SHRISHTI VIDYASHRAM SR. SEC.

SCHOOL
FRP EXAMINATION (2025 – 2026)
Name:______________________________ Roll No:_________ Class: X
Date: 27.11.2025 Subject: SOCIAL SCIENCE Time: 1 hr Total Marks: 25

Political Science (25 marks)

1. Which of the following statement(s) are true regarding the major challenges faced by political parties?

I. A lack of internal democracy within the party structure.

II. The problem of dynastic succession, where top positions are controlled by one family.

III. The growing role of money and muscle power, especially during elections.

IV. Parties not offering a meaningful choice to the voters due to declining ideological differences.

Choose the correct option:

(a) I and II only

(b) I, III and IV

(c) II and IV

(d) I, II, III and IV

2. Consider the following case and choose the correct option A democratic government makes a decision after following all
established procedures. A citizen wants to check if this was done correctly. What right allows the citizen to examine this
process, and what is this feature called?

(a) Right to vote; legitimacy.

(b) Right to information; transparency.

(c) Right to protest; accountability.

(d) Right to equality; responsiveness.

3. The cartoon shows a powerful political leader controlling his party members like puppets. Which major challenge to
political parties does this best represent?

(a) The challenge of dynastic succession.

(b) A lack of meaningful choice for the voters.

(c) A lack of internal democracy and the concentration of power in one leader.

(d) The growing role of muscle power in elections.

4. Consider the following case and choose the correct option: In a country, there is a third kind of government, apart from
the Central and State governments. This government is elected by people belonging to one language community—Dutch,
French, or German speaking—and has power regarding cultural and educational issues. Which country has this unique form
of ‘community government’?

(a) India (b) Sri Lanka

(c) Belgium (d) Germany

5. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate
option.

Assertion (A) : The Belgian leaders amended their constitution four times between 1970 and 1993.

Reason (R) : This was done to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together peacefully within the
same country.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

6. Which of the following statement(s) are true regarding the structure of local government in India?

I. The head of a Gram Panchayat is the Sarpanch.

II. The Zilla Parishad is the apex body of the Panchayati Raj system at the district level.

III. At least one-fourth of all positions in local government bodies are reserved for women.

IV. The political head of a Municipal Corporation is called the Mayor.

Choose the correct option :

(a) I and II only

(b) I, II and IV

(c) II, III and IV

(d) All of the above

7. Consider the following case and choose the correct option: In a district in rural India, all the Panchayat Samitis come
together to form the apex local government body. Members of the Lok Sabha and MLAs of that district are also its
members. What is this body called?

(a) Gram Sabha (b) Gram Panchayat

(c) State Government (d) Zilla Parishad

8. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate
option.

Assertion (A) : In a federal system like India, the central government cannot order the state government to do something.
Reason (R) : The state government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the central government.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

9. The image below shows the European Parliament building in Brussels. What does the choice of Brussels as the
headquarters for the European Union most likely signify?

(a) Belgium’s central geographical location in Europe.

(b) The success of Belgium’s model of accommodating diversity,

making it a symbol of cooperation.

(c) The economic dominance of Belgium in the European Union.

(d) The historical significance of Brussels as the oldest European

capital.

10. Consider the following case and choose the correct option: The legislature in a country passes a new law. However, the
judiciary strikes down the law, stating that it violates the constitution. The executive branch accepts this decision. Which
core principle of power-sharing is evident here?

(a) Vertical division of power

(b) System of checks and balances

(c) Power-sharing among social groups

(d) A coalition government

11. This cartoon illustrates a significant challenge for democracies globally. What is its central message?

(a) There is not enough wealth in the world to feed

everyone.
(b) Democracies have successfully eliminated global
poverty.
 (c) Global wealth is extremely unequally distributed,
with a tiny percentage of people owning a vast
majority of it.
(d) Poor people are unwilling to share their food
with the rich.

12. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most
appropriate option.

Assertion (A) : It is right to expect democracy to produce a government that is accountable to the citizens.

Reason (R) : Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation, so some delay in decision making is bound to
take place.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

13. Which of the following statements best evaluates the interdependence of agriculture and industry?

(a) Agriculture and industry are exclusive to each other and develop independently.

(b) The industrial sector is dependent on agriculture, but agriculture is self-sufficient.

(c) Agriculture and industry move hand in hand, with each providing crucial inputs and markets for the other.

(d) The development of agriculture hinders the growth of the industrial sector.

14. Consider the following case and choose the correct option

In an election for a particular constituency, a political party decides to nominate a candidate from the

‘Yadav’ caste because the majority of voters in that area belong to the same caste.

Which form of caste in politics does this scenario represent?

(a) The caste system is getting politicised.

(b) Political parties shaping the caste hierarchy.

(c) Parties keeping in mind the caste composition of the electorate to win elections.

(d) Voters having no candidate from their caste.

15. Based on your understanding of hydraulic structures in ancient India, which of the following was constructed

by Iltutmish in the 14th century for supplying water to the Siri Fort area in Delhi?
(a) Sringaverapura water harvesting system (b) The tank in Hauz Khas

(c) Bhopal Lake (d) Dams in Kalinga

16. In the flood plains of Bengal, what did people develop to irrigate their fields using the natural floodwaters

of the rivers?

(a) Inundation channels (b) Tankas

(c) Guls or Kuls (d) Khadins

17. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most

appropriate option.

Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion.

Reason (R): This intervention is to ensure equality within religious communities, for example, by banning

untouchability.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

18. The map below shows an alarmingly low child sex ratio (number of girl children per thousand boys) in

several states. What is a primary social reason for this decline?

(a) A higher migration rate of girl children to other states.

(b) A strong parental preference for sons, leading to practices like sex-selective abortion.

(c) A government policy to control the female population.

(d) A lack of educational opportunities for girls in those states.

19. Based on the government’s classification of forests, which category consists of other forests and wastelands

belonging to both government and private individuals and communities?

(a) Reserved Forests (b) Protected Forests

(c) Unclassed Forests (d) Sacred Groves

20. Which of the following statements best evaluates the primary goal of wildlife conservation projects like

“Project Tiger”?
(a) To exclusively focus on increasing tourism revenue in national parks.

(b) To save only a single endangered species from extinction.

(c) To preserve not just the species, but also the biotypes of sizeable magnitude in which they live.

(d) To relocate all threatened animals to zoos and protected enclosures.

21. Which of the following statement(s) are true regarding the key features of federalism?

I. There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.

II. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction.

III. The fundamental provisions of the constitution can be unilaterally changed by one level of government.

IV. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government.

Choose the correct option :

(a) I and II only

(b) I, II and IV

(c) III and IV

(d) All of the above

22. Consider the following case and choose the correct option:

In the 1970s, a highly qualified Sri Lankan Tamil graduate applied for a government job. A Sinhala applicant

with lesser qualifications was selected for the same job. Which aspect of Sri Lanka’s majoritarian policy does

this situation reflect?

(a) A policy that made Sinhala the sole official language.

(b) A constitutional provision to protect and foster Buddhism.

(c) Preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for government jobs.

(d) A power-sharing arrangement to provide equal opportunities to all.

23. According to the bar graph showing women’s representation in national parliaments, which region of the world has the
highest percentage of women members?

(a) Europe

(b) Americas

(c) Nordic countries

 (d) Sub-Saharan Africa

24. Consider the following case and choose the correct option

After the Indian Constitution was enacted, new subjects like ‘Information Technology’ and ‘Cyber Security’

emerged which were not mentioned in any of the three legislative lists.

Which level of government in India has the power to make laws on these subjects?

(a) Only the State Governments. (b) Only the local governments.

(c) The Union Government. (d) Both the Union and State Governments.

5. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most

appropriate option.

Assertion (A): The fundamental provisions of the Indian constitution regarding the division of powers

cannot be unilaterally changed by the Parliament.

Reason (R): Any such change requires a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament, followed by

ratification from at least half of the total State legislatures.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

 Geography (25 marks)

1. Industries that produce goods like sugar, toothpaste, paper, and fans for direct use by consumers are known as which of
the following?
(a) Basic industries (b) Key industries
(c) Consumer industries (d) Heavy industries
2. Identify the appropriate options to fill in the empty boxes regarding the classification of industries based on ownership.

(a) TISCO, Joint sector (b) OIL, Private sector

(c) BHEL, SAIL, Private sector (d) Bajaj Auto Ltd., Public sector
3. According to the classification of forests by the Forest Department, which of the following states has a bulk of its forest
area under ‘Protected Forests’?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) West Bengal
4. In many tribal areas of India, such as the Chota Nagpur region, communities worship specific trees like mahua and
kadamba. In Rajasthan, the Bishnoi community actively protects species like the blackbuck (chinkara), nilgai, and peacocks,
considering them an integral part of their community. What is the most significant inference that can be drawn from these
traditional practices?
(a) These practices are the main cause of human-wildlife conflict.
(b) Traditional beliefs and nature worship have played a crucial role in conserving biodiversity.
(c) The government has mandated these practices in all tribal areas. (d) These communities protect only commercially
valuable species.
5. Country ‘A’ has a policy to develop its manufacturing industries to transform its abundant raw materials into a wide
variety of finished goods of higher value. Country ‘B’ continues to primarily export its raw materials without processing
them. Based on the principles of economic development, what is the most likely long-term outcome for Country ‘A’?
(a) It will become less developed than Country ‘B’.
(b) It will become more prosperous by adding value to its resources.
(c) It will face a severe shortage of raw materials for its own use.
(d) Its economy will become entirely dependent on agriculture.

6. Which of the following statements best evaluates the primary purpose of creating ‘Reserved’ and ‘Protected’ forests?
(a) To exclusively provide land for industrial development.
(b) To create wastelands for urban expansion.
(c) To maintain them for producing timber and other forest produce, and for protective reasons.
(d) To transfer the management of all forests to local communities.
7. Based on their main role, which of the following industries is considered a ‘basic’ or ‘key’ industry because its finished
product is used as a raw material by many other heavy, medium, and light industries?
(a) Sugar Industry (b) Textile Industry
(c) Iron and Steel Industry (d) Automobile Industry
8. The first successful textile mill in India was established in 1854 in which of the following cities?
(a) Kolkata (b) Ahmedabad
(c) Mumbai (d) Chennai
9. Based on your understanding of non-conventional energy sources, which of the following provides twin benefits to
farmers in the form of energy and improved quality of manure, and is often produced in ‘Gobar gas plants’?
(a) Wind energy (b) Geothermal energy
(c) Solar energy (d) Biogas
10. Which of the following statements best evaluates the primary reason for the concentration of jute mills along the banks of
the Hugli river in West Bengal?
(a) The region has a dry climate which is ideal for processing raw jute.
(b) The government of West Bengal does not allow jute mills to be set up anywhere else.
(c) The area offers a unique combination of proximity to raw jute areas, inexpensive water transport, and abundant cheap
labour.
(d) The raw material for the jute industry is primarily imported through the Kolkata port.
11. In many densely populated regions of India, farmers practice a type of farming characterized by high population pressure
on land. It is labour-intensive, and high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production
from small land holdings. What is the most accurate classification for this type of farming?
(a) Commercial Farming (b) Primitive Subsistence Farming
(c) Plantation Agriculture (d) Intensive Subsistence Farming
12. Which of the following fibre crops is obtained from the cocoons of silkworms fed on green leaves, especially mulberry,
and its rearing is known as sericulture?
(a) Cotton (b) Jute
(c) Hemp (d) Natural Silk
13. In India, coal is found in a variety of forms. Which of the following is the highest quality hard coal, with the highest
carbon content? (a) Peat (b) Lignite
(c) Bituminous (d) Anthracite
14. Identify the appropriate options to fill in the empty boxes regarding different minerals and their major producing areas.

(a) Bauxite, Bailadila mines in Chhattisgarh

(b) Iron Ore, Khetri mines in Rajasthan
(c) Mica, Khetri mines in Rajasthan
(d) Manganese, Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh.
15. The process of transforming raw materials into more valuable products by producing goods in large quantities falls under
which of the following economic activities?
(a) Primary activities (b) Secondary activities
(c) Tertiary activities (d) Quaternary activities
16. The Government of India has a policy of establishing public sector industries in tribal and backward areas. These regions
often lack private investment despite being rich in natural resources. What is the most likely socio-economic objective behind
this policy? (a) To maximize profits for the government from these industries.
(b) To exclusively use the local raw materials for export.
(c) To bring down regional disparities by generating employment and developing infrastructure.
(d) To relocate urban populations to these less-developed areas.
17. Based on the classification of industries by the source of raw materials, which of the following is an example of an agro-
based industry?
(a) Cement Industry (b) Iron and Steel Industry
(c) Sugar Industry (d) Petrochemical Industry
18. Which of the following inorganic chemicals is used to manufacture a wide range of products like fertilizers, synthetic
fibres, plastics, adhesives, and paints?
(a) Soda Ash (b) Caustic Soda
(c) Nitric Acid (d) Sulphuric Acid
19. Which of the following terms is used to describe an accumulation of any mineral mixed with other elements, from which
it can be extracted commercially?
(a) Rock (b) Ore
(c) Vein (d) Lode
20. In the tribal areas of Meghalaya, coal mining is done by family members in the form of a long narrow tunnel, a practice
known as ‘Rat-hole mining’. This is because, in most of North-East India, minerals are owned by individuals or communities,
not the government. What can be inferred about this type of mining practice?
(a) It is a large-scale, highly mechanized, and government-regulated operation.
(b) It is a traditional, community-owned practice that operates outside the formal regulations of nationalized mining.
(c) It is the safest and most efficient method of coal extraction in India.
(d) It is a modern mining technique that is promoted by the government for its environmental benefits.
21. The ‘Bhoodan-Gramdan’ movement, also known as the Blood-less Revolution, which encouraged landlords to
voluntarily donate land to the landless, was initiated by which of the following leaders?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Vinoba Bhave
22. Which of the following is a primary negative consequence of the ‘right of inheritance’ on agriculture in India?
(a) It has led to an increase in the net sown area.
(b) It has caused fragmentation of land holdings, making them uneconomical.
(c) It has promoted collective and cooperative farming.
(d) It has resulted in an equitable distribution of fertile land.
23. In post-independent India, Jawaharlal Nehru proudly proclaimed dams as the ‘temples of modern India’. He believed
they would integrate the development of agriculture and the village economy with rapid industrialisation and the growth of
the urban economy. What is the most significant inference that can be drawn from this vision?
(a) Dams were seen only as a source of irrigation for agriculture.
(b) Multi-purpose projects were viewed as the primary vehicle for the nation’s overall development and progress.
(c) The main purpose of dams was to promote religious tourism.
(d) Nehru believed that dams would solve all social and economic problems without any drawbacks.
24. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a short season during the summer months. Which of the following is a
crop grown during this ‘Zaid’ season?
(a) Wheat (b) Cotton
(c) Mustard (d) Watermelon
25. Based on your understanding of wildlife conservation in India, which of the following was a significant legal framework
implemented in 1972 with various provisions for protecting habitats and an all-India list of protected species?
(a) The Indian Forest Act
(b) The Environmental Protection Act
(c) The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act
(d) The National Forest Policy
 HISTORY -25.11.25

1. Match the following dates with the correct events and choose the correct option :

Column I (Date) Column II (Event)

A. 1789 1. The Congress of Vienna.

B. 1804 2. Revolutions of the liberals in Europe.

C. 1815 3. The Napoleonic Code.

D. 1848 4. The French Revolution.

a. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

b. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

c. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
d. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

2. Identify the historical event depicted in the image below:

(a) The Khilafat Movement procession

(b) The Non-Cooperation Movement in the cities

(c) The Salt March to Dandi

(d) The Quit India Movement procession

3. What was the most powerful weapon used by the Spanish conquerors in the colonization of America?

(a) Superior military firepower and cannons

(b) The use of cavalry in battles

(c) Germs, such as those of smallpox, against which the natives had no immunity

(d) Diplomatic treaties and alliances with native leaders

4. Who founded the ‘Depressed Classes Association’ in 1930 to organize the dalits?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

5. In sixteenth-century England, what were chapbooks?

(a) Religious texts published exclusively by the Church

(b) Journals of caricature and satire critical of the monarchy

(c) Pocket-size books sold for a penny by travelling pedlars

(d) Official circulars, almanacs, and calendars

6. The Habsburg Empire ruled over a diverse “patchwork of many different regions and peoples.” Which of the following
was NOT part of this empire?

(a) The Alpine regions - Tyrol, Austria

(c) The Kingdom of the Two Sicilies

(b) Bohemia and the Sudetenland

(d) Lombardy and Venetia

7. Mahatma Gandhi in his book Hind Swaraj (1909) declared that “British rule was established in India with the cooperation
of Indians, and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule in India would
collapse.” This idea was the basis for which movement?

(a) Satyagraha Movement (b) Quit India Movement

(c) Civil Disobedience Movement (d) Non-Cooperation Movement

8. In medieval Japan, what kind of hand-printed material was popular and abundant?

(a) Only religious texts and scriptures.

(b) Government circulars and official documents.

(c) Books on women, musical instruments, calculations, and the tea ceremony.
(d) Scientific texts and diagrams of Western discoveries.

9. Why was the Oudh Kisan Sabha set up in October 1920?

(a) To demand ‘Purna Swaraj’ for India

(b) To organize peasants against the oppression of talukdars and landlords

(c) To protest against the Rowlatt Act

(d) To lead the militant tribal movement in Andhra Pradesh

10. The image below shows a page from the oldest Japanese book. What kind of printing technology was used to create it?

(a) Movable type printing press

(b) Hand printing using woodblocks

(c) Lithography

(d) Offset press

11. Who was Menocchio, and why was he executed by the Roman Catholic Church?

(a) A religious reformer who wrote Ninety Five Theses.

(b) An explorer who brought print technology to Europe.

(c) A German printer who invented the printing press.

(d) An Italian miller who reinterpreted the message of the Bible.

12. In which Indian National Congress session was the Non-Cooperation programme formally adopted after a compromise
was worked out?

(a) Calcutta, September 1920 (b) Lahore, December 1929

(c) Nagpur, December 1920 (d) Bombay, March 1919

13. In the middle of the nineteenth century, what was the political status of Italy?

(a) A unified nation-state under a single ruler

(b) Politically fragmented into seven states, ruled by different powers

(c) A republic with a democratically elected government

(d) Entirely a part of the Austrian Habsburg Empire

14. Match the following organizations/terms in Column A with their correct founder/description in Column B.

Options :

(A) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

(B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

(C) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

(D) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

15. The Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) was founded in 1928 at a meeting in which of the following places?

(a) Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi (b) Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar

(c) Sevagram Ashram in Wardha (d) Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur

16. The first Tamil book was printed in 1579 by Catholic priests in which of the following cities?

(a) Goa (b) Madras

(c) Cochin (d) Calcutta

17. Why did the Justice Party in Madras not boycott the council elections during the Non-Cooperation Movement?

(a) They were following Mahatma Gandhi’s call for a complete boycott.

(b) They believed the elections were not truly democratic.

(c) They felt entering the council was a way for non-Brahmans to gain power.

(d) They feared the movement would lead to popular violence.

18. Who was proclaimed the first German Emperor in a ceremony held at the Palace of Versailles in January 1871?

(a) Otto von Bismarck (b) Kaiser William I of Prussia

(c) Friedrich Wilhelm IV 4. (d) Duke Metternich

19. What was the primary significance of the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832?

(a) It restored the Bourbon dynasty to power in France.

(b) It recognized Greece as an independent nation.

(c) It completed the unification of Germany.

(d) It created the customs union ‘Zollverein’.

20. Which of the following was a reason for the gradual slowdown of the Non-Cooperation Movement in the cities?

(a) The government used brutal repression to stop the movement.

(b) Khadi cloth was more expensive than mass-produced mill cloth.

(c) The leaders were arrested in the initial stages.

(d) The Justice Party did not support the movement.

21. The ‘Do or Die’ speech was delivered by Mahatma Gandhi during which of the following movements?

(a) Rowlatt Satyagraha

(b) Non-Cooperation Movement

(c) Civil Disobedience Movement

(d) Quit India Movement

22. Why did the industrial working class not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement in large numbers?

(a) They were satisfied with their wages and working conditions.

(b) The Congress was reluctant to include their demands in its programme of struggle.

(c) Mahatma Gandhi’s ideas of non-violence did not appeal to them.

(d) They were more interested in radical movements led by Socialists.

23. Who was the founder of the secret society called Young Italy in Marseilles?

(a) Count Camillo de Cavour

(b) Giuseppe Garibaldi

(c) Duke Metternich

(d) Giuseppe Mazzini

24. The peasant movement in Bardoli in 1928 was led by which of the following leaders?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Baba Ramchandra

25. What was the artist’s vision or fear regarding social change as depicted in the image below?

(a) The celebration of women’s empowerment.

(b) The destruction of proper family relations.

(c) The harmonious blending of Western and Indian cultures.

(d) The economic prosperity of the family.

 HISTORY-24.11.25
1. Assertion–Reason (AR)
A: The Indian National Congress adopted ‘Purna Swaraj’ in 1930.
R: The Simon Commission recommended immediate dominion status.
a) A and R both correct, and R explains A
b) A and R correct, but R is not explanation
c) A correct, R incorrect
d) A incorrect, R correct
Answer: c
2. MCQ
The idea of a ‘nation-state’ in 18th–19th century Europe emerged due to:
a) Imperial expansion
b) Common identity based on shared history and culture
c) Rise of socialism
d) Defeat of Napoleon
Answer: b
3. Match the Columns
Match leaders to movements:
A B
1. Baba Ram Chandra a) Ahmedabad Mill Strike
2. Alluri Sitarama Raju b) Peasant movement in Awadh
3. Mahatma Gandhi c) Tribal uprising in Andhra
Answer:
1–b, 2–c, 3–a
4. Correct Sequence
Arrange:
1. Jallianwala Bagh
2. Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Quit India Movement
4. Simon Commission
Answer:
A) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3 B) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 C) 2 → 1→ 4 → 3 D) 1 → 3 → 2 → 4
5. Odd One Out
Find the odd one:
Bankim Chandra, Gandhi, Nehru, Subhash Bose
Answer: Bankim Chandra
(Writer, not a frontline freedom fighter)
6. MCQ
Which City was known as the “Workshop of the World”?
a) Manchester
b) London
c) Liverpool
d) Birmingham
Answer: a

GEOGRAPHY (6 Questions)
7. Assertion–Reason
A: Laterite soil requires manure and fertilizers for high productivity.
R: It is rich in humus.
a) A and R true, R explains A
b) A and R true, R does not explain
c) A true, R false
d) A false, R true
Answer: c
8. MCQ
Which of the following is a power-saving non-conventional resource?
a) Coal
b) Petroleum
c) Solar energy
d) Natural gas
Answer: c
9. Match the Columns
Match the following:
Resource State
A. Mica 1. Odisha
B. Bauxite 2. Jharkhand
C. Coal 3. Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
A–3, B–1, C–2
10. Correct Sequence
Arrange river stages:
1. Delta formation
2. Waterfall
3. Meanders
4. V-shaped valley
Answer:
2→4→3→1
11. Odd One Out
Which does NOT belong to renewable resources?
Solar, Wind, Coal, Tidal
Answer: Coal
12. MCQ
The largest producer of coal in India is:
a) Odisha
b) Chhattisgarh
c) Jharkhand
d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: c
POLITICAL SCIENCE (6 Questions)
13. Assertion–Reason
A: India follows a two-party system.
R: Coalition governments are common in India.
a) Both true and R explains A
b) Both true but R not explanation
c) A true, R false
d) A false, R true
Answer: d
14. MCQ
Which is NOT a fundamental right?
a) Right to Equality
b) Right to Vote
c) Right to Freedom
d) Right against Exploitation
Answer: b
15. Match the Columns
Match:
A B
1. Federalism a) Power of courts to check laws
2. Secularism b) Power shared between levels
3. Judicial Review c) Equal respect for religions
Answer:
1–b, 2–c, 3–a
16. Correct Sequence
Steps in Government Budget:
1. Passed in Parliament
2. Prepared by Finance Ministry
3. Budget Speech
4. Sent to President
Answer:
2→3→1→4
17. Odd One Out
Which is NOT an elected body?
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, District Collector, Municipal Corporation
Answer: District Collector
18. MCQ
The final interpreter of the Constitution in India is:
a) Parliament
b) Supreme Court
c) Prime Minister
d) President
Answer: b
ECONOMICS (7 Questions)
19. Assertion–Reason
A: Per capita income is used to compare countries.
R: It shows the average income per person.
a) Both true and R explains A
b) Both true but R not explanation
c) A true, R false
d) A false, R true
Answer: a
20. MCQ
Capital formation depends on:
a) Health of workers
b) Investment in tools & machinery
c) Climate
d) Forest area
Answer: b
21. Match the Columns
Match:
A B
1. Physical capital a) Education & skill improvement
2. Human capital b) Tools, machines, buildings
3. Money c) Medium of exchange
Answer:
1–b, 2–a, 3–c
22. Correct Sequence
Stages of production:
1. Goods reach market
2. Inputs purchased
3. Production begins
4. Labour is employed
Answer:
2→4→3→1
23. Odd One Out
Find the odd one:
Self Help Group, Cooperative Bank, Moneylender, RBI
Answer: RBI
(not a source of direct loans for public)
24. MCQ
Which sector in India contributes the most jobs but lowest GDP share?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) IT Sector
Answer: a
25. MCQ
A low HDI value indicates:
a) High life expectancy
b) High literacy
c) Low economic development
d) High investment in health
Answer: c