07-07-2025

1950CMD303001250019 MD

PHYSICS

1) The ratio of the distance through which a ball falls in the 2nd, 3rd and 4th second is (the initial
velocity of the ball is zero) :-

(1) 3 : 5 : 7
(2) 4 : 5 : 6
(3) 4 : 9 : 16
(4) 1 : 3 : 5

2)

A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts moving along the positive x–direction with a velocity
'v' which varies as , then velocity of particle varies with time as :

(α is a constant)
(1) v ∝ t
(2) v ∝ t2
(3) v ∝
(4) v = constant

3) If v = x2 – 5x + 4, find the acceleration of the particle when velocity of the particle is zero :-

(1) Zero
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None of these

4) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average
speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)

The displacement of a particle is given by

y = a + bt + ct2 – dt4. The initial velocity and acceleration are respectively

(1) b, – 4d
(2) –b, 2c
(3) b, 2c
(4) 2c, –4d

6) The acceleration of a particle moving in a straight line varies with its displacement as a = 2S + 1.
Velocity of the particle is zero at zero displacement. The relation between velocity and displacement
is:

(1) v = S(S + 1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

7) The position of a particle moving along the x-axis is given by x = 3t – 4t2 + t3, where x is in meters
and t in seconds. Find the velocity of the particle at t = 2s.

(1) –2 m/s
(2) –5 m/s
(3) +1 m/s
(4) –1 m/s

8) A Body moves 6 m north. 8 m east and 10m vertically upwards, what is its resultant displacement
from initial position:-

(1)
(2) 10m

(3)
m
(4) 10 × 2m

9) A body is moving along a straight line path with constant velocity. At an instant of time the
distance travelled by it is S and its displacement is D, then

(1) D < S
(2) D ≥ S
(3) D = S
(4) D ≤ S

10) A truck travelling towards North with velocity 20 m/s turns East and travels at the same speed.
The change in its velocity is :-

(1) 20 m/s North-East

(2) 20 m/s South-East
(3) 40 m/s North-East

(4)
m/s North-West

11) If the velocity of a particle is (10 + 2t2) m/s, then the average acceleration of the particle
between 2s and 5s is :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) 14 m/s2

12) A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to X with a uniform speed vd. The
average speed for this round trip is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)

A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by
S = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4 metres. The velocity when the acceleration is zero is :

(1) 3 ms–1
(2) –12 ms–1
(3) 42 ms–1
(4) –9 ms–1

14) An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 40 sec. What will be his
displacement at the end of 2 min. 20 sec.?

(1) Zero
(2) 2R
(3) 2πR
(4) 7πR

15) Velocity of a particle changes when :

(1) Direction of velocity changes

(2) Magnitude of velocity changes
(3) Both of above
(4) None of the above

16) Three particles P, Q and R are situated at point A on the circular path of radius 10 m. All three
particles move along different paths and reach point B as shown in figure. Then the ratio of distance

traversed by particles P and Q is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A body has speed V, 2V and 3V in first 1/3 of distance S, seconds 1/3 of S and third 1/3 of S
respectively. Its average speed will be

(1) v
(2) 2v

(3)
v

(4)
v

18) A particle is projected with velocity along x axis. The deceleration on the particle is proportional
to the square of the distance from the origin i.e. a = –x2. The distance at which particle stops is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A body is moving with variable acceleration (a) along a straight line. The average acceleration of
body in time interval t1 to t2 is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A particle moves in a straight line and its position x at time t is given by x2 = 2 + t. Its
acceleration is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A particle starts from origin with zero initial velocity along x-axis. If velocity and displacement
are related as v = ax–2, where a is constant. The displacement of particle after time t is

(1) (at)1/2
(2) (3at)1/3
(3) (2at)1/2
(4) (2at)1/3

22) The position of a particle as a function of time t, is given by

x(t) = at + bt2 – ct3
where a, b and c are constants. When the particle attains zero acceleration, then its velocity will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A particle is moving with constant velocity then displacement in 10 sec is

(1) 200 m
(2) 720 m
(3) 7.2 m
(4) 3600 m

24) Starting from rest, the acceleration of a particle is a = 2(t – 1). The velocity of the particle at t
= 5s is :

(1) 15m/s
(2) 25m/s
(3) 5m/s
(4) None of these

25) A point object transverses half the distance with velocity n0. The remaining part of the distance
was covered with velocity n1 for the half time and with velocity n2 for the rest half. The average
velocity of the object for the whole journey is

(1) 2n1 (n0 + n2) / (n0 + 2n1 + 2n2)

(2) 2n (n0 + n1) / (n0 + n1 + n2)
(3) 2n0 (n1 + n2) / (n1 + n2 + 2n0)
(4) 2n2 (n0 + n1) / (n1 + 2n2 + n0)

26) Rectilinear motion of a particle is defined by the equation V3 = x2 (where V is velocity). The
acceleration of the particle when x = 8 m is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Data is insufficient

27) If a body starts from a point and returns back to the same point, then its

(1) Average velocity is zero but not average speed.

(2) Average speed is zero, but not average velocity.
(3) Both average speed and velocity are zero.
(4) Average speed and velocity depend upon the path.

28) The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time 't' are given by and . The
speed of the particle at time 't' is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29) A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts moving along the positive x–direction with a
velocity 'v' which varies as , then position of particle varies with time as : (α is a constant)

(1) x ∝ t
(2) x ∝ t2
(3) x ∝
(4) x = constant

30) Position of particle in meters is given as x = (–4t3 + t4 + 12), where t is in seconds. How long
does a particle take to come to rest?

(1) 3s
(2) 1s
(3) 2s
(4) 4s

31) The velocity of a bullet is reduced from 200 m/s to 100 m/s while travelling a wooden block of
thickness 10 cm. The retardation, assuming it to be uniform, will be :

(1) 10 × 104 m/s2

(2) 12 × 104 m/s2
(3) 13.5 × 104 m/s2
(4) 15 × 104 m/s2

32) A particle is moving with constant acceleration from A to B in a straight line AB. If u and v are
the velocities at A and B, respectively, then its velocity at the midpoint C will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The velocity acquired by a body moving with uniform acceleration is 30 m/s in 2 seconds and 50
m/s in 4 seconds. The initial velocity is :

(1) zero
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 10 m/s
34) Initially a body is at rest. If its acceleration is 5ms–2 then the distance travelled in the 18th second
is: –

(1) 86.6 m
(2) 87.5 m
(3) 88 m
(4) 89 m

35) If a train travelling at 72 km/h is to be brought to rest in a distance of 200 m, then its retardation
should be:

(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

36) A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be stopped by applying brakes after at least 2m. If the
same car is moving with a speed of 80 km/h., what is the minimum stopping distance?

(1) 2 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 8 m

37) A particle has initial velocity and acceleration . The magnitude of velocity
after 10 seconds will be:

(1) 5 units
(2) 9 units
(3) 9 units
(4) 5 units

38) A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is h below the top of the well. If v is
velocity of sound, the time T after which the splash is heard is given by.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A stone is thrown upwards with a speed 'u' from the top of the tower reaches the ground with a
velocity '2u'. The height of the tower is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A vernier calliper has 10 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 9 division on the main
scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The value of one small division on main scale is :

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

41) In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x cm and n divisions of the vernier scale coincide
with (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of the callipers is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Find the reading of screwguage. Circular scale has 100 divisions. (Pitch = 1 mm)

(1) 3.25 mm
(2) 3.24 mm
(3) 3.30 mm
(4) 3.41 mm

43)

A student measure quantities a,b and c and then calculates S by the formula S = ab2/c3.
If the errors in a,b,c are 1%, 3% and 2% respectively, the maximum error in S can be:-

(1) 13%
(2) 7%
(3) 4%
(4) 1%

44) If physical quantity X is represented by X = MaLbT–c and the maximum percentage errors in M, L
and T are α%, β% and γ% respectively, then the total maximum percentage error in X is:

(1) (αa + βb – γc)%

(2) (αa + βb + γc)%
(3) (αa – βb – γc)%
(4) None of these

45) The best method to reduce random error is :

(1) To change the instrument used for measurement

(2) To take help of experienced observer
(3) To repeat the experiment many times and to take the average of results
(4) None of the above

CHEMISTRY

1) Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2–. The correct order of increasing order of
their radii is.

(1) F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+

(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(4) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+

2) Lother Mayer's curve was plotted against

(1) Atomic volume v/s melting point

(2) Atomic volume v/s boiling point
(3) Atomic weight v/s atomic volume
(4) Atomic number v/s atomic weight

3) Which of the following is general configuration of carbon family :-

(1) ns2
(2) ns2np1
(3) ns2np2
(4) ns2np3

4) The metallic and non metallic elements which are liquid at room temperature respectively are :-
(1) Cs, Fr
(2) As, Fr
(3) Br, Hg
(4) Hg, Br

5) Which group of elements follow triad rule?

(1) H, F, Cl
(2) Li, Na, K
(3) Cl, Br, I
(4) All

6) Among the given elements, select those, which are at the peak value of Lother Meyer curves?

(1) Alkali metals

(2) Earth alkaline metals
(3) Halogens family
(4) Metalloids

7) Eka-aluminium and Eka-silicon are known as :-

(1) Gallium and germanium

(2) Aluminium and silicon
(3) Iron and sulphur
(4) Boron and silicon

8) Electronic configuration of chromium (24) :-

(1) [Ar]3d44s2
(2) [Ar]3d54s1
(3) [Ar]3d94s2
(4) [Ar]3d104s1

9) If atomic radius of B, Al and Ga are x, y and z respectively then correct order is :-

(1) x = y = z
(2) x > y > z
(3) y > z > x
(4) y > x > z

10) According to Newland's law of octaves, the properties of Li were similar to :-

(1) Na
(2) Ca
(3) Mg
(4) Al

11) Identify the block for 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2. :-

(1) s-Block
(2) p-Block
(3) d-Block
(4) f-Block

12) Which of the following group is not isoelectronic :-

(1) He, H–, Li+

(2) Na+, Mg2+, Al+3
(3) F–, O2–, N3–
(4) K+, Ca2+, Ne

13)

K+, Cl–, Ca+2, S–2 ions are [Link] decreasing order of their size is :

(1) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+

(2) Ca2+ > K+ > Cl– > S–2
(3) K+ > Cl– > Ca2+ > S–2
(4) Cl– > S–2 > Ca2+ > K+

14) In which element shielding effect is not possible ?

(1) H
(2) C
(3) B
(4) N

15) [Ar] 3d6 4s2 configuration belongs to which group :-

(1) 2nd
(2) 6th
(3) 8th
(4) 10th

16) Which of the following has largest radius ?

(1) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2

(2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1
(3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p3
(4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p5
17) Which of the following order of atomic/ionic radius is not correct :–

(1) I– > I > I+

(2) Mg+2 > Na+ > F–
(3) P+5 < P+3
(4) Li > Be > B

18) Which of the following ion has largest size :-

(1) F–
(2) Al+3
(3) Cs+
(4) O–2

19) First element of 3d series has the atomic number :-

(1) 20
(2) 18
(3) 21
(4) 30

20)

Which of the following pair of elements have almost similar atomic radii?

(1) Sc, Y
(2) Zr, Hf
(3) Ni, Pd
(4) Li, Na

21)

Find the odd element fromthe given electronic configuration.

(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

(2) 1s2 2s1
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1

22)

Which of the following is not an transition element ?

(1) Mn
(2) Fe
(3) Co
(4) Zn

23) Which of the following element was present in Mendeleev's periodic table?

(1) Sc
(2) Tc
(3) Ge
(4) None of these

24) Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is :-

(1) Cl < P < Mg < Ca

(2) P < Cl < Ca < Mg
(3) Ca < Mg < P < Cl
(4) Mg < Ca < Cl < P

25) Element not known at the time of Newland is

(1) Ne
(2) C
(3) N
(4) P

26) In the modern periodic table, the period indicates the value of :

(1) Atomic number

(2) Atomic mass
(3) Principal quantum number
(4) Azimuthal quantum number.

27) The number of paired electrons in oxygen atom is

(1) 6
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 32

28) Newland's octave rule is not valid beyond.

(1) Calcium
(2) Magnesium
(3) Chlorine
(4) Aluminum

29) Which is incorrect order of atomic radius.

(1) F > Cl > Br >I
(2) F < Cl < Br < I
(3) Li < Na < K < Rb
(4) Be < Mg < Ca < Sr

30) Which of the following statement is incorrect for Lother Meyer's curve?

(1) Plotted a curve between atomic weight and atomic volume.

(2) All the peaks were occupied by alkali metals.
(3) Halogens were present on the descending curve.
(4) Alkaline earth metal were present on the descending curve.

31) Number of unpaired electrons in Cu2+ is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 9
(3) 3
(4) 1

32) In which of the following electron distribution in ground state, only Hund's rule is violated ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Which of the following set of quantum numbers belong to highest energy ?

(1)
n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(2)
n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(3)
n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 1, s = +

(4)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = +

34) Which set of quantum numbers are not possible :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) For p-orbital, the magnetic quantum number has value

(1) – 1
(2) 0
(3) +1
(4) All of the above are correct

36) Which will be the nodal planes in dxy orbital :–

(1) xz & yz
(2) xy & zy
(3) zy & yx
(4) None of the above

37) Maximum number of total nodes is present in :-

(1) 5 s
(2) 5 p
(3) 5 d
(4) All have same number of nodes

38) Which orbital have zero spherical node ?

(1) 2p
(2) 3d
(3) 4f
(4) All of the above

39) Which one is in the ground state :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 2s-orbital is :-

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)

(4)

41) Assertion: Electronic energy for hydrogen atom of different orbitals follow the sequence:

Reason: Electronic energy for hydrogen atom depends only on 'n' and is independent of and 'm'
values.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements

42) Which of the following orbital is not possible

(1) 1s
(2) 2s
(3) 2p
(4) 3f

43) In hydrogen atom which energy level order is correct :-

(1) 5s < 5p
(2) 2s < 2p
(3) 3s = 3p
(4) 4s < 4p

44) A neutral atom of an element has 2K, 8L, 11M and 2N electrons. The number of s-electron in the
atom are
(1) 2
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 6

45) The orbital angular momentum of an electron in a d-orbital is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given code.

Column I Column II

A Plant Virus (i) BSE

Potato spindle
B Animal virus (ii)
tuber

C Viroids (iii) Polio

D Prions (iv) Tobacco mosaic

(1) A-(iv), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(i)
(2) A-(i), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(iv)
(3) A-(iii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(ii)
(4) A-(ii), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(i)

2) Which is incorrect :

(1) T.O. Diener discovered virus in 1981

(2) RNA of viroid was of low molecular weight
(3) Lichens are symbiotic association
(4) Lichens are good air pollution indicator

3) Coenocytic hyphae are-

(1) Continuous tubes filled with uninucleated cytoplasm

(2) Continuous tubes filled with multinucleated cytoplasm
(3) Branched tubes filled with multinucleated cytoplasm
(4) Branched tubes filled with uninucleated cytoplasm
4) Which of the following fungus lacks dikaryophase?

(1) Claviceps
(2) Albugo
(3) Aspergillus
(4) Neurospora

5) Which of the following statement is incorrect about fungi?

(1) Wheat rust causing agent is Puccinia.

(2) Penicillium is a source of antibiotic.
(3) The cell walls of fungi are composed of peptidoglycans.
(4) Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.

6) The basis for the division of the kingdom fungi into various classes is /are –
(i) The morphology of the mycelium
(ii) Mode of spore formation
(iii) Fruiting bodies
(iv) Type of pigment
(v) Type of cell wall

(1) i, iv and v
(2) i, ii and iii
(3) ii, iii, iv and v
(4) i, ii, iii and v

7) In fungi, asexual reproduction takes place by

(1) Fission, conidia and ascospores

(2) Conidia, Zygospore and zoospores
(3) Conidia, sporangiospores & zoospores
(4) Sporangiospores, conidia & basidiospores

8) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Neurospora is called as Drosophila of plant kingdom

(2) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies
(3) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae
(4) Conidia are produced exogenously & ascopores endogenously

9) Choose correct sequence of events in fungal sexual cycle?

(1) Karyogamy, Plasmogamy & Meiosis

(2) Meiosis, Plasmogamy & Karyogamy
(3) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy & Meiosis
(4) Meiosis, Karyogamy & Plasmogamy
10) Which of the following is correct about Deuteromycetes?

(1) Some members are saprophytes or parasites.

(2) A large number of members are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling.
(3) Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma are deuteromycetes.
(4) All of the above

11) Which of the following is sexual spore?

(1) Conidia
(2) Sporangiospore
(3) Zoospore
(4) Ascospore

12) Deuteromycetes are known as ‘imperfect fungi’ because

(1) Only the sexual phases of these fungi are known.

(2) Because they do not have true cell wall
(3) Only the asexual or vegetative phases of these fungi are known.
(4) They do not show typical fungal characteristics.

13) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. fungi

(1) Mycelium consists of long slender thread like structures called hyphae
(2) Aseptate and multinucleate hyphae is called coenocytic hyphae
(3) Trichoderma is parasitic fungi on mustard plant.
(4) The cell wall is composed of chitin and polysaccharides

14) Choose the wrong statement.

(1) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics.

(2) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics.
(3) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms.
(4) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation.

15) Select the correct match

(1) Imperfect fungi – Ustilago

(2) Agaricus – Club fungus
(3) Toadstool – Edible mushroom
(4) Smut of wheat – Puccinia graminis

16) Haploid sexual spore produced exogenously is

(1) Ascospore
(2) Basidiospore
(3) Oospore
(4) Zygospore

17) Statement 1 : Yeast is a multicellular fungus.

Statement 2 : Penicillium is an unicellular fungus.
Statement 3 : Albugo is a parasitic fungus on mustard.

(1) Only statement 1 and statement 2 are correct

(2) All the above statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement 3 is correct
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 3 are correct

18) Which is correct w.r.t. lichens ?

(1) Mycobiont is autotrophic component

(2) Phycobiont is heterotrophic component
(3) They are good pollution indicators
(4) They do not grow in non-polluted areas

19) The association of fungi with the roots of higher plants is called

(1) Lichens
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Slime mould
(4) Neurospora

20) Who showed that viruses could be crystallized and crystals consist largely of proteins ?

(1) M.W. Beijerinck

(2) Pasteur
(3) Ivanowsky
(4) W.M. Stanley

21) All are sexual spores of fungi, except

(1) Oospore
(2) Zoospore
(3) Ascospore
(4) Basidiospore

22) Which among the following spores are not involved in asexual reproduction of fungi?

(1) Conidia
(2) Zoospores
(3) Sporangiospores
(4) Ascospores
23) Select an incorrect match

(1) Ascomycetes – Morchella

(2) Deuteromycetes – Alternaria
(3) Basidiomycetes – Puccinia
(4) Phycomycetes – Trichoderma

24) SO2 pollution indicator is

(1) Fungi
(2) Diatoms
(3) Lichen
(4) Mycorrhiza

25) Neurospora, Ustilago and Agaricus are similar in presence of ________ during sexual life cycle

(1) Endogenous sexual spore

(2) Dikaryophase
(3) Exogenous sexual spore
(4) Basidiocarp

26) Match the following

Column I Column II

a. Ustilago (i) Edible

b. Albugo (ii) Ergot of rye

c. Claviceps (iii) Loose smut of wheat

d. Agaricus (iv) White rust of crucifers

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

27) Edible fruiting body stage is present in the sexual life cycle of

(1) Penicillium and Ustilago

(2) Aspergillus and Amanita
(3) Morchella and Agaricus
(4) Puccinia and Aspergillus

28) List of some fungi is given below :-

Mucor, Rhizopus, Albugo, Aspergillus, Penicillium, Puccinia, Ustilago. In how many fungi,
plasmogamy is followed by karyogamy, immediately :-
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

29) Consider the following four statements (A–D) and select the option which includes all the correct
options only :
(A) M.W. Beijerinek demostrated that the extract of the infected plant of Tobacco could cause
infection
(B) [Link] showed that viruses could be crystallised.
(C) Lichen is example of symbiosis.
(D) The RNA of the viroid was of low molecular weight

(1) A, B and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

30) A class of fungi in which sex organs are absent but plasmogamy takes place by somatogamy is

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Ascomycetes
(4) Basidiomycetes

31) Members of phycomycetes are found in

i. Aquatic habitats
ii. On decaying wood
iii. Moist and damp places
iv. As obligate parasites on prions
Choose correct from the following options

(1) All of the above

(2) i and iv
(3) ii and iii
(4) i, ii and iii

32) Difference between Virus and Viroid is

(1) Presence of protein coat in viroid but absence in Virus

(2) Presence of low molecular weight RNA in virus but absent in viroid
(3) Absence of protein coat in viroid but presence in Virus
(4) In a virus nucleic acid and in a viroid protein is a infectious particle

33) Which of the following does not form an Ascocarp?

(1) Aspergillus
(2) Claviceps
(3) Neurospora
(4) Puccinia

34)
Which of the following character are not related with above given diagram ?
(i) Represents cauliflower mosaic virus
(ii) Have ssRNA
(iii) Capsomers arranged in polyhedral symmetry
(iv) Discovered by Ivanowsky

(1) ii & iv
(2) i & iii
(3) i, ii & iv
(4) ii, iii & iv

35) Select the incorrect match pair from the following:-

(1) Algae fungi – Presence of intervening dikaryotic stage

(2) Sac fungi – Delicious morels and truffles
(3) Club fungi – Sex organs are absent
(4) Imperfect fungi – Presence of exogeneous asexual conidia.

36) Viroid are similar to TMV in having :-

(1) DNA
(2) Capsomere
(3) Envelope
(4) RNA

37) Statement-I : Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical studies & genetics.
Statement-II : Morels & truffles are poisonous mushrooms.

(1) Both statement-I & II are correct

(2) Only statement-I is correct
(3) Both statement-I & II are incorrect
(4) Only statement-II is correct

38) The structure producing basidium in basidiomycetes is formed by the fusion of

(1) Two vegetative cells

(2) Two male gametes
(3) Two female gametes
(4) Male and female gametes

39) Assertion: In lichens, mycobiont and phycobiont are symbiotically associated in algae which is
predominant and fungi is a subordinate partner.
Reason: In this symbiotic association, the fungus provides food while the algae protects fungus from
unfavourable conditions.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

40) In a bacteriophage ds DNA is present in

(1) Head
(2) Tail
(3) Head and tail
(4) In tail fibres only

41) (I) It includes unicellular as well as multicellular fungi

(II) In multicellular forms, hyphae are branched and septate
(III) Conidiophore produce conidia exogenously
(IV) Sexual spores are ascopores produced endogenously in Ascus
(V) Fruiting body is called ascocarp
Which of the following characteristics are shown by

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Sac fungi
(3) Club fungi
(4) Fungi imperfecti

42) Which is the following is true about basidiomycetes:–

A. Include bracket fungi
B. Sex organs absent but plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative hyphae
C. Karyogamy and meiosis takes place outside the basidium
D. Basidiospores are produced exogenously

(1) A and B are correct

(2) B and C are correct
(3) A, B, C and D all are correct
(4) A, B and D are correct

43) Cr–Jacob disease (CJD) in humans is

(1) Caused by an RNA agent

(2) Transmitted by an agent consisting of abnormally folded protein
(3) Caused by viroids
(4) Transmitted by a protozoan

44) Viroids were discovered by

(1) T.O. Diener

(2) M.W. Beijerinek
(3) W.M. Stanley
(4) Louis Pasteur

45) The common mushrooms

(1) Reproduce by asexual spores only

(2) Are grouped under Ascomycetes
(3) Sexually reproduce by Basidiospores
(4) Usually pathogenic in nature

46) In birds, scales are present in :-

(1) Fore limbs

(2) Hind limb
(3) Head
(4) Neck

47)

Echinoderms are advance than Mollusca because Echinoderms

(a) have spiny skin
(b) have enterocoelom
(c) are deuterostomes
(d) have comparatively more developed nervous system
(e) are exclusively marine
Choose the correct explanation from the following.

a, b and c
(1)

(2) b and c
(3) a, d and e
(4) All are correct

48)

Radula is a file like rasping organ for feeding found in .........

(1) Echinodermata
(2) Annelida
(3) Mollusca
(4) Hemichordata

49)

Which of the following characters make Reptiles successful terrestrial vertebrates?

(a) Oviparous
(b) Presence of cloaca
(c) Cleidoic egg
(d) Hepatic portal system
(e) Cornified skin
Choose the correct from the following.

(1) a, c and e
(2) b and d
(3) c and e
(4) All are correct

50) What is common about Trypanosoma, Amoeba, Monocystis and Giardia ?

(1) These are all parasites

(2) These are all unicellular protists
(3) They have flagella
(4) They produce spores

51)

Assertion (A): Balaenoptera belongs to Mammalia.

Reason (R): Balaenoptera have diaphragm.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

52) Statement - I : In open circulation blood is pumped out of heart and the cell and tissues are
directly bathed in it.
Statement - II : In close circulation blood is circulated through series of vessles of varying
diameters.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

53) Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding phylum coelenterata ? (A) They are
aquatic mostly marine, sessile or free swimming, radially symmetrical animals.
(B) They have a central gastro-vascular cavity.
(C) Digestion is extracellular and intracellular.
(D) Examples are Sycon, Spongilla and Euspongia

(1) A and B
(2) A and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) All of these

54)

Which of the following is/are the aerial adaptation in Aves?

(a) Pneumatic bones
(b) Presence of cloaca
(c) Cleidoic egg
(d) Monodelphic condition
(e) Cornified skin
Choose the correct from the following.

(1) a, c and e
(2) b and d
(3) a and d
(4) All are correct

55) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) All members of animalia are multicellular.
(b) In sponges the cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates.
(c) Platyhelminthes exhibit cellular level of organisation.
(d) All multicellular animals does not exhibit the same pattern of organisation of cells.

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b)
(3) Statements (c), (d)
(4) Statements (a), (b) and (d)

56)

Which of the following characters are of Chondrichthyes?

(a) Persistent notochord along with Vertebral column
(b) Claspers in Female
(c) Ventral mouth
(d) Hepatic portal system
(e) Flexible neck
Choose the correct from the following.

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, d and e
(3) a, c and d
(4) All are correct
57) Assertion (A): Male Hippocampus is also known as pregnant male. Reason (R): Brood-pouch
is present at the abdomen of female in which they take care of their eggs

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

58)

Read the following statements.

(a) Reptiles do not have ear.
(b) Snakes, Lizards and Turtle shed their scales as skin cast.
(c) Chameleon and Calotes are Garden lizard and Tree lizard respectively.
(d) Bangarus is a poisonous snake
(e) Reptilian larva are usually lives in burrow.
Choose the correct from the above.

(1) b, c and d
(2) a and e
(3) Only d
(4) All are correct

59)

Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?

(1) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber -Echinodermata

(2) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish - Pisces
(3) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion - Insecta
(4) House fly, butterfly, tsetse fly, silverfish Insecta

60) The unique feature of mammals are the presence of :-

(1) Mammary glands

(2) Hair
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Feathers

61) Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterised by crop and gizzard in its digestive
system.

(1) Aves
(2) Reptilia
(3) Amphibia
(4) Osteichthyes
62) Which of the following is a wrong statement about the given diagram ?

(1) Dorsoventrally flat body

(2) excretion by Malpighian body
(3) Bilaterally symmetrical
(4) Internal fertilization and indirect development

63) Adult Wuchereria bancrofti attacks on :-

(1) Nerve system

(2) Lymph vessel
(3) Muscular system
(4) Blood vessels

64) Platyhelminthes are

(1) Diploblastic, radially symmetrical and coelomate

(2) Diploblastic, radially symmetrical and acoelomate
(3) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate
(4) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical & pseudocoelomate

65) Find out the correct Matching?

Ostrich, peacock, Peteromyzon - Vertebrate

(1)
Exception - Peteromyzon
Ascaris, Leech, Earthworm - Eucoelomate
(2)
Exception - Ascaris
Scoliodon, Pristis, Exocoetus - Osteichthyes
(3)
Exception - Exocoetus
Bufo, Rana, Chelone - Reptilia
(4)
Exception - Chelone

66) Choose the option which describes the Aschelminthes with its exclusive features

Rounded unsegmented body, muscular pharynx, pseudocoelomate, females are longer than
(1)
males
(2) Rounded segmented body, muscular pharynx, pseudocoelomate, females are longer than males
(3) Rounded unsegmented body, muscular pharynx, acoelomate, females are longer than males
 Rounded unsegmented body, muscular pharynx, pseudocoelomate, females are smaller than
(4)
males

67) The excretory organ present in Balanoglossus is called

(1) Kidney
(2) Coxal gland
(3) Protonephridia
(4) Proboscis gland

68) Match the following columns and select the option shows correctly matched pairs

Column - I Column - II

(p) Ascaris (i) Hook worm

(q) Wuchereria (ii) Round worm

(r) Ancylostoma (iii) Flat worm

(s) Tapeworm (iv) Filaria worm

(1) p- (ii), q- (iv), r- (iii), s - (i)
(2) p-(ii), q- (i), r- (iii), s - (iv)
(3) p-(ii). q- (iv), r - (i), s - (iii)
(4) p- (i), q- (ii), r- (iv), s - (iii)

69) Neural system consists of paired ganglia connected by lateral nerves to double___in annelida.

(1) ventral nerve cord

(2) dorsal nerve cord
(3) Anterior nerve cord
(4) posterior nerve cord

70) As an advancement over Aschelminthes Annelida are :–

(1) Having true coelcom.

(2) Having tube within tube plan.
(3) Are triploblastic.
(4) All of the above.

71) If a specimen given to you, is characterised by triploblastic, protostome with schizocoel, bilateral
symmetry, segmented with open type of circulatory system belongs to phylum :-

(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Mollusca
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

72) Animals with soft body, bilateral symmetry, triploblastic and unsegmented, usually protected by
a shell made up of calcium carbonate belongs to phylum ____

(1) Porifera
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Mollusca
(4) Arthropoda

73) Choose the incorrect statement for phylum Mollusca

(1) Body is covered by a calcareous shell and unsegmented

(2) Feather like gills present for excretion and respiration
(3) The anterior head region has sensory tentacles
(4) Mostly terrestrial, triploblastic and acoelomates

74) Which of the following are poikilothermal animal with single occipital condyle and twelve pairs
of cranial nerves ?

(1) Aves
(2) Reptiles
(3) Mammals
(4) Amphibia

75) Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic
category?

(1) Tiger - tigris, the species

(2) Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class
(3) Humans - Primata, the family
(4) Housefly - Musca, an order

76) How many of the following belongs to the subphylum cephalochordate?

Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum, Branchiostoma

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Which excretory structures are found in cephalochordate :

(1) Urecose gland

(2) Kidney
(3) Protonephridia
(4) Antennal gland

78) The following statements are associated with the occurrence of notochord. Identify the incorrect
statement :-

(1) it is present only in larval tail in ascidians

(2) it is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
(3) it is absent throughout the life in humans from the very beginning
(4) it is present throughout life in Amphioxus

79) Choose incorrect match from the table given below :-

Chordates Non-chordates

(1) Notochord present Notochord absent

Central nervous system is Central nervous system is ventral,

(2)
dorsal, hollow and single solid and double

(3) Heart is dorsal Heart is ventral (If present)

Pharynx perforated by gill

(4) Gill slits are absent
slits

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) An important character that Hemichordata share with cordates is :-

(1) Notochord
(2) Gill Slits
(3) Ventral heart
(4) Blood capillaries

81) Statement-I : Digestive system of echinoderms is complete with mouth on the upper side and
anus on the lower side.
Statement-II : The adult echinoderms are bilaterally symmetrical but larvae are radially
symmetrical.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

82) Jaw less fishes are included in :-

(1) Chondrichthyes
(2) Osteichthyes
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Lung fishes
83) Which of the following is correct about cyclostomes?

(1) Ectoparasite on fishes during their adult stage.

(2) Skin with scales and contain unicellular mucous gland.
(3) Three chambered heart.
(4) Heart is two chambered and possess 4 pair of gill slits for respiration.

84) Read the following characters carefully :-

(a) Placoid scales are present
(b) Mouth is located ventrally
(c) Air bladder is absent
These characters are found in

(1) Scoliodon
(2) Catla
(3) Exocoetus
(4) Labeo

85) Assertion : Osteichthyes have to swim constantly to avoid sinking.

Reason : Osteichthyes do not have air bladder.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

86) Poison sting is present in :-

(1) Torpedo
(2) Exocoetus
(3) Trygon
(4) Pristis

87) My body is divided into head, and trunk skin is moist without scales. Heart is three chambered.
Identify me ?

(1) Mammal
(2) Bird
(3) Amphibian
(4) Reptile

88) At which level of taxonomic classification do Lions & Tigers diverge :-

(1) Family
(2) Order
(3) Species
(4) Genus

89) What is the correct sequence of the given larval stages of Fasciola?
(a) Miracidium
(b) Sporocyst
(c) Metacercaria
(d) Cercaria
(e) Redia
Options:

(1) a, b, c, d, e
(2) d, c, b, e, a
(3) a, b, e, d, c
(4) d, e, b, c, a

90) Assertion: Birds possess moist skin.

Reason: Birds possess oil glands throughout their body.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, Reason is false.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 4 3 2 4 1 3 2 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 4 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 1 3 3 1 2 2 1 4 4 4 2 4 4 4 2 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 3 4 4 1 1 2 3 1 3 4 1 1 3 1 2 3 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 4 1 1 3 1 1 1 3 4 3 4 2 4 1 4 4 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 2 2 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 4 3 2 1 3 2 4 4 4 3 4 2 1 4 2 1 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 2 1 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 1 3 3 4 3 3 3 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 2 3 2 1 4 3 1 1 4 3 4 2 1 1 3 3 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

∴ u = 0, a = g
∴ S2nd = g/2 (2×2-1) = 3g/2
∴ S3rd = g/2 (2×3-1) = 5g/2
∴ S4th = g/2 (2×4-1) = 7g/2
∴ S2nd : S3rd: S4th = 3 : 5 : 7

2)

v=α ⇒ =α ⇒ = αdt

Integrating,
2 = at ⇒ = αt/2
Put this value of in the original given eqn.
2
v = α = α(α.t/2) = α t/2

∴ v∝t

3)

v = x2 – 5x + 4 = 0
x2 – 4x – x + 4 = 0
x = 1, 4

a=
a = (x2 – 5x + 4)(2x – 5)

ax=1 = 0, ax=4 = 0

4) Average speed =

5) y = a + bt + ct2 – dt4

∴
and
Hence, at t = 0, vinitial = b and ainitial = 2c.

6) a = 2s + 1

= 2s + 1
v(dv) = (2s + 1)ds

⇒
⇒

7)

⇒
= 3 – 8 × 2 + 3 × (2)2
= – 1m/s

8) Question Explanation: To find the net displacement of body.

Concept: Distance and displacement.

Formula: &
Solution:

Net displacement

or
S=

9)

Conceptual
D = S for straight line motion

10)
m/s S - E

11)
 vi = 10 + 2(2)2 = 18 m/s
vf = 10 + 2(5)2 = 60 m/s

aav = = 14 m/s2

12)

Average speed =

13)

s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4
v = 3t2 – 12t + 3
a = 6t – 12
when a = 0 ⇒ t = 2 sec
vt = 2 = 3(2)2 –12 × 2 + 3 = –9 m/s

14)

15) Question Explain:

The question asks under which conditions the velocity of a particle changes. Specifically, we
need to determine whether a change in the direction of velocity, the magnitude of velocity, or
both results in a change in the velocity of the particle.
Concept:
Velocity is a vector quantity, which means it has both magnitude (speed) and direction. Any
change in either the magnitude or direction of the velocity results in a change in the velocity.

A. If the direction of velocity changes (even if speed is constant), the velocity changes because
the vector's direction is altered.
B. If the magnitude (speed) of velocity changes (even if direction is constant), the velocity
changes because the speed is different.
C. A change in both magnitude and direction obviously results in a change in velocity.

Formula Used:
Velocity is a vector:
= speed in a given direction
Any change in the vector (magnitude or direction} means a change in velocity.
Answer:
Option 3: Both of the above
The velocity of a particle changes if either its magnitude or direction changes.
16)

17)

18)

Given initial velocity = v0

Final velocity = 0

a = – x2

Now we know that

vdv = –x2dx

Integrating we get

19) <a> = = =

20) x2 = 2 + t
2x =1

v=

a=v

a= v=

21)

v=

x = (3at)1/3

22)

∴ x = at + bt2 – ct3

∴v= = a + 2bt – 3ct2

∴ according f = = 2b – 6ct = 0, ∴ t =

∴ v =a + 2b

23)

24)

v=
= [52 – 2(5)] – 0
v = 25 – 10 = 15 m/s
25)

26)

27) In round trip displacement is zero.

28)

29)

Explain question: Need to find relation between x and t.

Concept: This question is based on v-x relation.

Solution: Given that:

Final Answer: Option 2 is correct.

30)
when v = 0 = –12t2 + 4t3 or 12t2 = 4t3 or t = 3s

31)

v2 = u2 + 2as
(100)2 = (200)2 + 2a × 0.1
∴ a = –15 × 104 m/s

32)

A to B : V2 = u2 + 2a ...(i)
2 2
A to C : v = u + 2a. d ...(ii)

From (ii), ad =

33)

u + 2a = 30
u + 4a = 50
⇒ a = 10 m/s2, u = 10 m/s

Answer - 10 m/s

34) S = 0 + (2 × 18 – 1) = 87.5m

35)

u = 72 km/h = 20 m/s;

v = 0; S = 200 m

a= = –1m/s2
Retardation = 1 m/s2
36)

s= so s ∝ u2
So, if speed is doubled, stopping distance will be four times i.e. 4 × 2m = 8m

37)
Hence units

38) Time taken by stone to go down

Time taken by sound to come up

39)

Explain question: Need to find height of tower.

Concept: This question is based on motion under gravity.

Solution: Motion under gravity

v2 = u2 + 2aS
(2u)2 = u2 – 2gh

h=

Final Answer: Option 1 is correct.

40) LC =

0.1 mm = M
M = 1 mm
Hence option (3) is correct

41)

42)

Reading of screw guage

= 3 mm + 25 × 0.01 mm
= 3.25 mm

43)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the maximum possible percentage error in
a calculated quantity S. The value S depends on three measured quantities a, b, and c, each
with their own percentage errors. We need to combine these errors properly to find how much
error S might have.

Underlying Concept: When a quantity depends on other measured quantities multiplied or

divided and raised to powers, the percentage error in the result is found by adding the
absolute percentage errors multiplied by the powers of each variable. This is based on the
rules of error propagation in measurements.

Relevant Formulas: The formula used is for propagation of errors when variables are
multiplied and divided:
\[ \frac{\Delta S}{S} = \frac{\Delta a}{a} + 2\frac{\Delta b}{b} + 3\frac{\Delta c}{c} \]
where: - - is the maximum error in S - are the errors in a, b, c
respectively.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Given: - Error in a = 1% = 0.01 - Error in b = 3% = 0.03 - Error in

c = 2% = 0.02
Using the formula:
\[ \frac{\Delta S}{S} = 1\% + 2 \times 3\% + 3 \times 2\% \]
Calculate each term: - Contribution from a = 1% - Contribution from b = 2 \times 3\% = 6% -
Contribution from c = 3 \times 2\% = 6%
Add these up:
\[ \frac{\Delta S}{S} = 1\% + 6\% + 6\% = 13\% \]
Therefore, the maximum error in S is 13%.

Tips and Tricks: When dealing with powers, multiply the percentage error by the absolute
value of the exponent. For quotients, add the percentage errors of numerator terms and
denominator terms (with exponents).
 Common Mistakes: One common mistake is to add only the percentage errors without
considering the powers; another is to subtract the errors of denominator variables instead of
adding their absolute contributions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers less than 13% underestimate the error by
ignoring or miscalculating the contributions from powers or the denominator. For example, 7%
or 4% might omit some terms, and 1% only accounts for the error in a alone.

44) X = MaLbT–c

; and

= (αa + βb + γc)%

45) Random error is reduced by making large number of observations and taking mean of all
the results.

CHEMISTRY

46)

Among isoelectronic species,

ionic radii

47)

Lother Meyer's curve plotted between atomic weight and atomic volume.

48) Question Explanation: General Configuration of carbon family.

Concept : Outermost shell (nth) prossess four electrons.
Solution : In carbon family, the valence shell/outermost shell (nth) has total of four electrons
Two electrons in S-subshell and Two electrons in p-subshell.
Therefore their outermost shell configuration will be ns2 np2

Final Answer : option (3). ns2np2

49) 80Hg-metal
35Br Nonmetal(ℓ)
50)

All follow Triad rule

51)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which element groups among alkali metals, earth
alkaline metals, halogens, and metalloids correspond to the highest points (peak values) on
Lothar Meyer's curve that plots atomic volume versus atomic weight.

Underlying Concept: Lothar Meyer plotted atomic volume against atomic weight for
elements and observed periodic trends with maxima and minima. The peaks (maxima) on this
curve correspond to elements with larger atomic volumes at certain intervals, typically
observed in alkali metals due to their low density and larger atomic size compared to other
groups.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that alkali metals tend to be soft with low densities and large
atomic radii, which relates to the peak positions on the volume vs. atomic weight graph.

Common Mistakes: Confusing peak positions with minima or thinking other groups like
halogens, which are nonmetals with smaller atomic volumes, correspond to peaks.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Earth alkaline metals and metalloids do not reach peak
atomic volumes compared to alkali metals. Halogens have smaller atomic volumes and are not
at the curve's maxima.

52)

Question Explanation: Name of Eka - aluminium and Eka - silicon

Concept : Mendeleev Periodic table
Solution :
∴ Eka aluminium = Gallium
Eka Silicon = Germanium

Final Answer : option (1). Gallium and germanium

53)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks for the correct electronic configuration of the
element chromium (atomic number 24) from the given options. This means determining how
the 24 electrons are arranged in the atomic orbitals of chromium.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves the electronic configuration of transition
metals and the concept of stability of electron arrangements. Specifically, it relates to how
electrons fill orbitals following the Aufbau principle, Hund's rule, and the special stability of
half-filled and fully-filled d-subshells.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Chromium has 24 electrons. 2. By filling electrons in order: first

fill up to Argon core ([Ar]) which accounts for 18 electrons. 3. Then add electrons to 3d and 4s
orbitals. The naive filling is [Ar] 3d^4 4s^2. 4. However, to achieve greater stability, one
electron from 4s moves to 3d to make a half-filled d-subshell: Resulting configuration: [Ar]
3d^5 4s^1.

Tips and Tricks: When dealing with transition metals, check if moving an electron to create
half-filled (d^5) or fully-filled (d^10) configurations is possible; these are more stable than
expected electron arrangements.

Common Mistakes: Assuming electrons always fill orbitals strictly in order without
exceptions; ignoring the special stability of half-filled d orbitals can lead to incorrect
configurations like [Ar] 3d^4 4s^2.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like [Ar] 3d^4 4s^2 are simple filling but do
not account for stability. [Ar] 3d^9 4s^2 and [Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^1 have more electrons in the d-
subshell than chromium's 24 electrons allow and violate the correct electron count.

54) NCERT Pg. # 86

Atomic radius
B < Ga < Al
x z y

55)

Properties of every 8th element was similar to the 1st element

56)

last e– is entering in 'd' subshell.

57)

Isoelectronic same no. of electrons

58)

Isoelectronic species negative charge increases size increases.

59)

Shielding is caused by inner or same shell electrons. It is applicable in poly electronic atomic
ions.
60)

Group no.: - (n–1)d e– + nse–

6+2=8

61)

Explain Question : Identify the largest radius species.

Concept : This Question is based on Atomic radius trend
Solution :
1s², 2s² 2p⁶, 3s² →
1s², 2s² 2p⁶, 3s² 3p¹ →
1s² 2s² 2p⁶, 3s² 3p³ →
1s², 2s² 2p⁶, 3s² 3p⁵ →

Final Answer option (1)

62)

Ans. (2)
(1) I¯ > I > I+
for different ions of an element

(2) Mg+² < Na+ < F¯ (Isoelectronic species)

(3) P+⁵ < P+³

(4) Li > Be > B

Moving from left of right in a period Zeff increases so size decreases.

63)

Ans. (3)
O¯² F¯ Al+³
10e¯ isoelectronic species
Cs+ (maximum size) due to maximum number of shells.

64) z = 21 to z = 30
3d1 to 3d10

65)
Zr & Hf have almost similar atomic radii due to lanthanoid contraction.

66)

67) Transition element :- Partially filled 'd-subshell'

Zn → [Ar] 4s2 3d10 → Fully filled
→ Not a transition element

68) These elements were added after Mendeleev's periodic table.

69)

70) Noble gases were not known

71) Period number indicates highest value principal quantum number associated with
electronic configuration of element.

72)

73) NCERT Pg. # 75

74)

NCERT Page No. # 88

75)

NCERT Pg. # 71

76)

Explanation

A. Cu (Copper) has an atomic number of 29.

B. Its electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s¹.

 C. Cu²⁺ means it has lost 2 electrons.

D. Electrons are removed from the 4s orbital first, then from the 3d orbital.

Concept

A. Cu: [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s¹

B. Cu²⁺: [Ar] 3d⁹

C. 3d⁹ means that the 3d subshell has 9 electrons. Since the d subshell can hold a maximum
of 10 electrons, one of the five d orbitals will have only one electron, making it unpaired.

Answer option 4, (1).

77)

Explanation

A. Hund's rule states that electrons will singly occupy each orbital within a subshell before
any orbital is doubly occupied, and all electrons in singly occupied orbitals will have the
same spin.

Concept:

A. Violation of Hund's rule means electrons are paired in an orbital before all orbitals in the
subshell have at least one electron with the same spin.

B. An electron distribution where all orbitals in a subshell have at least one electron, but
one orbital has two electrons while others have only one with the same spin, violates
only Hund's rule.

Answer option 3

78) Orbitals are 4s, 2s, 3p and 3d. Out of these 3d has highest energy.

79)

A: Question Explanation

The question asks to identify the set of quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) that is not possible
according to the rules of quantum mechanics.
B: Given Data

The options provide four sets of quantum numbers: (1) n=3, l=2, m=0, s=+1/2 (2) n=2, l=2,
m=1, s=+1/2 (3) n=1, l=0, m=0, s=-1/2 (4) n=3, l=2, m=-2, s=+1/2

C: Concept

The rules governing quantum numbers are:

A. Principal Quantum Number (n): n can be any positive integer (n = 1, 2, 3,...).

B. Azimuthal Quantum Number (l): l can range from 0 to n-1 (l = 0, 1, 2, ..., n-1).

C. Magnetic Quantum Number (m):

m can range from -l to +l (m = -l, -l+1, ..., 0, ..., l-1, l).

A. Spin Quantum Number (s): s can be either +1/2 or -1/2.

D: Mathematical Calculation

Let's check each option:

A. (1) n=3, l=2, m=0, s=+1/2:

A. n=3 is valid.

B. l=2 is valid (0 ≤ l ≤ n-1, so 0 ≤ l ≤ 2).

C. m=0 is valid (-l ≤ m ≤ +l, so -2 ≤ m ≤ +2).

D. s=+1/2 is valid.

E. This set is possible.

B. (2) n=2, l=2, m=1, s=+1/2:

A. n=2 is valid.

B. l=2 is not valid (0 ≤ l ≤ n-1, so 0 ≤ l ≤ 1).

 C. Since l is invalid, we don't need to check m.

D. s=+1/2 is valid.

E. This set is not possible.

C. (3) n=1, l=0, m=0, s=-1/2:

A. n=1 is valid.

B. l=0 is valid (0 ≤ l ≤ n-1, so 0 ≤ l ≤ 0).

C. m=0 is valid (-l ≤ m ≤ +l, so 0 ≤ m ≤ 0).

D. s=-1/2 is valid.

E. This set is possible.

D. (4) n=3, l=2, m=-2, s=+1/2:

A. n=3 is valid.

B. l=2 is valid (0 ≤ l ≤ n-1, so 0 ≤ l ≤ 2).

C. m=-2 is valid (-l ≤ m ≤ +l, so -2 ≤ m ≤ +2).

D. s=+1/2 is valid.

E. This set is possible

E: Final Answer
The set of quantum numbers that is not possible is (2).

80) l = 1 m = –1, 0, + 1

81)

NCERT, Class-11th Part-I, Article no. 2.6.2,

Page no. 58, Edition 2023-24
82) Total nodes = n – ℓ – 1 + ℓ = n – 1

83)

Spherical node = n – ℓ – 1

84) Question Asking : The ground state of an atom

Concept : Ground state
Solution :
1. Analyze Each option :
Option 1 : Electrons are not filled from the lowest energy level upwards.
Option 2 :
Electrons are filled from the lowest energy level upwards.
Hund's rule is followed
All orbitals are filled in the correct order.
Option 3 :
The first orbital only has one electron. This violates the Aufbau principle, as the first orbital
should be filled with two electrons before filling the next orbital.
Option 4 : The first orbital only has one electrons. This violates the Aufbau principle, as the
first orbital should be filled with two electrons before filling the next orbital.
Determine the correct answer
Option 1,3 and 4 violate the Aufbau principle.
Thus option 2 is the most complete configuration.

85)

Question Explanation :
Find the orbital angular momentum of an electron in the 2s-orbital.

Concept :
Orbital angular momentum L is given by:

where I is the azimuthal quantum number. For s-orbitals, l = 0

Solution :
For 2s orbital, l = 0 so:

Final Answer : Option (2) Zero

86) Fact.

87) 3f is not possible.

88) In H-atom 1s < 2s = 2P < 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p = 4d = 4f

 89) Module-1 page no.79

90)

Orbital angular momentum

BIOLOGY

91)

A-(iv), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(i)

92)

T.O. Diener discovered virus in 1981

93)

Continuous tubes filled with multinucleated cytoplasm

94) Albugo

95)

The cell walls of fungi are composed of peptidoglycans.

96)

i, ii and iii

97)

Conidia, sporangiospores & zoospores

98)

Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae

99)

Plasmogamy, Karyogamy & Meiosis

100)

All of the above

101)

Ascospore

102)

Only the asexual or vegetative phases of these fungi are known.

103) Trichoderma is parasitic fungi on mustard plant.

104)

Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms.

105) Agaricus – Club fungus

106)

Basidiospore

107)

Only statement 3 is correct

108)

They are good pollution indicators

109)

Mycorrhiza

110)

Explaining the question: The question asks who first demonstrated that viruses could be
crystallized and that these crystals are primarily composed of proteins
Concept: This question is based on virus
Solution: Wendell Meredith Stanley was an American biochemist who, in 1935, successfully
crystallized the tobacco mosaic virus (TMV). He demonstrated that these crystals were
primarily composed of protein.
111)

Ncert page 17.

112)

Ncert page 17.

113)

Phycomycetes – Trichoderma

114)

Lichen

115)

Dikaryophase

116)

a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

117) Morchella and Agaricus

118)

Three

119)

A, B, C and D

120)

Basidiomycetes

121)

NCERT Page No. 23

122)

NCERT Page No. 26 & 27

123)

NCERT Page No. 24

124)

Explaining the question: The question presents a diagram and asks which of the following
characteristics are not related to it
Concept: This question is based on
The key concept here is the identification and characteristics of the Cauliflower Mosaic Virus
(CaMV).
Solution:
CaMV has a double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) genome, not single-stranded RNA (ssRNA). This
makes option ii (ssRNA) incorrect.
The virus has an icosahedral capsid structure, not one with polyhedral symmetry. Therefore,
option iii (polyhedral symmetry) is also incorrect.

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17-18

126) NCERT Pg. # 21

127) NCERT-XI Pg#18

128)

Two vegetative cells

129)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

130)

Answer - Head

131)

Sac fungi

132)

A, B and D are correct

133)

Transmitted by an agent consisting of abnormally folded protein

134)

T.O. Diener

135)

Sexually reproduce by Basidiospores

136)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 58

137)

NCERT XIth Pg.#53

138)

NCERT XIth Pg.#53

139)

Answer - c and e

140)

These are all unicellular protists

141)

Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

142)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 38, 40

143) NCERT XI, Pg # 41

144)

Answer - a and d
145)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
In the kingdom Animalia, organisms are organized at several
levels, starting from the simplest level of structure to the most
complex. Here's a breakdown of the levels of organization within
Animalia:
1. Cellular Level:
○ Animals are multicellular organisms, meaning they are made
up of multiple cells. The cells are specialized to perform specific
functions (e.g., muscle cells for movement, nerve cells for
signaling).
○ Some simpler animals (e.g., sponges) have cells that are not
highly specialized or organized into tissues.
2. Tissue Level:
○ In more complex animals, cells aggregate to form tissues,
which are groups of similar cells that work together to perform a
specific function.
○ Examples(HYDRA) of tissues include muscle tissue (for
movement), epithelial tissue (for lining and protection), and
nervous tissue (for transmitting signals).
3. Organ Level:
○ Tissues combine to form organs, which are structures that
perform specific functions vital to the organism's survival.
○ Examples(PLATYHELMINTHES) include the heart (pumps
blood), the brain (controls bodily functions), and the lungs
(facilitate gas exchange).
4. Organ System Level:
○ Organs work together in organ systems to carry out complex
functions. Each organ system performs a vital role in the overall
functioning of the organism.
○ Examples of organ systems include:
■ Digestive system (mouth, stomach, intestines, etc. for
processing food),
■ Circulatory system (heart, blood vessels for transporting
nutrients and gases),
■ Nervous system (brain, spinal cord, nerves for processing
information).

5. Organism Level:
○ The highest level of organization is the whole organism
itself. The various organ systems function together to allow the
organism to live, grow, reproduce, and respond to environmental
stimuli.

146)

Answer - a, c and d

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 40

148)

Answer - Only d

149)

House fly, butterfly, tsetse fly, silverfish Insecta

150)

Both (1) and (2)

151) NCERT XI Pg. # 58

152)

excretion by Malpighian body

153) NCERT Page No. 60.

154)

155) Ascaris, Leech, Earthworm - Eucoelomate

Exception - Ascaris
 156)

Rounded unsegmented body, muscular pharynx, pseudocoelomate, females are longer than
males

157) NCERT-XI, PG-54

158)

p-(ii). q- (iv), r - (i), s - (iii)

159)

A. The ventral nerve cord is the main nerve cord in Annelids, running along the belly (ventral
side) and connecting the ganglia in each segment. It is the primary pathway for nerve impulses
in segmented animals.

160)

Having true coelcom.

161)

Arthropoda

162)

Mollusca

163)

Mostly terrestrial, triploblastic and acoelomates

164)

Reptiles

165)

Tiger - tigris, the species

166)

Ncert Page 55.

167)

Protonephridia

168)

it is absent throughout the life in humans from the very beginning

169) NCERT Pg #55, para-4.2.11, Table#4.1

170)

Gill Slits

171) NCERT pg. 45

172) Question Explanation :

Identify the group that includes agnathans (jawless fishes).

Concept :
This question is based on Cyclostomata.

Solution : Cyclostomata is the class of jawless fishes. These include hagfish and lampreys.
They are characterized by their lack of jaws and paired fins.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Cyclostomata

173)

cyclostomes like lampreys. Lampreys are parasitic as adults, attaching to fish and feeding on
their blood by using their circular, jawless mouth. Hagfish, another type of cyclostome, are not
parasitic but are scavengers.

174)

Scoliodon

175)

Both Assertion & Reason are False.

176)

Answer - Trygon
177)

Amphibian

178)

Species

179)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 52

180)

Assertion is false, Reason is false.