Module 17 - EASA Questions

1. Aircraft propellers are designed to: a. Accelerate a large mass of air through a small velocity change. b. Accelerate a small mass of air through a large velocity change . c. Accelerate a large mass of air through a large velocity change.

2. A tractor propeller is: a. Mounted aft of the engine . b. Mounted forward of the engine . c. Mounted at the tail plane .

3. The thrust produced by a blade acts 90 to the : a. Plane of rotation. b. Chord line. c. Relative airflow.

4. What is the average percentage horsepower absorbed by a propeller? a. 80%. b. 85%. c. 90%.

5. When the blades of a propeller are in reverse thrust ( -11.5): a. Propeller torque is negative working with the engine torque .

b. No propeller torque e xists during reverse thrust. c. Propeller torque is positive so acts against engine torque .

6. When propeller torque equals engine torque : a. The blades have a negative angle of attack. b. The engine produces zero thrust . c. The propeller rotates at a constant speed.

7. Vibration which causes the ends of the blade to twist back and forth at high frequencies at an axis perpendicular to the engine crankshaft is termed : a. Blade rigidity. b. Quiver. c. Flutter.

8. An increase in air density causes : a. An increase in thrust only . b. An increase in thrust and torque . c. Thrust to decrease.

9. The optimum angle of attack for most propeller blades is a. -2. b. 4. c. 15.

10. Centrifugal twisting moments tend to: a. Turn the blades into a fi ne pitch. b. Reduce the rotational velocity . c. Turn the blades to a coarse pitch .

11. Aerodynamic twisting moments tend to : a. Turn the blades into a fine pitch . b. Reduce the rotational velocity . c. Turn the blades to a coarse pitch .

12. With respect to centrifugal and aerodynamic twisting moments : a. Centrifugal twisting moments are smaller than aerodynamic twisting moments . b. Centrifugal twisting moments are equal to aerodynamic twisting moments . c. Centrifugal twisting moments are greate r than aerodynamic twisting moments.

13. When the propeller is windmilling : a. Centrifugal twisting moments oppose aerodynamic twisting moments to produce a coarse pitch. b. Centrifugal twisting moments assist aerodynamic twisting moments to fine pitch the blades. c. Centrifugal twisting moments assist aerodynamic twisting moments to produce a coarse pitch.

14. The difference between the geometric pitch and advance per revolution is : a. Flash. b. Pitch. c. Slip.

15. An aircraft with a right handed propeller yawed right will experience : a. A nose up attitude. b. Dutch roll. c. A nose down attitude.

16. The effectiveness of a control surface in the slip stream is : a. Greater than those outside the slip stream . b. Equal to those outside the slip stream. c. Less than those outside the slip stream .

17. For an aircraft with a nose up attitude and a right hand propeller, aerodynamic effect will cause: a. Yaw to the right. b. Yaw to the left. c. Roll to the right.

18. Solidity is calculated by: a. Blade area Disc area .

b. Disc area Blade area. c. Blade area

Disc area.

19. The master station of a propeller is : a. 1/3 down of the span from the hub . b. 1/2 of the span from the hub . c. 3/4 of the span from the hub.

20. The two causes of propeller vibration are : a. Out-of-tract condition and out -of-synchronisation condition . b. Out-of-tract condition and out -of-balance condition. c. Out-of-tract synchronisation and out -of-balance condition.

21. Most propellers are protected from corrosion using : a. Anodising. b. Chromating. c. Alclad.

22. The strength and stiffness of a composite blade is determined by : a. Orientation of fibres, length of blade and resin mixture ratio . b. Resin mixture ratio, material and thickness of the blade. c. Material, diameter and orientation of the fibres.

23. The Hamilton Standard blade has high strength and fatigue resistance from :

a. Titanium outer coating. b. Randomly oriented, high density Kevlar fibres. c. Aluminium alloy central spar.

24. The two blades which run from front to back on a Dowty rotor are made from : a. Aluminium alloy. b. Stainless steel. c. Carbon.

25. SAE 30 splines are used on aircraft with a horsepower : a. 300HP 400HP. b. 400HP 500HP. c. 600HP 1000HP.

26. With respect to the grooves and lands of a spline shaft : a. Grooves are larger than the land . b. Grooves and lands are the same size . c. Grooves are smaller than the land .

27. For the propeller hub cones :

a. The rear two-piece cone is split bronze and the front cone is hardened steel. b. The rear cone is hardened steel and the front two -piece cone is split bronze. c. The rear cone is split bronze and the front two -piece cone is hardened steel.

28. What pitch is selected for a two-pitch propeller to take off? a. Coarse pitch. b. Angle half way between coarse and fine . c. Fine pitch.

29. When the engine power control lever is advanced beyond flight idle, the system enters: a. Beta mode. b. Prop governing mode. c. Propeller pitch control.

30. When the speed lever is at maximum position and the power lever is in Beta range, the RPM will be at : a. 67%. b. 75%. c. 97%.

31. In propeller governing mode, the propeller pitch is controlled by : a. Manual fuel valve.

b. Propeller pitch control. c. Propeller governor.

32. If an engine fails in flight, what system is used to move the blades to feather? a. Negative torque system. b. Engine pressure ratio detection system . c. Feathering system.

33. The typical propeller angle at ground idle is : a. -2. b. 0. c. 86.

34. A single acting propeller is spring loaded to : a. Coarse blade pitch. b. A blade pitch angle between coarse and fine. c. Fine blade pitch.

35. Oil ported down the Beta tube has a pressure around : a. 39psi. b. 150psi.

c. 450psi.

36. With respect to the Beta tube, advancing the power lever causes the propeller pitch control cam to rotate and the Beta tube sleeve to therefore : a. Move right. b. Remain in its position . c. Move left.

37. The propeller governor is mounted : a. At the rear of the reduction gear case . b. Adjacent to the manual fuel valve and the underspeed fuel governor . c. As part of the propeller pitch control mechanism .

38. When there is an overspee d condition, the propeller blade pitch adjusts to move to : a. A fine blade pitch. b. A blade angle between fine and coarse . c. A coarse blade angle.

39. The procedure by which the propeller blades are turned beyond the coarse pitch position until they are edge onto the flow is the definition of : a. Overspeed adjustment. b. Feathering. c. Constant RPM mode.

40. Auto-feather is activated by: a. Negative torque signal. b. Low oil pressure. c. Low RPM.

41. Positive torque is when the : a. Propeller drives the engine . b. Engine drives the propeller . c. Oil pressure remains low.

42. The negative torque system operates as a: a. Automatic feather system. b. Drag reduction system. c. Windmilling system.

43. Start-up is aborted when the en gine has been at 10% RPM and light up has not occurred after: a. 3 seconds. b. 10 seconds. c. 30 seconds.

44. Ignition de-energises at:

a. 50% RPM. b. 60% RPM. c. 70% RPM.

45. How long is the cooling period before the stop switch should be activated? a. 1 minute. b. 2 minutes. c. 3 minutes.

46. In a double acting moving piston system: a. Coarse oil travels through the inner tube and fine oil through the outer tube . b. Coarse oil travels through the outer tube and fine oil through the inner tube. c. The feed of pitch oil is from different pipes.

47. For a double acting propeller, what mechanism uses a piston in a stationary tube connected to bevel gears? a. Hydromatic. b. Moving piston. c. Moving cylinder.

48. Which part of the pi tch change piston mechanism is used to convert axial movement into rotary movement as to change the blade pitch with piston stroke ? a. Transfer sleeve housing. b. Cylinder.

c. Blade operating link assembly .

49. When the centre of gravity acts through the axis or centre of rotation, the propeller is : a. Dynamically balanced. b. Statically balanced. c. Aerodynamically balanced .

50. Correction of static imbalance on variable pitch propellers is achieved by: a. Addition of strategically placed weights. b. Adding lead wool. c. Changing the natural pitch of a single propeller blade.

51. Aerodynamic corrected factor is used due to : a. Unequal aerodynamic forces due to minor changes in blade shapes . b. Correct when static and dynamic imbalance are present. c. Damage caused by an overspeed.

52. The maximum permitted out of track for a propeller blade set is : a. 0.025 inches. b. 0.25 inches. c. 2.5 inches.

53. The procedure where propellers are mounted on a mandrel and placed across level knife edges is part of the inspection for :

a. Static balance. b. Dynamic balance. c. Aerodynamic imbalance.

54. The most effective type of balancing inspection is : a. Static balance. b. Dynamic balance. c. Aerodynamic imbalance.

55. During the rework of a damaged blade, the reduction in section thickness should not exceed: a. 10% of the overall section thickness . b. 25% of the overall section thickness . c. 45% of the overall section thickness .

56. The blend area of damage must not exceed : a. 10% of the chord length. b. 20% of the chord length . c. 4 inches.

57. During a propeller repair, the direction of rework : a. Is at 90 to the major axis of the blade .

b. Is at 45 to the major axis of the blade c. Is in the direction of the major axis of the blade.

58. How much extra material should be removed after rework if a burn has occurred? a. 0.002 inches. b. 0.02 inches. c. 0.2 inches.

59. Blades that can be twisted and straightened without prior annealing are : a. Cold straightened. b. Cold worked. c. Dry formed.

60. Checks for overspeed should be performed when : a. As soon as RPM reaches 115%. b. RPM exceeds 100%. c. RPM reaches 115% and remains there for a set length of time .

61. At what overspeed should the propeller be removed and sent to the manufacturer for inspection? a. 105% RPM. b. 115% RPM. c. 130% RPM.

62. Assembled propellers must have their bearings removed and inspected after : a. 6 months. b. 9 months. c. 1 year.

63. Uninstalled propellers should have their ex ternal blades coated with: a. Lanolin. b. Alocrom 1200. c. Alclad.

64. The minimum permissible contact between front and rear cone settings of a propeller installation is : a. 70%. b. 80%. c. 90%.

65. What is usually used to keep the pipes clear from de-icing fluid? a. Methylated spirit and distilled water . b. Isopropyl alcohol and distilled water . c. Trichloroethylene and distilled water .

66. When new brushes are fitted to an electrical anti -icing system, the minimum contact between the brush and slip ring is: a. 70%. b. 80%. c. 90%.

67. An irregular oscillation on a synchroscope means : a. The slave engine is faster than the master engine . b. The difference in speed is beyond the measuring limits of the instrument . c. The engine has stopped.

68. Synchrophasing is: a. Keeping propeller blades from interacting with each other . b. Maintaining all slave engines at a constant speed with respect to the master. c. Changing the natural frequency of a material to avoid accelerated failing.

69. In a fluid ice protection system, the volume of fluid sprayed is changed using : a. A control knob in the cockpit . b. A rheostat. c. Manually changing a valve position during ground maintenance .

70. A de-icing overshoe on a propeller extends: a. 1/4 of the length of the blade from the root . b. 1/2 of the length of the blade from the root .

c. 2/3 of the length of the blade from the root .

71. The fast selection of a cyclic de -icing timer should be selected when : a. Temperatures are -6C to +10C with visible moisture. b. Below temperatures of -6C. c. The temperature reaches 0C .

72. Slow speed cyclic icing will be selected for : a. Glaze icing. b. Temperatures are -6C to +10C with visible moisture. . c. Rime icing.

73. With respect to fast and slow cyclic icing, the times are: a. Fast speed = 80 seconds; Slow speed = 240 seconds . b. Fast speed = 100 seconds; Slow speed = 300 seconds. c. Fast speed = 120 seconds; Slow speed = 360 seconds.

ANSWERS Question 1 2 Answer Question A B 38 39 Answer C B

3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29

A A C C C B B A C C B C C A B A C B A C C C A B A C B

40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66

A B B B B C A A C B B A B A B B C C B A C C C A B A B

30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37

C C A B A C A A

67 68 69 70 71 72 73

B A B C A A C