27-01-2026

1950CMD303021260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Water level is maintained in a cylindrical vessel upto fixed height H, as shown. At what height
above bottom a hole should be made so that water stream coming out strike bottom at maximum
distance from vessel :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) H

2) The work done in increasing the size of a rectangular soap film with dimensions 8 cm × 3.75 cm
to 10 cm × 6 cm is 2 × 10–4 J. The surface tension of the film in N/m is :-

(1) 1.65 × 10–2

(2) 3.3 × 10–2
(3) 6.6 × 10–2
(4) 8.25 × 10–2

3) A wooden block of volume 1000 cm3 is suspended from a spring balance. It weighs 12 N in air. It
is suspended in water such that half of block remain in water. The reading of the spring balance is :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 9 N
(3) 8 N
(4) 7 N

4) Two blocks of same mass but different density ρ1 & ρ2 are floating in water. Block–2 has higher
fraction of its volume submerged in water. If buoyant force on them are B1 & B2 :-

(1) B1 > B2, ρ1 > ρ2

(2) B1 < B2, ρ1 < ρ2
(3) B1 = B2, ρ1 > ρ2
(4) B1 = B2, ρ1 < ρ2

5) A small spherical ball is released in a viscous liquid whose density is half that of density of the
ball. After attaining terminal speed, ratio of work done by viscous force to work done by gravity on
ball during a certain displacement is :-

(1)

(2) –2

(3)

(4) 2

6) A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
water in the capillary tube is 5 gm. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The
mass of water that will rise in this tube is

(1) 2.5 gm
(2) 5.0 gm
(3) 10 gm
(4) 20 gm

7) A water barrel having water upto a depth d is placed on a table of height h. A small hole is made
on the wall of the barrel at its bottom. If the stream of water coming out of the hole falls on the
ground at a horizontal distance R from the barrel, then the value of d is

(1)

(2) 4hR2

(3)

(4)

8) A tank fitted with smooth wheels is filled with an incompressible and non-viscous fluid of density ρ
upto height H as shown in figure. On the downside of tank a nozzle of uniform cross-section area a is
made in the tank through which liquid comes out. The tank is connected to a spring of spring
constant k. The tank spring system is in equilibrium at the instant shown in figure. Take atmospheric

pressure as p . The compression in spring in equilibrium is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Two substances A and B of equal mass m are heated at uniform rate of 6 cal s-1 under similar
conditions. A graph between temperature and time is shown in figure. Ratio of heat absorbed HA/HB

by them for complete fusion is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) 100 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 100 g water at 80°C. The final temperature of the mixture is :-

(1) 0°C
(2) 40°C
(3) 80°C
(4) Less than 0°C

11) A closed rectangular vessel completely filled with a liquid of density ρ moves with an
acceleration a = g. The value of the pressure difference (P1 – P2) is :

(1) ρgb

(2)

(3) ρ(gb – gh)

(4) ρgh

12) The speed of the liquid coming out of a small hole of a large vessel containing three liquids of

densities as shown in figure, is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Two soap bubble of radius 2r and 3r are in contact with each other. The radius of curvature of
the interface between the bubble is :

(1) 2r
(2) r
(3) 3r
(4) 6r

14) A fire hydrant delivers water of density ρ at a volume rate L. The water travels vertically upward
through the hydrant and then does 90° turn to emerge horizontally at speed V. The pipe and nozzle
have uniform cross-section throughout. The force exerted by the water on the corner of the hydrant

is :-

(1) ρVL
(2) zero
(3) 2ρVl
(4)

15) An aluminium rod and a copper rod of equal length 1.0 m and cross-sectional area 1 cm2 are
welded together as shown in figure. One end is kept at a temperature of 20°C and the other at 60°C.
Calculate the amount of heat taken out per second from the hot end.
Thermal conductivity of aluminium = 200 W/m–°C
and of copper = 390 W/m–°C

(1) 1.2 J
(2) 2.36 J
(3) 3.8 J
(4) None of these

16) A block of steel heated to 100°C is left in a room to cool. Which of the curves shown in the

figure, represents the correct behaviour ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) A and C

17) Three slabs of equal area and thickness are arranged as shown in the figure. Find the value of T1

and T2 in steady state :-

(1) 68°C & 52°C

(2) 62°C & 58°C
(3) 60°C & 50°C
(4) 50°C & 30°C

18) A wall consists of alternating blocks with length d and coefficient of thermal conductivity k1 and
k2. The cross-sectional area of the blocks is the same. The equivalent coefficient of thermal
conductivity of the wall between left and right is

(1) K1 + K2

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) An experiment takes 10 minutes to raise the temperature of water in a container from to
and another 55 minutes to convert it totally into steam by a heater supply heat at a uniform
rate. Neglecting the specific heat of the container and taking specific heat of water to
be the heat of vapourization according to this experiment will come out to be : -

(1) 540 cal/g

(2) 530 cal/g
(3) 560 cal/g
(4) 550 cal/g

20) Figure shows a copper rod joined to a steel rod. The rods have equal length and equal cross-
sectional area. The free end of the copper rod is kept at 0°C. and that of the steel rod is kept at
100°C. Find the temperature at the junction of the rods. Conductivity of copper = 390 W/m–°C and
that of steel = 46 W/m-°C.

(1) 5.3°C
(2) 10.6°C
(3) 20.1°C
(4) 15°C

21) A pendulum clock keeps correct time at 0°C. The thermal coefficient of linear expansion of the
material of the pendulum is α. If the temperature rises to t°C, then the clock loses per day by :-

(1) αt

(2)

(3) αt × 86400

(4)
22) If a 5 kg body falls to the ground from a height of 30 m and if all its mechanical energy is
converted into heat, the heat produced will be :-

(1) 350 cal

(2) 150 cal
(3) 60 cal
(4) 6 cal

23) A body cools from 62°C to 50°C in 10 minutes and to 42°C in the next 10 minutes. The
temperature of the surrounding is :-

(1) 16°C
(2) 26°C
(3) 36°C
(4) 21°C

24) An iron bar of length l and having a cross-section A is heated from 0 to 100°C. If this bar is so
held that it is not permitted to expand or bend, the force that is developed, is :-

(1) Iversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the bar

(2) Independent of the length of the bar
(3) Inversely proportional to the length of the bar
(4) Directly proportional to the length of the bar

25) Three discs A, B and C having radii 2m, 4m and 6m respectively are coated with carbon black on
their other surfaces. The wavelengths corresponding to maximum intensity are 300 nm, 400 nm and
500 nm respectively. The power radiated by them are Qa, Qb and Qc respectively. Then :-

(1) Qa is maximum
(2) Qb is maximum
(3) Qc is maximum
(4) Qa = Qb = Qc

26) A wall is made of two layers of thickness 1 cm and 4 cm and thermal conductivities K and 3K
respectively. If temperature difference for the wall is 50°C then temperature difference for the thin
layer will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

27) The graph shows the variation of temperature (T) of one kilogram of a material with the heat (H)
supplied to it. At O, the substance is in the solid state. From the graph, we can conclude that :-
(1) T2 is the melting point of the solid
(2) BC represents the change of state from solid to liquid
(3) (H2 – H1) represents the latent heat of fusion of the substance
(4) (H3 – H1) represents the latent heat of vaporization of the liquid

28) A flask of volume 103 cc is completely filled with mercury at 0°C. The coefficient of cubical
expansion of mercury is 180 × 10–6/°C and that of glass is 40 × 10–6/°C. If the flask is now placed in
boiling water at 100°C, how much mercury will overflow :-

(1) 7 cc
(2) 14 cc
(3) 21 cc
(4) 28 cc

29) Three rods A, B and C of thermal conductivities K, 2K and 4K, cross-sectional areas A, 2A and 2A
and lengths 2ℓ, ℓ and ℓ respectively are connected as shown in the figure. If the ends of the rods are
maintained at temperatures 100°C, 50°C, and 0°C respectively, then the temperature θ of the

junction is :-

(1)
ºC
(2) 20°C

(3)
ºC

(4)
ºC

30) An iceberg of density is floating in water of density The percentage of

volume of the iceberg outside the water is:

(1) 10 %
(2) 90 %
(3) 80 %
(4) 20 %

31) The temperature of a body rises by 44°C when a certain amount of heat is given to it. The same
heat when supplied to 22 g of ice at –8°C, raises its temperature to 16°C. The water equivalent of
the body is
[Given :swater = 1 cal/g°C & Lf = 80 cal/g, sice = 0.5 cal/g°C]

(1) 25g
(2) 50g
(3) 80g
(4) 100g

32) The temperature of a body in air falls from 40°C to 24°C in 4 minutes. The temperature of the air
is 16°C. The temperature of the body in the next 4 minutes will be :

(1)
°C

(2)
°C

(3)
°C

(4)
°C

33) A thin plate is placed between two flat surface 5 m apart such that viscosity of liquids on the top
and bottom of the plate are μ1 = 0.09 pas and μ2 = 0.04 pas respectively. Find the height of plate
from bottom surface so that minimum viscous force acts on plate for uniform motion.

(1) 3 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 1 m
(4) 4 m

34) Ice starts forming in lake with water at 0º C and when the atmospheric temperature is –10º C. If
the time taken for 1 cm layer of ice be 7 hours, then the time taken for the thickness of ice to
change from 1 cm to 2 cm is -

(1) 7 hours
(2) 14 hours
(3) 21 hours
(4) 28 hours

35) Which of the following is incorrect?

A needle can float on clear water but sinks when some detergent is added to it. This is because
(1)
addition of detergent reduces the surface tension of water
(2) Viscocity of liquid and gas decreases with increase in temperature
The potential energy of molecules in the surface film is greater than that of those molecules
(3)
which are inside the liquid
An air bubble of radius R in water is at a depth h below the water surface. If is atmospheric
pressure and and are the density and surface tension of water respectively, then the
(4)

pressure inside the bubble will be

36) Two different vertical positions (a) & (b) of a capillary tube are shown in figure with the lower

end inside water. For position (a), contact angle is & water rises to height h above the surface

of water while for position (b) height of the tube outside water is kept insufficient & equal to

then contact angle becomes , then x is :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

37) Three identical thermal conductors are connected as shown in figure. Consider no heat lost due

to radiation, the temperature of the junction is :

(1) 60°C
(2) 20°
(3) 10°C
(4) 50°

38) Temperature difference of 120°C is maintained between two ends of a uniform rod AB of length
2L. Another bent rod PQ, of same cross-section as AB and length, is connected across AB (See
figure). In steady state, temperature difference between P and Q will be close to :

[JEE-Main 2019]

(1) 60°C
(2) 75°C
(3) 35°C
(4) 45°C

39) A cuboid ABCDEFGH is anisotropic with αx = 1 × 10–5 /°C, αy = 2 × 10–5 /°C, αz = 3 × 10–5 /°C.

Coefficient of superficial expansion of faces can be

(1) βABCD = 5 × 10 /°C

–5

(2) βBCGH = 4 × 10 /°C

–5

(3) βCDEH = 3 × 10 /°C

–5

(4) βEFGH = 2 × 10 /°C

–5

40) In the figure, the distribution of energy density of the radiation emitted by a black body at a
given temperature is shown. The possible temperature of the black body is

(1) 1500 K
(2) 2000 K
(3) 2500 K
(4) 3000 K
41) Figure shows the temperature variation when heat is added continuously to a specimen of ice
(10 g) at –40°C at constant rate.
(Specific heat of ice = 0.53 cal/g °C and

Lice = 80 cal/g, Lwater= 540 cal/g)

Column-I Column-II

(a) Value of Q1 (in cal) (P) 800

(b) Value of Q2 (in cal) (Q) 1000

(c) Value of Q3 (in cal) (R) 5400

(d) Value of Q4 (in cal) (S) 212

(T) 900
(1) a → S; b → P; c → Q; d → T
(2) a → P; b → S; c → Q; d → R
(3) a → P; b → S; c → R; d → Q
(4) a → S; b → P; c → Q; d → R

42) The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is nine times that of steel. In the
composite cylindrical bar shown in the figure what will be the temperature at the junction of copper

and steel ?

(1) 75ºC
(2) 67ºC
(3) 33ºC
(4) 25ºC

43) Let there be four articles having colours blue, red, black and white. When they are heated to
same temperature and allowed to cool, which article cool at the earliest.

(1) Blue
(2) Red
(3) Black
(4) White

44) A composite rod made of 3 rods of equal length and cross-section as shown in figure. The end A
and B are at constant temperature. The effective thermal conductivity of the bar is :-
(1) 15K/16
(2) 6K/13
(3) 5K/16
(4) 2K/13

45) 540 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 540 g water at 80°C. The final temperature of the mixture is :-

(1) 0°C
(2) 40°C
(3) 80°C
(4) less than 0°C

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion :- First ionisation energy of nitrogen is lower than oxygen.

Reason :- Across the period Zeff decreases

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) correct and (R) is proper explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) incorrect

2) Z = 33 belongs from which block?

(1) s – Block
(2) p – Block
(3) d – Block
(4) f – Block

3) How many elements are present in 9th period of periodic table?

(1) 32
(2) 36
(3) 50
(4) 72

4)

IUPAC name of 109 is represented by symbol.

(1) Unn
(2) Uun
(3) Une
(4) Uuu

5) The noble gases exhibit very low chemical reactivity due to

(1) unavailability of valence electrons
(2) stable configuration
(3) availability of large number of valence electrons
(4) None of the above

6) Mendeleev's left the gap under aluminium and under silicon having atomic weights 68 and 72
respectively. These elements respectively are

(1) Eka-aluminium and Eka-silicon

(2) aluminium and silicon
(3) Eka-germanium and Eka-silicon
(4) Eka-aluminium and Eka-germanium

7) Select the structure with correct numbering for IUPAC name of the compound :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 4-Ethyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid.

(2) 3-Hydroxy-4-ethylpentanoic acid
(3) 3-Hydroxy-4-methylhexanoic acid
(4) 4-Ethyl-3-hydroxy-4-methylbutanoic acid

9) Which of the following have only 2° H-atom :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The general formula of given compound ?

(1) CnH2nO
(2) CnH(2n + 2)O2
(3) CnH2nO2
(4) CnH2n – 2

11) IUPAC name of the Compound is :-

(1) 5-Chloro-2-ethyl-1-methyl cyclohexane

(2) 1-Chloro-4-ethyl-3-methyl cyclohexane
(3) 1–Ethyl–2–methy–4–chloro cyclohexane
(4) 4–Chloro-1–ethyl–2–methyl cyclohexane

12) has the IUPAC name :-

(1) 1 – Ethyl – 3, 3 – dimethyl cyclohexane

(2) 3 – Ethyl – 1, 3 – dimethyl cyclohexane
(3) 3 – Ethyl – 1, 1 – dimethyl cyclohexane
(4) 3, 3 – Dimethyl – 1 – ethyl cyclohexane

13) The IUPAC name is :

(1) 3, 5, 5-Trimethylhexane-2, 4-diol

(2) 2, 2, 4-Trimethylhexane-3, 5-diol
(3) 1, 2, 4 4-Tetramethylpantane-1, 3-diol
(4) 2, 2, 4, 5-Tetramethylpantane-3, 5-diol

14) The IUPAC name of is

(1) 2 – chlorocarbonyl ethylbenzoate

(2) 2 – carboxyethyl benzoyl chloride
(3) Ethyl – 2 – (chlorocarbonyl) benzoate
(4) Ethyl – 1 – (chlorocarbonyl) benzoate

15) The IUPAC name for the compound is

(1) Cyclohexanoyl chloride

(2) Cyclohexane carbonyl chloride
(3) 1–Chloro cyclohexanal
(4) Chloro cyclohexyl methanal

16) IUPAC name of the compound is:

(1) 4–isopropyl–6–methyl octane

(2) 3–methyl–5–(1'–methylethyl) octane
(3) 6–methyl–4–isopropyl octane
(4) 6–methyl–4–(1' methylethyl) octane

17) IUPAC name for the given compound is:-

(1) 1-Bromo-2-chloro-4-iodo-6-fluoro benzene

(2) 2-Bromo-1-chloro-3-fluoro-5-iodo benzene
(3) 2-Bromo-3-chloro-1-fluoro-5-iodo benzene
(4) 1-Bromo-6-chloro-2-fluoro-4-iodo benzene

18) IUPAC name of compound is :-

(1) 2-Bromo-4-chloro-2,3-epoxybutane
(2) 1-Chloro-3-bromo-2,3-epoxybutane
(3) 3-Bromo-1-chloro-2,3-epoxybutane
(4) None of these

19) Correct IUPAC name of following structure is.

(1) 5- Ethyl-3-methyl cyclohexanoic acid

(2) 3-Ethyl-5-methyl cyclohexanoic acid
(3) 3- Methyl-5-ethyl cyclohexane carboxylic acid
(4) 3-Ethyl-5-methyl cyclohexane carboxylic acid

20) The IUPAC name of neohexane is________.

(1) 2-methylpentane
(2) 2,3-dimethylhexane
(3) 2,2-dimethylbutane
(4) 2,3-dimethylbutane

21) IUPAC name for :

(CH3)2C(C2H5)2

(1) Diethyl dimethyl methane

(2) 2-ethyl-2-methyl butane
(3) 3, 3-Dimethyl pentane
(4) None of these

22) Which of the following is 2° alcohol :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
23) The IUPAC name of compound

(1) 2-Amino-3-chloro-2-methylpent-2-enoic acid

(2) 3-Amino-4-chloro-2-methylpent-2-enoic acid
(3) 4-Amino-3-chloro-2-methylpent-2-enoic acid
(4) All of the above

24) Which is correct IUPAC name :-

(1)
1 -Bromopropanone

(2)

1,3,5-Cyclohexanetrione

(3)

2-Ketocylopentanecarbaldehyde
(4) All are correct

25)

Which type of isomerism is observed between I and II ?

(1) Functional isomerism

(2) Metamerism
(3) Position isomerism
(4) Stereoisomerism

26) Isomerism shown by

(1) Chain isomerism

(2) Positional isomerism
(3) Metamerism
(4) Functional group isomerism

27) Position isomerism showing by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The real revolution in antibacterial thrapy began with the discovery of Alexander Fleming in
1929, of the antibacterial properties of a penicillium fungus. General structure of penicillin is as

follows :- Which of the following is not correct for

penicillin [R=CH3]

(1) It has carboxylic acid as its functional group.

(2) Double bond equivalent will be 5
(3) It doesn't have any sp hybridised carbon
(4) It has aldehyde as one of its functional Group

29) Calculate the D.U. of a compound having molecular formula C7H8O2Br2N4

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

30) Correct Match is

Column-I Column-II

(P) (a) Metamers

 (Q) (b) Not isomers

(R) (c) Identical

(S) (d) Functional isomers

(1) P → a, Q → b, R → c, S → d
(2) P → d, Q → c, R → b, S → a
(3) P → b, Q → c, R → d, S → a
(4) P → d, Q → b, R → c, S → c

31) Which of the following is not an isomer of 3-methylbut-1-yne?

(1) Pent-1-yne
(2) Buta-1, 3-diene
(3) Pent-2-yne
(4) Penta-1, 3-diene

32) Which of the following is correct in given compound:

(1) B.P. (i) > (ii)

(2) M.P. (i) < (ii)
(3) Both (i) and (ii)
(4) Dipole moment (ii) > (i)

33) Which of the following has Z-configuration:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

34) Which of the following would exhibit cis-trans isomerism ?

(1) CH3CH2CH = CH2
(2) ClCH = CHCl
(3) ClCH = CCl2
(4) CH2 = CH — COOH

35) O-Cresol & benzyl alcohol are -

(1) Functional isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) All the above

36) Assign carbon-carbon double bond configuration to the following:

(1) E
(2) Z
(3) R
(4) S

37) Geometrical isomerism is possible in :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which of the following is correct set of physical properties of the geometrical isomers ?

and

Dipole Boiling Melting

Stability
moment point point

(1) I > II I > II II > I I > II

(2) II > I II > I II > I II > I

(3) I > II I > II I > II I > II

 (4) II > I II > I I > II I > II
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) In which of the following compound geometrical isomersim is not possible :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Correct IUPAC name of given compound is :

(1) (1Z, 2Z, 3E) hepta-1, 3, 5-triene

(2) (2E, 4Z, 6Z) hepta-2, 4, 6-triene
(3) (3Z, 5E) hepta-1, 3, 5-triene
(4) (2E, 4Z) hepta-1, 4, 6-triene

41) If the difference in atomic size of

Na – Li = x, Rb – K = y, Fr – Cs = z
Then correct order will be :-

(1) x = y = z
(2) x > y > z
(3) x < y < z
(4) x < z < y

42) The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that

(1) Zr and Y have about the same radius
(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state

43) The number of cis-trans isomer possible for the following compound:

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

44) Calculate number of structurally isomeric dimethyl cyclobutene-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

45) Which represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive element :-

(1) [He]2s1
(2) [Xe]6s1
(3) [He]2s2
(4) [Kr]6s2

BIOLOGY

1) How many ATP molecules are released when one molecule of glucose is oxidised in our liver cells
?

(1) 36
(2) 38
(3) 2
(4) 8

2)

What is correct about the following statements ?

(a) Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm of the cell
(b) Aerobic respiration occurs inside mitochondria
(c) ETS occurs in outer mitochondrial membrane
(d) C51H98O6 is tripalmitin
(e) R.Q. = volume of O2 evolved/volume of CO2 consumed
(1) a, b and d are correct
(2) b, c and d are correct
(3) c, d and e are correct
(4) b, d and e are correct

3) How many total ATPs are form from one krebs cycle by oxidative phosphorylation ?

(1) 11
(2) 12
(3) 24
(4) 22

4) Choose the components which are found in both oxidative and photophosphorylation :-

(1) Cytochromes, Ubiquinone, Fe-S

(2) Cytochrome C, Plastoquinone, Fd
(3) Cytochromes, Protonpump, Proton gradient
(4) Oxysomes, Cytochromeb6, Plastoquinone

5) Find out the values of x, y and z in the given equation:-

2(C51H98O6) + x O2 → y CO2 + z H2O + Energy

(1) x–102, y – 145, z – 98

(2) x–145, y – 102, z – 98
(3) x–98, y – 102, z – 145
(4) x–145, y – 98, z – 102

– +
6) The donor and acceptor of e & H in alcoholic fermentation are :-

(1) Glucose and pyruvate respectively

(2) DHAP and pyruvate respectively
(3) DHAP and acetaldehyde respectively
(4) PGAL and acetaldehyde respectively

7) All of the following are related to the pathway of respiration which is common to both aerobic and
anaerobic respiration except :-

(1) Substrate level phosphorylation

(2) Decarboxylation
(3) Dehydrogenation
(4) Reduction of NAD+

8) How many ATP molecule will be produced from 2 molecule of pyruvic acid which undergoes
complete oxidation ?
(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 15
(4) 30

9) The first decarboxylation in aerobic respiration occurs when :-

(1) α–KGA is oxidised to succinyl CoA

(2) Oxalosuccinic acid is formed from iso-citric acid
(3) Acetyl CoA is formed from pyruvic acid.
(4) Oxalosuccinic acid is decarboxylated to α-KGA

10) How many ATP molecules will be produced when one molecule of 3–phosphosphoglyceric acid is
completely oxidised :

(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 64
(4) 48

11) Assertion :- 2, 4–D is artificial auxin. Reason :- 2, 4–D is a weedicide and quickly kills mature
monocots.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

12)
Which of the following is conclusion of given diagram :-

(1) Tip of coleoptile is the site of transmittable influence

(2) Tip is the photoperceptive structure for phototaxis
(3) Stump is the site of transmittable influence
(4) Stump is the photoperceptive structure for photoropism

13) If in geometric growth, nutrient supply become unlimited then what will be the possible shape of
curve when we plot the parameter of growth against time ? Choose among the following :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Read the following statements :

(i) The unlimited growth throughout the life in plants is due to the presence of meristems at all
locations in their body
(ii) The form of growth in plants wherein new cells are always being added to the body by the
activity of the meristem is called 'open' from of growth
(iii) Growth may be reversible
(iv) Development is the sum total of two processes growth and differentiation
(v) Growth is regarded as one of the most fundamental characteristics of living being
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii)
(4) (iii) only

15) What causes a shoot tip green plant to bend towards light as it Grows ?

(1) Because Green plants need light to carry on Photosynthesis

(2) Because Green plants are phototropic
(3) Auxin accumulates on shaded side stimulating Greater cell elongation
(4) Light Stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to Grow slower
16) Represented below is the type of a growth in plants. Which one of the following options is

correct for this type of growth ?

(1) This type of growth shows the sigmoid growth curve

(2) This type of growth occurs only during the formation of embryo in plants
(3) Example of this type of growth is root elongation at a constant rate
(4) This type of growth shows linear growth curve with lag phase, log phase and stationary phase

17)
Choose incorrect option for given diagram :-

(1) A - growth rate less

(2) B - growth rate high
(3) C - nutrition unlimited
(4) B - depends upon metabolism

18)
Time Period = 21 days Which option will correctly denote the absolute growth rate (AGR) and
relative growth rate (RGR) in the leaves A and B :-

(1) A AGR = 10 cm2 B AGR = 10 cm2 RGR = 50 % RGR = 25%

(2) A AGR = 20 cm 2
B AGR = 60 cm 2
RGR = 50 % RGR = 25%
(3) A AGR = 10 cm 2
B AGR = 10 cm 2
RGR = 100 % RGR = 50%
(4) A AGR = 10 cm2 B AGR = 10 cm2 RGR = 100 % RGR = 20%
19) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the type of
growth represented by the above diagram ?
(a) It is observed at early stage of zygotic division.
(b) Number of dividing cells remain same.
(c) It represents root growth at tip.
(d) Represented by expression W1 = W0ert .

(1) a and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) b and c

20) Which of the following is odd from plasticity point of view?

(1) Cotton
(2) Coriander
(3) Larkspur
(4) Brassica

21) Recognise the figure and find out the correct labelling :

(1) a and c - arithmetic, b and d - geometric

(2) a and c - geometric, b and d - arithmetic
(3) a and d - geometric, b and c - arithmetic
(4) a and d - arithmetic, b and c - geometric
22) Which of the following is/are related to the type of growth in which both the progeny cells, arise
from mother cell, retain the ability to divide?
(A) Sigmoid curve
(B) expressed as W1 = W0 + rt
(C) Linear curve
(D) three phases - Lag, exponential and stationary

(1) A and D
(2) A, B and D
(3) Only C
(4) B and C

23) Why a linear curve is obtained in arithmetic growth?

(1) Because it has lag, log and stationary phase

Because one daughter cell remains meristematic while the other daughter cell differentiates
(2)
and matures
(3) Because of the effect of environment on mitosis.
(4) None of these

24) In geometrical growth

(a) every cell divides with all the daughter cells growing and dividing again
(b) growth occurs at a constant rate
(c) it occurs in protista and monera only
(d) growth is mathematically represented as L1 = L0 + rt
How many of them are correct

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c
(3) a, b, d
(4) c, d

25) Assertion : Removal of shoot tips usually result in growth of lateral buds.
Reason : Auxin is generally produced by growing apices of the stem and root.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Assertion : During aerobic respiration, although the role of oxygen is limited to the terminal
stage of the process. Yet, the presence of oxygen is vital.
Reason : Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor and drives the whole process of aerobic
respiration by removing hydrogen from the system.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

27) Assertion : Auxin help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages.
Reason : Auxin promote the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Assertion : The maximum concentration of alcohol in beverages that are naturally fermented is
about 13 percent
Reason : Fermenting organism like yeast poison themselves to death when the concentration of
alcohol reaches about 13 percent.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Assertion: Carbohydrate are used as substrate and are completely oxidised, the RQ will be 1.
Reason: Equal amount of CO2 and O2 are evolved and consumed during respiration.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion (A) : ATP is synthesised at two steps in glycolysis.
Reason (R) : First time ATP is synthesised during the conversion of bisphosphoglyceric acid to
phosphoglyceric acid and second time during the conversion of PEP to pyruvic acid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

31) Regarding to the physiological functions of auxin, select out the wrong one :-

(1) Rooting in stem cutting

(2) Apical dominance
(3) Killing the weeds generally monocots
(4) Promotion of abscission of old leaves and fruits.
32) Which of the following effects of auxins on plants is basis for its commercial application in
agriculture and Horticulture?

(1) Induce parthenocarpy

(2) Weedicide
(3) Induction of root formation in stem cuttings
(4) More than one options are correct

33) Assertion : In plants differentiation is open.

Reason : Cells or tissues arising out of the same meristem have different structures at maturity.

(1) Both assertion and reason are the true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are the true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false and reason is true.

34) Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to boost the production of tea leaves this is
because :

(1) Gibberellins present bolting and are inactivated

(2) Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages
(3) Effect of auxins is removed and growth of lateral buds is enhanced
(4) Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves

35) In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus.
This phenomenon may be called as -

(1) Senescence
(2) Differentiation
(3) Dedifferentiation
(4) Development

36) Formation of meristems like Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium from parenchyma
cells is

(1) Dedifferentiation
(2) Differentiation
(3) Redifferentiation
(4) Both (2) and (3)

37) IAA is essential in all except

(1) Apical hook formation

(2) Apical dominance
(3) Parthenocarpy in tomatoes
(4) Xylem differentiation
38) (i) The cell walls are primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal
connections. Large conspicuous nuclei.
(ii) Protoplasmic modifications
(iii) Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new cell wall deposition
Above characteristics represent respectively which phase of growth in plants ?
Choose the correct option from the following-

(1) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Elongation phase (iii) Maturation phase
(2) (i) Maturation phase (ii) Meristematic phase (iii) Elongation phase
(3) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Elongation phase
(4) (i) Elongation phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Meristematic phase

39) Read the following statements :

(i) NAA and 2, 4-D are synthetic auxins
(ii) Auxins promote flowering in pineapples
(iii) Auxins help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages but promote the abscission of older
mature leaves and fruits
(iv) Apical bud removal is applied for hedge making and creating bushy tea plants
(v) Auxin induces parthenocarpy, like in tomatoes.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Two
(4) Three

40) Select incorrect statements:

(A) Plant parts do not take care of its own gas exchange needs.
(B) Transport of gases from one plant part to another plant part is in very large amount.
(C) Plants do not present great demands for gas exchange.
(D) During photosynthesis large volume of gases exchange takes place.

(1) Statement A, B
(2) Statement B, C, D
(3) Statement A, B, C
(4) Statement A, B, D

41) Identify the correct and incorrect statements from the following.
(i) 17,500 new cells are produced per hour by a single maize root apical meristem.
(ii) With the help of length, growth of pollen tube is measured.
(iii) All auxins have been used extensively in only horticultural practices.
(iv) Cells in a watermelon may increase in size by upto 3,50,000 times.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct and (iv) is incorrect.

(2) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct and (iii) is incorrect.
(3) (ii), (iii) are correct and (i), (iv) are incorrect.
(4) (i), (iv) are correct and (ii), (iii) are incorrect.
42) Statement-I : During differentiation, cells undergoes few to major structural changes both in
their cell walls and protoplasm.
Statement-II : To form a tracheary element, the cells lose their protoplasm, develop a very strong
elastic lignocellulosic primary cell wall, they carry water to long distance even under extreme
tension.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

43) How many statement are incorrect ?

(A) In plants growth and differentiation are open
(B) The final structure at maturity of a cell or tissue determined by the location of cell
(C) Cell positioned away from root apical meristem mature as epidermis, and those pushed to the
periphery differentiate as root cap cells.
(D) Environmental signals such as light, temperature and gravity also affect certain phases and
stages of growth.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

44) Statement-1 : In larkspur and buttercup heterophyllous development occur due to

environmental conditions.
Statement-2 : Plants show almost similar pathways in response to different environment and this is
known as plasticity.

(1) Statement-1 and 2 both are correct.

(2) Statement-1 is true while statement-2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect while statement-2 is true.
(4) Statement-1 and 2 both are incorrect.

45) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Auxins help to initiate rooting in stem cuttings, which is widely used for plant
propagation.
Statement II: Auxins are known to promote the abscission of young, immature leaves and fruits
rather than older, mature ones.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

46) Which of the following is the regulatory muscle protein having double helix structure?
(1) Troponin
(2) Actin
(3) Ossein
(4) Tropomyosin

47) Find out incorrect statement:

(1) All locomotions are movement, but all movements are not locomotions
(2) Red muscle fibres having more mitochondria and myoglobin
(3) Skeletal muscles are voluntary and striated
(4) Cardiac muscles are unstriated, branched and involuntary.

48) Function of long bones in adult mammals :

(1) Support only

(2) Support and produce RBC s only
(3) Support and produce WBCs only
(4) Support and produce RBC s and WBCs

49) Which of the following vertebrae are fused in human ?

(1) Cervical
(2) Sacral
(3) Lumbar
(4) Thoracic

50) Store house of calcium in muscle is ?

(1) Sarcomere
(2) Sarcosome
(3) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) Lysosome

51) Which of the following represents the correct order of vertebral regions from superior to
inferior?
(I) Sacrum (II) Thoracic (III) Cervical (IV) Lumbar (V) Coccyx

(1) I -II-III-IV-V
(2) II-IV-I-III-V
(3) IV-I-II-V-I
(4) III-II-IV-I-V

52) What is not true about human skull ?

(1) It is dicondylic
(2) It includes 8 cranial bones
(3) It includes 22 facial bones
(4) Sphenoid is included in skull bones.

53) Which one of the following is the correct description of certain part of a normal human skeleton
?

(1) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint
(2) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles.
(3) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs.
(4) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates.

54) The following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective
category except for :-

Skeletal parts Category

(1) Sternum and ribs Axial skeleton

Clavicle and
(2) Pelvic girdle
glenoid cavity

Appendicular
(3) Humerus and ulna
skeleton

(4) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) Which one is correct for white muscle fibre :

(1) More mitochondria

(2) Less myoglobin
(3) More O2 transportation
(4) More myoglobin

56) Match column I (types of synovial joints) with column II (bones involved) and choose the correct
option :-

Column-I Column-II
(Type of synovial joint) (Bone involved)

Carpal and
A Ball and Socket joint I metacarpal of
thumb

Humerus and
B Hinge joint II
pectoral girdle

C Pivot joint III Knee

 D Saddle joint IV Atlas and axis

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

57) Which one is not possible during contraction:–

(1) I band remains same

(2) A band remains same
(3) Sarcomere length decrease
(4) H-zone disappears

58) ______Comprises the whole compelx of nerves, fibres, ganglia & plexus.

(1) CNS
(2) SNS
(3) VNS
(4) All of these

59) When we rotate our neck :-

(1) Occipetal condyles rotate on Atlas

(2) Axis(C2) bone rotates on Atlas
(3) Axis and atlas both rotate on each other
(4) Atlas rotates on axis

60) Manubrium is part of :-

(1) Scapula
(2) Clavicle
(3) Sternum
(4) Humerus

61) Collagenous connective tissue layer holding the muscle bundles together is :-

(1) Epimysium
(2) Endomysium
(3) Fascia
(4) Sarcolemma

62) Motor end plate junction is present between :-

(1) Neuron and striated muscle

(2) Neuron and neuron
(3) Muscle and muscle
(4) Both (2) and (3)

63) The role of calcium in muscle contraction is :-

(1) to break the cross-bridges as a co-factor in the hydrolysis of ATP.

(2) to bind with troponin, changing its shape so that the active site on actin filament is exposed.
(3) to transmit the action potential across the neuromuscular junction.
(4) to spread the action potential through the T tubules.

64) In the alimentary canal and reproductive tract which type of muscles are present ?

(1) Striated, involuntary

(2) Striated, voluntary
(3) Unstriated, voluntary
(4) Unstriated, involuntary

65) Following statements are incorrect w.r.t. humans, except

(1) All 12 pairs of ribs are directly connected ventrally to the sternum
(2) Each rib has two articulation surfaces on its ventral end.
(3) Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum together form the rib cage.
(4) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are vertebrosternal ribs.

66) Assertion : Skeletal muscles are closely associated with the skeletal components of the body.
Reason : Skeletal muscles are primarily involved in locomotary action and changes of body
postures.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

67) Assertion (A):– Cardiac muscles are involuntary in nature.

Reason (R):– The nervous system does not control their activities directly.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

68) Common between arthritis and gout is :-

(1) both are age related disorders

(2) both are characterised by decreased bone mass
(3) both are autoimmune disorders
(4) both are inflammation of joints

69) The clavicle articulates with :-

(1) Coxal bone

(2) Ilium
(3) Humerus
(4) Acromion process

70) The muscle fatigue occurs due to the accumulation of

(1) excess of O2
(2) creatine phosphate
(3) lactic acid deposition
(4) myosin ATPase

71) Which is not correct for cardiac muscles -

(1) Intercalated disc present

(2) Multinucleated structure
(3) Involuntary
(4) Non-fatigue type

72) Read the statements and choose the code of correct statements :
(A) There are twelve pairs of ribs in human
(B) Human skeleton has 206 bones
(C) Sternum is present on the dorsal side of body
(D) All mammals (except of few) have 8 cervical vertebrae
(E) Ribs are bicephalic

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, B, E
(4) B, D, E

73) Each typical rib is a thin flat bone connected_____to the vertebral column and_____to the
sternum-

(1) Dorsally, ventrally

(2) Ventrally, dorsally
(3) Dorsally, dorsally
(4) Ventrally, Ventrally

74) Acetabulum occurs in :

(1) Cranium
(2) Pelvic girdle
(3) Pectoral girdle
(4) Vertebrae column

75) Choose the correct statement :-

(1) All locomotions are movement

(2) All movements are locomotion
(3) Both are similar
(4) Amoeboidal movement doesn’t exist in human body.

76) Mark the incorrect statement–

Myasthenia gravis is an Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junctions leading to

(1)
fatigue, weakness and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
Muscular dystrophy is a progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles mostly due to genetic
(2)
disorder.
(3) Tetany is rapid spasm in muscles due to low Na+ in sarcoplasm.
(4) Gout is inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystal.

77) Which of following disease is age-related and characterised by decreased bone mass ?

(1) Tetany
(2) Gout
(3) Osteoporosis
(4) Osteo-arthritis

78) Read the following four statment (A-D):-

(A) In relax stage thin filament and thick filament both remain overlapped except the center part of
thick filament
(B) The central part of A band remains un overlapped by thin filament called H-zone
(C) During contraction troponin unmask the active site of actin by the formation of bond with Ca+2
ions.
(D) Globular head of actin has active ATPase enzyme, ATP binding site and binding site of myosin.
How many sentences are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

79)

Match the columns and choose the correct answer.

Column-A Column-B

(a) Apolar (i) Hydra

 (b) Unipolar (ii) Retina

Dorsal root ganglia

(c) Bipolar (iii)
of spinal cord

(d) Pseudounipolar (iv) Embryo

(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

80) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

a-axons, b-cell body, c-myelin sheath,

(1)
d-dendrites, e-node of Ranvier, f-Schwann cell
a-dendrites, b-axon, c-Schwann cell,
(2)
d-cell body, e-myelin sheath, f-node of Ranvier
a-dendrites, b-cell body, c-Schwann cell,
(3)
d-axon, e-myelin sheath, f-Node of Ranvier
a- synaptic knobs, b-cell body, c-myelin sheath,
(4)
d-axon, e-Schwann cell, f-Node of Ranvier

81) ______transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body to a synapse.

(1) Cyton
(2) Axon
(3) Dendron
(4) Dendrities

82) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a schwann cell and is commonly found in :-

(1) Autonomous neural system

(2) Cranial and spinal nerves
(3) Autonomous and somatic neural system
(4) Central neural system

83) The figure given below the structure of a neuron with its parts labelled from A to J, identify the
incorrect :-

(1) Structure E forms myeline sheath in PNS

(2) Structure H is helpful in conduction of impulses by saltatorial method
(3) Structure F has specific granules which contains ribonucleoprotein called Tigroid body
(4) Structure A is called dendrites which receive impulses from another neuron

84) Nissl's granules are present in :-

(1) Axon
(2) Dendrites
(3) Synaptic bulb
(4) Synaptic cleft

85) The best description for neurons found usually in the embryonic stage is:

(1) One axon and two or more dendrites

(2) One axon and one dendrite
(3) No axon and No dendrite
(4) One axon only

86) Which type of joint present in between acromian process and collar bone ?

(1) Saddle
(2) Condylar
(3) Gliding
(4) Ellipsoid

87) Which statement is incorrect regarding unipolar neurons ?

(1) Usually found in embryonic stage in humans.

(2) Possesses cell body with one axon only.
(3) Dendrons are absent.
(4) Can transmit nerve impulse in both direction.
88) Which of the characteristic is shown by neuron?

(1) Contractibility
(2) Elasticity
(3) Excitability
(4) Extensibility

89) The parts of neurons that perform basic cellular function contain almost al cell organelles
is_____.

(1) Soma
(2) Axons
(3) Dendrites
(4) Synaptic knob

90) How many statements are true in the following ?

(i) Hip joint is a type of ball and socket joint.
(ii) PNS comprise of 2 parts SNS & ANS.
(iii) Gout disorder is due to deposition of nitric acid crystal.
(iv) The neural system provides on organised network of point to point connection for a quick
coordination.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 4 3 3 3 1 3 1 3 4 4 4 2 1 1 2 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 4 4 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 3 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 2 4 1 3 2 4 3 2 2 3 4 2 1 2 4 3 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 1 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 1 3 2 4 2 4 3 1 2 1 4 2 3 3 3 4 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 4 3 4 1 3 3 1 1 3 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 1 4 4 4 4 4 2 3 4 3 1 2 2 2 1 3 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 2 4 3 1 1 4 4 3 2 3 1 2 1 3 3 4 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 3 2 4 3 4 3 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Let hole is at hight h

range

for maxima
H – 2h = 0

h=

2)

Change in surface energy = 2 × 10–4 J

ΔA = 10 × 6 – 8 × 3.75 = 30 cm2
= 30 × 10–4 m2
Work done W = T × 2 × (Change in area)
Now, Change in surface energy = Work done
2 × 10–4 = T × 2 × 30 × 10–4

∴ T = 3.3 × 10–2 N/m

3) Reading of the spring balance

= Apparent weight of the block
= Actual weight – upthrust
= 12 – Vinσg
= 12 – 500 × 10–6 × 103 × 10 = 12 – 5 = 7N

4)

B = mg ⇒ B1 = B2
ρ1V1g = B = ρwvLDg

⇒ ρ2 > ρ1

5)

mg = B + FV

W.d. by mg = mgx
W.d. by FV =

ratio =

6)

Mass of water in first tube is

m = πr2hρ
Surface tension

σ= =
h' = height to which water rises

r' = radius, r' = 2r; h' =

m' = πr'2h'

ρ= = πr2ρ
ρ = 2m = 2 × 5 = 10 g

7)

Velocity of efflux (v) = .

Time taken (t) =

∴ Range R = velocity × time

R2 = 4dh or d =

8)

Let v is the speed of liquid which is comes out from nozzle, then by applying Bernoulli’s
theorem, we get

Thrust force, F = ρav2

Fth cos 45° = kx, where x is compression in spring.

Solving above equation we get,

 x=

9) From given curve,

Melting point for A = 60oC
and melting point for B = 20oC
Time taken by A for fusion = (6 – 2) = 4 minute
Time taken by B for fusion = (6.5 – 4) = 2.5 minute

Then

10) Q1 = 100 × 80 = 8000

Q2 = 100 × 1 × 80 = 8000
Since Q1 = Q2
Temperature = 0°C

11)

Question Explanation: A closed rectangular vessel filled with a liquid accelerates

horizontally with a = g, Find P₁ – P₂.

Concept: This question is based on horizontal acceleration of fluid in horizontal acceleration.

Solution:

Given ax = g
Let pressure at the opening be P0
Then in horizontal direction P1 = P0 + ρgb …(i)
And in vertical direction P2 = P0 + ρgh …(ii)
Subtracting equation (i) and (ii)
P1 – P2 = ρg (b – h)

Final answer: ρ(gb – gh)

12)

13) ,

=
 =
R = 6r

14)

15) H = H1 + H2

=
= 0.8 + 1.56 = 2.36 J

16) Rate of temp change

Gives temperature as function of time.

17) k[100 – T1] = 2k[T1 – T2] = k[T2 – 20]

100 – T1 = 2(T1 – T2) = T2 – 20

18)

answer is

19)

Answer is 550 cal/g

20) H1 = H2

(θ – 0)
θ = 10.6° C

21) Let the length of the pendulum at 0°C and t°C is l0 and lt respectively.
The time period of oscillations of the pendulum is given by
∴

or

This is the time loss per second.

Thus, time loss per day =

22) U = mgh
Q = U = mgh = 5(9.8) (30) Joules

= cal = 350 cal

23) ........... (1)

........... (2)
⇒ Ts = 26°C

24)

Independent of the length of the bar

25)

Question Explanation: In this question, three carbon-black coated discs of different radii are
given with their wavelengths of maximum intensity. We have to compare the power radiated
by them.

Concept: Black body radiation (Wien's law + Stefan's law)

Solution: Given here

rA = 2m, rB = 4m, rC = 6m

= 300 nm

Using Wien's displacement law

 (b = Wien's constant)

Using Stefan's law, the power radiated is given by

[∵ σ,π,b are constant]

Qa : Qb : Qc =

Hence, Qb is maximum

Final Answer: Option (2)

26)

Req. = R1 + R2 =

T1 – T = °C

27) Since in the region AB temperature is constant therefore at this temperature phase of the
material changes from solid to liquid and (H2 – H1) heat will be absorb by the material. This
heat is known as the heat of melting of the solid.
Similarly in the region CD temperature is constant therefore at this temperature phase of the
material changes from liquid to gas and (H4 – H3) heat will be absorbed by the material. This
heat as known as the heat of vaporisation of the liquid.

28) Volume of mercury overflow

= Increase in volume of mercury – Increase in volume of flask
= 180 × 10–6 × 103 × 102 – 40 × 10–6 × 103 × 102
= (180 – 40) × 10–1 = 14cc

29) Let RA, RB and RC be the thermal resistance of rods A, B and C respectively. Then

RA =
and RC =
Since thermal current

H=
or RH = θ1 – θ2
∴ 100 – θ = RAHA ...(i)
θ – 50 = RBHB ...(ii)
θ – 0 = RCHC = RC(HA – HB) ...(iii)
On substituting values of RA, RB and RC, we get

100 – θ =

=
θ = 20°C

30)

32)
T1 = 24°C; T2 = 40°C, t = 4, TS = 16°C

Now

24 – T =

34)

Answer is 21 hours

35) Viscocity of gas increases with increase in temperature

36) Question Explanation:
Two capillary tubes are shown in figure. It is given water rises to different height in two tubes.
We have to find the value of x.

Concept:
This question is based on surface tension.

Solution:

h= .............. (i)

= ............. (ii)

(i) & (ii) ⇒ cos θ = ⇒ θ = 60°

Final Answer:
The correct answer is 3.

37)

If θ is temperature of junction

Hence, θ = 50°C.

39) Sin β = 2α
β = αx + xy = 2 × 10–5 + 1 × 10–5 = 3 × 10–5 C–1

40)

41)

Q1 = msΔT = 10 × 0.53 × 40 = 212 → (S)

Q2 = mL = 10 × 80 → (P)
Q3 = msDT = 10 × 1 × 100 = 1000 → (Q)
Q4 = mL = 10 × 540 = 5400 → (R)

42) We know that in series combination, heat flux remains constant.

Let the temperature of junction be θ.

⇒ k1A
(∵ k1 = 9k2)
 ⇒ 9k2
or 3θ = 900 – 9θ
or 12θ = 900
or θ = 75 C

43) Black colour is good absorber and good emitter of heat hence will cool earliest.

44) R = R1 + R2 + R3

Keq = K

45)

Heat given by 540 g water to cool its temperature from 80°C to 0°C
= 540 × 1 × (80 – 0)
= 4.32 × 104 cal
Heat required to melt 540 g ice at 0°C = mL
= 540 × 80 = 4.32 × 104 cal

Hence the ice melts sompletely and the final temperature becomes 0°C

CHEMISTRY

46) XI NCERT Page no. 90

47)

Answer is p – Block

48)

Answer is 50

49)

Answer - Une

52)
Priority ⇒ –OH > –SH

53)
3-hydroxy-4-methylhexanoic acid

54) (1)
all type hydrogen 1°, 2° and 3° are present

(2)
only 2° hydrogen present but 3° carbon also present

(3)
all type hydrogen present

(4)
2° and 3° hydrogen present

55) CnH2nO2 is general formula of

56)
4–chloro–1–ethyl–2–methylcyclohexane
57)

Principal Fn. Group (amide) (amide)

N-Phenylethanamide.

58)

3, 5, 5-Trimethylhexane-2, 4-diol

60)

Cyclohexane carbonyl chloride

61)

3–methyl–5–(1'–methylethyl) octane

62)

2-Bromo-1-chloro-3-fluoro-5-iodo benzene

63)

3-Bromo-1-chloro-2,3-epoxybutane

64)

3-Ethyl-5-methyl cyclohexane carboxylic acid

65)

2,2-dimethylbutane

66) 3, 3-dimethyl pentane

67)

Answer is

68)
3-Amino-4-chloro-2-methylpent-2-enoic acid

69) (1)

(2)

(3)

70)

Explanation Question : and are what type of isomers

Concept : This question is based on functional isomerism
Solution :

They are functional isomers

Final Answer
The correct option is (1)

71)

Explanation: The question asks to identify the relationship between two given compounds, in
terms of isomerism.

Concept: This question is based on isomerism, structural isomerism & metamerism.

Solution:
Different alkyl or aryl group/substituent attached to polyvalent functional group :- Metamerism

⇒ same bivalent functional group (sulphonate ester)

⇒ different alkyl groups on both side of central functional group

⇒ Both are metamers.

Final Answer : Option (3)

72)

Answer is

73)
(1) → Carboxylic acid as functional group
(2) → Double bond equivalent (DU) = 5
(3) → Doesn’t have any sp hybridised carbon
(4) → Aldehyde as one of it’s functional group

74)

DU =

=
 =5

75)

and are identical

3-Ethyl-2-Methyl pentane 3-Ethyl-2-Methyl pentane

and —→ different carbon

76) Isomers have same molecular formula but different structures. Buta-1, 3-diene, i.e., option
(b) has only four carbon atoms but all others have five carbon atoms. Therefore, (b) is not the
isomer of the rest of the compounds.

77)

Both (i) and (ii)

79)

ClCH = CHCl

80)

Functional isomers

81)

82) Asking about - Geometrical isomerism in Cycloalkane.

Concept - 3 to 7 membered ring do not show geometrical isomerism across double bond.
3 to 7c - only cis form exist.
8c to 11c - cis > Trans(stability).
12c to above- cis < Trans (stability)

Solution / Explanation -
 (1) Compound not show geometrical isomerism.

(2) Compound not show geometrical isomerism.

(3) Compound not show geometrical isomerism.

(4) Compound show geometrical isomerism.

83) Question Explanation:

Select the correct set of physical properties for geometrical isomers of 1-chloro-prop-1-ene.

Concept:
This question is based on physical properties comparison of Geometrical isomers.

Solution:
Isomer I is the trans‑isomer, while isomer II is the cis‑isomer.

A. Dipole moment: trans > cis due to vector addition of bond moments.
B. Boiling point: trans > cis because of higher polarity.
C. Melting point: trans > cis due to better packing and symmetry.
D. Stability: trans > cis due to less steric repulsion.

Final Answer: Option (3)

84)

Answer is
 85)

(3Z, 5E) hepta-1, 3, 5-triene

86) Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : -
Final Answer : (2)

87)

Zr and Hf have about the same radius

88) 2

89)

Answer is 5

90)

[Xe]6s1

BIOLOGY

93) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 232 and 233

95) NCERT Pg. # 237

98)

Answer is 30

99)

Acetyl CoA is formed from pyruvic acid.

100)

In glycolysis 3-PGA → 1 pyruvic acid

1 ATP
In Link reaction → 1 NADH2 = 3 ATP
In Kreb cycle = 12 ATP
Total = 1 + 3 + 12 = 16 ATP
101) Module # 3 Pg. # 234

103)

Answer is

104) Module # 3 Pg. # 229, 232

106) Explanation :
This refers to linear growth, where the growth occurs at a constant rate over time. Root
elongation is a good example of linear growth, where the plant grows at a steady rate in
length.

Final Answer : (3)

107)

Question Explanation : To Choose the wrong option for the given diagram.

Concept:
Growth rate

Solution:
The graph holds true when the nutrition is limited . So the incorrect option is: 3. C - nutrition
unlimited

Final Answer: Option (3)

109)

Answer is - b and c

112)
NCERT [Link] 243

113)

Because one daughter cell remains meristematic while the other daughter cell differentiates
and matures

114) Explain Question:

The question asks about how many given statements are correct for geometrical growth

Concept:
Geometrical growth

Solution:
(a) True → all cells divide and contribute to growth
(b) True → constant rate is linear growth not geometrical
(c) True → seen in unicellular organisms (Protista, Monera)
(d) False → formula is for liner growth

Final answer: Option (2

115) NCERT Pg. # 248

116) NCERT (XI) Pg#233 (E)

NCERT (XI) Pg#233 (H)

117) NCERT XI Pg. # 248

118) NCERT - Pg. # 230

119)

Explaining the Question:

This question asks to evaluate the Assertion and Reason according to the Assertion–Reason
format.

Concept:
Respiratory quotient.

Solution:
The assertion is true because when carbohydrates are completely oxidised, the respiratory
quotient (RQ) is 1.
The reason is also true because equal amounts of CO₂ are released and O₂ are consumed
during carbohydrate respiration.
The Reason correctly explains why the RQ value becomes 1.
 Final Answer: Option 1

120)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 229

िहदी # 230

121) Explanation :

A. Auxins have several key physiological functions in plants:

A. 1. Rooting in stem cutting: Auxins promote the development of roots in stem cuttings,
which is useful for vegetative propagation.
B. 2. Apical dominance: Auxins inhibit the growth of lateral buds and promote the
dominance of the apical bud, maintaining the vertical growth of the plant.
C. 3. Killing the weeds generally monocots is incorrect because auxins like 2,4-D are
used to kill dicot weeds, not monocot weeds.
D. 4. Promotion of abscission of old leaves and fruits: This is correct because Auxins
:- IAA,NAA prevent premature abscission of plant organs but promote the abscission of
older mature Leaves & Fruits.

The wrong answer is 3: "Killing the weeds generally monocots."

122)

NCERT [Link] 248, 249

123)

NCERT - 245

124)

NCERT Pg # 248

125) NCERT Pg # 245

126) Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are formed by dedifferentiation.

Fact NCERT Page No: 245

127) Ethylene promote Apical book formation.

Fact NCERT Page No: 250

128)

Explain Question – Match the listed characteristics with the correct growth phases in plants.
Concept – This question is based on Phases of Growth
Solution –
(i) → Meristematic phase
(ii) → Maturation phase
(iii) → Elongation phase
Final Answer – 3

129)

NCERT Pg. # 248, 249

130) NCERT XI, Pg. # 227, 14.1

131) The growth of the leaf is measured in terms of surface area.

132) NCERT Page No.245

133) Question Explanation: Identifying incorrect growth statements

.Concept: Plant Growth and Differentiation
Solution: Statement C is incorrect. Cells that are positioned toward the periphery of the root
apical meristem differentiate as the epidermis, while cells pushed to the tip differentiate as
root cap cells. All other statements are correct principles of plant growth and differentiation.
Final Answer: One

134) NCERT-XI Eng. Pg. # 246

135)

Statement I: Correct. Auxins are indeed used to initiate rooting in stem cuttings, a common
method for plant propagation. Statement II: Incorrect. Auxins help to prevent early fruit and
leaf drop, but they promote the abscission of older, mature leaves and fruits, not the young
and immature ones.

150)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify which bone the manubrium is a part of.

Concept : human axial skeleton

Solution: The manubrium is the upper broad part of the sternum

Final Answer: Sternum

153)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks about the specific role calcium ions play during
 muscle contraction. It wants to identify the function of calcium in the process of muscle fibers
contracting.

Underlying Concept: Muscle contraction involves interaction between actin and myosin
filaments. Calcium ions bind to a regulatory protein called troponin, which causes a
conformational change exposing the active sites on actin. This allows myosin cross-bridges to
attach and generate contraction. Thus, calcium acts as a key signaling molecule that initiates
the contraction mechanism.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the phrase: 'Calcium binds troponin, tropomyosin moves away,'
which helps recall that calcium binding exposes actin's active sites.

Common Mistakes: Confusing calcium's role with ATP hydrolysis or the transmission of
action potentials, which are separate steps in muscle contraction.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 1) 'To break cross-bridges as a cofactor in ATP
hydrolysis' is incorrect because calcium's role is not to break cross-bridges but to initiate their
formation by exposing active sites. 2) 'To transmit the action potential across the
neuromuscular junction' is wrong as this is done by neurotransmitters like acetylcholine. 3) 'To
spread the action potential through the T tubules' is incorrect because the propagation of the
action potential along T tubules does not involve calcium ions directly.

154) What the Question Is Asking:

It asks you to identify the type of muscles present in the alimentary canal and reproductive tract.

Solution:

The correct answer is Option 4: Unstriated, involuntary.

● Unstriated muscles: These are smooth muscles that lack striations (light and dark
bands).

● Involuntary muscles: Their activity is not under conscious control.

● These muscles are responsible for functions like the movement of food through the
digestive tract and gametes through the reproductive tract.

CORRECT ANSWER:

Option 4: Unstriated, involuntary

Difficulty Level: Easy

155) Explain Question:

Which statement is correct (Others are incorrect about human ribs)

Concept:
Human rib anatomy

Solution:
 Statement 3 is correct
The rib cage humans is formed by:
• Thoracic vertebrae (dorsally)
• Ribs (laterally)
• Sternum (Ventrally)

Final answer: Option (3)

156) NCERT Pg#218

157)

Question Explanation – The question asks whether the Assertion and Reason about cardiac
muscles are correct and if the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Concept – This question is based on Control of cardiac muscles
Solution –
• Assertion (A): Cardiac muscles are involuntary → True.
• Reason (R): Their activity is not directly controlled by the nervous system → True; cardiac
muscles have intrinsic rhythmicity due to the pacemaker, though the autonomic nervous
system can modify the rate.
• Since the Reason explains why cardiac muscles are involuntary, R is the correct explanation
of A.
Final Answer – Option 1

158) Explain Question: What is common between arthritis and gout

Concept: Bone Disorders

Solution:

A. Arthritis involves inflammation of joint causing pain and stiffness

B. Gout also causes inflammation of joints, due to deposition or uric acid crystals

Hence, joint inflammation is the common feature.

Final answer: Option 4

159) Explain Question:

With which structure does the clavicle articulate

Concept:
Pectoral girdle articulations

Solution:
The clavicle articulates:
• Medially with the sternum
• Laterally with the acromion process of the scapula, forming the acromioclavicular joint.
among the given option, only acromion process is correct.
Final answer: Option (4)

160) Explanation:
Muscle fatigue is caused by the accumulation of lactic acid deposition.

161)

Question Explanation – The question asks which statement about cardiac muscles is
incorrect.
Concept – This question is based on This question is based on Characteristics of cardiac
muscle
Solution –
1. Intercalated discs present → Correct, these connect cardiac muscle cells.
2. Multinucleated structure → Incorrect, cardiac muscle cells are usually uninucleated.
3. Involuntary → Correct, cardiac muscles contract without conscious control.
4. Non-fatigue type → Correct, cardiac muscles can contract continuously without fatigue.
Final Answer – Option 2

162)

Question Explanation –The question asks to identify the correct statements about the human
skeleton.

Concept – Human skeletal system

Solution –

A. (A) True – Humans have 12 pairs of ribs.

B. (B) True – Human skeleton has 206 bones.

C. (E) True – Ribs are bicephalic (have two heads).

Correct statements: A, B, E

Final Answer – Option 3

163) Explain Question:

Each typical rib is connected to which structures

Concept:
Anatomy of human ribs

Solution:
A typical rib:
• Is attached dorsally to the vertebrae
• Is attached ventrally to the sternum (directly or indirectly via costal cartilage)

Final answer: Option (1)

164) Explain Question:

The question asks where the acetabulum is present in the human body.

Concept:
Pelvic girdle.

Solution:
The acetabulum is a cup-shaped cavity of the pelvic girdle that receives the head of the hip
joint. it is not present in the cranium, pectoral girdle, or vertebral column.

Final answer: Option (2)

165)

Question explanation: Identify the correct statement regarding movement and locomotion.
Concept: Locomotion and Movement
Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. Option 1: All locomotions are movements because locomotion is a type of movement

involving change in position → Correct.

B. Option 2: Incorrect — all movements do not result in locomotion (e.g., blinking of eyes).

C. Option 3: Incorrect — movement and locomotion are related but not identical.

D. Option 4: Incorrect — amoeboidal movement exists in humans (e.g., WBCs,

macrophages).

Correct statement → All locomotions are movement

Final answer: Option 1

166) Question Explanation: Identifying the incorrect statement about muscle disorders.
Concept: Locomotion and movement: disorders.
Solution: The statement "Tetany is rapid spasm in muscles due to low Na+ in sarcoplasm" is
incorrect. Tetany is characterized by rapid muscle spasms due to low levels of calcium (Ca2+)
in the body fluid, not sodium (Na+). Low Ca2+ increases the excitability of nerves and muscles,
leading to cramps and spasms. The other statements are correct descriptions of Myasthenia
gravis, Muscular dystrophy, and Gout.
Final Answer: Tetany is rapid spasm in muscles due to low Na+ in sarcoplasm.

167) NCERT XIth Pg # 312

169)

Question explanation: Match the types of neurons with their correct locations.
Concept: Nervous system (Neuron types)
Solution: The correct answer is option 2.

A. Apolar neurons → found in Hydra → (a–i)

B. Unipolar neurons → found in embryo → (b–iv)

C. Bipolar neurons → found in retina → (c–ii)

D. Pseudounipolar neurons → found in dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord → (d–iii)

Final answer: Option 2

170) Question Explanation : Labeling parts of a neuron

Concept: Neural Tissue : Neuron Structure

Solution:
Let's break down the components of the neuron:
• Dendrites (a): These are short, branching fibers that receive signals from other neurons.
• Cell Body (b): This is the main part of the neuron, containing the nucleus and other
organelles.
• Schwann Cell (c): These cells wrap around the axon, forming the myelin sheath.
• Axon (d): This is a long, slender projection that transmits signals away from the cell body.
• Myelin Sheath (e): This is a fatty layer that insulates the axon and speeds up signal
transmission.
• Node of Ranvier (f): These are gaps between segments of the myelin sheath.

Final answer : 3

171)

Axon

174)

NCERT Pg. No. 232 Fig 18.1

 175)

One axon only

178)

Question Explanation: Identify the characteristic property shown by a neuron.

Concept: The question is based on properties of nerve cells

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

Neurons are specialized cells that respond to stimuli and generate electrical impulses. This
ability to respond to stimuli is called excitability.

A. Contractibility → muscle cells

B. Elasticity → connective tissues like ligaments
C. Extensibility → muscles
D. Excitability → neurons

Final answer: Option 3

179)

Soma