09-11-2025

6001CKC20217625002RT KC

PHYSICS

1) A body can be negatively charged by :-

(1) Giving excess of electrons to it

(2) Removing some electrons from it
(3) Giving some protons to it
(4) Removing some neutrons from it

2) The ratio of the forces between two small spheres with constant charge (a) in air (b) in a medium
of dielectric constant K is

(1) 1 : K
(2) K : 1
(3) 1 : K2
(4) K2 : 1

3) The work done in carrying a charge q once around a circle of radius r with a charge Q placed at
the centre will be :

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

4) There exists a uniform electric field in the space as shown. Four points A, B, C and D are marked
which are equidistant from the origin. If VA, VB, VC and VD are their potentials, respectively :-

(1) VB > VA > VC > VD

(2) VA > VB > VD > VC
(3) VA = VB > VC = VD
(4) VB > VC > VA > VD

5) The path of a charged particle entering perpendicularly in a uniform electric field will be :-

(1) Linear
(2) Parabolic
(3) Circular
(4) Elliptical

6) Electric potential at any point is, V=–5x+3y+ ; then the magnitude of electric field is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 7

7) Two identical conducting balls A and B have positive charges q1 and q2 respectively. But q1 ≠ q2.
The balls are brought together so that they touch each other and then kept in their original
positions. The magnitude of force between them is :-

(1) Less than that before the balls touched

(2) Greater than that before the balls touched
(3) Same as that before the balls touched
(4) Zero

8) Four equal charges q each are placed at four corners of a square of side a each. Work done in
carrying a charge –q from its centre to infinity is:-

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) For a dipole q = 2 × 10–6 C ; d = 0.01m; find the maximum torque on the dipole if E = 5 × 105
N/C :–

(1) 1 × 10–3 Nm–1

(2) 10 × 10–3 Nm–1
(3) 10 × 10–3 Nm
(4) 1 × 10–4 Nm

10) Two equal negative charges –q are fixed at the points (0, a) and (0, –a) on the y-axis. A positive
charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x-axis. The charge will :-

(1) Execute SHM about the orgin

(2) Move to the origin and remain at rest
(3) Move to infinity
(4) Execute oscillatory but not SHM

11) An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in
a uniform electric field E. If its dipole moment is along the direction of the field, the force on it and
its potential energy are respectively

(1) 2q.E and minimum

(2) q.E and p.E
(3) Zero and minimum
(4) Zero and maximum

12) If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% and its mass remaining the same, the acceleration
due to gravity on the earth's surface would :-

(1) Decrease by 2%
(2) Remain unchanged
(3) Increase by 2%
(4) Becomes zero

13) A spherical shell is cut into two pieces along a chord as shown in figure. P is a point on the plane
of the chord. The gravitational field at P due to the upper part is I1 and that due to the lower part is

I2. What is the relation between them :-

(1) I1 > I2
(2) I1 < I2
(3) I1 = I2
(4) None of these

14) If the apparent weight of the bodies at the equator is to be zero, then the earth should rotate
with angular velocity

(1)
rad/sec

(2)
rad/sec

(3)
rad/sec
(4)
rad/sec

15) Which of the following graphs represents the motion of the planet moving about the Sun. T is the
period of revolution and r is the average distance (from centre to centre between the Sun and
planet.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The acceleration of a body due to the attraction of the earth (radius Re) at a height 2Re from the
surface of the earth is (g = acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) g

17) Let the speed of the planet at the perihelion P in above figure be vP and the sun planet distance
SP be rP. The corresponding quantity at the aphelion A is (rA, vA). The mass of the planet in mP.

The vector rP and vP are :-

(1) parallel
(2) mutually perpendicular
(3) anti-parallel
(4) coincident

18) A force of 75 newton acts on a body of mass 2.5 kg at a certain point. The intensity of
gravitational field at this point will:-

(1) 20 N/kg
(2) 30 N/kg
(3) 40 N/kg
(4) 50 N/kg

19) The kinetic energy needed to project a body of mass m from the surface of earth to infinity is (R
= Radius of earth)

(1) mgR
(2) 2mgR

(3)

(4) – mgR

20) A particle is kept rest at a distance 'R' from the surface of earth (Radius R). The minimum speed
with which it should be projected so that it does not return ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which one of the following graphs represents correctly the variation of the gravitational field (I)
with the distance (r) from the centre of a spherical shell of mass M and radius a :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) Mass particles of 1 kg each are placed along x-axis at x = 1, 2, 4, 8 ....... ∞. Then gravitational
force on a mass of 3 kg placed at origin is(G = Universal gravitational constant):-

(1) 4G

(2)

(3) 2G
(4) ∞

23) When the radius of earth is reduced by x% without changing the mass, if the acceleration due to
gravity will increase by 4%. Find x

(1) 2%
(2) 1.5%
(3) 4%
(4) 1%

24) A planet is revolving around the sun as shown in elliptical path. The correct option is

(1) The time taken in travelling DAB is less than that of BCD
(2) The time taken in travelling DAB is greater than that of BCD
(3) The time taken in travelling CDA is less than that of ABC
(4) The time taken in travelling CDA is greater than that of ABC

25) A body of mass m starts falling from a point 2R above the earth surface. Its kinetic energy when
it has fallen to a point upto height R above the earth's surface will be (Mass of earth is M and its
radius is R.) :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) The mass of planet is 1/9 of the mass of the earth and its radius is half that of the earth. If a body
weight 9 N on the earth. Its weight on the planet would be :-

(1) 6 N
(2) 4.5 N
(3) 4 N
(4) 9 N

27) The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/9th its weight on the surface of earth (radius
of earth is R) :-

(1) h = 3R
(2) h = R
h=
(3)

(4) h = 2R

28) The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit very close to earth is V. The
velocity of a geo-sationary satellite orbiting in circular orbit at an altitude of 3R from earth's surface
will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) In case of an orbiting satellite if the radius of orbit is decreased :-

(1) Its kinetic energy decreases

(2) Its potential energy increases
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(4) Both (1) and (2) are wrong

30) Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is
F. The whole thing is kept inside a satellite revolving around earth then. The gravitational force will
now be-

(1) 3 F
(2) F

(3)

(4)

31) If the earth stops rotating suddenly,the value of g at a place other than poles would :–

(1) decrease
(2) remain constant
(3) increase
(4) increase or decrease depending on the position of earth in the orbit round the sun

32) A large number of identical point masses m are placed along x-axis at x = 0, 1, 2, 4, ....... The

magnitude of gravitational force on mass at origin (x = 0), will be :-

(1) Gm2

(2)
Gm2

(3)
Gm2

(4)
Gm2

33) If G is universal gravitation constant and g is acceleration due to gravity, then dimensions of
will be :-

(1) [M–1L2]
(2) [M–1L]
(3) [M–2L]
(4) [M–1L–2]

34) Figure shows the orbit of a planet P around the sun S. AB and CD are the minor and major axis

of the ellipse. If t1 is the time taken by the planet to travel along ACB and t2 the
time along BDA, then :-

(1) t2 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t1 < t2
(4) Nothing can be concluded

35) If massess of two point objects are tripled and distance between them is doubled, then
gravitational force of attraction between them will :-

(1) Increase by 225%

(2) Decrease by 56%
(3) Increase by 125%
(4) Decrese by 144%

36) A body weighs 63 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it due to the
earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth ?

(1) 63 N
(2) 70 N
(3) 35 N
(4) 28 N

37) If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between earth and a satellite revolving around it
becomes zero, then the satellite will :-

(1) continue to move in its orbit with same velocity

(2) move tangentially to the original orbit with same velocity
(3) become stationary in its orbit
(4) move towards the earth

38) Gravitational force between two masses at a distance d apart is 6N. If these masses are taken to
moon and kept at a same separation, then the force between them will become :-

(1) 1 N

(2)

(3) 36 N
(4) 6 N

39) Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of g on the Earth?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40) At what altitude will the acceleration due to gravity be 25% of that at the earth's surface (given
radius of earth is R) :-

(1) R/4
(2) R
(3) 3R/8
(4) R/2

41) The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of earth. What will be the period of oscillation
of a pendulum on this planet if it is a seconds pendulum on earth ?

(1) second
(2) second

(3)
second

(4)
second

42) Two point masses of mass 4m and m respectively separated by d distance are revolving under
mutual force of attraction. Ratio of their kinetic energies will be :-

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 5
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

43) A hollow spherical shell is compressed to half its radius. The gravitational potential at the centre
:-

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains same
(4) during the compression increases then returns at the previous value.

44) Two particle of equal masses(m) are moving in a circle of radius r under the action of their
mutual gravitational forces. Find speed of each particle.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A hollow metallic sphere is charged. Inside the sphere :-

(1) The potential is zero but the electric field is finite.

(2) The electric field is zero but the potential is finite.
(3) Both the electric field and the potential are finite.
(4) Both the electric field and the potential are zero.

46) In which region magnitude of x-component of electric field is maximum, if potential (V) versus
distance (X), graph is as shown ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
47) A charge Q is kept at a distance from the center of a spherical surface. total outward flux from
the surface of sphere is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

48) Eight mercury droplets having a radius of 1mm and a charge of 0.066 pC. Each merge into one
droplet. Find it's potential :

(1) 2.4 V
(2) 1.2 V
(3) 3.6 V
(4) 0.6 V

49) Two charges –q and q are on points A and B as shown. The variation of electric potential along

the x-axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

50) At any point ( x,0,0) the electric potential V is volt, then electric field at x
= 1 m will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

51) A particle of charge –q & mass m moves in a circle of radius r around an infinitely long line

charge of charge density +λ. Then time period will be (Where k = )

(1)
T = 2π r
T2 =
(2)

(3)
T=

(4)
T=

52) A point positive charge is brought near an isolated conducting sphere. The electric field is best

given by

(1) Fig (i)

(2) Fig (iii)
(3) Fig (ii)
(4) Fig (iv)

53) Charge 2Q and –Q are placed as shown in figure. The point at which electric field intensity is

zero will be:

(1) Somewhere between –Q and 2Q.

(2) Somewhere on the left of –Q.
(3) Somewhere on the right of 2Q.
(4) Somewhere on the right bisector of line joining –Q and 2Q.

54) Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a charged body. If the electric field at A
and B are EA and EB respectively and if the distance between A and B is r then :

(1) EA > EB
(2) EA < EB

(3)
EA =

(4)
EA =

55) Find the charge on outer surface of the rightmost plate.

(1) –6Q
(2) –5Q
(3) –3Q
(4) 0

56) An electric field is given by N/C. The electric flux through a surface area m2
lying in YZ-plane (in SI unit) is :

(1) 90
(2) 150
(3) 180
(4) 60

57) If the flux of the electric field through a closed surface is zero :
(I) the electric field must be zero everywhere on the surface
(II) the electric field may be zero everywhere on the surface
(III) the charge inside the surface must be zero
(IV) the charge in the vicinity of the surface must be zero

(1) I, II are correct

(2) I, III are correct
(3) II & III are correct
(4) III & IV are correct

58) Two equal positive charges are kept at points A and B. The electric potential, while moving from
A to B along straight line :

(1) continuously increases

(2) remains constant
(3) decreases then increases
(4) increases then decreases

59) The figure shows the electric field lines in the vicinity of two point charges. Which one of the
following statements concerning this situation is true?

(1) q1 is negative and q2 is positive

(2) The magnitude of the ratio (q2/q1) is less than one
(3) Both q1 and q2 have the same sign of charge
(4) The electric field is strongest midway between the charges.

60) Half ring of radius a is uniformly charged with linear charge density . Find out electric field

intensity at point O.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Distillation involves all the following processes except

(1) Change of state

(2) Boiling
(3) Condensation
(4) Evaporation

2) Two substances when separated out on the basis of their extent of adsorption by one material, the
phenomenon is known as

(1) Chromatography
(2) Crystallization
(3) Sublimation
(4) Steam distillation

3) Absolute alcohol is prepared by

(1) Fractional distillation

(2) Kolbe's method
(3) Vacuum distillation
(4) Azeotropic distillation

4) Raw juice in sugar factories is generally concentrated by:

(1) vacuum distillation

(2) Steam distillation
(3) sublimation
(4) crystallization

5) A bottle containing two immiscible liquids is given to you. These may be separated by

(1) Steam distillation

(2) Fractional distillation
(3) Separating funnel
(4) Fractionating column
6) In Lassaigne's test for N,S and halogens, the organic compound is

(1) Fused with sodium

(2) Dissolved with sodamide
(3) Extracted with sodamide
(4) Fused with calcium

7) If on adding FeCl3 solution to acidifies Lassaigne's solution, a blood red coloration is produced, it
indicates the presence of

(1) S
(2) N
(3) N and S
(4) S and Cl

8) The sodium extract on acidification with acetric acid and then adding lead acetate solution gives a
black precipitate. The organic compound contains.

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Halogen
(3) Sulphur
(4) Phosphorous

9) Sodium nitroprusside when added to an alkaline solution of sulphide ions produces a

(1) Red colouration

(2) Blue colouration
(3) Violet colouration
(4) Brown colouration

10) During Lassaigne's test S and N present in an organic compound change into :

(1) NaCN and Na2S

(2) NaSCN
(3) Na2SO4 and NaCN
(4) Na2S and NaCNO

11) In Kjeldahl's method, ammonia from 5g of food neutralizes 30 cm3 of 0.1N acid. The percentage
of nitrogen in the food is:

(1) 0.84
(2) 8.4
(3) 16.8
(4) 1.68

12) The nitrogen content in the proteins can be quantitatively estimated by :

(1) Carius method
(2) Kjeldahl's method
(3) Victor Meyer's method
(4) Rast method

13) Halogens can be estimated by

(1) Duma's method

(2) Carius method
(3) Leibig's method
(4) Kjeldahl's method

14) If 0.32g of an organic compound containing sulphur produces 0.233g of BaSO4, then the
percentage of sulphur in the compound is

(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 25

15) In an organic compound phosphorus is estimated as

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) Which one of the following is a benzenoid aromatic compound ?

(1) Furan
(2) Thiophene
(3) Pyridine
(4) Aniline

17) Cycloheptatrienyl cation is :

(1) Non-benzenoid and non-aromatic

(2) Non-benzenoid and aromatic
(3) Benzenoid and non-aromatic
(4) Non-benzenoid and antiaromatic

18) The characteristic reactions shown by benzene is

(1) Electrophilic addition reaction

(2) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(3) Nucleophilic addition reaction
(4) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

19) Which among the following organic compounds do not have (4n+2) number of π electrons?
i) Naphthalene
ii) Cyclooctatetraene
iii) Cyclopentadiene
iv) Cyclopentadienyl anion

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

20) From the following compounds choose the one which is not aromatic

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which one of the following is non aromatic?

(1) Cyclopentadienyl Cation

(2) Cycloheptatrienyl cation
(3) Cyclooctatetraene
(4) Thiophene

22) Which is a non-aromatic compound?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Which of the following species is aromatic?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) When sodium benzoate reacts with sodalime what is produced?

(1) Benzene
(2) Toluene
(3) Xylene
(4) None

25) When Friedel-Crafts alkylation of benzene is carried out with n -propyl bromide, the major
product is

(1) n -propyl benzene

(2) isopropyl benzene
(3) 2 -ethyl benzene
(4) None of the above

26) Benzene reacts with chlorine in sunlight to give a final product

(1) CCℓ4
(2) C6H6Cℓ6
(3) C6Cℓ6
(4) C6H5Cℓ

27) The compound that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is

(1) Toluene
(2) Benzene
(3) Benzoic acid
(4) Nitrobenzene

28) The following reaction is known as

(1) Wurtz-Fittig reaction

(2) Friedel-Crafts reaction
(3) Rosenmund reaction
(4) Sandmeyer reaction

29) , compound X is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) 1, 2-Benzpyrene is

(1) A polynuclear hydrocarbon

(2) Carcinogenic in nature
(3) An aromatic hydrocarbon
(4) All of these

31) Which of the following will exhibit maximum ionic conductivity?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) Correct formula of tetraamminechloronitroplatinum (IV) sulphate can be written as

(1) [Pt(NH3)4(ONO)Cl]SO4
(2) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2NO2]2SO4
(3) [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)Cl]SO4
(4) [PtCl(ONO)NH3(SO4)]

33) Fac-mer isomerism is possible in

+
(1) [Co(NH3)Cl2]
−
(2) [Fe(CN)4(NH3)2]
(3) [Co(NO2)3(NH3)3]
+
(4) [Co(en)2Cl2]

34) K3[CoF6] is high spin complex. What is the hybrid state of Co atom in the complex?

(1) d2sp3
(2) dsp2
(3) sp3d
(4) sp3d2

35) Which of the following shall form an octahedral complex ?

(1) d4 (Low spin)

(2) d8 (high spin)
(3) d6 (low spin)
(4) All of these

36) How many unpaired electrons does the manganese ion have in ?

(1) 1 unpaired electron

(2) 2 unpaired electrons
(3) 3 unpaired electrons
(4) 5 unpaired electrons

37) Due to interaction by the ligands, the d- orbitals of metal ion are split up as
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) The ion which has a high spin d6 configuration is

2+
(1) [Co(NH3)6]
4−
(2) [CoF6]
4−
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
3+
(4) [Co(H2O)6]

39) Which of the following species will be diamagnetic?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) CFSE value of Fe2+ when Δ0 < P is

(1) –0.4 Δ0
(2) –0.0 Δ0
(3) 0.2 Δ0
(4) –0.6 Δ0

41) Which of the following is the correct increasing order of strength in spectrochemical series of
ligands?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) Which of the following complexes will not show colour?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) Which of the following metal carbonyls exist?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

44) Match the coordination compounds given in Column I with the central metal atoms given in
Column II and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
(Coordination (Central
compound) metal atom)

A Chlorophyll 1 Rhodium

B Haemoglobin 2 Cobalt

C Wilkinson catalyst 3 Calcium

D Vitamin B12 4 Iron

5 Magnesium
(1) A - 5, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
(2) A - 3, B - 4, C - 5, D - 1
(3) A - 5, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
(4) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

45) Match the column I and column II and select the correct option

Column II (Type
Column I (Ligand)
of ligand)

P Diethylenetriamine 1 Unidentate

Q Thiocyanate ion 2 Didentate

R Ethylenediamine 3 Tridentate

Ethylenediamine
S 4 Hexadentate
tetraacetate ion
(1) P - 4, Q - 3, R - 2, S - 1
(2) P - 1, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 3
(3) P - 3, Q - 1, R - 2, S - 4
(4) P - 2, Q - 3, R - 1, S - 4

46) Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

(1) Glucose
(2) Fructose
(3) Cellulose
(4) Ribose
47) Which of the following cannot be hydrolysed into aldose and ketose?

(1) Disaccharide
(2) Monosaccharide
(3) Polysaccharide
(4) Oligosaccharide

48) Which of the following carbohydrates is a disaccharide?

(1) Ribose
(2) Fructose
(3) Maltose
(4) Glucose

49) Match the sugars in column I with their types given in column II and mark the appropriate
choice.

Column I Column II

A Glucose i Ketohexose

B Fructose ii Aldohexose

C Ribose iii Aldotetrose

D Erythrose iv Aldopentose
(1) (A)→(iv),(B)→(i),(C)→(iii),(D)→(ii)
(2) (A)→(iii),(B)→(iv),(C)→(i),(D)→(ii)
(3) (A)→(i),(B)→(ii),(C)→(iii),(D)→(iv)
(4) (A)→(ii),(B)→(i),(C)→(iv),(D)→(iii)

50) Glucose when reduced with HI and red Phosphorus gives

(1) n-hexane
(2) n-heptane
(3) n-pentane
(4) n-octane

51) The rapid interconversion of α−D -glucose and β−D - glucose in solution is known as

(1) Racemization
(2) Asymmetric induction
(3) Functional isomerism
(4) Mutarotation

52) The open chain glucose and fructose have ______ and _____ chiral centers respectively

(1) 4, 4
(2) 4, 3
(3) 3, 3
(4) 3, 4

53) Which one of the following has maximum laevorotatory nature?

(1) D-Glucose
(2) D-Fructose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Both 1 and 2

54) Which of the following is/are non-reducing sugar molecules?

(i) fructose (ii) maltose
(iii) sucrose (iv) lactose

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (iii) only
(4) (i) and (ii)

55) What are the hydrolysis products of sucrose?

(1) Fructose + Fructose

(2) Glucose + Glucose
(3) Glucose + Galactose
(4) Glucose + Fructose

56) Essential amino acid is

(1) Valine
(2) Histidine
(3) Methionine
(4) All of these

57) Which of the following is basic amino acid ?

(1) Lysine
(2) Proline
(3) Alanine
(4) Aspartic acid

58) Amino acids are given in column I and their nature is given in column II. Match the following.

Column I Column II

1 Lysine A Acidic
 2 Glycine B Basic

3 Arginine C Neutral

4 Alanine

5 Aspartic acid
(1) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - B, 4 - C, 5 - A
(2) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - C, 5 - A
(3) 1 - A, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - C, 5 - B
(4) 1 - C, 2 - B, 3 - A, 4 - B, 5 - C

59) In peptide formation, –NH2 group of one molecule condenses with

(1) −COOH group of same molecule

(2) −COOH group of another molecule
(3) −COCl group of another molecule
(4) −NH2 group of another molecule

60) Which among the following is the peptide linkage?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

MATHEMATICS

1) The ellipse and the hyperbola have in common

(1) Centre only

(2) Centre, foci and directrices
(3) centre, foci and vertices
(4) centre and vertices only

2) If the parabola x2 = 4ay passes through the point (2, 1), then the length of the latus rectum is

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 1

3) The eccentricity of the ellipse is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The area of the triangle formed by the lines joining the vertex of the parabola to the
ends of latus rectum is

(1) 20 [Link]
(2) 18 [Link]
(3) 17 [Link]
(4) 19 [Link]

5) The distance between the foci of a hyperbola is 16 and its eccentricity is Its equation is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) The sum of the squares of the eccentricities of the conic and is

(1) 2

(2)

(3)
(4)
7) If P is any point on the ellipse , and S and S' are the foci, then

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 12

8) The locus of a point which moves such that the sum of its distances from two fixed points is a
constant is

(1) A ellipse
(2) A hyperbola
(3) A circle
(4) A parabola

9) The length of latus rectum of the parabola is

(1)

(2) 7
(3) 12

(4)

10) and are the parametric equations of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The eccentric angle of the point lying on is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
12) For the parabola the point P whose focal distance is 17, is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) If the eccentricity of the hyperbola is and is a focal chord of the

hyperbola, then the length of transverse axis is equal to___

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Locus of a point which moves such that its distance from the X-axis is twice its distance from the
line x-y=0 is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) A parabola has the origin as its focus and the line x=2 as the directrix. Then the vertex of the
parabola is at

(1) (0, 2)
(2) (1, 0)
(3) (0, 1)
(4) (2, 0)

16) A hyperbola has its centre at the origin, passes through the point (4,2) and has transverse axis of
length 4 along the x-axis. Then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is :

(1)

(2)
(3) 2

(4)

17) If the line x-1=0 is a directrix of the hyperbola then the hyperbola passes through
the point:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The foci of the ellipse and the hyperbola coincide. Then the value of
b2 is:

(1) 9
(2) 1
(3) 5
(4) 7

19) The locus of the midpoints of the line joining the focus and any point on the parabola is
a parabola with the equation of directrix as

(1) x=0

(2)

(3)
(4)

20) The latus-rectum of the parabola y2 = 5x + 4y +1 is :

(1)

(2) 10
(3) 5

(4)

21) The eccentricities of are a, b, c, d respectively then a + b

+c+d

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) If the equation of a parabola is x2 = 16y, then the length of the latus rectum is ______

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 16

23) The length of the latus-rectum of the parabola :

bx2 – 4ay + dx + e = 0 is :

(1)

(2) 4a

(3)

(4)

24) The length of the latus-rectum of :

3x2 – 4y + 6x – 3 = 0 is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 2
(4) 3

25) The sum of the reciprocals of focal distances of a focal chord PQ of y = 4ax is :

(1)

(2) a
(3) 2a

(4)

26) Which of the following equations represents a parabola opening upward?

(1) x2 = 4ay
(2) x2 = 4ax
(3)
(4)

27) The ends of the latus-rectum of the parabola : x2 + 10x – 16y + 25 = 0 are :

(1) (3, 4), (– 13, 4)

(2) (5, – 8), (–5, 8)
(3) (3, – 4), (13, 4)
(4) (–3, – 4), (13, – 4)
28) The equation of the ellipse whose focus is (1, – 1), the directrix the line x – y – 3 = 0 and
eccentricity 1/2 is:

(1) 7x2 + 2xy + 7y2 – 10x + 10y + 7 = 0

(2) 7x2 + 2xy + 7y2 + 7 = 0
(3) 7x2 + 2xy + 7y2 + 10x – 10y – 7 = 0
(4) None of these

29) The length of the latus-rectum of the ellipse 3x2 + y2 = 12 is :

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 8

(4)

30) If e is the eccentricity of the ellipse (a < b), then :

(1) b2 = a2 (1 – e2)
(2) a2 = b2 (1 – e2)
(3) a2 = b2 (e2 – 1)
(4) b2 = a2 (e2 – 1)

31) The eccentricity of the ellipse :

25x2 + 16y2 – 150x – 175 = 0 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The foci of the ellipse are

(1) (– 2, 1) and (– 2, 6)
(2) (– 1, 2) and (– 1, – 6)
(3) (– 1, – 2) and (– 2, – 1)
(4) (– 1, – 2) and (– 1, – 6)

33) The eccentric angle of the point lying on is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) If the latus-rectum of the ellipse is half the minor axis, then its eccentricity is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

35) If C is the centre and L and L′ are the ends of the latusrectum of the ellipse , then the
area of the triangle CLL' is:

(1) 4.8 sq. units

(2) 9.6 sq. units
(3) 19.6 sq. units
(4) None of these.

36) If (5, 12) and (24, 7) are the foci of a hyperbola passing through the origin, then the eccentricity
of the hyperbola is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If e1 and e2 are eccentricities of two hyperbolas :

, then ;

(1) e1 = e2
(2) e1e2 = 1
(3) e1 = – e2
(4)

38) If the foci of and coincide, then the value of a is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 2
(4) 3

39) The equation of a hyperbola whose asymptotes are 3x ± 5y = 0 and the vertices are (± 5, 0) is :

(1) 3x2 – 5y2 = 0

(2) 5x2 – 3y2 = 25
(3) 25x2 – 9y2 = 225
(4) 9x2 – 25y2 = 225

40) The focus of the parabola is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The equation of the parabola with (–3, 0) as focus and x + 5 = 0 as directrix, is:

(1) x2 = 4(y + 4)
(2) x2 = 4(y – 4)
(3) y2 = 4(x + 4)
(4) y2 = 4(x – 4)

42) PQ is any focal chord of the parabola y2 = 32x. The length of PQ can never be less than -

(1) 8 unit
(2) 16 unit
(3) 32 unit
(4) 48 unit

43) If the line x – 1 = 0 is the directrix of the parabola y2 – kx + 8 = 0 then one of the values of k is :
(1)

(2) 8
(3) 4

(4)

44) The equation of a parabola is

y2 + 8x – 12y + 20 = 0 then -

(1) its vertex is (2, 6)

(2) its focus is (1, 6)
(3) its latus rectum is 4
(4) None

45) The equation of the parabola having focus (3, 0) and directrix x + 3 = 0 is

(1) y2 = 3x
(2) y2 = 6x
(3) y2 = 12x
(4) y2 = 2x

46) The equation of the parabola with focus (0, 0) and directrix x + y = 4 is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

47) The equation of the parabola whose vertex is origin, axis along y-axis and which passes through
the point (4, 2) is

(1) x2 = 8y
(2) x2 + 8y = 0
(3) y2 = x
(4) y2 + x = 0

48) The equation of the parabola whose vertex is , axis is parallel to x-axis and latus rectum 8
is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
49) The equation of the parabola having focus , vertex (3, 1) is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

50) The vertex of the parabola is

(1) (2, 3)
(2) (3, 2)
(3)
(4)

51) The vertex of the parabola is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

52) The focus of the parabola is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

53) The focus of the parabola is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

54) The length of the latus rectum of the parabola is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16
55) The directrix of the parabola is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

56) The equation of the directrix to the parabola is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

57) Axis of the parabola is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

58) The focal distance of the point (9, 6) on the parabola is

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 16

59) The focal distance of the point (18, 27) on the parabola x2 = 12y is

(1) 12
(2) 18
(3) 27
(4) 30

60) If the ordinate of a point on the parabola y2 = 4x is twice the latus rectum, then the point is

(1) (16, 8)
(2)
(3)
(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 3 2 2 4 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 1 3 1 2 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 1 1 2 3 4 3 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 4 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 3 2 1 2 2 2 1 4 2 1 1 2 1 4 3 3 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 4 1 4 1 3 1 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 1 1 4 2 2 2 2
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 4 4 3 3 4 3 1 3 4 3 1
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 4 1 3 3 2 3 4 1 4 2 2 3 4 4 1 1 2 1

MATHEMATICS

Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A. 3 1 1 2 1 1 4 1 4 4 4 2 1 2 2 4 3 4 1 3
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A. 4 4 4 2 1 1 1 1 4 2 4 2 2 1 2 1 4 4 4 1
Q. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 3 1 3 1 1 1 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Giving excess of electrons to it

2)

3)

4)

5)

6)

= 7 N/C

7)

Theoretical

8)

Potential at the centre O of the square due to four equal charges q at four corners

w = ΔU

V= = (–q)Δv

9) P = qd = 2 × 10–8 (C–m)
 for maximum θ = 90° ⇒ sinθ = 1
τ = PE = 10 × 10–3 N–m

10)

11)

12)

13) ⇒ ⇒

14)

Explain : Find the angular velocity of the Earth that would make the apparent weight of
objects at the equator zero.

Concept : Apparent Weight:

Formula : mg' = mg - mω2 R cos2 γ

Calculation : g = 0 (Equator) and mg' = 0

0 = mg - mω2 R (1)

ω=

Answer is option (1).

15) Kepler's law T2 ∝ R3

16)

17) The vectors rp and vp are mutually perpendicular.

18) F = Im
75 = I (2.5)

= 30 N/kg

19) According to COME

20) As ∵ r = 2R ⇒

21) Intensity will be zero inside the spherical shell.

22) F = G(3)(1)
= 4G

23)

24) During path DAB planet is nearer to sun as cmpared to path BCD. Velocity during path
DAB will be more hence time taken will be less.

25)

Loss in PE = gain in KE

26) gp = ⇒ gp =
gp = , wp = mgp = mg = 9N

wp = = 4N

27) g' = , g' =

1+ =3
h = 2R

0 0
28) V = ⇒ V ∝

= , V2 =

29) KE = , PE = ,E=
If r is decreased, k will increase, but PE and E will decrease.

30) G remains constant

31) g' = g – ω2R

32) Fnet = Gmm

33)

34)

⇒
As A1 > A2
∴ t1 > t2
35)

36) g' =

mg' =

37) Satellite moves with constant velocity under zero acceleration i.e. goes tangentially.

38) Gravitational force between the masses are same.

39)

40)

⇒h=R

41)

42)

43)

∴ Grav. potential decreases

44)

45)

46) Ex is slope of V–x graph.

47)

48)

49) The net potential at the point x-along x-axis from the point charge at a point A will be :
Vnet = VA + VB

50)
 ∴

51) We have centripetal force equation q =

so v =

Now, T = = 2πr where k =

52) Explain the Question : Question is asking to identify the correct path of electric field
lines when a metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform external electric field.
Concept : Electrostatics of conductors, Properties of electric field lines
Solution : When a conductor is placed in an external electric field, the free charges within it
redistribute themselves until the electric field inside the conductor becomes zero. This
redistribution causes the electric field lines to become perpendicular to the surface of the
conductor at every point. Inside the conductor, the electric field lines are absent.
Final answer : 1

53) Part of theory.

54) In non uniform electric field. Intensity is more, where the lines are more denser.

55)

Explaining the Question :- Question is asking for the charge appearing on the out surface of
the rightmost plate in the given system.

Concept:- This question is based on charge distribution on parallel plates

Solution :-
Charges on the outer surfaces on outer plates will be net charge/2.

Charge S appears on the outer surface of the rightmost plate is zero.

Final Answer :- Option (4)
56)

57) As per gauss law charge enclosed must be zero but electric field everywhere at the surface
need not be zero.

58)

59) (1) Asking About

The question asks about the nature of the charges q1 and q2 based on the electric field lines,
includir their signs and relative magnitudes.
(2) Concept
Field Lines and Charge:
Electric field lines originate from positive charges and terminate at negative charges.
Field Line Density and Magnitude:
The denser the field lines the stronger the field and the greater the charge magnitude.
(3) Formula
No specific formula is needed, as this is a conceptual problem.
(4) Calculation / Explanation
Signs of Charges:
Since lines originate from q1 and terminate at q2, we conclude that q1 is positive and q2 is
negative.
Magnitude Ratio:
The number of field lines is proportional to the magnitude of the charge.
since more field lines ae associated with q1 than q2, it implies that |q1| > |q2|.
Therefore, the ratio |q2 / q1| is less than 1.
Field Strength:
The electric field is strongest where field lines are densest, which occurs near q1, not midway
between the charges.
Final Answer
q1 is positive and q2 is negative
The magnitude of the ratio |q2/q1| is less than one.
Correct option
Option B : The magnitude of the ratio |q2/q1| is less than one.

60)
CHEMISTRY

61) In case of distillation, the compound comes to vapour state at boiling point which is known
as boiling not evaporation

62) Principle of Chromatography is selective adsorption

63) Absolute alcohol is prepared by Azeotropic distillation

64) sugar juice is concentrated by vacuum distillation

65) Using separating funnel two immiscible liquids can be separated

66) In Lassaigne's test, organic compound is fused with sodium

67)

68) S2−ion in the extracts will give black colour due to formation of PbS

69) This test is used for the presence of sulphur in any compound. When sodium nitroprusside,
react with sulphide ion, (e.g. Na2S) the following reaction takes place

70)

71) Percentage of nitrogen

72) In proteins nitrogen can be estimated by Kjeldahl's method

73) Halogens are estimated by Carius method

74) Percentage of sulphur

75)

76)

77) Cycloheptatrienyl cation is non-benzenoid (because it does not contain a benzene ring ) but
is aromatic.

78)

Electrophilic substitution reaction

79)

80) The following two points are must for a molecule to be aromatic
i) cyclic conjugation
ii) (4n+2)π electrons

81)

Cyclooctatetraene

82) Cyclooctatetraene has 8 π-electrons. It does not follow Huckel's rule and is also not planar
(has tub shaped structure ), therefore , it is non-aromatic.

83) To be aromatic , there are two conditions, which should be fulfilled

i) Molecule should be planar with conjugation
ii) Molecules should contain (4n+2)π electrons
only option 2 contains 6π electrons, so its is aromatic
84)

85)

isopropyl benzene

86)

C6H6Cℓ6

87)

Toluene

88)

Friedel-Crafts reaction

89)

90)

91) Among the given compounds, shows maximum ionic conductivity

92) tetraamminechloronitroplatinum (IV) sulphate can be written as [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)Cl]SO4

93)

94)

95) In d6 (low spin) complex , two electrons get paired up to make two d orbitals empty. The
hybridisation is d2sp3 (octahedral and the complex is low spin complex in the absence of half
filled electrons.

96)

Explanation – The question asks how many unpaired electrons are present in the [Mn(CN)₆]⁴⁻
complex ion.

Concept – (Crystal field theory)

In [Mn(CN)₆]⁴⁻, Mn has a +2 oxidation state (Mn²⁺).

Mn²⁺ has an electronic configuration of [Ar] 3d⁵.

CN⁻ is a strong-field ligand, causing electron pairing.

In strong-field octahedral complexes, d orbitals split into t₂g and eg sets.

The 3d⁵ electrons fill the t₂g orbitals first (dxy² dxz² dyz¹), pairing up.

This leaves one unpaired electron in the dyz orbital.

Therefore, [Mn(CN)₆]⁴⁻ has 1 unpaired electron.

Answer – Option (1)

97) Explanation- The question asks how the d-orbitals split in the presence of ligands.
Concept- (d-orbital split & presence of ligand)
In the presence of ligands, the d-orbitals of a metal ion split into two sets due to the ligand
field. This splitting occurs in an octahedral field:
• The lower energy set is called t2g (comprising dxy, dxz, and dyz).
• The higher energy set is called eg (comprising dx2-y2 and dz2)
Thus, the correct split is
Answer: 3 (t2g, eg).
Final Answer-Option (3)

98)

Question Explanation – The question asks which complex ion has a high-spin d6 electron
configuration.
Concept – High spin d6 e– Configuration.
[CoF6]4− is the only high-spin complex due to the weak-field ligand F–, which allows for a high-
spin d6 configuration.
Final Answer – Option (4) [Co(H2O)6]3+

99)

Question Explanation – The question asks to identify which species is diamagnetic, meaning
all electrons are paired.

Concept – (Magnetic Nature of Complex)

 [Co(C₂O₄)₃]³⁻ is diamagnetism:

A. Co³⁺ has an electron configuration of d⁶ (as Co has an atomic number of 27 and loses 3
electrons).
B. C₂O₄²⁻ (oxalato) is a strong field ligand, which causes pairing of electrons in the Co³⁺ ion.

Final Answer : (3)

100)

101)

102)

103) All the given metal carbonyl exist

104)

Question Explanation – The question asks you to correctly match the coordination compound
in Column I with its corresponding central metal atom in Column II.

Concept –
(i) Chlorophyll : C55​H72​O5​N4​Mg

(ii) Haemoglobin: The central metal atom in haemoglobin is iron (Fe).

(iii) Wilkinson catalyst: RhCl(PPh3​)3​

(iv) Vitamin B12 : The central metal atom in vitamin B12 is cobalt (Co).

Final Answer : (1)

105)

106) Cellulose is the polysaccharide

107) Monosaccharide cannot be hydrolysed into aldose and ketose

108) Example of disaccharide

 109)

110)

111) Spontaneous rapid interconversion of α−D glucose and β−D -glucose in solution is known
as mutarotation.

112) Chiral centers mean asymmetric carbon atoms

113) Naturally occurring Fructose is laevorotatory. its specific rotation is 92.4°

114)

115)

116)

117)

118)

119) α amino acids combines as

Hence −NH2 group of one molecule condenses with −COOH group of another molecules.

120) Peptide linkage is an amide formed between -COOH group of another molecule

MATHEMATICS
121)

122) The given parabola passes through (2, 1)

So, length of latus rectum =4a=4(1)=4

123) Given equation of ellipse is

So,

eccentricity

124) Area of triangle

=2.32=18 sq. units

125) We have, 2ae =16...(i)

and ....(ii)
From (i) and (ii) we have,

Since, It is a rectangular hyperbola

Hence, the equation of hyperbola is
126) The equation of ellipse be

Eccentricity

Equation of hyperbola is

Eccentricity,

Now,

127) 2a (i.e length of major axis) = 2×6(Here a=6)=12

128) Theoretical

129) Given equation of parabola is

130) If

and
The parametric equation implies tjay

and

or

i.e
131)

132) Let the coordinates of point P on the parabola be focus is (1, 0)

So coordinates of point P are (16, 8) or (16, -8)

133) Since co-ordinates of focus (ae, 0)

If .....(i)

is a focal chord of hyperbola, then will pass through equation(i)

So,

Length of transverse axis

134) Let the point be (h, k).

Then, distance from X-axis =|k|

135) vertex of a parabola is the mid point of focus and the point where directrix meets the axis
of the parabola.
Here focus is O(0, 0) and directrix meets the axis at B(2, 0)
 Vertex of the parabola is (1, 0)

136) Let the equation of hyperbola

Given 2a=4

It passes through (4, 2)

137) Given hyperbola:

Eccentricity

Directrices:

As given

Here hyperbola is

Checking the option gives satisfies it.

138)
139)

In the figure let coordinates of P are . Let coordinates of Q are

....(i)

....(ii)

Put in (i)

Equation of dir: x=0

140) y2 – 4y + 4 = 5x + 5
2
⇒ (y – 2) = 5(x + 1).
Put x = X – 1, y = Y + 2, Y2 = 5X.
Compare it with Y2 = 4aX, 4a = 5 ⇒ a = 5/4 .
Length of latus-rectum = 4a = 5
141)

All given curves are parabola's with eccentricity is 1.

142)

4a = 16

143)

144) The given parabola is 3x2 – 4y + 6x – 3 = 0

⇒ 3x2 + 6x + 3 – 4y – 6 = 0

⇒ Length of latus-rectum

145)

146) x2 = 4ay

147) The given parabola is :

x2 + 10x – 16y + 25 = 0.
⇒ (x2 + 10x + 25) = 16y ⇒ (x + 5)2 = 16y.
If x + 5 = X, y = Y, then X2 = 16Y.
Here 4a = 16 ⇒ a = 4.
Ends of latus-rectum are (–2a, a) and (2a, a)
i.e. (–8, 4) and (8, 4).
Now x + 5 = ± 8
⇒ x = 3 or – 13 and y = 4.
Hence, the ends of latus-rectum are (3, 4), (– 13, 4)

148) The equation of the ellipse is :

⇒ 8 [x2 – 2x + 1 + y2 + 2y + 1] = x2 + y2 + 9 – 2xy + 6y – 6x
⇒7x2 + 7y2 + 2xy – 10x + 10y + 7 = 0.
149) The given ellipse is
Here a2 = 12 and b2 = 4.

∴ Latus-rectum

150) The given ellipse is

∴ e, the eccentricity =

151) 25x2 + 16y2 – 150x – 175 = 0

⇒ 25 (x2 – 6x) + 16y2 = 175
⇒ 25 (x2 – 6x + 9) + 16y2 = 175 + 225
⇒ 25 (x – 3)2 + 16y2 = 400

Putting x – 3 = X and y = Y, we get :

∴ b2 = a2 (1 – e2)
⇒ 16 = 25 (1 – e2) ⇒ 1 – e2 = 16/25

152) The given ellipse is

Shifting the origin, x + 1 = X, y + 2 = Y, we get :

Here a = 5, b = 3.
∴ b2 = a2 (1 – e2) gives : 9 = 25 (1 – e2)

[∵ e > 0]
∴ Foci are (0, ae) and (0, – ae)
i.e. (0, 4), (0, – 4).
Shifting back, (0 – 1, 4 – 2) and (0 – 1, – 4 – 2)
i.e. (– 1, 2) and (– 1, – 6).

153) Here a2 = 16, b2 = 4 ⇒ a = 4, b = 2.

∴ a cos θ = 2 and b sin θ =
⇒ 4 cos θ = 2 and 2 sin θ =
Hence, eccentric angle, θ

154) Here
⇒ 4b2 = a2 ⇒ 4a2 (1 – e2 ) = a2
⇒ 4(1 – e2) = 1 ⇒ 4e2 = 3

155)

156)

157)

158)

159) Asymptotes are given by :

(3x + 5y) (3x – 5y) = 0
i.e. 9x2 – 25y2 = 0.
∴ The equation of the hyperbola will be of the form :
9x2 – 25y2 = λ ...(1)
Its vertices are (± 5, 0).
∴ 9(25) – 25(0)= λ ⇒ λ = 25
Putting in (1), 9x2 – 25y2 = 225,
which is the reqd. equation of the hyperbola

160)

161) Directix x + 5 = 0
Focus is (–3, 0)
By locus SP = PM
Let P(h, K)
(h + 3)2 + K2 =
⇒ h2 + 6h + 9 + K2 = h2 + 10h + 25
⇒ K2 = 4h + 16
req. Eqn. is y2 = 4x + 16

162) Minimum length of focal chord = latus rectum = 4 a = 32

163) Parabola is y2 = k
or Y2 = 4AX where 4A = K

Y = y, X = x –
its directrix is X = – A

or x =
compare with x = 1

we get 1 =

164) Given parabola is (y – 6)2 = – 8 (x – 2)

Compare it with Y2 = – 4AX
⇒ vertex is (2, 6), focus is (0, 6)
and L.R. = 8

165) Focus S = (3, 0) and directrix is x + 3 = 0. Let P(x, y) be any point on the parabola.
Equation of the parabola is

166) Equation of the parabola is

167) Let the equation of the parabola by x2 = 4ay

If it passes through (4, 2) then

Parabola is

168) Vertex
Equation of parabola is
169)
Axis is parallel to x-axis and a = SA = 3
Equation of parabola is

170)

171)

Vertex

172)

173)

,
Focus

174)

Length of the latus rectum = 8

175)
Equation of directrix is

176) Equation of the parabola is

Equation of the directrix is

177) Equation of the parabola is

Vertex and axis is parallel to y-axis

Equation of the axis is x = 3.

178)
Focus
Focal distance

179)
Focus = S = (0, a) = (0, 3), P(18, 27)

Focal distance

180)
Latus rectum = 4