Test Booklet

Series Written Test Paper, 2021 Test Booklet No.

Paper No.
A LAB
29 TECHNICIAN
(MLT)

Name of Applicant ............................................................ Answer Sheet No. ....................................

Application No. : SVSU/2020/Estt/NT/ ......................... Signature of Applicant : ............................

Date of Examination: 25 / 12 / 2021 Signature of the Invigilator(s)

1. ..................................................
Time of Examination : .......................................
2. ..................................................

Duration : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
(i) The question paper is in the form of Test-Booklet containing 100 (Hundred) questions. All questions are
compulsory. Each question carries four answers marked (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is
correct.
(ii) On receipt of the Test-Booklet (Question Paper), the candidate should immediately check it and ensure
that it contains all the pages, i.e., 100 questions (70 in Part-A + 30 in Part–B). Discrepancy, if any,
should be reported by the candidate to the invigilator immediately after receiving the TestBooklet.
(iii) A separate Answer-Sheet is provided with the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. On this sheet there are 100
rows (70 in Part-A + 30 in Part–B) containing four circles each. One row pertains to one question.
(iv) The candidate should write his/her Application number at the places provided on the cover page of the
Test-Booklet/Question Paper and on the Answer-Sheet and NOWHERE ELSE.
(v) No second Test-Booklet/Question Paper and Answer-Sheet will be given to a candidate. The candidates
are advised to be careful in handling it and writing the answer on the Answer-Sheet.
(vi) For every correct answer of the question One (1) mark will be awarded. For every unattempted
question, Zero (0) mark shall be awarded. There is no Negative Marking.
(vii) Marking shall be done only on the basis of answers responded on the Answer-Sheet.
(viii) To mark the answer on the Answer-Sheet, candidate should darken the appropriate circle in the row of
each question with Blue or Black pen.
(ix) For each question only one circle should be darkened as a mark of the answer adopted by the candidate.
If more than one circle for the question are found darkened or with one black circle any other circle
carries any mark, the question will be treated as cancelled.
(x) The candidates should not remove any paper from the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. Attempting to
remove any paper shall be liable to be punished for use of unfair means.
(xi) Rough work may be done on the blank space provided in the Test-Booklet/Question Paper only.
(xii) Mobile phones (even in Switch-off mode) and such other communication/programmable devices are not
allowed inside the examination hall.
(xiii) No candidate shall be permitted to leave the examination hall before the expiry of the time.

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.

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 [P.T.O.
29 / 1
2
PART–A
1. What is the life span of RBC? 5. Blood cells are produced in

(A) 120 (A) kidney

(B) 100 (B) lungs

(C) 200 (C) bone marrow

(D) 80 (D) glands

2. What is the recommended cleaner for 6. By volume, the red blood cells constitute
removing all oil from objective lens? about _____% of whole blood.

(A) 70% alcohol or lens cleaner (A) 15

(B) xylene (B) 25

(C) water (C) 35

(D) benzene (D) 45

3. Serum differs from blood as it lacks 7. Which constituent of blood fight against
infections?
(A) antibodies
(A) red blood cells
(B) clotting factors
(B) white blood cells
(C) albumins
(C) plasma
(D) globulins
(D) platelets

4. Oxygen is supplied from lungs to tissues

8. The pH value of blood is normally between
and organs by
_____ and _____.
(A) red blood cells
(A) 6.0, 6.5
(B) white blood cells
(B) 7.0, 7.35
(C) plasma
(C) 7.35, 7.45
(D) platelets
(D) 7.45, 7.98
[P.T.O.
29 / 2

3
9. An average adult person has about _____ (A) serum
liters of blood by volume.
(B) plasma
(A) 5
(C) EDTA blood
(B) 5.5
(D) citrate blood
(C) 6

(D) 6.5
14. Rh typing is based on the D-antigen present
in:

10. What mordant is used in Gram staining? (A) platelet

(A) crystal violet (B) rbc

(B) safranin (C) lymphocyte

(C) acid-alcohol (D) eosinphils

(D) iodine

15. ESR equipment is known as

11. RFT Includes: (A) sahli's tube

(A) electrolytes (B) centrifuge

(B) total protein (C) vacutainer

(C) ast (D) westegren's tube

(D) alt

16. The reagent used in estimation of

Glucose is:
12. Microscopic examnation of urine is done to
find out: (A) urease

(A) rbc (B) hexokinase

(B) pus cells (C) jaffe

(C) cast (D) None of the above

(D) All the above 17. The commonly used fixative for slide
preparation is:
13. Sample used for Platelet counting is :
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 (A) benedict reagent (C) western blot

(B) distilled water (D) chromatography

(C) formalin

(D) None of the above 22. The basic component of Leishman stain is:

(A) eosin
18. Which one of the following does not include (B) methylene blue
routine liver function test?
(C) malachite green
(A) bilirubin
(D) safrenin
(B) bile acid

(C) sgot (D) alkaline phosphatase

23. Which of the following is Romanowsky
stain?
19. CSF samples are collected by:
(A) Leishman
(A) lab tech
(B) giemsa
(B) staff nurse
(C) jenners
(C) physician
(D) All the above
(D) ward boy

24. Which of these is not a lipid?

20. All the following are motile bacteria except:
(A) Fats (B) Oils
(A) [Link]
(C) Proteins
(B) klebsiella
(D) Waxes
(C) vibrio

(D) proteus [P.T.O.

21. Confirmatory test for AID's is: 29 / 3
(A) elisa 25. Which of the following is usually not found
in the urine?
(B) clia
(A) Magnesium

5
 (B) Urea (B) Protein
(C) Uric acid (C) pH
(D) Glucose (D) Specific gravity

26. Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not 30. A specific gravity of 1.005 would produce
warmed to room temperature will adversely the reagent strip color:
affect: (A) Blue
(A) Enzymatic reactions (B) Green
(B) Dye-binding reactions (C) Yellow
(C) The sodium nitroprusside reaction (D) Red
(D) Diazo reactions
31. The coagulase is done to differentiate:
27. All of the following are important to protect (A) Staphylococcus aureus from
the integrity of reagent strips except: Staphylococcus epidermidis
(A) Removing the desiccant from the (B) Staphylococcus epidermidis from
bottle Neisseria meningitidis
(B) Storing in an opaque bottle (C) Streptococcus pyogenes from
(C) Storing at room temperature Enterococcus faecalis

(D) Resealing the bottle after removing a (D) Streptococcus pyogenes from
strip Staphylococcus aureus

28. A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0: 32. Cardiac markers are:

(A) Indicates metabolic acidosis (A) ck, ckmb, tropi
(B) Should be recollected (B) ast, alt, protein
(C) May contain calcium oxalate crystals (C) carbohydrate
(D) Is seen after drinking cranberry (D) glucose
juice 33. To which of the following would the term
"white cell" NOT be applied?
29. The most significant reagent strip test that is
associated with a positive ketone result is: (A) erythrocyte

(A) Glucose (B) leucocyte

6
 (C) lymphocyte 38. The liquid portion of blood remaining after a
clot has formed is called:
(D) monocyte
(A) plasma

(B) serum
34. Which individuals can receive any type of
blood and are considered universal (C) tissue
recipients?
(D) lymph
(A) A+ (B) O– (C) AB+

(D) B–
39. Which test cannot be performed on a serum
sample?
35. What is found in blood serum that is also in (A) Iron
blood plasma?
(B) Vitamin B12
(A) blood cells

(B) platelets (C) Total lipids

(C) plasma proteins (D) Clotting factors

(D) clotting factors

40. A suction device used to draw up liquids is a:

36. Tumor markers: (A) flask

(A) CA125 (B) cylinder

(B) CA19.9 (C) beaker

(C) CEA (D) safety bulb

(D) All the above
[P.T.O.
37. What is PPE in laboratory?
29 / 4
(A) personnel protective equipment
41. Which one of the following is NOT a blood
(B) pipette per equipment component?
(C) professional pipetter (A) Fresh frozen plasma

(D) None of them (B) Hemolysate

(C) Platelet concentrate

(D) Plasma
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42. What is the normal (B) 20
hemoglobin concentration in adult male?
(C) 21
(A) 13-20 g/dl
(D) 18
(B) 13 - 17 g/dl

(C) 13- 15 g/dl (D) 11- 15 g/dl

47. Which of the following parasite is found in
urine specimen? (A) Taenia sps
43. Which one of the following is NOT the site
(B) Trichomonas vaginalis
selected for collection of the blood?

(A) Spleen (C) Trichuris trichiura

(B) Arteries (D) Round worm

(C) Capillaries

(D) Veins 48. What is the eosinophil count present in a

normal DLC smear?

(A) 1-10%
44. Which one of the following tests is NOT
used to detect renal function? (B) 6-10%

(A) Blood sugar (C) 1-6%

(B) Blood urea (D) 5-10%
(C) Serum creatinine

(D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

45. Hay's test detects ___________ in urine.

(A) bile salts

(B) blood

(C) ketone bodies

(D) bile pigment

46. What is the gauge of the needle commonly

used for venipuncture?

(A) 26
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49. Which of the following type of cholesterol is 53. Cholesterol estimation is done by the
called as good cholesterol? following method:

(A) HDL (A) Molisch method

(B) Chylomicrons (B) Benedict's method

(C) VLDL (C) Zak's ferric chloride method
(D) LDL (D) Jaffes method

50. Which of the following is a gram negative

54. Coma shaped bacteria are known as
bacilli?
(A) Staphylococci
(A) Staphylococcus aureus (B)

Staphylococcus citreus (B) Streptococci

(C) Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) Vibrio

(D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) Bacillus

51. What is the colour of normal CSF? 55. A positive tuberculin test is indicated by and
area of induration of:
(A) Colourless
(A) < 5 mm in diameter (B) 6-9 mm in
(B) Yellow
diameter
(C) Light green
(C) 10 mm in diameter
(D) Brown
(D) No induration

52. Normal reticulocyte count in adults is 56. Diagnostic test used for TB is .....
__________.
(A) Mantoux test
(A) 3-6%
(B) Dick Test (C) Shick test
(B) 0.5-2.5%
(D) Widal test
(C) 1-5%
57. Acid fast staining is used to detect
(D) 2-10%
(A) Mycobacterium TB

9 [P.T.O.
 (B) Ctetani (A) Heparin

(C) HIV/AIDS (B) EDTA

(D) Meningococci (C) Sodium citrate

(D) None of these

58. Method of sterilization used for culture

media is...
62. Ketone bodies in urine are:
(A) Autoclave
(A) Acetone
(B) Hot air oven
(B) Beta hydroxy butyric acid
(C) Pasteurization
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
(D) None of these

59. Shape of cocci

63. Serum electrolytes are analysed using
(A) Rod
(A) Calorimeter
(B) Spherical
(B) Flamephotometer
(C) Comma
(C) Spectrophotometer
(D) Spiral
(D) None of these

60. VDRL is used in the diagnosis of

64. Temperature range used for autoclaving is....
(A) Syphilis
(A) 100°C for 10 min
(B) HIV
(B) 100°C for 30 min
(C) Typhoid
(C) 121°C for 15 min
(D) Tuberculosis
(D) 121°C for 30 min
61. Name the anticoagulant present in purple
coloured vacutainer tube 65. The only cell in normal CSF is

(A) Neutrophil

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 (B) Lymphocyte (D) Rothera's test

(C) Manocyte

(D) None of these 70. A compound microscope has how many

lenses
(A) 1
66. The solution used to fix a pap smear is: (B) 2

PART–B (C) 3
(D) 4
(A) wright stain
71. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ?
(B) hematoxylin

(C) physiological saline (A) 41

(D) cytospray (B) 65

(C) 56

67. Presence of red blood cells in the urine is (D) 60

referred to as:

(A) Hematuria
72. Find the missing character?
(B) Hemoglobinuria

(C) Anuria

(D) Chyluria

68. Specific gravity of urine normally varies

between ________. (A) 1.010–1.040
(B) 1.010–1.015
(C) 1.010–1.030 (A) 10C
(D) 1.030–1.040 (B) 12C
(C) 13C
69. Name the test used to detect the presence of (D) 7C
glucose in urine : (A) Fouchet's test 73. Pointing at a photo, Dinesh said, "His father
(B) Benedict's test is only son of my mother." The photo
belongs to :
(C) Hay's test

11 [P.T.O.
 (A) Dinesh (D) was sending

(B) Dinesh's brother 78. Look, a new missile ....................

(C) Dinesh's father (A) is launched

(B) is launch
(D) Dinesh's son
(C) is being launch
74. Rakesh ranks 13th in the class of 33
(D) is being launched
students. There are 5 students below Mahesh
rankwise. How many students are there
between Rakesh and Mahesh ? 79. The paths of glory lead .................... to the
(A) 12 grave. (A) straight
(B) 14 (B) but
(C) 15 (C) in
(D) 16 (D) directly

75. QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, _____ 80. You haven't had your lunch yet, ................
(A) UAV you? (A) are

(B) UAT (C) TAS (B) aren't

(D) TAT (C) have

(D) haven't

76. Choose the word which is different from the

rest. 81. Which sequence makes a correct sentence?
1. tea
(A) Pear
2. have
(B) Apple
(C) Litchi 3. that

(D) Orange 4. some

5. before

77. Before you gave answers, sir ................. (A) 43251

them to us. (B) 24315
(A) sent
(C) 24153
(B) will send
(D) 52431
(C) had sent

12
82. He reminds us ...................... Paul Walker. 86. Select the Answer figure that fits in the
(A) about blank space in the given problem figure.
(B) of Problem Figure
(C) for
(D) with

83. Find the minimum number of straight lines

required to make the given figure.
Answer Figure

(A) 13 (A) D
(B) 15 (B) C
(C) 17 (C) B
(D) 19 (D) A

84. Select the figure that does NOT belong in 87. From the given alternatives, select the word
the following group. which CANNOT be formed using the letters
of the given word. Demonstration
(A) Moon
(B) Most (C) Train
(D) Damage

(A) B 88. If white is called black, black is called red,

(B) A red is called yellow, yellow is called green,
(C) D green is called blue, blue is called violet and
(D) C violet is called orange, what would be the
colour of human blood?
(A) green (B) black
85. P, Q, R and S are four friends. P is shorter
than Q but taller than R who is shorter than (C) red
S. Who is the shortest among all? (D) yellow
(A) P
89. A train running at 90 km/hr crosses a pole in
(B) Q (C) R 10 seconds. What is the length of train?
(D) S
(A) 250 m

13 [P.T.O.
 (B) 150 m (D) 0.005

(C) 900 m

(D) None of these 94. A person incurs a loss of 5% be selling a

watch for Rs. 1140. At what price should the
watch be sold to earn 5% profit.
90. Which is in ascending order?
(A) Rs. 1200
(A) 1/3, 2/5, 3/5, 6/7
(B) Rs. 1230
(B) 2/5, 1/3, 3/5, 6/7
(C) Rs. 1260
(C) 1/3, 2/5, 6/7, 3/5
(D) Rs. 1290
(D) 3/5, 6/7, 1/3, 2/5

95. A fungal disease named 'Mucormycosis' is

91. The average of four consecutive odd registered in COVID-19 patients of which
numbers is 24. Find the largest number. state?
(A) 25 (A) Kerala
(B) 27 (B) Gujarat
(C) 29 (C) Bihar
(D) 31 (D) Assam

92. Sum of a rational number and its reciprocal 96. "Energy Conservation Week" is observed
is 13/6. Find the number every year in which month?
(A) 2 (A) October
(B) 3/2 (B) November
(C) 4/2 (C) December
(D) 5/2 (D) January
93. Half of 1 percent written as decimal is 97. Who has been appointed as the Chief of
(A) 5 Staff Committee, following the demise of
General Bipin Rawat?
(B) 0.5
(A) M.M. Naravane (B) Karambir Singh
(C) 0.05

14
 (C) R.K.S. Bhadauria (A) Faridabad
(D) Vijay Kumar Singh (B) Panchkula
(C) Gurgaon
98. Which state after Haryana has recently (D) Karnal
announced 75% reservation in private sector
jobs for locals? (A) Uttar Pradesh
100. The Ministry of Labour recently launched
(B) Rajasthan India's first national database on unorganised
(C) Uttarakhand workers on which portal? (A) e-Shram
(D) Jharkhand portal
(B) Samadhan portal

99. The first-ever Haryana Sahitya Sangam has (C) Atma Nirbhar Bharat portal
started in which city? (D) None of the above

ROUGH WORK

15 [P.T.O.
ANSWER KEY- Lab Technician MLT Answer Key
1. A 26. A 51. A 76. D

2. A 27. A 52. B 77. C

3. B 28. B 53. C 78. D

4. A 29. A 54. C 79. B

5. C 30. A 55. C 80. C

6. D 31. A 56. A 81. C

7. B 32. A 57. A 82. B

8. C 33. A 58. A 83. A

9. A 34. C 59. B 84. A

10. D 35. C 60. A 85. C

11. A 36. D 61. B 86. D

12. D 37. A 62. C 87. D

13. C 38. B 63. B 88. D

14. B 39. D 64. C 89. A

15. D 40. D 65. B 90. A

16. B 41. B 66. D 91. B

17. C 42. B 67. A 92. B

18. B 43. A 68. C 93. D

19. C 44. A 69. B 94. C

20. B 45. A 70. C 95. B

21. C 46. C 71. B 96. C

22. B 47. B 72. A 97. A

23. D 48. C 73. D 98. D

24. C 49. A 74. B 99. B

25. D 50. D 75. A 100. A