MINING ENGINEERING 3

PART I – MULTIPLE CHOICE. Select the best answer for each question. Write your answer
on the answer sheet provided. Erasures and alterations will be considered
incorrect answers.

1. The layer of the atmosphere considered to be our global “sunscreen” from UV rays:
a. Stratosphere b. Mesosphere c. Troposphere d. Asthenosphere
2. What is the radius of the Earth?
a. 2900km b. 12740km c. 6370km d. 5151km
3. Planets in the solar system revolve in a______ direction except for Venus that
revolve in ______ direction.
a. Clockwise; Counterclockwise
b. Counterclockwise; clockwise
c. All planets revolve in counterclockwise
d. All planets revolve in clockwise
4. What is the weaker, hotter zone beneath the lithosphere that allows for motion of
Earth’s rigid outer shell.
a. Crust b. Asthenosphere c. Mesosphere d. Mantle
5. Why does a river meander?
a. Steep gradient
b. Sediment load is too high
c. Controlled by vegetation
d. almost flat floodplain
6. Most abundant metal on the crust.
a. Iron b. Aluminum c. Magnesium d. Potassium
7. Composition of oceanic crust.
a. SiAl b. SiMa c. SiO d. SiK
8. Hydrosphere is which part of the Earth?
a. entire body of water on the surface
b. water bodies on land
c. Water contained in the ocean
d. Body of water under the lithosphere
9. What is inner core of the Earth made of?
a. Iron-Magnesium Silicate c. Liquid Iron-Nickel
b. Solid Nickel-Iron d. Light Silicate Minerals
10. What type of volcano is Mt. Mayon?
a. Composite Volcano c. Cinder cone
b. Shield Volcano d. Caldera
11. The age of the Solar system and the Earth is based on the dating of what object?
a. Moon rock c. Oldest Diamond
b. Meteorite d. Oldest Metamorphic Rock
12. The formation of igneous rocks is powered by
a. The sun b. The rock cycle c. Earth’s internal heat d. erosion
13. The Theory of Uniformitarianism was developed by whom?
a. James Hutton b. William Smith c. A. G. Wegener d. Georges Cuvier
14. How fast does the Earth spin at the equator?
a. 1,600kph b. 16,000 kph c. 160,000 kph d. 160kph
15. What is the basic principle of Geology stating that ‘the present is the key to
the past’?
a. Uniformitarianism c. Palaeomorphism
b. Natural selection d. Catastrophism
16. What is a mineral’s streak?
a. A resistance to being scratched
b. The way in which a mineral reflects light
c. The color of a mineral in powder form
d. The way the mineral reacts to hydrochloric acid
17. Based on Bowen’s reaction series, what is the most stable mineral at the surface?
a. Olivine b. Quartz c. Mica d. Pyroxene
18. Which mineral group is composed purely of one element?
a. Monomineralic rocks b. Sulfides c. Silicates d. Native Elements
19. What rock is made of smallest sediment
a. Shale b. Breccia c. Conglomerate d. Sandstone
20. This mineral is the only ore of mercury in the Philippines
a. Galena b. Sphalerite c. Cinnabar d. Chalcopyrite
21. Who is the father of Mineralogy?
a. Georgius Agricola c. Friedrich Mohs
b. James Hutton d. Alfred Wegener
22. Some varieties of this mineral include ruby and sapphire
a. Corundum b. Diamond c. Beryl d. Garnet
23. Metamorphic rocks are formed by
a. Increased Temperature c. Changes in P-T
b. Diagenesis d. Melting
24. Minerals that form from magma form as the result of
a. Precipitation b. Compaction c. Crystallization d. Cementation
25. Serpentine is the main alteration product of which minerals?
a. chrysolite and olivine c. olivine and pyroxene
b. asbestos and riebeckite d. biotite and muscovite
26. Which rock type is composed of pieces of organisms?
a. Schist b. Limestone c. Granite d. Obsidian
27. What is the difference between carat and karat?
a. They are the same and can be interchangeable
b. Karat is used to measure the proportion of gold in an alloy while Carat
is used to weigh gems.
c. Carat is used to measure the proportion of gold in an alloy while Karat
is used to weigh gems
d. None of the above
28. What is the reflectivity of Silver?
a. 95% b. 50% c. 60% d. 40%
29. Which sulfide mineral contain the highest Cu percentage?
a. Cuprite b. Chalcopyrite c. Malachite d. Covellite
30. Highest Grade Nickel can be found in
a. Limonite b. Saprolite c. Bedrock d. Laterite
31. Garnierite is mineral rich in
a. Mg-Ni b. Cu-Ni c. Au-Ag d. Cu-Ag
32. You are exploring for a copper deposit. You see an outcrop with magnetite veins
and secondary biotite. Which alteration zone are you seeing?
a. Potassic b. Argillic c. Sericitic d. Prophylitic
33. Argillic alteration is composed of what?
a. Quartz +Chllorite + Pyrite
b. Kaolinite + Biotite + Illite
c. Biotite + K-Feldspar + Magnetite
d. Alunite + Pyrophyllite + Dickite
34. These deposits are characterized by large tonnage, low-grade disseminated ore
a. High-Sulfidation Epithermal Deposits c. Porphyry Deposits
b. Skarn Deposits d. Low-sulfidation Deposits
35. What is the commonest gangue mineral in ore deposits?
a. Quartz b. Clay c. Limonite [Link]
36. Complex system of structurally-controlled or randomly oriented veins
a. Disseminated b. Drusy c. Stockwork d. Colloform
37. Majority of the Philippine’s Copper are found on what deposit?
a. VMS b. Skarn c. Porphyry d. Placer
38. On a topographic map, contour lines that are closer together indicate
a. A mountain top b. Roads c. Stream d. Steeper slopes
39. What type of fault is the PFZ?
a. Reverse Fault c. Normal Fault
b. Strike-slip fault d. Thrust Fault
40. A fracture with a horizontal displacement parallel to its surface trend is
called a
a. Reverse Fault c. Normal Fault
b. Strike-slip fault d. Thrust Fault
41. The rock surface immediately above a fault surface is commonly called the
a. Anticline b. Hanging Wall c. Foot Wall d. Syncline
42. Folding is usually the result of what type of stress?
a. Tensional Stress c. Shear Stress
b. Compressional Stress d. Faulting
43. What kind of faults can be found along mid-oceanic ridges that strike
perpendicular to the direction of spreading?
a. Normal Fault b. Transform Fault c. Reverse Fault d. Thrust Fault
44. A low-angle fault dipping less than 45º reverse fault where hanging wall
overhangs the footwall is termed as?
a. reverse fault b. klippe c. thrust d. horst
45. Horizontal beds strike in which direction?
a. towards the dip b. none c. east of north d. west of north
46. The theory that states “when stress exceeds the rock’s internal strength, there
will be a sudden release of energy”
a. Isostatic Rebound c. Elastic Rebound
b. Plastic Rebound d. Strain Rebound
47. Which of the following can serve as the slope of a stress – strain graph curve?
(Stress: y-axis; strain: x-axis)
a. Young’s modulus c. Poisson’s ratio
b. Modulus of rigidity d. None of the choices
48. Which type of fold is characterized by upward-arching layers with the oldest
rocks in the center?
a. Anticline b. Syncline c. Monocline d. Overturned fold
49. In underground mining, which type of fault is generally considered the most
hazardous due to its potential to displace rock masses unpredictably?
a. Reverse Fault b. Strike-slip fault c. Normal Fault d. Thrust Fault
50. Highest peak in the Philippines
a. Mt. Pulag b. Mt. Apo c. Mt. Musuan d. Mt. Kitanglad
51. Reduction of iron oxides into metallic iron using carbon monoxide from partial
combustion of carbon is an example of
a. Converting c. Fire assaying
b. Smelting d. Refining
52. Determine the product of an iron blast furnace.
a. Wrought iron c. Malleable iron
b. Pig iron d. Cast iron
53. Choose the effect of flux on the slag formed
a. Oxidized the desired metal c. Decrease the melting point
b. Increase the melting point d. Increase viscosity
54. Determine the fuel used in an iron blast furnace.
a. Coal c. Coke
b. Limestone d. Bunker oil
55. Calculate the percentage solid by volume of a slurry with 45% solids and 2.7
solids S.G.
a. 26.3% c. 25.2%
b. 23.6% d. 22.5%
56. Calculate the volume of 1.5 MT of slurry that is 40% solids by weight with 2.7
solids S.G.
a. 1.5 cubic meters c. 1.1 cubic meters
b. 1.8 cubic meters d. 2.1 cubic meters
57. Calculate the number of atoms per unit cell for Hexagonal Closed Packed
a. 4 c. 10
b. 6 d. 2
58. Calculate the number of atoms per unit cell for Body Centered Cubic
a. 4 c. 10
b. 6 d. 2
59. It states that the work input in crushing or grinding is proportional to surface
area produced on the particles.
a. Fick’s law c. Kick’s law
b. Bond’s law d. Rittenger’s law
60. In spiral or rake classifier, size separation is attained mainly due to the
difference in ____ between the coarse and fine particles.
a. Angular velocity c. Horizontal acceleration
b. Settling velocity d. Angular acceleration
61. Surface characteristics of mineral particles properly coated with flotation
collector.
a. The same as uncoated c. Aerophobic
b. Hydrophilic d. Hydrophobic
62. With the knowledge that the ore deposit being explored is a massive base metal,
what type of samples would be preferred?
a. channel samples c. chip samples
b. grab samples d. random samples
63. It is used to determine the mineral amenability to, preliminary flowsheet for
treatment.
a. analytical determination c. assaying
b. metallurgical testing d. chemical testing
64. Determine the type of jaw crusher where the upper end of the movable crushing
surface is the fulcrum end while the lower end swings to and from the stationary
surface.
a. Blake type c. Double toggle type
b. Single toggle type d. Dodge type
65. You are tasked with grinding a material with an initial particle size (D1) of 8
mm down to a final particle size (D2) of 2 mm. According to Kick's theory, if
the constant K is 20, calculate the energy required to achieve this size
reduction for 1 ton of the material.
a. 27 kWh c. 12 kWh
b. 17 kWh d. 50 kWh
66. Xanthates with long hydrocarbon chains are _____ collectors compared with those
having shorter chains.
a. Weaker c. Stronger
b. Of equal strength as d. Selective
67. Determine the flotation process where all valuable minerals are floated from
gangue for subsequent separation of each of the valuable minerals.
a. Bulk flotation c. Differential flotation
b. Skin flotation d. Oil flotation
68. Determine the equipment used to remove water from sludge, sediment, or other
materials, typically in the context of wastewater treatment, industrial
processes, or mining operations.
a. Rotary Dryer c. indirect fired dryer
b. direct-fired dryer d. tube press
69. Determine the flotation reagent which enhances the collector coating on the
mineral surface.
a. Activator c. Conditioner
b. Modifier d. Depressant
70. In Carbon in pulp, carbon is added in the adsorption tank containing Au
solutions at 15ppm Au. What is the Au recovery if the last tank discharges
solution at 1.5ppm?
a. 85 c. 87
b. 93 d. 90
71. A Nordberg Jaw Crusher has rated capacity of 200TPH. Under choke feeding
condition, the crusher has been observed to perform 100% its rated capacity. If
the circulating load is 15%, how much run-of-mine-ore(ROMO) feed can it take at
any one time?
a. 170 TPH c. 150 TPH
b. 160 TPH d. 180 TPH
72. The coarse fraction (oversize) in an industrial screening operation was sampled,
tested in laboratory and found to still contain 12% of the fines (undersize).
Determine the screen efficiency.
a. 80% c. 84%
b. 82% d. 88%
73. A ball mill in close circuit with a hydroclone is fed at a rate of 300 DMT per
hour. The percentages of solids by weight of the cyclone feed, overflow, and
underflow are 60%, 40% and 75% respectively. Calculate the circulating load
ratio.
a. 2.5 c. 3.0
b. 2.0 d. 3.5
74. Fluxes are added to the material being smelted to form
a. Matte c. Speiss
b. Slag d. Dross
75. Consists of cutting trenches along a flattened cake of ore for the samples
a. Coning and quartering c. rolling and quartering
b. grab sampling d. Trench sampling
76. It is the source of metallic lead in fire assaying.
a. Niter c. Argol
b. Borax d. Litharge
77. The desired product of fusion in fire assaying.
a. Dore c. Precious metals
b. Slag d. Lead Button
78. The weight of metallic lead that will be produced from excess litharge by 1 gram
of ore or any assaying reagent.
a. Reducing power c. oxidizing power
b. Assay power d. fluxng power
79. Continuous diversion of ore using an even number of equally sized chutes,
adjacent chutes discharging at opposite ends
a. Jones Riffle c. Sluice
b. Whittle d. Gape
80. FeO, MnO, and CaO are slag forming constituents of ores and gangue materials.
a. Neutral c. basic
b. Acidic d. Reducing
81. Based on a short ton, 1 assay ton is equivalent to grams
a. 29.166 c. 26.619
b. 32.666 d. 26.366
82. Determine which of these is a sub-silicate.
a. 2MO.3SiO2 c. 4MO.SiO2
b. 4MO.3SiO2 d. 2MO.SiO2
83. An artificial sulphide of ore or more of the metals most often encountered in
the niter fusion of sulphide ore when the charge is too acidic.
a. Matte c. flux
b. Slag d. Litharge
84. Cupellation temperature ranges from ______
a. 900-1200°C c. 1000-1500°C
b. 850-1000°C d. 800-1200°C
85. The best ratio of silver to gold in dore bead is the optimum range of ___ Ag:Au.
a. 1:1-1.5:1 c. 3:1 -5:2
b. 2:3-3:5 d. 2:1-3:1
86. According to the Philippine Clean Air Act (RA 8749), Section 12 (b), what is the
suggested method for analysis and measurement of Hydrogen sulfide?
a. Methylene blue method
b. Methyl Orange method
c. Tischer Method
d. Volhard Titration with Iodine Solution
87. A mining company operates a large open-pit copper mine. You are tasked with
ensuring compliance with air quality standards. According to the Philippine
Clean Air Act (RA 8749), which of the following pollutants is MOST LIKELY to
require regular monitoring around the mine site to ensure compliance with
ambient air quality guideline values?
a. Total Organic Carbon (TOC) c. Carbon Monoxide (CO)
b. Total Suspended Particulates (TSP) d. Ammonia (NH3)
88. When evaluating effluent quality from a mining or quarrying operation, DAO 2016-
08 establishes concentration limits for Total Suspended Solids (TSS). A high TSS
level in the effluent can primarily cause which of the following environmental
problems?
a. Increased acidity of the receiving water body
b. Reduction in dissolved oxygen levels in the water
c. Introduction of harmful bacteria into the water
d. Thermal pollution of the receiving water body
89. Philippine Mine Rehabilitation and Restoration regulations emphasize sustainable
post-mining land uses. Which of the following options BEST exemplifies a
strategy that balances ecological restoration with creating livelihood
opportunities for the affected community?
a. Reforest the mined area with native tree species and establish a wildlife
sanctuary, with limited community access.
b. Convert the mined pit into a fishpond and train the local community in
aquaculture, while promoting eco-tourism in the surrounding area.
c. Level the land and develop a solar energy generation facility, providing
employment for the community in maintenance.
d. Leave the land as-is and focus solely on long-term ecological monitoring
to ensure natural revegetation.
90. Recontouring is a crucial step in mine rehabilitation. What is the primary
purpose of recontouring a mined-out area?
a. To create a flat surface for future development projects
b. To establish a stable landform that minimizes erosion and promotes
drainage
c. To segregate different types of mined materials for potential future use
d. To create aesthetically pleasing landscapes for the surrounding
communities
91. Revegetation is a critical component of mine rehabilitation that promotes the
return of plant life to the disturbed area. Which of the following factors is
LEAST important when selecting plant species for revegetation?
a. Native plant species adapted to the local climate and soil conditions
b. Plants with deep root systems to help stabilize the soil and prevent
erosion
c. Plants with high economic value for potential commercial gain after
establishment
d. Fast-growing plant species to achieve rapid establishment of vegetation
cover
92. Under DAO 2022-04, the following shall serve as indicators of a successful and
compliant rehabilitation activity, EXCEPT:
a. Species diversity in the rehabilitation area closely mirrors the
diversity of the reference ecosystem.
b. The indication of restored ecosystem functions, such as controlled
erosion and sustained water supply in water tributaries (streams), is
evident.
c. At least 85% survival rate of the established vegetation at the end of
the rehabilitation period.
d. A minimum depth of topsoil is achieved across the entire rehabilitation
area.
93. A mining company is preparing an EIS for a new copper mine project. PD 1586
emphasizes public participation. According to PD 1586 and its implementing
rules, which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the scoping process
in environmental impact assessment?
a. To finalize the project design and obtain all necessary permits before
public consultations.
b. To define the boundaries and level of detail required in the EIS based on
potential environmental impacts and public concerns.
c. To gather public comments after the draft EIS is completed to address any
objections before finalization.
d. To present the completed EIS to government agencies for review and
approval.
94. A coal mine has completed revegetation of a reclaimed area using a fast-growing,
non-native grass species. DAO 2022-04 emphasizes long-term sustainability.
Considering the principles outlined in DAO 2022-04, what is the MAJOR potential
drawback of using a fast-growing, non-native grass species for revegetation
efforts in a post-mining area?
a. The grass species might not be aesthetically pleasing compared to native
plants.
b. The fast growth might deplete soil nutrients faster, hindering long-term
sustainability.
c. The non-native grass could potentially become an invasive species in the
surrounding ecosystem.
d. The grass might not provide sufficient habitat or food source for native
fauna.
95. A gold mine needs to dewater its underground workings to facilitate safe and
efficient ore extraction. In the context of mine dewatering, what is the PRIMARY
function of a penstock?
a. To store excess water pumped from the underground workings.
b. To control the flow rate of water being discharged from the mine.
c. To channel dewatered water for use in the processing plant.
d. To provide a pressurized water source for drilling and dust suppression
activities.
96. A tailings dam holding iron ore waste needs a reliable monitoring system to
detect potential stability issues. Which of the following instrumentation
systems would be MOST beneficial for monitoring the stability and performance of
the tailings dam and providing early warnings of potential problems?
a. Visual inspection by qualified engineers at regular intervals.
b. A network of piezometers to measure pore water pressure within the dam.
c. A simple camera system to monitor the overall condition of the dam from a
distance.
d. A basic weather station to track rainfall and wind data near the dam.
97. A gold mine produces a large volume of slurry tailings. The processing plant
needs to thicken the slurry before pumping it to the tailings storage facility.
Additionally, a suitable pipeline needs to be chosen for transporting the
thickened tailings. Considering both thickening and pipeline transportation,
which of the following options represents the BEST combination for efficient and
cost-effective tailings management?
a. Thickening the slurry to a high density and using a large-diameter,
carbon steel pipeline.
b. Thickening the slurry moderately and using a smaller diameter, high-
density polyethylene (HDPE) pipeline.
c. Using a thin, low-cost slurry with minimal thickening and a large-
diameter carbon steel pipeline.
d. Thickening the slurry to a high density and using a small diameter, HDPE
pipeline.
98. What is the PRIMARY engineering intervention for mitigating the environmental
impact of acid mine drainage (AMD) from abandoned mines?
a. Extracting any remaining coal reserves to minimize further exposure of
sulfide minerals to air and water.
b. Constructing a passive treatment system using limestone channels to
neutralize the acidic water before discharge.
c. Sealing the mine adits to prevent air and water from entering the mine
workings and generating AMD.
d. Dredging the contaminated sediments from the affected waterways to remove
pollutants directly.
99. A lead-zinc mine operates a landfill for non-hazardous waste. However, concerns
exist about potential leachate (contaminated liquid) generation and its impact
on groundwater. Which of the following engineering interventions would be MOST
effective in minimizing the environmental impact of leachate from the mine's
landfill?
a. Lining the landfill base with a clay layer only, as clay is a natural
barrier to liquid flow.
b. Implementing a leachate collection system with a liner and directing the
collected leachate for discharge without treatment.
c. Constructing a composite liner system with a geomembrane and clay layer,
combined with a leachate collection and treatment system before
discharge.
d. Covering the landfill with an impermeable cap to prevent rainwater
infiltration and leachate generation.
100. A limestone quarry generates a large volume of overburden (waste rock)
during the extraction process. Heavy rainfall events can cause erosion of the
overburden stockpile, potentially polluting nearby streams with sediment. Which
of the following interventions would be MOST effective in minimizing erosion
from the overburden stockpile and protecting nearby waterways during heavy
rainfall events?
a. Covering the entire stockpile with a plastic tarp to prevent water
infiltration.
b. Planting fast-growing grasses on the slopes of the stockpile to promote
natural stabilization.
c. Constructing a sedimentation pond at the base of the stockpile to capture
and treat sediment-laden runoff before discharge.
d. Implementing a combination of berms, ditches, and riprap around the
stockpile to divert and control water flow.