METEOROLOGY

TEST NUMBER 2
Q1. Fog and cloud formation takes place by:
(a) Sublimation
(b) Condensation
(c) Evaporation
(d) None of the above
Q2. What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?
(a) -55C
(b) -35C
(c) -25C
(d) -75C
Q3. You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft shortly before an active cold
front passes. What does the altimeter indicate?
(a) It is not affected by a pressure change.
(b) The pressure changes are very small and therefore, there is no visible change
of the indication.
(c) It increases.
(d) It decreases.
Q4. You intend to overfly a mountain ridge at an altitude of 15000 ft AMSL. The
average air temperature is 15 C lower than ISA, the sea level pressure 1003 hPa.
Which altimeter indication (standard setting) is needed?
(a) 13830 ft.
(b) 14370 ft.
(c) 15630 ft.
(d) 16170 ft.
Q5. The amount of water vapour which air can hold largely depends on:
(a) stability of air.
(b) relative humidity.
(c) dew point.
(d) air temperature.
Q6. The percent by volume of the gases to be found in the atmosphere is
distributed according to size as follows:
(a) more nitrogen than oxygen.
(b) less oxygen than carbon dioxide.
(c) less nitrogen than water vapour.
(d) more oxygen than nitrogen.
Q7. Lines connecting points of equal pressure are called:
(a) Isogonal lines
(b) Isotachs
(c) Isobars
(d) Isotherms
Q8. The temperature gradient in the international standard atmosphere (ISA) is:
(a) 0.6 C/100m.

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(b) 0.65 C/100m.

(c) 0.5 C/100m.
(d) 2C/1000m
Q9. How does the level of the tropopause vary with latitude in the Northern
Hemisphere?
(a) Constant.
(b) Decreases South - North.
(c) It varies with longitude not latitude.
(d) Decreases North - South.
Q10. Where is the ozone layer?
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Tropopause
(c) Ionosphere
(d) Troposphere
Q11. What cloud type is prone to +RA?
(a) AS
(b) CC
(c) ST
(d) NS
Q12. Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind
and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?
(a) Advection.
(b) Coriolis
(c) Pressure Gradient
(d) Centrifugal
Q13. Sub-tropical jets in the northern hemisphere will be found at latitudes... and
in the southern hemisphere at latitudes...
(a) 10N to 15N; 25S to 30S
(b) 25N to 40N; 30S to 35S
(c) 45N to 60N; 40S to 45S
(d) 25N to 30N; 15S to 20S
Q14. Maximum cyclones occur over India in :
(a) Pre monsoon
(b) Winters
(c) Post Monsoon
(d) SW monsoon
Q15. The rainfall over India during Monsoon depends upon :
(a) Low over Pakistan
(b) Depression over Bay of Bengal
(c) Position of axis of monsoon trough
Q16. If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at:
(a) the same rate as if the air mass were dry.
(b) a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat.

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(c) a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat.

(d) a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat.
Q17. Wind shear is experienced when:
(a) the wind has been forecasted to be light and variable.
(b) gusts have been forecasted or reported.
(c) there is a ground inversion and strong winds above the inversion layer.
(d) neither wind direction nor force changes at altitude
Q18. Unsaturated air moving downwards is heated at a certain rate of
temperature change, called:
(a) Dry adiabatic.
(b) Saturated adiabatic.
(c) Chinook wind.
(d) Ambient lapse rate.
Q19. If a cold front moves at 30 knots, you could expect the warm front to be
moving at:
(a) 40 knots
(b) 20 knots
(c) 30 knots
(d) 50 knots
Q20. What is a SPECI?
(a) A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when
required.
(b) A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours.
(c) A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant
change of the weather conditions have been observed.
(d) An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours.
Q21. Wind from Air Traffic Control is 035 /30 kts. If the QDM of the runway is
083 and the variation is 20 E the headwind component will be:
(a) 20 knots
(b) 23 knots
(c) 26 knots
(d) 32 knots
Q22. Given a surface temperature of +10 C, and a dew point of +5 C, at what
height might you expect cumulus clouds to form:
(a) 4000 feet
(b) 1000 feet
(c) 2000 feet
(d) 6000 feet
Q23. The pressure at sea level in the ISA is:
(a) 1012.35 hPa.
(b) 1013.25 hPa.
(c) 29,95 in Hg.
(d) 1025.13 hPa.

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Q24. As a parcel of air warms, its ability to hold water vapour:

(a) Decreases.
(b) Unable to say - it also depends on the pressure.
(c) Increases.
(d) Remains unaltered.
Q25. What can be said if you encounter +FZRA during flight?
(a) There is no significant icing to expect.
(b) Freezing rain consists of water droplets which supercooled to below-freezing
temperatures on impact.
(c) Only light rime ice has to be expected.
(d) Icing will most probably occur.
Q26. FL 140, an OAT -12 C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 110,
if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
(a) -6C
(b) -2C
(c) -18C
(d) +2C
Q27. What can be said about the temperature in the lower stratosphere?
(a) The temperature is decreasing.
(b) The temperature is first increasing and then decreasing.
(c) The temperature is constant.
(d) The temperature is increasing.
Q28. An aircraft is flying on a constant heading with left drift in the northern
hemisphere, maintaining a constant indicated pressure altitude. Which of the
following is true?
(a) It is likely to be maintaining a constant distance relative to the surface.
(b) It is likely to be climbing relative to the surface.
(c) It is likely to be descending relative to the surface.
(d) None of the above
Q29. Which statement is true?
(a) Air density generally increases as altitude increases.
(b) Air density generally decreases as altitude increases.
(c) Air density generally stays the same as altitude increases.
(d) None of the above.
Q30. An air mass is a body of air that:
(a) covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature
and moisture.
(b) has extensive turbulence associated with it.
(c) creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth's surface.
(d) has similar cloud formations associated with it.
Q31. A V-shaped extension of a low pressure area is called a:
(a) Ridge.
(b) Occlusion.

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(c) Col
(d) Trough
Q32. What prevents air from flowing directly from a high to a low pressure?
(a) Pressure force.
(b) Coriolis force.
(c) Centripetal force.
(d) Centrifugal force.
Q33. In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?
(a) Tropical continental air.
(b) Polar continental air.
(c) Polar maritime air.
(d) Arctic maritime air.
Q34. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:
(a) small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft.
(b) water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface.
(c) freezing rain striking the aircraft.
(d) droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing.
Q35. When ice changes directly to water vapour, latent heat is _________ and is
called ________
(a) absorbed; sublimation.
(b) released; vaporization.
(c) absorbed; vaporization.
(d) released; sublimation.
Q36. The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is:
(a) clear and winds are weak.
(b) overcast and winds are strong.
(c) overcast and winds are weak.
(d) clear and winds are strong.
Q37. Radiation fog in North West India happens
(a) during the Western Disturbance
(b) After the Western Disturbance has passed
(c) Just before the arrival of the western disturbance
Q38. While forming rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze...
(a) slowly and do not spread out.
(b) rapidly and spread out extensively.
(c) on impact, at temperatures near the freezing level.
(d) rapidly and do not spread out.
Q39. Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the:
(a) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated
adiabatic lapse rate.
(b) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry
adiabatic lapse rate.
(c) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated

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adiabatic lapse rate.

(d) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated
adiabatic lapse rate.
Q40. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized
predominantly by downdrafts?
(a) Cumulus stage.
(b) Dissipating stage.
(c) Mature stage.
(d) Anvil stage
Q41. In the Bay of Bengal during the months of July,August, Monsson depression
forms
(a) Over head Bay
(b) Central Bay
(c) South bay
Q42. Line squalls occur _________ of cold front
(a) Ahead
(b) Behind
(c) At the
Q43. WDs approach India as
(a) Cols
(b) Occluded fronts
(c) Highs
Q44. Dust storms usually occur over NW India during
(a) Post monsoon
(b) Winter
(c) Pre monsoon
Q45. The Tropical Jet Stream prevails over the Indian Peninsula from
(a) May to June
(b) Sept to Oct
(c) Jun to Aug
Q46. A gust is a rapid increase in wind speed lasting ________ and spread over
______ A squall is a sudden increase of wind speed of at least ___________ and lasting
________________
(a) at least 1 minute, some distance, 16 kts, less than 1 minute.
(b) less than 1 minute, some distance, 16 kts, at least 1 minute.
(c) at least 1 minute, a short distance, 43 kts, less than 1 minute.
(d) less than 1 minute, a short distance, 16 kts, at least 1 minute.
Q47. A microburst:
(a) has a diameter up to 4 km.
(b) is always associated with thunderstorms.
(c) has a life time of more than 30 minutes.
(d) occurs only in tropical areas.

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Q48. What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front?
(a) At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB.
(b) Extensive areas of fog. At some100 km from the front NS begin.
(c) At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front.
(d) At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km
thickening AS.
Q49. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA
SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518
23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich
1430 UTC is:
(a) 6Km
(b) 10Km
(c) 6nm
(d) 4km
Q50. What does the term METAR mean?
(a) Meteorological aerodrome routine report.
(b) Meteorological terminal area report.
(c) Aviation routine weather report.
(d) Aviation routine weather forecast.
Q51. Aurora Borealis are called _______________ lights
(a) Northern
(b) Southern
(c) Temperate
Q52. The lower limit of the jet core velocity is :
(a) 60 m/s
(b) 70 m/s
(c) 60 knots
Q53. Inversion is ____________ lapse rate
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
Q54. Warm and moist air moving over a cold surface gives rise to
(a) Radiation fog
(b) Frontal fog
(c) Advection fog
Q55. Geostrophic wind is due to the balance between the forces ________________?
(a) Coriolis and frictional
(b) Pressure gradient and Cyclostrophic
(c) Pressure Gradient and Coriolis
Q56. Break in monsoon occurs when
(a) Axis of Monsoon trough is along Gangetic plains
(b) Axis of monsoon trough is along the foot hills oh Himalayas
(c) There is a depression over Bay of Bengal

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Q57. An aircraft flying in Pre Monsoon season from Delhi to Kolkata at 10KM
will experience ________________ winds
(a) Easterly
(b) Westerly
(c) Northerly
(d) Southerly
Q58. Steady NE winds in the Northern Hemisphere and SE winds in the Southern
Hemisphere are called :
(a) Trade winds
(b) Easterly winds
(c) Tropical winds
Q59. The validity of the Landing Forecast(TREND) is ?
(a) 3 hour
(b) 9 hours
(c) 2 hours
Q60. SIGMET is valid for ?
(a) 4 hours
(b) 18 hours
(c) 6 hours
Q61. During post monsoon, the pressure gradient over India is?
(a) weak
(b) steep
(c) same as winters
Q62. Subsidence in an anticyclone produces ?
(a) saturated air and an inversion.
(b) isothermal dry and stable air.
(c) increased pressure at the surface.
(d) dry air and an inversion.
Q63. Pressure gradient over west coast of India is steep during?
(a) Pre Monsoon
(b) Winters
(c) Post Monsoon
(d) South West Monsoon
Q64. CAT is the bumpiness experienced by aircraft at high altitudes _____________
in either cloud free conditions or in stratiform clouds
(a) above 18000 feet
(b) below 18000 feet
(c) below 28000 feet
Q65. Stratus cloud of limited depth at a temperature of -5C will most likely give
(a) light to moderate rime ice.
(b) moderate to heavy rime ice.
(c) light to moderate glaze ice.
(d) moderate to heavy glaze ice.

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Q66. In the TAF for Delhi, during the summer, for the time of your landing you
note: TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can
last in anyone instance?
(a) 20 minutes.
(b) 120 minutes.
(c) 60 minutes.
(d) 10 minutes.
TAF VABB 251200Z 2515/2524 07005KT 6000 SCT015 SCT020 BKN100 TEMPO
2515/2518 4000 TSRA/RA SCT015 FEW020CB OVC080 BECMG 2516/2517
00000KT 4000 HZ (***for 67-69)
Q67. Lowest forecast visibility in TAF report is?
(a) 6000 feet
(b) 4000 feet
(c) 4Km
Q68. Amount of CB cloud is?
(a) 1-2/8
(b) 3-4/8
(c) 5-7/8
Q69. What winds can an aircraft landing at 1830UTC expect?
(a) Calm or no winds
(b) Light winds
(c) Gusty winds
Q70. CAT is often encountered
(a) At the boundary of a jet stream
(b) In the wake of a passing airplane
(c) In the wake of a larger airplane at take-off and landing
(d) All of the above
Q71. A jet stream can be recognized by
(a) High level dust
(b) High pressure
(c) Streaks of Ci
(d) Lenticular clouds
Q72. The Sub Tropical Jet Stream affects India from :
(a) June to July
(b) October to May
(c) August to September
Q73. Line squalls occur ____________ of a cold front
(a) Ahead
(b) Behind
(c) At the
Q74. Aurora Borealis are called ___________________ lights
(a) Northern

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(b) Southern
(c) Temperate
Q75. The radius of the Bishops ring is about
(a) 32
(b) 22
(c) 42
Q76. Norwesters affect
(a) N India
(b) Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, and Assam
(c) Central India
Q77. Visibility is poor in a warm front
(a) Ahead
(b) Ahead and During
(c) After and During
Q78. Maximum WDs occur in
(a) Summers
(b) Post Monsoon
(c) Winters
Q79. In a CS the wind speed is
(a) <17 kts
(b) 34-47 kts
(c) 17-27 kts
(d) 28-33 kts
Q80. Peninsular discontinuity occurs along
(a) West Coast
(b) East Coast
(c) Central Peninsula
Q81. The huge vertical circulations, one between Equator and 30N and another
between Equator and 30S, are called
(a) Hadley Cells
(b) Ferrel Cells
(c) Polar cells
Q82. A part of the sinking air over the subtropical highs flows towards the
equator, turning west(in the Northern Hemisphere) due to Coriolis force. This
surface air is called
(a) Trade winds
(b) Roaring Forties
(c) Doldrums
Q83. It is the lowest temperature which air would attain by evaporating water
into it to saturate it
(a) Wet bulb temperature
(b) Dry Bulb temperature
(c) Dew point

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Q84. Geostrophic rule breaks down at _______________

(a) Mid latitudes
(b) Poles
(c) Equator
Q85. Friction causes winds to flow cross isobaric by __________ over land and
________ over sea
(a) 20/10
(b) 20/30
(c) 40/30
Q86. The inertial flow is
(a) Cyclonic in both the hemispheres
(b) Anti-cyclonic in both the hemispheres
(c) Anti-cyclonic around an anticyclone
Q87. Radiation fog is essentially a __________ phenomena
(a) Nocturnal
(b) Dusk
(c) Day
Q88. Lenticular clouds indicate the presence of
(a) Warm Front
(b) Cold front
(c) Mountain waves
Q89. Inversion is common in
(a) Post Monsoon
(b) Monsoon
(c) Winters
Q90. DALR is approximately
(a) 5C/Km
(b) 15C/Km
(c) 10C/Km
Q91. In CB icing may range from light to severe type up to -20C level. Below this
temperature severe icing is
(a) Not significant
(b) Significant
(c) Maximum
Q92. There are ____ Aerodrome Met offices
(a) 14
(b) 17
(c) 16
Q93. QNH 1002.9 hPa is reported as
(a) Q1002
(b) Q1003
(c) Q1002.9

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Q94. QNH 29.92 inches is reported as

(a) Q2900
(b) A2992
(c) A 3000
Q95. CAVOK is issued when
(i) Visibility 10Km or more
(ii) No weather of significance
(iii) No clouds below 1500m or below the highest minimum sector altitude,
whichever is greater and no cumulonimbus
(a) Any one condition
(b) Any two conditions
(c) All three conditions
Q96. R26/M0150 in a METAR indicates that
(a) maximum RVR is 150m
(b) minimum RVR is 150m
(c) 150m is the lowest RVR instrument can measure and RVR is < 150m
Q97. Surge is also
(a) Velocity Divergence
(b) Velocity Convergence
(c) like ITCZ
Q98. DALR > ELR > SALR
(a) conditionally unstable
(b) latently stable
(c) potentially stable
Q99. Density altitude may be defined as :
(a) The altitude in a standard atmosphere at which the prevailing pressure
occurs.
(b) The altitude in a standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density occurs
(c) Surface of constant atm. pressure related to standard atm. of 1013.2 hPa
Q100. Isallobars are lines of equal
(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature tendency
(c) Pressure Tendency
Q101. The rate of fall of pressure with height in a warm air mass compared to
cold air mass will be
(a) Same
(b) More
(c) Less
Q102. Opaque rime ice is
(a) Light porous
(b) Solid
(c) Mixture of porous and solid

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