informations are correct for heroin :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Four

73)

Hepatitis B vaccine produced from

(1) Virus
(2) Yeast
(3) Bacteria
(4) Protozoan

74) Which of the following pair is not cannabinoids ?

(1) Charas, Ganja

(2) Datura, LSD
(3) Charas, Hashish
(4) Marijuana, Bhang

75) When people are healthy they are ?

(a) More efficient at work
(b) Decreases productivity
(c) Brings economic prosperity
(d) Increases longevity of people
(e) Increases infant and maternal mortality
How many statements are correct about healthy people :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All are correct

76)

Mark Bacterial diseases.

(A) Common cold
(B) Typhoid
(C) Malaria
(D) Pneumonia
(E) Diphtheria

(F) Filariasis
(1) B, D, E
(2) A, D, E
(3) A, B, C
(4) A, E, F

77) Mark the incorrect statement :-

(1) The T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help B-cell to produce them
(2) Wuchereria is transmitted to a healthy person through the bite of female Culex vector
(3) Haemozoin (toxic substance) is associated with Malaria
After getting into the body of the person, HIV releases its ssDNA into macrophages where DNA
(4)
genome of virus replicates to form viral RNA with the help of enzyme reverse transcriptase

78) Given below are two statements-

Statement-I : Certain types of leukocytes of our body like polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes and
monocytes and natural killer cells in the blood as well as macrophages in tissues can phagocytose
and destroy microbes.
Statement-II : Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth and tears from eyes-all prevent microbial
growth.
In the light of the above statement choose correct answer from the options given below-

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct.

79) Select an correct statement regarding the diagram shown below -

(1) Many fungi belonging to 5 genera are responsible for this.
(2) It is not a most common infections disease in man.
Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on some parts of body such as skin, nails and scalp are the
(3)
main symptoms of the disease.
(4) It is a type of bacterial disease

80) Fill in the blanks :

(1) a-neural system, b-endocrine system, c-immune system

(2) b-neural system, c-endocrine system, a-immune system
(3) a-neural system, c-endocrine system, b-immune system
(4) c-neural system, b-endocrine system, a-immune system

81) In the below diagram (A), (B), (C) and (D) are :-

(A) – Light chain, (B) – Disulphide bonds,

(1)
(C) – Heavy chain, (D) – Paratope
(A) – Disulphide bonds,
(2) (B) – Antigen binding site,
(C) – Light chain, (D) – Heavy chain
(A) – Heavy chain, (B) – Light chain,
(3)
(C) – Hydrogen bonds, (D) – Paratope
(A) – Disulphide bonds,
(4) (B) – Antigen presenting site,
(C) – Heavy chain, (D) – Light chain

82) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching:-
(1) 'a' produces depressant while 'b' influences cardiovascular system
(2) Receptors of 'a' are present in CNS and GIT while for 'b' are present principally in brain.
(3) 'a' produces smack while 'b' produces marijuana
(4) All of the above

83) Lipid come under acid insoluble fraction during analysis of chemical composition of tissues. Why
?

(1) It has low molecular weight

(2) It has high molecular weight
(3) It is polymer.
(4) On grinding, the biomembranes are broken into pieces and form insoluble vesicles.

84) The inorganic compounds like sulphate, phosphate, etc., are found in –

(1) Acid soluble pool

(2) Acid insoluble fraction
(3) Both acid soluble pool and insoluble fraction
(4) Not found in cellular pool

85) The correct order of chemical composition of living tissues / cells in term of % of the total
cellular mass is –

(1) Nucleic acid > Proteins > H2O > Carbohydrates > Ions > Lipid
(2) H2O > Proteins > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrates > Lipid > Ions
(3) H2O > Proteins > Carbohydrates > Nucleic acid > Lipid > Ions
(4) Lipid > Ions > Carbohydrates > H2O > Proteins > Nucleic acid

86) How does glucose differ from sucrose, cellulose and starch ?

(1) It is a carbohydrate
(2) It is a monosaccharide
(3) The others are polysaccharides
(4) It contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

87) Which of the following is most abundant protein in animals :-

(1) Collagen
(2) Lecithin
(3) Insulin
(4) Hemoglobin

88) The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

(1) hydroxyl and methyl

(2) carbonyl and methyl
(3) carbonyl and phosphate
(4) carbonyl and hydroxyl

89) Concanvalin A is-

(1) An alkaloid
(2) An essential oil
(3) A Lectin
(4) A pigment

90) Cellulose does not form blue colour with iodine because-

(1) It breaks down when iodine reacts with it

(2) It is a disaccharide
(3) It is a helical molecule
(4) It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 1 1 2 3 3 1 2 1 2 4 2 1 2 1 3 4 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 3 2 4 4 1 4 3 4 2 4 1 3 4 2 2 4 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 1 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 3 1 3 3 1 3 4 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 2 3 2 2 4 4 3 2 4 4 3 4 4 1 2 3 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 2 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 4 1 4 4 3 4 3 2 2 1 4 2 1 1 1 1 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 2 2 2 4 2 3 4 4 3 2 1 3 3 3 4 1 1 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 1 3 2 2 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 1 3 2 1 3 3 3 2 4 1 2 2 2 1 4 4 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 4 1 2 2 1 4 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Potential inside a conductor is always constant and equal to the potential at the surface.

2)

θ1 = 0° θ2 = 90°
w = PE [cosθ1 – cosθ2]
∴ w = PE [cos0° – cos90°]
∴ w = PE [1 – 0]
∴ w = PE

3)

4) Asking about: A charged solid conducting sphere with charge Q is enclosed by a

concentric, initially uncharged hollow conducting shell. The potential difference between their
surfaces is V. After giving the shell, a charge of –3Q, we must find the new potential
difference.

Concept: Potential difference (concentric conductors).

Solution:
Formula used:

A. Electric potential due to a spherical charge:

B. Potential difference between two spherical surfaces:

Calculation:
Initially, the inner sphere has charge Q and the shell is uncharged. To cancel the inner field the shell
induces –Q on its inner surface and +Q on its outer surface. The electric field between the sphere

and the shell is due to Q and the potential difference is

When the shell is given charge –3Q the inner surface still –Q to balance the inner field and the outer
surface must carry –2Q to maintain total charge –3Q. The electric field in the region between the
inner sphere and the shell remains unchanged because it still depends only on the inner charge Q.
So, the potential difference remains the same V.

Answer is option (1).

5)

6)
= –100 V/m

= + 200 V/m

7)

∴ (C)

8)
x = 0, E = 0

9)

10)
Explaining the Question :-
Potential due to a dipole-
Concept:-
Dipole and its properties
Solution :-

using : V =

V= =0
Final Answer :- (V = 0)

11) Explanation the Question:

A cavity is cut inside a uniformly charged solid dielectric sphere having uniform volume charge
density. We must find the nature of the electric field inside the cavity.
Concept:
This question is based on
Electrostatics — field inside a cavity of a uniformly charged dielectric (using superposition
principle).
Formula:
Electric field in the cavity = constant (independent of position inside cavity).
Solution:

When a cavity is created, field inside it is obtained by superposing the field of the original
uniformly charged sphere and that of an imaginary sphere of opposite charge density
(occupying the cavity). This results in a uniform (constant) electric field inside the cavity, not
zero and not varying with position.

Final Answer: Option (2)

12)

13)

Explain Question: A body is projected upwards with speed equals to times of escape
velocity from earth surface we need to find height reach by the body from surface of earth.

Concept: Conservation of mechanical energy.

Solution:

h = height from surface of earth

Final answer: Option (2)

14)

Explain Question : Find time to reach stone on moon surface if (g of moon is 1/6 of earth).

Concept : This question is based on Acceleration due to gravity.

Solution :
TM = TE

Final Answer : option (1)

15)

Question Explanation : A particle of mass M is placed at the center of a spherical shell of the
same mass and radius a. The question asks for the gravitational potential at a point located at
a distance a/2 from the center, i.e., inside the shell.

Concept : Gravitational potential

Solution :

Gravitational potential due to shell at point P V1

Gravitational potential due to point mass at point P

Vnet = V1 + V2

Final answer: Option (2)

16)
17)

V=

T=

18) Question Explanation : A satellite shift from orbit r to r. Find amount of energy
increase in this process.

Concept : This question is based on total energies of satellite.

Solution :

Energy of satellite at orbit r =

Energy of satellite at orbit

Increased in energy =

Final answer : Option (4)

19)

Explain Question : Find the specific depth below the Earth's surface where the acceleration
 due to gravity becomes exactly one-fourth of its value at the surface (g' = )

Concept : Gravity variation inside Earth

Formula :

Solution :

g' =

Final answer : Option (3)

20)

Given V = 5x2y

;
at point (2, 3) ;

21)

Question Explanation : Find angular speed of earth such that g effective at pole becomes
zero.

Concept: Variation in g due to rotation of earth

Solution:

This means rotation has no effect on gravity at the poles (g'pole = g). Because rotation doesn't
change gravity at the poles, no amount of angular speed can create weightlessness there.

Final answer: Option (4)

22)

Question Explanation: Choose correct graph between force and distance.

Concept: Gravitational force graph due to sphere.

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (2)

23) Explain the question : Find ratio of

Concept : This question is based on conservation of angular momentum.
Solution : by using C.O.A.M.
mv1r1 = mv2r2
v1r1 = v2r2

Final answer : 3

24)
⇒ – 1 + (–2 × –1) ⇒ – 1 + 2 = 1%
increase by 1%
Or

× 100 = –1% –(–2%) = 1%

25) where v =

26) Question Explanation: The question compares the apparent weight of an object at the
pole and equator when measured using a physical balance and a spring balance.

Concept: physical balance and spring balance

Solution:
A physical balance compares masses, while a spring balance measure weight which depends
on gravitational acceleration g.
In a physical balance, both sides experience the same local value of g, so the comparison of
masses is unaffected by location; hence the object weighs the same at pole and equator,
making S2 correct and S1 incorrect. A spring balance measure weight W = mg, and since g is
greater at the pole than at the equator, the object weights more at the pole; hence S4 is correct
and S3 incorrect.

Final Answer: Option (4)

27)

28) By law of conservation of energy, we have

(U+K)initial = (U+K)final

29) =
⇒ T2 = 8T1 = hr.

30) Explain the question : As shown in figure find gravitational field at point 'O'.

Concept : This question is based on gravitational field intensity due to a semi-circular ring.

Solution :

Due to symmetry the intensity of gravitational field is only along y-axis because Ix = 0

Iy =

∴R=

Iy =

Final answer : Option (4)

31)

By C.O.M.E.

= R (1 + α(15 – 0))
0
32) R15 =
20 = R0(1 + 15α) ...(I)

= 40 = R [1+ (θ – 0)α]
0 0
R = ...(II)

θ = 264°C

33) Between P and R <

Between P and Q <

Between Q and R <

34)

35) For stretching ⇒ R ∝ ℓ2

⇒ R' ∝ (1.1ℓ)2
⇒ R' ∝ 1.21ℓ2
⇒ R' = 1.21 R
Resistivity not depend on dimensions.

36) With increase in temperature, average speed of the electrons, which acts as the carriers of
current, increases resulting in more frequent collisions. The average time of collisions τ, thus
decreases with temperature.

37)

Using i = neAvd

100 × 10–3 = .....(1)

200 × 10–3 = .....(2)

On Solving ; v' = 8v

38)

n2R

39) Question Explanation :

given Current density & area & we have to find current flow.
Concept:
Based on the current density with relation between current density ( ) area (vector ( ) and
 current flow I
Formula
I= .
Calculation
I=
I = 3 × 5A
I = 15A

40)

41) Question Explanation :

In this question, we have to find the effect on resistance when Aluminum and germanium is
cooled
Concept:
Temperature dependence of resistance

Solution:

A. Aluminum : Resistance decreases with decrease in temperature because it's a metal with a
positive temperature coefficient
B. Germanium: Resistance increases as temperature drops due to the properties of
semiconductors.

Final Answer: Option (4)

42)

Doubled

43)

1027°C

44) Explain the Question : We need to find potential difference across 24Ω resistor, in the
circuit given.

Concept : This question is based on combination of resistors (series and parallel)

Solution :
Given circuit can be redraw as

VA – VB = IR = 2×1 = 2V

Final answer : Option (2)

45)
 Question Explanation : A 12 V battery feeds a 6 Ω resistor in series with a parallel pair R and
8 Ω. The power dissipated in the 6 Ω resistor is 6 W. Find R.

Concept : Electrical Power.

Formula :
Power Dissipated: P = I2R
Ohm's Law: Vtotal = Itotal . Req
Resistors in Series: Rs = R1 + R2

Resistors in Parallel:
Solution :

Current in 6Ω I =

I= 1=
R = 24Ω

Final Answer : Option (4)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explain Question:

We are asked which substance can reduce Ag+ to Ag but cannot reduce Ni2+ to Ni.

Concept:
Electrochemistry (Standard reduction potentials)

Solution:
E°(Ag+/Ag) = +0.80 V
E°(Ni2+/Ni) = 0.25 V
For reduction of Ag+, the reducing agent must have a more negative potential than +0.80 V.
For reduction of Ni2+, the reducing agent must have a more negative potential than –0.25 V.
Pb has E°(Pb2+/Pb) = –0.13 V.
This is negative compared to Ag+, so Pb can reduce Ag+.
But it is less negative than Ni2+, so Pb cannot reduce Ni2+.

Final answer: Option (4)

47)

Explain Question:
To find a metal displaced by Zn.

Concept:
Application of ECS.

Solution:
A metal which is less active than Zn will be replaced by Zn.
Mg is more active than Zn.
Cu is less active than Zn.
Na, Al are more active than Zn.

Final Answer: Option (2)

48) Explain Question:

To find out Emf for cell.

Concept:
Calculation of for a reaction.

Solution:
Given cell

Here Zn is oxidising and H+ is reducing

= SRP of Cathode – SRP of anode.
= 0 – (–0.76V)
= + 0.76V

Final Answer: Option (2)

49) Explain Question:

To find molarity of solution after electrolysis.

Concept:
Faradays First law of electrolysis.

Solution:
Given Eq. of Cu deposited = Faraday of current flow

= 1.08 Equivalents deposited

Moles remaining in = Initial – deposited

Solution = 0.5 × 2 – 0.54
= 0.46

Final Answer: Option (3)

50)

Question Explanation: Compare masses of Fe deposited when equal charge passes through
three salts.
Concept: This question is based on Faraday’s second law: mass ∝ equivalent weight (E = M /
n).
Solution
Fe in FeSO4 → Fe2+ (n = 2) ⇒ E1 = M/2.
Fe in Fe2(SO4)3 and Fe(NO3)3 → Fe3+ (n = 3) ⇒ E2 = E3 = M/3.
With same Q. W ∝ E, so W(Fe(NO3)3)/W (FeSO4) = (M/3)/(M/2) = 2/3
Final Answer: Option 3

51)

2X

52)

Question Explanation: Find mass ratio liberated from two series voltameters given atomic
masses ratio.
Concept: Faraday's second Law of Electrolysis, Equal charge → mass ∝ equivalent weight (E =
M / valency).
Solution:
Let atomic masses X = 2m, Y = m.
XSO4 → X2+ so nx = 2 → Ex = (2m)/2 = m.
Y2SO4 → Y+ so ny = 1 → Ey = m/1 = m.
With equal Q, W ∝ E ⇒ Wx : Wy = m : m
Wx : Wy = 1:1
Final Answer: Option 1

53)

71.5 A

54) Question Explanation

The question asks to find the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for the electrolyte CX,
given the equivalent conductances of three other electrolytes: , and BX .

Concept
Kohlrausch's Law

Solution

Final Answer: option (1) .

55)
Question Explanation :
We need E° for Au³⁺ + 2e⁻ → Au⁺, using ΔG° = −nFE°.

Concept :
Relation between electrode potential and ΔG°

ΔG° = −nFE°

Solution :

Given:
E°(Au⁺/Au) = 1.69 V → reaction: Au⁺ + e⁻ → Au, n=1
ΔG1° = −1F(1.69) = −1.69F

E°(Au³⁺/Au) = 1.40 V → reaction: Au³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Au, n=3

ΔG2° = −3F(1.40) = −4.20F

Required: Au³⁺ + 2e⁻ → Au⁺ ; (n=2)

ΔG° = ΔG2°− ΔG1° = (−4.20F) − (−1.69F) = −2.51F

Now, E° = −ΔG°/(nF) = −(−2.51F)/(2F) = 1.255 V

Final Answer → option 3

56)

Question Explanation:
To find out correct order of standard oxidation potential.

Concept:
Application of ECS.

Solution:
According to given data A, B and C are non-metals, their oxidation potential will be in reverse
order of their reactivity

Given

A2– + B → A + B2– (B is more active than A)

B2– + C → No reaction (B is more active than C)

C2– + A → C + A2– (A is more active than C)

Conclusion

Final Answer: Option (1)

57)

–0.1182
58)

Explanation the Question : Find the cell potential at 298 K for the cell
Cd(s) | Cd2+ (0.1 M) || H+ (0.1 M) | H2 (0.5 atm) | Pt given E°(Cd2+/Cd) = −0.40 V.
Concept : This question is based on

Use E = E° – ln Q with Q = and n = 2

Solution :

E°cell = E°cathode – E°anode = 0.00 –(–0.40) = 0.40 V

Reaction : Cd(s) + 2H+(aq) → Cd2+(aq) + H2(g)
So

At 298 K, so
E = 0.40 – 0.013 ln(5) = 0.40 – 0.013 × 1.61 ≈ 0.40 – 0.021 = 0.379 ≈ 0.38 V
Final answer : option (1)

59)

Explain question : To select incorrect relationship from the given pair of compounds
Concept : This question is based on structural isomerism
Solution :-

(1) (2) and (4) are given correct with their relationship but (3)
are position isomers and not chair isomers.
Final answer :- 3

60)

10

61)

62)

5
63)

Not shows metamerism

64)

65)

Metamerism

66)
6-Amino-4-hydroxy cyclohex-2-ene-1-sulphonic acid

67) 5-Hydroxycyclopent-2-en-1-ol

68)
2-hydroxy methyl-2-methyl hex-4-yne-nitrile
Word root = 6C(Hex)
Side chain = –CH3 (methyl) and –CH2–OH (Hydroxymethy)
1º suffix → yne
2° suffix → –CN(Nitrile)
Principle functional group must have least locant number.
69)

70)

1-isopropyl-2,4-dimethyl benzene

71)
2-chloropent-2-en-4-yne

72)

HC≡CH

73) Explain the question : Find out the IUPAC name of given compound.
Concept : This question is based on IUPAC nomenclature of hydrocarbon derivatives.
Solution :

The IUPAC name of given compound is

2, 2-dimethyl-4-oxopentanitrile.
Final answer : 4

74)

1-Chloropropane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile
75)

76) 5-Hydroxycyclopent-2-en-1-ol

77)

methoxy carbonyl ethanoic anhydride

78)

1,4-Dichloro-4-formyl-2,6 dioxocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid

79) Concept -
Conformational isomers and their stability.

Answer Explanation -

(1)

(2)
 (3)

(4)

Let's analyze each Newman projection:

A. Option 1: The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are gauche (60° apart). This leads to significant
steric strain between the large phenyl groups.

B. Option 2: The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are gauche (60° apart). This leads to significant
steric strain between the large phenyl groups.

C. Option 3: The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are eclipsed (0° apart). This leads to maximum
torsional and steric strain, making it highly unstable.

D. Option 4:The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are anti (180° apart). This minimizes steric strain
between the phenyl groups.

Now, let's consider the specific interactions:

A. Steric Strain: Phenyl groups are large and bulky, so minimizing steric strain is crucial for
stability.
B. Torsional Strain: Eclipsed conformations have high torsional strain.

Therefore, the most stable conformation is the one where the two phenyl groups are anti.

Final Answer:

Option 4

Question Level:

Moderate

80)
⇒ In conformers of n-butane the order of stability is:-
ANTI > GAUCHE > PARTIALLY ECLIPSED > FULLY ECLIPSED.

81) Gauche form of ethylene glycol is more stable -due to intramolecular H-bonding

82)

83)

General order of stability of conformers is:-

ANTI > GAUCHE > PARTIALLY ECLIPSED > FULLY ELLIPIED.

84) Answer = 180°

85)

– OH

86) oxidising power

Therefore option D is correct

87)
 88)

Question Explanation:

Question is asking about highest electrical conductivity.

Concept:

This question is based on electrical conductivity.

Solution:
Among the above four acids, difluoroacetic acid is strongest so electrical conductivity of its
solution will be highest.

Final Answer:

The correct option is (2).

89)

Molar conductivity can be calculated using the formula.

The conductivity of 0.001 M HA is given as

and C = 0.001 M

thus,
Now, the total standard molar conductivity of HA will be :

after substituting values we get;

Hence, the degree of dissociation of HA will be:

The degree of dissociation of HA is 0.125

Option A is correct

90)

Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false.

BIOLOGY
91)

Microsporogenesis : Formation of microspore from microspore mother cell

92)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 26

93)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

94) NCERT Pg. # 23,24

95)

Endothecium releases ubisch bodies

96) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 23

97)

Synergid cell and antipodal cell

98)

Polycarpellary

99)

50

100)

A: Line of dehiscence B: Filament (Stalk) C: Pollen grains D: Pollen sacs

101)

a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

102) NCERT [Link]. 27 & 34

103)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

104)

One

105)

a - ii, b - iii, c - v, d - iv, e - i

106)

Gamatogenesis - Syngamy - Zygote - Embryogenesis

107) NCERT XII Pg # 21

According to the NCERT, the proximal end of the filament is attached to the thalamus or the
petal. In statement I word 'with' is given in place of the word 'to'.

108) NCERT(XII) Pg # 25 (E), 27 (H)

109)

PMCs are formed by meiosis

110)

B→D→A→E→C

111)

Adventitive polyembryony

112)

113) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 21

Fig. No. - 2.2

114) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 37(E), 39(H), fig. 2.15(a)

115) NCERT Page # 37

116)

Three-celled
117) NCERT-XII, Pg # 28

118)

Triploid and pentaploid

119)

Germpores are the areas with high sporopollenin content

120)

Monocliny

121)

Angiosperms

122) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 31

123)

NCERT XIIth, Pg. # 29

124)

(a) Dominant (b) generally (c) recessive

125)

Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule

126)

Geitonogamy

127)

All of the above

128)

Pollinators are not required

129)

2-celled stage

130)

Papaya

131)

Question Explanation: Chromosome number in the aleurone layer if synergids have 8

chromosomes.

Concept: Ploidy of Seed Tissues

Solution: Synergid cells are haploid (n). Thus,

n=8 chromosomes. The

The aleurone layer is the outermost part of the endosperm, which is a triploid (3n) tissue.
Therefore, the chromosome number is

3×n=3×8=24.

Final Answer: 24

132)

Small, producing large number of dry pollen grains

133)

A–Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil and B– Multicarpellary apocarpous pistil

134)

135) NCERT Pg#33

136)

Question Asking About:

The most primitive ancestor of man from the options provided is 2 . Ramapithecus.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
 Homo Neanderthalensis

While the exact placement of Ramapithecus in the human lineage is debated and has changed
over time, it's generally considered an earlier ancestor than the others listed. Here's a
breakdown:

A. Ramapithecus: These primates lived millions of years ago and are considered potential early
hominins. While their direct link to Homo is debated, they are still important in the discussion
of human origins.
B. Australopithecus: Australopithecus is more recent than Ramapithecus and is a more
established ancestor, known for bipedalism.
C. Homo habilis: Homo habilis is in the Homo genus and is a direct ancestor of modern humans,
but it evolved after Australopithecus.
D. Homo neanderthalensis: Neanderthals are a close relative of modern humans but represent a
more recent branch in human evolution.

It's important to note that Dryopithecus is often considered an even earlier ancestor than
Ramapithecus, but it's not an option here. If it were, Dryopithecus would be the most
primitive. Among the choices given, Ramapithecus is the most primitive.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

137)

Explain Question : The question is asking to identify the correct statements related to
homology, analogy, and types of evolution.

Concept : This question is based on Evolution.

Solution : Incorrect statement is Analogy indicates common ancestry & based on convergent
evolution. (Actually Homology indicate common Ancestry)

Rest all Three are correct.

Final Answer : option (1) Three

138)

Question explanation: The question is asking for the chronological sequence of plant
evolution from simpler to more complex forms.

Concept: A BRIEF ACCOUNT OF EVOLUTION

Solution: Evolution starts with Chlorophytes (green algae), then Tracheophytes (vascular
plants), followed by Rhynia type, Psilophytons, and finally Progymnosperms (early seed
plants).

Final answer: Chlorophytes – Tracheophytes – Rhynia type – Psilophytons –

Progymnosperms
139)

Statement (a), (d)

140)

Adaptive radiation

141)

NCERT Pg no 123

142)

Natural selection

143)

NCERT (XII) Page no. 123

144)

Carboniferous

145)

Homo erectus is direct ancestor of Homo sapiens

146)

Natural selection due to anthropogenic action

147)

Question Explanation: Describing mutation theory.

Concept: Mutation theory

Solution: According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution involves sudden, abrupt,
random, and non-directional mutations, which he called saltation.

Final Answer: a sudden, abrupt random non-directional process.

148) NCERT XIIth Pg.#134

149)

150)

Explain Question : This question is asking about calculating allele frequencies in a

population from given genotype frequencies.

Concept : Hardy–Weinberg Principle.

Explanation : Homozygous dominant (AA) = 64% = 0.64

Heterozygous (Aa) = 20% = 0.20
Homozygous recessive (aa) = 16% = 0.16

Frequency of dominant allele (p) = AA + ½(Aa) = 0.64 + 0.10 = 0.74

Frequency of recessive allele (q) = 1 – p = 0.26

Final answer :

Option 1

151) Question Explanation – The question asks what type of disease rheumatoid arthritis is.

Concept – Autoimmune disorders

Solution – Rheumatoid arthritis occurs when the body’s immune system attacks its own joint
tissues, causing inflammation and pain, hence it is an autoimmune disorder.

Final Answer – Option [2]

152)

Question Explanation: Choose which row correctly identifies A, B, C, D in the life cycle in
the malaria.

Concept: Malaria

Solution: In the malaria (Plasmodium) life cycle sporozoites enter the host and go to the liver;
later stages (gametocytes) are formed in the host blood and sporozoites are produced in the
mosquito salivary gland. So ,

A — Sporozoites

B — Liver

C — Salivary gland

D — Gametocyte
 Final answer: Option 3

153)

Bone-marrow

154)

Question explanation: This question asks to identify the incorrectly matched pathogen,
disease, and its classification.
Concept: Infectious Disease

Solution: The correct answer is Option 3 (Filariasis → Microsporum → Round worm).

A. Pneumonia → Haemophilus influenzae → Bacteria → Correct.

B. Typhoid → Salmonella → Bacteria → Correct.

C. Filariasis → Microsporum → Round worm → Incorrect.

A. Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, a roundworm, not Microsporum (which is a

fungus causing skin infections).

D. Chikungunya → Virus → Chikungunya Virus → Correct.

Final answer: Option (3)

155)

1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

156)

Explain Question: Match each disease with its correct causative agent or characteristic
symptom.

Concept: This Question is based on Protozoan diseases, Viral Diseases, Bacterial Diseases

Explanation :

Common cold (A) → Rhino virus (iv)

Typhoid (B) → Salmonella typhi (v)

Pneumonia (C) → Haemophilus influenzae (ii)

Malaria (D) → Haemozoin (vi)

Ringworm (E) → Dry & Scaly lesions (i)

Amoebiasis (F) → Stool with mucous & blood clots (iii)

This matches with : A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii Final answer: 1

157) Correct Answer:

3. a, b, d
Explanation:
(a) Health is affected by genetic disorders, lifestyle, and infections: This is true. All
three factors play a significant role in determining an individual's health status.
(b) Balanced diet, personal hygiene, and regular exercise are very important to
maintain good health: This is also true. These practices contribute to physical and mental
well-being.
(d) In allergic reactions, adrenaline is the life-saving drug: This is true. Adrenaline
(epinephrine) is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) as it helps to open
airways and reverse other dangerous symptoms.
• Why (c) is incorrect:
(c) Health is only "absence of disease" or "physical fitness": This is a limited and
incorrect view of health.
Health is defined by the World Health Organization as "a state of complete physical, mental
and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." It encompasses more
than just the absence of illness or physical fitness.

158)

NCERT XII Pg. # 158, 159 (E)

159)

160)

Question Explanation : The question asks to identify properties (tumor formation, contact
inhibition, metastasis) in normal vs cancerous cells.

Concept : The question is based on Cancer

Solution : The correct answer is option 2.

A. Tumor formation → Absent in normal cells (A-No), present in cancerous cells (B-Yes).

B. Contact inhibition → Present in normal cells (C-Yes), absent in cancerous cells (D-No).
 C. Metastasis → Absent in normal cells (E-No), present in cancerous cells (F-Yes).

Final Answer : Option 2

161)

Explaining the Question :- Which statement about drug/alcohol abuse is false ?

Concept:- This question is based on Effects of drug and alcohol abuse

Solution :-
• Statement 4 is false
Withdrawal symptoms can be severe and even life-threatening, especially with substances like
alcohol and opioids (e.g., delirium tremens, seizures)
All other statements correctly describe the harmful effects of drug/alcohol abuse.
Final Answer :- 4

162)

Question explanation: This question asks which statements correctly describe heroin
(diacetylmorphine).

Concept: Narcotic drugs.

Solution: The correct answer is Option 1 – Two.

A. (a) Coke → (Coke refers to cocaine, not heroin)

B. (b) Diacetylmorphine → (This is the correct chemical name of heroin)

C. (c) Brown in colour → (Pure heroin is white)

D. (d) Odourless → (Heroin is odorless)

E. (e) Sweet compound → (Heroin is bitter)

F. (f) Extracted from latex of Bhang plant → (Bhang/cannabis is unrelated; heroin is from
opium)

Correct statements: (b) and (d) → 2 statements

Final answer: Option (1)

163)
NCERT Pg. No. 152

164)

Question explanation: Identify the pair that does not belong to cannabinoids.
Concept: This question is based on Drug abuse
Solution: The correct answer is option 2.

A. Cannabinoids are compounds derived from Cannabis plant → examples: Charas,

Ganja, Hashish, Marijuana, Bhang.

B. Datura contains tropane alkaloids, not cannabinoids.

C. LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide) is a synthetic hallucinogen, not a cannabinoid.

Not cannabinoids → Datura, LSD

Final answer: Option 2

165)

Allen module

166)

Question Explanation
The question is asking to identify diseases that are caused by bacteria from the given list.

Concept
Human diseases: Bacterial infections.

Solution
Common cold is caused by viruses, so it is not bacterial.
Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi, a bacterium.
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium, a protozoan.
Pneumonia is commonly caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, a bacterium.
Filariasis is caused by roundworms, not bacteria.

Thus, the bacterial diseases are B, D, and E.

Final answer: Option 1

167)

Explain Question : To identify the incorrect statements

Concept : This question is based on Acquired immunity, aids, diseases.

Solution :
After getting into the body of the person, HIV releases its ssDNA into macrophages where
DNA genome of virus replicates to form viral RNA with the help of enzyme reverse
transcriptase is incorrect
HIV releases ssRNA, not ssDNA. Reverse transcriptase converts ssRNA → dsDNA, which
integrates into host genome

Final Answer : option (4)

168) NCERT Pg. # 134, 135

169)

NCERT XII Pg # 133 (E), 146 (H)

170)

a-neural system, b-endocrine system, c-immune system

171)

(A) – Disulphide bonds,

(B) – Antigen binding site,
(C) – Light chain, (D) – Heavy chain

172)

All of the above

173)

NCERT Pg. # 146

174)

NCERT Pg. # 146

175)

H2O > Proteins > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrates > Lipid > Ions

176)

It is a monosaccharide
177)

Collagen

178)

carbonyl and hydroxyl

179)

A Lectin

180)

It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules