07-07-2024

3010CMD303003240003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is NOT a fundamental quantity?

(1) Temperature
(2) Electric charge
(3) Mass
(4) Electric current

2)

In the SI system, the unit of temperature is :-

(1) Degree centrigrade

(2) Degree Celsius
(3) Kelvin
(4) Degree Fahrenheit

3) If the unit of length and force be increased four times, then the unit of energy is :-

(1) Increased to 4 times

(2) Increased to 8 times
(3) Increased to 16 times
(4) decreased to 16 times

4) Match the type of unit (Column A) with its corresponding example (Column B):

Column-A Column-B
(a) Base unit (i) N
(b) Derived SI unit (ii) hp
(c) Improper unit (iii) rad
(d) Practical unit (iv) kg-wt
(e) Supplementary unit (v) kg
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v), (e)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(v)
(4) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(ii)

5) If energy(E), velocity(V) and time(T) are considered as fundamental quantities then dimension of
mass will be :-
 0
(1) [E V–2 T ]
0
(2) [E2 V–2 T ]
(3) [E V2 T]
(4) [E–1 V2 T1]

6) [MLT–1] are the dimensions of–

(1) power
(2) momentum
(3) force
(4) mass

7) The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g/cm3 . In a system of units in which unit of
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be :-

(1) 0.04
(2) 0.4
(3) 40
(4) 400

8) A force F is given by F = at + bt2, where 't' is time then dimensional formula of a and b are:-

(1) [MLT–3] and [MLT–4]

(2) [MLT–4] and [ML2T–3]
(3) [MLT–1] and [MLT–2]
0
(4) [MLT–2] and [MLT ]

9) A dimensionless quantity–

(1) never has a unit

(2) always has a unit
(3) may have a unit
(4) does not exist

10) According to the quantum theory, the energy E of a photon of frequency n is given by E = hn
where h is Planck’s constant. What is the dimensional formula for h?

(1) M L2 T–2
(2) M L2 T–1
(3) M L2 T
(4) M L2 T2

11)

In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage errors 1%, 2%, 3% and
4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows P = , percentage error in P is :-

(1) 4%
(2) 14%
(3) 10%
(4) 7%

12) The least count of a stop watch is . The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured as
25s. The percentage error in the measurement of time will be :-

(1) 0.1%
(2) 0.8%
(3) 1.8%
(4) 8%

13) Percentage error in measuring the radius and mass of a solid sphere are 1% and 2%
respectively. The error in measurement of density :-

(1) 9%
(2) 6%
(3) 5%
(4) 4%

14) The frequency (n) of vibration of a string is given as , where T is tension force and ℓ
is the length of vibrating string. Then, the dimensional formula for m is

0
(1) [M L1T1]
0 0 0
(2) [M L T ]
0
(3) [M1L–1T ]
0 0
(4) [M1L T ]

15) If the force F = MpVqRr, where F is the force, M is the mass, V is the velocity and R is the radius;
then find out the value of p, q and r, respectively.

(1) –1, 2, –1
(2) –1, –2, 1
(3) 1, 2, –1
(4) –1, 1, 2

16) Two quantities A and B have different dimensions. Which mathematical operation given below is
physically meaningful ?

(1) A/B
(2) A + B
(3) A – B
(4) None

17) The dimensional formula for kinetic energy is :-

(1) [M2L2T]
(2) [ML2T–2]
0
(3) [M L–1]
(4) [ML2T]

18) The resistance is where V = (100 ± 5) volt and i = (10 ± 0.2) ampere. What is the total
error in R ?

(1) 5 %
(2) 7 %
(3) 5.2 %

(4)
%

19)

The equation of the stationary wave is :

Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) The unit of ct is same as that of λ
(2) The unit of x is same as that of λ
(3) The unit of 2πc/λ is same as that of 2πx/λt
(4) The unit of c/λ is same as that of x/λ

20) One nanometre is equal to :-

(1) 109 mm
(2) 10–6 cm
(3) 10–7 cm
(4) 10–9 cm

21) If L = 2.331 cm, B = 2.1 cm then L + B =

(1) 4.431 cm
(2) 4.43 cm
(3) 4.4 cm
(4) 4 cm
22) The velocity 'v' of a particle at time t is given by, . The dimensions of a, b, c are
respectively -

(1) LT–2, L, T
(2) L, L, T2
(3) L, LT, T–2
(4) L, L, LT2

23) Given P = 0.0030, Q = 2.40 and R = 3000, the number of significant figures in P, Q and R are
respectively :-

(1) 2, 3, 1
(2) 2, 3, 4
(3) 4, 2, 1
(4) 4, 2, 4

24) The equation of state of some gases can be expressed as . Here P is the
pressure, V is the volume, T is the absolute temperature and a, b, R are constants. The dimensions of
' a' are

(1) ML5T–2
(2) ML–1T–2
0 0
(3) M L3T
0 0
(4) M L6T

25) Two resistors of resistance R1 = (300 ± 3) Ω and R2 = (500 ± 4) Ω

are connected in series. The equivalent resistance of the series combination is :

(1) (800 ± 1) Ω
(2) (800 ± 7) Ω
(3) (200 ± 1) Ω
(4) (200 ± 1) Ω

26) If the error in the measurement of the volume of a sphere is 6%, then the error in the
measurement of its surface area will be

(1) 2%
(2) 3%
(3) 4%
(4) 7.5%

27) If force = then dimensions of are

(1) M1/3L–1
(2) M2L2T–2
(3) M2/3T–1
(4) can't be determined

28)

The dimensions of physical quantity denoted by :-

is same as :-
(1) Force
(2) Momentum
(3) Work
(4) Angle

29) The length, breadth and thickness of a block are given by l = 12 cm, b = 6 cm and t = 2.45 cm.
The volume of the block according to the idea of significant figures should be :

(1) 1 × 102 cm3

(2) 2 × 102 cm3
(3) 1.763 × 102 cm3
(4) none of these

30)

Relation between MKS and CGS units of pressure using dimensional analysis is = ______ .

(1) 0.1
(2) 10
(3) 100
(4) 100000

31) It is known that the time of revolution T of a satellite around the earth depends on the universal
gravitational constant G, the mass of the earth M, and the radius of the circular orbit R. Obtain an
expression for T using dimensional analysis.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

32) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Absolute error is unitless and dimensionless.
Statement II : All types of errors are unitless and dimensionless.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements I and statements II are incorrect.

33) Which of the following is not a unit of time ?

(1) Microsecond
(2) Leap year
(3) Lunar month
(4) Light year

34) Which of the following physical quantities has neither dimensions nor unit ?

(1) Angle
(2) Luminous intensity
(3) Coefficient of friction
(4) Electric current

35) If energy (E), velocity (v) and force (F), be taken as fundamental quantities, then what are
the dimensions of mass :-

(1) EV2
(2) EV–2
(3) FV–1
(4) FV–2

SECTION-B

1) The numbers 3.845 and 3.835 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give :

(1) 3.85 and 3.84

(2) 3.84 and 3.83
(3) 3.85 and 3.83
(4) 3.84 and 3.84

2) The mean length of an object is 5 cm. Which of the following measurements is most accurate ?
(1) 4.9 cm
(2) 4.805 cm
(3) 5.25 cm
(4) 5.4 cm

3) Choose the correct statement(s) :

(1) A dimensionally correct equation must be correct

(2) A dimensionally correct equation may be correct
(3) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be correct
(4) (1) & (2) Both

4) If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are taken to be fundamental quantities, then find the
dimensional formula of density :-

(1) FT2L
(2) F–1T2L–2
(3) FT–2L–4
(4) FT2L–4

5) In a particular system, the units of length, mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10g and 0.1 s
respectively. The value of 10N force in this system will be equivalent to :-

(1) 0.1 unit

(2) 1 unit
(3) 10 unit
(4) 100 unit

6) From the point of view of significant figures which of the following statements are correct?
(i) 10.2 cm + 8 cm = 18.2 cm
(ii) 2.53 m – 1.2 m = 1.33 m
(iii) 3.6 m/1.75sec = 2.1 m/s (iv) 4.2 m × 1.4 m = 5.88 m2

(1) (i) & (iv) only

(2) (ii) & (iii) only
(3) (iv) only
(4) (iii) only

7) What is the fractional error in g calculated from ? Given that fractional errors in T
and ℓ are ±x and ±y respectively.

(1) x + y
(2) x – y
(3) 2x + y
(4) 2x – y
8) The random error in the arithmetic mean of 100 observations is x, then random error in the
arithmetic mean of 400 observations would be

(1) 4x

(2)

(3) 2x

(4)

9) A cylindrical wire has mass (0.3 + 0.003)g, radius = (0.5 + 0.005)mm and length (6 + 0.06)cm.
The maximum percentage error in density is

(1) 3%
(2) 4%
(3) 1%
(4) 2%

10) If E, m, L and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant

respectively, the quantity has the dimensions of :- (dimensions of angular momentum =

ML2T–1)

(1) Mass
(2) Length
(3) Time
(4) Angle

11) If A,B and C are physical quantities, having different dimensions, which of the following

combinations can never be a meaningful quantity ? (i) (ii)

(iii) AB–C2 (iv) (A–B)C

(1) (iii, iv)

(2) (i, ii)
(3) (ii, iv)
(4) (ii, iii)

12) Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m ?

(1) 9.9 m
(2) 9.9801 m
(3) 9.98 m
(4) 9.980 m

13) If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find
the dimensions of energy.
(1) [F] [A] [T]
(2) [F] [A] [T2]
(3) [F] [A] [T –1]
(4) [F] [A–1] [T]

14) Plane angle and solid angle have :

(1) Dimensions but no units

(2) No units and no dimensions
(3) Both units and dimensions
(4) Units but no dimensions

15) Time intervals measured by a clock give the following readings :

1.25 s, 1.24 s, 1.27 s, 1.21 s and 1.28 s.
What is the percentage relative error of the observations?

(1) 2 %
(2) 4 %
(3) 16 %
(4) 1.6 %

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Mass of CaO produced on decomposition of 60 g limestone (CaCO3) will be :-

(1) 40 g
(2) 43.7 g
(3) 29.5 g
(4) 33.6 g

2) 4g C and 4g O2 are reacted to produce CO2. Maximum moles of CO2 produced are :-

(1) 8 mol
(2) 1/8 mol
(3) 4 mol
(4) 1/4 mol

3) An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur in it. Its emperial formula is -

(1) SO2
(2) SO3
(3) SO
(4) S2O

4) The volume of air required in litre to burn 8L of C2H2 is:

(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 80
(4) 100

5)

Calculate the amount of H2 which is left unreacted in the given reaction :

2H2 + O2 —→ 2H2O If 8 g of H2 is mixed with 16 g O2 ?

(1) 3 g
(2) 6 g
(3) 1 g
(4) 4 g

6)

10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion give 40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of H2O (vap.). The

hydrocarbon is -

(1) C4H5
(2) C8H10
(3) C4H8
(4) C4H10

7) aMg3N2 + bH2O → cMg(OH)2 + dNH3. When the equation is balanced, the coefficients a, b, c, d
respectively are -

(1) 1, 3, 3, 2
(2) 1, 6, 3, 2
(3) 1, 2, 3, 2
(4) 2, 3, 6, 2

8) In the reaction
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(l)
When 1 mole of ammnonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion,

(1) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced

(2) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
(3) all the oxygen will be consumed
(4) all the ammonia will be consumed

9) How many moles of methane are required to produce 22 g CO2 (g) after combustion :
(1) 0.5 mol
(2) 1 mol
(3) 1.5 mol
(4) 2 mol

10) Find out the empirical formula of a compound that contains 72% A, 4% B and rest C ?
[Given : Atomic weight of A = 24
Atomic weight of B = 2
Atomic weight of C = 12 ]

(1) A2 B2 C2
(2) A B2 C2
(3) A3 B2 C2
(4) A2 B C

11) 8gm of NaOH is dissolved in one litre of solution, the molarity of the solution is: ([Link] of Na =
23, O = 16, H = 1)

(1) 0.2 M
(2) 0.02 M
(3) 0.4 M
(4) 0.8 M

12) Mole fraction of ethanol in ethanol-water mixture is 0.25. Hence, percentage concentration of
ethanol (C2H6O) by weight of mixture is :-

(1) 25
(2) 75
(3) 46
(4) 54

13) Out of Molarity (M), molality (m), and mole fraction (x), those independent of temperature are

(1) M, m
(2) M, x
(3) m, x
(4) All of these

14) If 5.85 g of NaCl are dissolved in 90 g of water, The mole fraction of NaCl-

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.019

15) What mass of water is obtained when 4 g H2 and 4 g O2 is reacted with each other
(1) 0.5 g
(2) 3.5 g
(3) 4.5 g
(4) 2.5 g

16) 20 g sugar (C12H22O11) is dissolved in 2 lit solution, then molarity of solution would be :-
(M. wt. = 342 g)

(1) 0.029 M
(2) 0.29 M
(3) 2.9 M
(4) 3.02 M

17) Find the empirical formula of a hydrocarbon which contain 6.022 × 1023 atom of C and 4 × 6.022
× 1023 atom of H.

(1) CH4
(2) C2H6
(3) C3H8
(4) C4H10

18) A sample of ammonium phoshate (NH4)3PO4 contains 3.18 mol of H atoms. The number of mol of
O atoms in the sample is :

(1) 0.265
(2) 0.795
(3) 1.06
(4) 3.18

19) Molarity of 4% W/V NaOH would be :-

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 0.5 M
(3) 0.01 M
(4) 1 M

20) 1000 g aqueous solution of CaCO3 contains 10 g of calcium carbonate. Concentration of solution
is-

(1) 10 ppm
(2) 100 ppm
(3) 1000 ppm
(4) 10000 ppm

21) 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 200 mL of its solution. The concentration of urea
solution is :-
(1) 0.001 M
(2) 0.01 M
(3) 0.005 M
(4) 0.10 M

22)

The strength of 10–2 M Na2CO3 solution in terms of molality will be (density of the solution = 1.10
gml–1)
([Link] Na2CO3 = 106)

(1) 9 × 10–3
(2) 1.15 × 10–2
(3) 5.1 × 10–3
(4) 11.2 × 10–3

23) What is mole fraction of a solute in its aqueous solution having molality 1 ?

(1) 1
(2) 1.8

(3)

(4)

24) Out of internal energy (I), boiling point (II), pH (III) and molar heat capacity (IV) intensive
properties are :

(1) I, II
(2) II, III, IV
(3) II, III
(4) III, IV

25) In which of the following pairs, both properties are intensive ?

(1) Pressure, temperature

(2) Density, volume
(3) Temperature, volume
(4) Pressure, volume

26) Sum of all kind of energies are known as

(1) Entropy
(2) Enthalpy
(3) Internal Energy
(4) Change in internal energy
27) A system is provided with 50 Joules of heat and the work done on the system is 10 Joules. What
is the change in internal energy of the system in Joules ?

(1) 60
(2) 40
(3) 50
(4) 10

28) For adiabatic process which of the following is true :

(1) ΔE = q
(2) ΔE = w
(3) –q = w
(4) q = w

29) A well stoppered thermos flask containing some ice cubes is an example of

(1) Closed system

(2) Open system
(3) Isolated system
(4) None of these

30) System can be closed if it can

(1) exchange heat and matter with surrounings

(2) exchange heat but not the matter with surroundings
(3) neither exchange heat nor matter with surroundings
(4) None of the above

31) Select the incorrect statement among the following

(1) System and surrounding constitute the universe together

(2) System and surrounding are separated by some sort of wall which may be real or imaginary
In closed system exchange of heat is possible but exchange of work is not possible with
(3)
surrounding
(4) Exchange of matter and energy is not possible between system & surrounding in closed system

32) For which system law of thermodynamic are valid

(1) Microscopic system

(2) Macroscopic system
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) For any type of system

33) Thermodynamics is based on

(1) Initial and final state of a system

(2) Rate of energy transferred
(3) On Path which it follows
(4) Extent of chemical reaction

34) An adiabatic process occurs in

(1) Open system

(2) Closed system
(3) Isolated system
(4) All of these

35) Thermodynamics is not concerned about

(1) Energy changes involved in a chemical reaction

(2) The extent to which a chemical reaction proceeds
(3) The rate at which reaction proceeds
(4) The feasibility of a chemical reaction

SECTION-B

1) 23 g sodium metal reacts with water. Calculate the (a) volume of H2 liberated at NTP, (b) moles of
H2 liberated, (c) weight of H2 liberated.

(1) 22.4 L, 1 mol, 2g

(2) 11.2 L, 1/2 mol, 1g
(3) 44.8 L, 2 mol, 4g
(4) None of the above

2) A compound contains 4.07% hydrogen, 24.27% carbon and 71.65% chlorine. Its molar mass is 99
g. What is its molecular formula :

(1) CH2Cl
(2) C2H4Cl2
(3) C2H2Cl
(4) CH2Cl

3) The volume in litres of CO2 libreated at STP when 10 gm of 80% pure limestone is heated
completely is :-

(1) 22.4 litres

(2) 2.24 litres
(3) 20.16 litres
(4) 1.8 litres
4) Assertion : The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason : The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms present
in a compound.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will
be
(i) HCOOH CO + H2O
Formic acid (H2O absorbed by H2SO4)
(ii) H2C2O4 CO + CO2 + H2O
Oxalic acid (H2O absorbed by H2SO4)
(iii) CO2 is absorbed by KOH

(1) 1.4
(2) 3.0
(3) 2.8
(4) 4.4

6) 0.01 mole of iodoform (CHI3) reacts with Ag to produce a gas whose volume at NTP is
2CHI3 + 6Ag → C2H2 + 6Ag I(s)

(1) 224 mL
(2) 112 mL
(3) 336 mL
(4) None of these

7) For a gaseous reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
If 20 mL of N2(g) reacts with 60 mL H2(g) then find out volume of produced NH3(g) :-

(1) 40 mL
(2) 60 mL
(3) 20 mL
(4) 90 mL

8) For the reaction 2P + Q → R, 10 mol of P and excess of Q will produce :

(1) 8 mol of R
(2) 5 mol of R
(3) 4 mol of R
(4) 13 mol of R
9)

BaCl2 + Na3PO4 → Ba3(PO4)2 + NaCl

Maximum amount of Ba3(PO4)2 formed when 2 mol each of Na3PO4 and BaCl2 react is :-
(1) 4 mol
(2) 1 mol

(3)

(4)

10) How many moles of solute are there in 500 mL of its 0.1 M aqueous solution ? :-

(1) 0.5 mol

(2) 0.05 mol
(3) 5 mol
(4) 0.2 mol

11) The molarity of a 24.5% solution (by weight) of sulphuric acid (Density = 2 gm cm–3) is :-

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 20
(4) 0.5

12) An ideal gas expands against a constant external pressure of 2.0 atmosphere from 20 litre to 40
litre and absorbs 10 kJ of heat from surrounding. What is the change in internal energy of the
system?
(given : 1 atm-litre = 101.3 J)

(1) 4052 J
(2) 5948 J
(3) 14052 J
(4) 9940 J

13) The temperature of the system decreases in an

(1) Adiabatic compression

(2) Isothermal compression
(3) Isothermal expansion
(4) Adiabatic expansion

14) Consider the following statements and select the correct option
Statement-I : The laws of thermodynamics deal with energy changes of microscopic systems
involving a few number of molecules rather than macroscopic systems containing a large number of
molecules.
Statement-II : Laws of thermodynamics apply only when a system is in equilibrium or moves from
one equilibrium state to another equilibrium state.

(1) Statement- I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement- I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

15)

Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) The presence of reacting species in a covered beaker is an example of open system
There is an exchange of energy as well as matter between the system and surrounding in a
(2)
closed system
(3) The presence of reactant in a closed vessel made up of copper is an example of a closed system
The presence of reactants in a thermos flask or any other closed insulated vessel is an example
(4)
of a closed system

BOTANY-1

SECTION-A

1) The best stage to observe shape of chromosomes is :-

(1) Metaphase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Interphase
(4) Prophase or telophase

2)

Match the column :-

Column I Column II
Spindle fibres get connected to the
A Prophase i
kinetochores
Initiation of condensation of
B Metaphase ii chromosomal material
(Chromatin)
Centromeres of chromosomes lie
C Anaphase iii towards pole while arms trail
behind
Nucleolus, Golgi body and ER
D Telophase iv
reform
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

3) Select the correct statements regarding s-phase of interphase :-

(I) Occurs between G1 and G2
(II) DNA replication begins
(III) Centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm of animal cell.

(1) Only I and II

(2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III
(4) I, II and III all

4) Assertion :- M phase is most dramatic period of the cell cycle, involving a major reorganisation
of virtually all components of the cell.
Reason :- For convenience, mitosis has been divided into four stages cytoplasmic division.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Which stage of cell cycle is marked by initiation of condensation of chromatin ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) G2–phase
(4) S–phase

6) Identify figure a and b respectively and choose the correct match :

(1) Prophase, Metaphase

(2) Prophase-I, Metaphase-II
(3) Metaphase-I, Metaphase-II
(4) Metaphase-II, Metaphase-I

7) Meiosis-I results in formation of ______ of cells with ________ of chromosomes in each cell as
compare to mother cell.

(1) Tetrad, half number

(2) Diad, half number
(3) Tetrad, same number
(4) Diad, double number

8) Assertion : Crossing over take place during pachytene stage.

Reason : It is a process of interchange between non sister chromatid of homologous chromosomes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False statements

9) Which statement is not true?

(1) Growth of multicellular organisms occurs by mitosis.

(2) In meiosis nuclear division occurs twice but DNA Replication only once.
(3) In Animals, meiosis occurs in diploid cell.
(4) All four cells produced by meiosis are similar.

10) Read the following events: (A) Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs.

(B) Chromosomes are fully condensed.
(C) Meiotic spindle is assembled.
(D) By the end, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear. The above events indicate that it is:

(1) Zygotene stage

(2) Diakinesis stage
(3) Metaphase II stage
(4) Pachytene stage

11) The cells that do not divide further, exit G1 phase to enter an inactive stage called_____of the cell
cycle :-

(1) M Stage
(2) G2 Stage
(3) S Stage
(4) G0 stage

12) Read the following terms :-

(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) Division of centromere
(e) Nuclear membrane disappear
Which term are related to prophase-I ?

(1) a, b, c, d and e
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) a, b, d and e
(4) a, b, c and e
13) Which of the following statements is not correct about telophase ?
(A) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform
(B) Centromeres split
(C) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes

(1) A,B
(2) A,B,C
(3) A,C
(4) B,C

14) Proper sequence of stages in prophase I are :-

(1) Zygotene, Leptotene, Pachytene, Diakinesis and Diplotene

(2) Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakinesis
(3) Leptotene, Pachytene, Zygotene, Diakinesis and Diplotene
(4) Diplotene, Diakinesis, Pachytene, Zygotene and Leptotene

15) If a cell has 20pg DNA in G1 stage, what will be the amount of DNA in G2 stage?

(1) 20 pg
(2) 10 pg
(3) 40 pg
(4) 60 pg

16) During poleward movement of chromosomes in anaphase, centromere of each daughter

chromosome facing towards -

(1) Pole
(2) Equatorial plate
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum of cell
(4) It is random , sometimes towards pole and sometimes towards equatorial plate

17) Assertion (A) : Cytokinesis in plant cell occur by cell plate formation method.
Reason (R) : Cytokinesis in animal cells occur by the formation of cell furrow.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Mitosis occurs in :-

(1) Haploid individuals

(2) Diploid individuals
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) In bacteria only
19) Assertion: Centromere splits and chromatids separates during anaphase.
Reason: Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters during telophase.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

20) Identify the mismatched pair with respect to phases of prophase-I

(1) Zygotene – Synapsis of homologous chromosome

(2) Pachytene – Recombination nodule formation
(3) Diakinesis – Can last for months or years in oocyte of some vertebrate
(4) Diplotene – Chiasmata distinct

21) Which of the following is not a significance of mitosis

(1) Growth of multicellular organism

(2) Constant replacement of cells of upper layer of the epidermis
(3) Reduction in chromosome number in daughter cell
(4) Continous growth of plant throughout life

22) (a) X-shaped structures

(b) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(c) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(d) Exchange of genetic material
What is the correct sequence of above features of prophase-I of meiosis-I ?

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (c), (d), (a), (b)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(4) (b), (c), (d), (a)

23) What is not true about cell cycle ?

(1) Crossing over occurs between the non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(2) During S phase there is active synthesis of RNA and protein but no change in its DNA content
(3) Interkinesis is generally short lived
(4) Homologous chromosomes move to respective poles in Anaphase-I

24) In animal cells, during the S-phase, DNA replication begins in the A and the centriole
duplicates in the B .
Select the correct option with respect to A and B.

(1) A-Nucleus, B-Chloroplast

(2) A-Cytoplasm, B-Nucleus
(3) A-Nucleus, B-Cytoplasm
(4) A-Cytoplasm, B-Mitochondria

25) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct answer :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Diplotene (i) Crossing over

Terminalisation
B. Zygotene (ii)
of chiasmata

Synaptonemal
C. Diakinesis (iii)
complex formation

Synaptonemal
D. Pachytene (iv)
complex dissolution
(1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

26) Which of the following is/are correct with respect to reduction division ?
(A) Diakinesis is marked by appearance of chiasmata
(B) Duplication of centroiles occurs in anaphase-I
(C) Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exhibit crossing over
(D) Interkinesis is short lived phase which is followed by prophase-II, a much simpler phase than
prophase-I

(1) A, B
(2) B, D
(3) A, C
(4) Only D

27) Read the following statements –

Statement-I : Bivalent or tetrad are clearly visible in zygotene.
Statement-II : Zygotene is also known as bouquet stage.
Select the correct option :–

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

28) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) In animals cytokinesis occurs by constriction and furrow formation

(2) In cell plate golgi vesicles secret calcium and magnesium pectate
In plants, cytokinesis occurs in centripetal order (cell plate formation is from periphery to
(3)
center)
(4) Cytokinesis in plants takes place by cell plate formation

29) In metaphase each Chromosome contains –

(1) Two Chromatids, 2 kinetochore

(2) Two Chromatid, 1 kinetochore
(3) One Chromatid, 1 kinetochore
(4) One Chromatid, 2 kinetochore

30) Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Meiosis produces 2 genetically different cells.
(B) Meiosis involve pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them
(C) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis - I.
(D) Meiosis occurs in reproductive cells

(1) A, B and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) C and D
(4) B and D

31) Identify A,B,C and D in the given diagram depicting cell cycle and select the correct option:-

A B C D

(1) G0 G1 S G2

(2) G1 S G2 M

(3) G1 G0 S M

(4) S G0 G1 G2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
32) The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelop marks the start of :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophase

33) Interphase is divided in to :-

(1) G1 S and G2 G0
(2) G1 S and G2 phase
(3) M-phase, G1, S, G2
(4) S, G2 M-phase

34) In human cell how many chromosome present in mitotic metaphase plate?

(1) 23
(2) 46
(3) 22
(4) 44

35) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence ?

A–Terminalisation of chiasmata
B–Crossing over
C–Synapsis
D–Disjunction of chromosomes
E–Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
The correct sequence is :-

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → E
(3) C → B → D → E → A
(4) C → B → E → A → D

SECTION-B

1) Arrange the following events of meiotic cell division diagram in correct order :-

(1) B → D → A → C
(2) B → A → D → C
(3) B → A → C → D
(4) A → C → B → D

2)

During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase formed during :-

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Prophase-II
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Anaphase-II

3) The stage which is characterised by the appearance of recombination nodule is :

(1) Leptotene
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Zygotene
(4) Pachytene

4) "X-shaped structures" appear during which phase of meiotic division ?

(1) Prophase I
(2) Metaphase I
(3) Anaphase II
(4) Telophase I

5) Crossing over occurs during :-

(1) Pachytene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Zygotene

6) Cell plate in plant cell during cytokinesis represents.

(1) Primary cell wall

(2) Secondary cell wall
(3) Middle lamella
(4) Cell membrane

7) A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of ______________

(1) Two chromatids and one centromere

(2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres.

8) Which of the following events listed below is not observed during mitosis ?

(1) Chromatin condensation

(2) Appearance of Recombination nodule
(3) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids joined together at the centromere
(4) Movements of centrioles to opposite pole

9) Suspended diplotene is observed in –

(1) Cells of salivary glands of Drosophilla

(2) Oocytes of vertebrates
(3) Human Cheak cell
(4) Nerve cell

10) Which of the following phase is represented by the below given diagram?

(1) Metaphase
(2) Transition to Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

11) Synoptonemal complex is more conspicucus at .........

(1) Zygotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Leptotene

12) Plants can show mitotic division in -

(1) Haploid cells only

(2) Diploid cells only
(3) Both diploid and haploid cells
(4) Only in meristematic cells

13) Select correct statement :-

(1) Crossing over occurs between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

(2) Recombination is completed by the end of Diplotene
(3) In oocytes of some vertebrates, diakinesis can last for months or years
(4) Separation of homologous chromosomes (=Disjunction) occurs during Anaphase–I

14) Leaf base is modified for storing food in

(1) Onion
(2) Carrot
(3) Dahlia
(4) Pea

15) Leaf venatian found in .................. part of leaf

(1) Leaf base

(2) Lamina
(3) Petiole
(4) Mangin

BOTANY-2

SECTION-A

1) Most advanced type of inflorescence is:-

(1) Corymb
(2) Capitulum
(3) Spadix
(4) Catkin

2) A leaf without petiole is called as :-

(1) Petiolate
(2) Sessile
(3) Stipulate
(4) None of these

3) Which is example of insectivorous plant

(1) China rose

(2) Pea
(3) Nepenthes
(4) Turnip

4) Sheathing leaf base is found in .............

(1) Monocot l eaf

(2) Dicot leaf
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Dicot root

5) Which of the following modification of root is odd among the others ?

(1) Asparagus
(2) Radish
(3) Carrot
(4) Turnip

6) The leaves of Nepenthes plant are modified into:-

(1) Hooks
(2) Tendrils
(3) bladders
(4) Pitchers

7) In turmeric, stem is a :-

(1) Tuber
(2) Bulb
(3) Rhizome
(4) Corm

8) Pinnate, compound leaves with reticulate venation are present in

(1) Neem
(2) Mango
(3) Alstonia
(4) Silk cotton

9) Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the

(1) connective
(2) placenta
(3) thalamus or petal
(4) anther

10) Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into the flat, green
and succulent structure?

(1) Opuntia
(2) Neem
(3) Hydnilla
(4) Acacia
11) Vegetative propagation in Jasmine occurs by ______

(1) Offset
(2) Rhizome
(3) Stolon
(4) Runner

12) What is the eye of potato?

(1) Axillary bud

(2) Accessory bud
(3) Adventitious bud
(4) Apical bud

13) Stem tendril is found in :-

(1) Grapevine
(2) Sweet pea
(3) Pitcher plant
(4) Neem

14) Which of the following statement is correct :-

(1) Pneumatophore is found in Rhizophora

(2) Axillary bud is found in the axil of leaflet
(3) Reticulate venation is found in most of the monocots
(4) In cymose inflorescence, the main axis continues to grow

15) Select the incorrect pair ?

(1) Runner – Cynodon

(2) Offset – Pistia
(3) Stolon – Banana
(4) Sucker – Chrysanthemum

16)

Stilt roots occur in :-

(1) Groundnut
(2) Rice
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Wheat

17) Which is not a modification of stem?

(1) Corm of Colocasia

(2) Rhizome of ginger
(3) Pneumatophore of Rhizophora
(4) Tuber of potato

18) Select correctly match pair :-

(1) Phylloclade - Australian acacia

(2) Cladode - Ruscus
(3) Leaf spine - Pea
(4) Leaf bladder - Dischidia

19) Phylloclades are found in :-

(1) Opuntia
(2) Ruscus
(3) Acacia
(4) Smilax

20) Select wrongly matched pair.

(1) Phylloclade - Euphorbia

(2) Sucker - Chrysanthemum
(3) Stolon - Pineapple
(4) Stem tendril - Cucumber

21) In which example petiole modified to function like a leaf :-

(1) Australian acacia

(2) Mustard
(3) Nerium
(4) Guava

22) The floral organs arise from : -

(1) Mother axis

(2) Thalamus
(3) Root
(4) Pedicel

23) Recognise the different regions in the root-

(i) Maturation region
(ii) Meristematic activity region
(iii) Root Cap
(iv) Elongation region

(1) a - (i); b - (iv); c - (iii); d - (ii)

(2) a - (i); b - (iv); c - (ii); d - (iii)
(3) a - (iv); b - (i); c - (iii); d - (ii)
(4) a - (ii); b - (iii); c - (i); d - (iv)

24) Primary root and its branches constitute

(1) Adventitious root system

(2) Tap root system
(3) Fibrous root system
(4) All of these

25) Main axis terminate into a flower and pedencle show limited growth in :-

(1) Racemose inflorescence

(2) Cymose inflorescence
(3) Raceme inflorescence
(4) Both (1) and (2)

26) ___'A'___ of carrot, turnip and ___'B'___ of sweet potato, get swollen and store food.

(1) A -Tap roots, B - Tap roots

(2) A - Adventitious roots, B - Adventitious roots
(3) A - Adventitious roots, B - Tap roots
(4) A - Tap roots, B - Adventitious roots

27) Cymose inflorescence is present in :-

(1) Trifolium
(2) Brassica
(3) Solanum
(4) Sesbania

28) When single internode of stem modified in to leaf like photosynthetic structure then its called:-

(1) Phylloclade
(2) Phyllode
(3) Cladode
(4) Stipule

29) Which of the following plant shows whorled phyllotaxy?

(1) Mustard
(2) China rose
(3) Alstonia
(4) Calotropis

30) Napiform roots are recorded from

(1) Radish
(2) Carrot
(3) Beet
(4) Sweet potato

31) Which flower posses superior ovary?

(1) Mustard
(2) China rose
(3) Brinjal
(4) All of these

32)

Identify the mismatched pair.

(1) Prop roots — Provide support

(2) Stilt roots — Originate from stem’s nodal part
(3) Pneumatophores — Help in storing food
(4) Edible roots— Sweet potato

33)

Flowers are Zygomorphic in :-

(1) Mustard
(2) Gulmohar
(3) Tomato
(4) Datura
34) Leaf produced from

(1) Internode
(2) Root
(3) Hower
(4) Node

35) Calophyllum is a dicotyledonae plant what kind of venation it has ?

(1) Reticulate
(2) Parallel
(3) Multicostate
(4) Either Reticulate or parallel

SECTION-B

1) Match the column I with column II and select correct option :-

Column - I Column-II

A. Parietal

P.

B. Freelentral

Q.

C. Axial

R.

D. Basal

S.
(1) P = C, Q = B, R = A, S = D
(2) P = C, Q = A, R = B, S = D
(3) P = A, Q = C, R = D, S = B
(4) P = D, Q = B, R = A, S = C
2) Vexillary type aestivation is found in:-

(1) Bean
(2) Cassia
(3) Cotton
(4) Chinarose

3) Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Tap root system present in dicot plants.
II. Fibrous root system present in monocot plants.
III. Adventitious roots present in only dicot plants.

(1) Only I is correct

(2) II and III are correct.
(3) I and II are correct.
(4) I, II and III are correct.

4) Root hairs develop from the region of :

(1) Maturation
(2) Elongation
(3) Root cap
(4) meristametic tissue

5) Edible root are found in

(1) Rice
(2) Wheat
(3) Potato
(4) Sweet potato

6) Pneumatophores are found in-

(1) The vegetation which is found in marshy and saline water

(2) The vegetation which found in ice
(3) Xerophytes
(4) Hydrophytes

7) Sweet potato is a modified________

(1) Stem
(2) Adventitious root
(3) Tap root
(4) Rhizome

8) Roots which arise from Base of stem is called:

(1) Stilt
(2) Tap
(3) Fibrous
(4) Prop

9)

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct ?

(1) Agave - Bulbils

(2) Grass - Runner
(3) Water hyacinth - Runner
(4) Bryophyllum - Leaf buds

10) The ovary is half inferior in flowers of :-

(1) Peach
(2) Cucumber
(3) Cotton
(4) Guava

11) Ray florets have :-

(1) Half inferior ovary

(2) Inferior ovary
(3) Superior ovary
(4) Hypogynous ovary

12) Given below is the diagram of leaf. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right

option about them.

A B C D

(1) Stipule Leaf base Petiole Axillary bud

(2) Stipule Axillary bud Leaf base Petiole

(3) Axillary bud Stipule Petiole Leaf base

(4) Leaf base Axillary bud Petiole Stipule

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
13) Flowers are zygomorphic in :-

(1) Mustard and Pea

(2) Datura and Canna
(3) Gulmohar and Cassia
(4) Tomato and Wheat

14) Thorns, spines and prickles are

(1) Defensive organs

(2) Respiratory organs
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of the above

15) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Conical (i) Turnip

(B) Fusiform (ii) Carrot

(C) Napiform (iii) Radish

(D) Tuberous (iv) Mirabilis

(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 2 2 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 1 1 2 3 3 3 2 2 2 4 4 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 1 2 4 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 3 2 4 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 2 1 4 2 4 2 3 1 3 1 3 3 4 3 1 1 3 4 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 4 2 1 3 1 2 3 2 4 2 1 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 2 4 1 3 2 1 2 3 2 1 2 4 2 3

BOTANY-1

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 4 3 1 4 2 1 4 2 4 4 4 2 3 1 2 3 2 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 4 1 1 3 3 2 2 1 1 3 4 1 2

BOTANY-2
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 3 1 1 4 3 1 3 1 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 2 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 2 2 2 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 1 3 1 3 1 2 3 3 1 2 2 3 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2) SI system-Kelvin

3)

E = work = (force) (displacement) = (4F) (4S) = 16 (FS)

4)

Base unit → kg
Derive unit → N or (kgms–2)
Improper unit → kg-wt
Practical unit → hp
Supplementary unit → radian

5) m ∝ Ex Vy Tz
0
M1L T0 ∝ [ML2T–2]x [LT–1]y [T]z
0 0
M1L T ∝ Mx L2x + y T–2x–y + z
x=1 solving
2x + y = 0 x=1
–2x – y + z = 0 y = –2
z=0

7) Density =

8) Dimensions of at = Dimension of F

a=
Dimension of bt2 = Dimensions of F

b=

11) P =

= 3(1) + 2(2) + 1(3) + 1(4)

=3+4+3+4
 = 14 %

12)

Error =

13)

= [2% + 3 × 1%] = 5%

15)

[M1L1T–2] = [M1]p[L1T–1]q[L1]r
For 'M' 1 = P .....(1)
For 'L' 1 = q + r .....(2)
For 'T' –2 = –q .....(3)
p = 1, q = 2, r = –1

16)

A + B & A – B is not defined is defined.

17) dimensional formula for energy is [ML2T–2]

18)

R=

⇒
⇒ % error is 7% in R.

19)

Unit of is sec–1 while → unit less

20) 1 nm = 10–9 m
= 10–9 × 102 cm
= 10–7 cm
= 10–7 × 10 mm
= 10–6 mm

21) L + B 4.431 = 4.4

In addition or subtraction the number of decimal places in the result should be equal to the
number of decimal places of that term in the operation which contain lesser number of decimal
 places.

30)

32)

Relative error is unitless and dimensionless. Absolute error has dimension.

39)

Density(r) = FaLbTc → eq. …(1)

Write down the dimensional formula
ML–3 = (MLT–2)aLbTc
0
T ML–3 = MaL(a+b)T(–2a+c)
comparing powers of M, L
and T both the sides,
we get
M→a=1
L → –3 = a + b
–3 = 1 + b
–4 = b
T → 0 = –2a + c
0 = –2(1) + c
2=c
Put the value of 'a' 'b' & 'c' in eqn. (1)
we get
ρ = FL–4T2

41)

from theory of significant figures rule.

42)

CHEMISTRY

51)
 CaCO3 CaO + CO2
100 gm. of CaCO3 produced 56 gm. of CaO

So 60 gm. of CaCO3 produced = 33.6 gm of CaO

53) S O

1:2
SO2

54)

C2H2 + O2 → 2CO2 + H2O

8L of C2H2 reacts with 8 × = 20 L of O2

Volume of air = volume of O2 × 5 = 100

61)

63) Molality (m) & Mole Fraction(x)

66)

72)

87) C = = 2.02

H= = 4.07

Cl = = 2.02
 number of atoms of C, H, Cl are 1, 2, 1
So, empirical formula = CH2Cl

valency factor = =2
hence molecular formula = C2H4Cl2

91) 2 CHI3 + 6 Ag → CH ≡ CH + 6 AgI

2 mol 1 mol
∵ 2 mol iodoform produces 1 mol of a gas = 22400 mL
∴ 0.01 mol iodoform produces 1 mol of a gas = 112 mL

92)

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

20mL 80mL 0
0 80–60 40mL

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