1 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

TOEFL (Test of English as a Foreign Language)

PREPARATION CLASS

PUSAT BAHASA - UNIVERSITAS MUHADI SETIABUDI

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MODUL PEMBELAJARAN TOEFL (Test of English as a Foreign Language)

UNIVERSITAS MUHADI SETIABUDI

PENGARAH:
Dr. Roby Setiadi, [Link]., M.M.
Dr. Moh. Toharudin, [Link].
Otong Saeful Bachri, [Link]., M.M., [Link].
Wadli, S.T.P., [Link].

PENANGGUNG JAWAB:
Dedi Romli Triputra, Lc., M.S.I.

TIM PENYUSUN:

Fitriana Kartika Sari, [Link].

Elinda Umisara, [Link].

Andini Syita Savitri, [Link].

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KATA PENGANTAR

Salam sejahtera bagi kita semua. Dalam dunia pendidikan, tes TOEFL (Test of English as a
Foreign Language) merupakan salah satu tes standar yang digunakan untuk mengukur kemampuan
bahasa Inggris seseorang. Tes ini biasanya diperlukan untuk keperluan akademik, seperti
melanjutkan studi ke luar negeri atau untuk mendapatkan gelar akademik tertentu.

Modul ini disusun oleh Universitas Muhadi Setiabudi dengan tujuan untuk membantu para
peserta mengembangkan kemampuan dalam menjawab soal TOEFL dengan baik dan efektif.
Modul ini akan memberikan penjelasan dan latihan soal-soal TOEFL yang sesuai dengan format
tes terbaru, sehingga peserta dapat mempersiapkan diri dengan lebih baik.

Kami berharap bahwa modul ini akan membantu para peserta untuk meraih skor yang tinggi
pada tes TOEFL dan mencapai tujuan akademik atau karir yang diinginkan. Terima kasih atas
kepercayaan yang diberikan kepada kami dan semoga modul ini bermanfaat bagi Anda semua.

Salam sukses,

Tim Penyusun
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DAFTAR ISI

KATA PENGANTAR..........................................................................................................................3
Perhitungan skor TOEFL PBT............................................................................................................6
Cara menghitung skor TOEFL....................................................................................................8
LISTENING COMPREHENSION.....................................................................................................9
POLA SOAL - LISTENING COMPREHENSION..................................................................32
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION..............................................................................44
POLA SOAL - STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION.............................................51
READING COMPREHENSION......................................................................................................55
POLA SOAL - READING COMPREHENSION.....................................................................60
REFERENCES..................................................................................................................................80
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INTRODUCTION

TOEFL (Test of English as a Foreign Language) adalah tes standar internasional yang dirancang
untuk mengukur kemampuan bahasa Inggris seseorang yang bukan penutur asli. Tes ini digunakan
oleh ribuan perguruan tinggi, universitas, dan organisasi profesional di seluruh dunia sebagai
standar evaluasi kemampuan bahasa Inggris. Tes TOEFL terdiri dari tiga bagian, yaitu:
1. Listening Comprehension yang terdiri dari 50 soal dengan bagian/part A, B, dan C. Waktu
pengerjaan 40 menit.
2. Structure and Written Expression yang terdiri dari 40 soal dengan bagian/part 15 soal
Structure dan 25 soal Written Expression. Waktu pengerjaan 25 menit.
3. Reading Comprehension yang terdiri dari 50 soal dengan bagian/part A dan B. Waktu
pengerjaan 55 menit.
TOEFL (Test of English as a Foreign Language) dikeluarkan oleh ETS (Educational Testing
Service), sebuah organisasi nirlaba di Amerika Serikat yang mengembangkan dan mengelola
berbagai jenis tes pendidikan, termasuk TOEFL. ETS didirikan pada tahun 1947 dan saat ini
menjadi salah satu lembaga pengujian pendidikan terbesar dan terkemuka di dunia. Ada tiga jenis
tes TOEFL yang dikeluarkan oleh ETS, yaitu:
1. TOEFL iBT (Internet-based Test) adalah jenis tes TOEFL terbaru yang dilakukan secara
online melalui internet. TOEFL iBT terdiri dari empat bagian: Reading, Listening,
Speaking, dan Writing.
2. TOEFL PBT (Paper-based Test) adalah jenis tes TOEFL yang dilakukan dengan
menggunakan kertas dan pensil. TOEFL PBT terdiri dari tiga bagian: Listening, Structure
and Written Expression, dan Reading Comprehension.
3. TOEFL CBT (Computer-based Test) adalah jenis tes TOEFL yang dilakukan dengan
menggunakan komputer. TOEFL CBT terdiri dari tiga bagian: Listening, Structure and
Written Expression, dan Reading Comprehension.
Ketiga jenis tes TOEFL tersebut memiliki tujuan yang sama, yaitu untuk mengevaluasi kemampuan
bahasa Inggris peserta. Namun, masing-masing jenis tes memiliki kelebihan dan kekurangan
tersendiri tergantung dari kebutuhan dan preferensi peserta.
Pusat Bahasa Universitas Muhadi Setiabudi bertanggung jawab atas pengembangan dan
peningkatakan kualitas mahasiswa Universitas di bidang Bahasa. Test TOEFL yang diadakan oleh
pusat Bahasa UMUS adalah PBT. Total waktu pengerjaan tes TOEFL PBT adalah sekitar 2 s.d. 2,5
Jam.
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Perhitungan skor TOEFL PBT

TOEFL Paper Based Test (TOEFL PBT) biasanya menggunakan sistem konversi nilai tertentu.
Dalam TOEFL PBT, peserta yang mengikuti tes akan mendapatkan skor minimum 220 (skor
terendah) hingga 677 (skor tertinggi).

Perhitungan skor TOEFL ini dapat dijadikan acuan berapa Anda harus mengerjakan soal dengan
benar. Skor yang diperlukan untuk memenuhi syarat kelulusan di Universitas Muhadi Setiabudi
adalah minimal 425. Jika skor Anda dibawah maka diwajibkan untuk mengulang hingga mencapai
skor minimal yang disyaratkan. Untuk menghitungnya, Anda dapat melihat tabel penilaian di
bawah ini.

Number of Converted score 1 Converted score 2 Converted score

correct answers (listening comprehension) (structure and 3(reading
written expression) comprehension)
50 68 – 67
49 67 – 66
48 66 – 65
47 65 – 63
46 63 – 61
45 62 – 60
44 61 – 59
43 60 – 58
42 59 – 57
41 58 – 56
40 57 68 55
39 57 67 54
38 56 65 54
37 55 63 53
36 54 61 52
35 54 60 52
34 53 58 51
33 52 57 50
32 52 56 49
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Number of Converted score 1 Converted score 2 Converted score

correct answers (listening comprehension) (structure and 3(reading
written expression) comprehension)
31 51 55 48
30 51 54 48
29 50 53 47
28 49 52 46
27 49 51 46
26 48 50 45
25 48 49 44
24 47 48 43
23 47 47 43
22 46 46 42
21 45 45 41
20 45 44 40
19 44 43 39
18 43 42 38
17 42 41 37
16 41 40 36
15 41 40 35
14 38 38 34
13 37 37 32
12 37 36 31
11 35 35 30
10 33 33 29
9 32 31 28
8 32 29 28
7 31 27 26
6 30 26 25
5 29 25 24
4 28 23 23
3 27 22 23
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Number of Converted score 1 Converted score 2 Converted score

correct answers (listening comprehension) (structure and 3(reading
written expression) comprehension)
2 26 21 22
1 25 20 21
0 24 20 22

Cara menghitung skor TOEFL

Sub Tes Jawaban Benar Nilai Konversi Dengan Tabel
Listening Comprehension 37 55
Structure & Written 31 55
Expression
Reading Comprehension 39 54
Jumlah Skor Hasil Konversi 164
Factor Pengali = 10 : 3 1640 : 3
Skor TOEFL Anda 547
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CHAPTER I

LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Listening Comprehension Section terdiri dari tiga bagian dengan jumlah 50 pertanyaan. Untuk
menjawab 50 pertanyaan tersebut anda diberi waktu 35-40 menit. Jadi, anda memiliki waktu antara
12-15 detik untuk menjawab 1 soal.

 Part A terdiri dari 30 pertanyaan, berisi percakapan pendek yang diikuti satu pertanyaan.
 Part B terdiri dari 8 pertanyaan, berisi dua percakapan panjang yang diikuti beberapa
pertanyaan.
 Part C terdiri dari 12 pertanyaan, berisi tiga pembicaraan yang diikuti satu pertanyaan.

TIPS UMUM MENGERJAKAN SOAL LISTENING

1. Pahami perintah/ petunjuk pengerjaan (direction) pada masing-masing part dalam
soal.
2. Dengarkan dan konsentrasi pada percakapan yang sedang di dengarkan.
3. Ketahui tingkat kesulitan soal dari yang paling mudah hingga paling sulit.
4. Jangan biarkan pilihan jawaban kosong, jika kamu tidak yakin terhadap
jawabanmu. Tidak ada pengurangan nilai.
5. Gunakan waktu yang tersisa (apabila ada) untuk meninjau kembali jawaban anda.

PART A

Pada part A, anda akan mendengarkan sekitar 30 percakapan pendek antara dua orang yang diikuti
satu pertanyaan. Rata-rata satu pembicara berbicara hanya satu kali. Pembicara kedua biasanya
akan memberikan informasi penting yang membantu anda menjawab pertanyaan, sehingga penting
untuk anda mendengarkan percakapan yang sedang di putar. Pada lembar jawaban yang ada di
depan Anda telah tersedia empat pilihan jawaban, semua pilihan jawaban disusun secara gramatikal
sehingga terlihat benar semua tugas anda memilih jawaban yang paling tepat sesuai dengan
informasi yang dibicarakan.

TIPS PART A: Short Conversation

1. Fokuskan pendengaran anda pada orang kedua
2. Anda hanya perlu menangkan ide isi dalam percakapan
3. Pilihlah jawaban yang mendekati apa yang anda dengar dari pembicara kedua
4. Pahami bentuk-bentuk functional expression {Agreement (persetujuan), Uncertainly
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(ketidakpastian), Suggestion (pendapat), Surprise (keterkejutan), Idiomatic,

Expression, dan situasi ketika pembicaraan dilakukan.

Setelah percakapan pendek selesai, anda akan mendengar beberapa pertanyaan yang diucapkan
sekali. Setiap pertanyaan dimulai dengan Question Word (kata tanya), Question Word (kata tanya)
yang biasa digunakan seperti:

 What (Apa/Apa yang/ Berapa)

 Where (Dimana/Kemana)
 When (Kapan)

Berikut ini beberapa penggunaan kalimat tanya yang sering muncul pada soal TOEFL Listening
Comprehension Section Part A.

1. What does the (man/woman) mean?

(Apakah maksud laki-laki/wanita tersebut?)
2. What will the (man/woman) probably do?
(Apa yang mungkin akan dikerjakan oleh laki-laki/wanita tersebut?)
3. What will the speaker do?
(Apa yang akan dilakukan oleh pembicara?)
4. What is the (man/woman) going to do?
(Apa yang dilakukan oleh laki-laki/wanita tersebut?)
5. What does the (man/woman) plan to do?
(Apa yang laki-laki/wanita tersebut rencanakan?)
6. What does the (man/woman) imply about...?
(Apa yang diimplikasikan oleh laki-laki/wanita tersebut tentang...?)
7. What is the (man’s/woman’s) problem?
(Apa masalah laki-laki/wanita tersebut?)
8. What problem does (man/woman) think the (man/woman) has?
(Masalah apa yang menurut laki-laki/wanita tersebut dimiliki oleh laki-laki/wanita itu?)
9. What are the speaker talking about?
(Apa yang sedang dibicarakan oleh para pembicara?)
10. What does the (man/woman) suggest the (man/woman) do?
(Apa saran yang diberikan oleh laki-laki/wanita tersebut yang seharusnya dikerjakan oleh
laki-laki/wanita itu?)
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11. What does the (man/woman) say about...?

(Apa yang dikatakan oleh laki-laki/wanita tersebut tentang...?)
12. What does the (man/woman) think about...?)
(Apa yang dipikirkan oleh laki-laki/wanita tersebut tentang...?)
13. What does the (man/woman) assumed about...?
(Apa yang di asumsikan oleh laki-laki/wanita tersebut tentang...?)

Pada lembar soal (sebelum mengerjakan soal listening) anda perlu membaca dengan cermat
petunjuk (direction) pengerjaan soal. Berikut ini petunjuk (direction) yang harus dipahami pada
soal listening part A.

PART A
Direction:
In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation,
you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not
be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book
and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Petunjuk:
Pada bagian A, anda akan mendengar percakapan pendek antara dua orang. Diakhir
percakapan, kamu akan mendengar sebuat pertanyaan terkait percakapan tersebut.
Percakapan dan pertanyaan tidak akan dibacakan berulang. Setelah kamu mendengar
pertanyaan, bacalah keempat pilihan jawaban yang memungkinkan pada lembar soal dan
pilih pertanyaan yang paling benar. Kemudian, pada lembar jawaban, carilah nomor soal
dan isi jawaban yang anda pilih pada bagian yang disediakan.
Setelah membaca petunjuk diatas, and akan mendengarkan satu contoh percakapan pendek yang
diikuti pertanyaan dan jawaban benar yang diputar audio. Kemudian setelah audio selesai
membacakan contoh (example), anda akan langsung diarahkan untuk mendengarkan percakapan
pada Part A dan menjawab pertanyaan.

STRATEGIES

SKILL I: FOCUS ON THE SECOND LINE

In Listening Part A you will hear a short conversation involving two people; this conversation is
followed by a question. It is important to understand that the answer to this type of question is most
often (but not always) found in the second line of the conversation.
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SKILL 2: CHOOSE ANSWERS WITH SYNONYMS

Often the correct answer in Listening Part A is an answer that contains synonyms (words with
similar meanings but different sounds) for key words in the conversation.

SKILL 3: AVOID SIMILAR SOUNDS

Often the incorrect answers in Listening Part A are answers that contain words with similar sounds
but very different meanings from what you hear in the recording program. You should definitely
avoid these answers.

WHO, WHAT, WHERE

SKILL 4: DRAW CONCLUSIONS ABOUT WHO, WHAT, WHERE

It is common in Listening Part A to ask you to draw some kind of conclusion. In this type of
question, the answer is not clearly stated; instead, you must draw a conclusion based on clues given
in the conversation. One kind of conclusion that is common in this part of the test is to ask you to
determine who the speaker is, based on clues given in the conversation.

CONCLUSION ABOUT WHO, WHAT, WHERE

1. WHO is probably talking?
2. WHAT will he/she probably do next?
3. WHERE does the conversation probably take place?

SKILL 5: LISTEN FOR WHO AND WHAT IN PASSIVES

It is sometimes difficult to understand who or what is doing the action in a passive sentence. This
problem is often tested in Listening Part A.

PASSIVE STATEMENTS
1. If the conversation contains a passive statement, the answer to the question is often
an active statement.
2. If the conversation contains an active statement, the answer to the question is often
a passive statement.

SKILL 6: LISTEN FOR WHO AND WHAT WITH MULTIPLE NOUNS

When there is more than one noun in a sentence in Listening Part A, it is common for the answers
to confuse which noun does what.

NEGATIVES
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SKILL 7: LISTEN FOR NEGATIVE EXPRESSIONS

Negative expressions are very common in Listening Part A, and the most common kind of correct
response to a negative statement is a positive statement containing a word with an opposite
meaning.

TYPES OF NEGATIVE EXPRESSIONS

EXPRESSION EXAMPLE CORRECT ANSWER
Regular negative: not or Tom is not sad about the not sad = happy
n’t results.
Other negatives: nobody, Nobody arrived on time Nobody…on time = late
none, nothing, never
Negative prefixes: un-, The patient was insane Insane = not sane = crazy
in-,dis-

SKILL 8: LISTEN FOR DOUBLE NEGATIVE EXPRESSIONS

It is possible for two negative ideas to appear in one sentence, and the result can be quite
confusing.

DOUBLE NEGATIVE
SITUATION EXAMPLE MEANING
Negative word (E.g not, He didn’t like the unclean Liked clean office
no, none) and a negative office
prefix (e.g un-, in-,dis-)
Two negative verbs It isn’t snowing, so they aren’t Implies that they would go if
going to the mountains. it were snowing.
Neither or not…either Sue didn’t like the movie, and Both did not like the movie
neither did Mark.

SKILL 9: LISTEN FOR “ALMOST NEGATIVE” EXPRESSIONS

Certain expressions in English have “almost negative” meanings. These expressions are common
on the TOEFL test and need to be reviewed.

COMMON “ALMOST NEGATIVE” EXPRESSIONS

MEANING EXPRESSION EXAMPLE
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Almost Hardly, barely, scarcely, There is hardly any food in the refrigerator
none only
Almost Rarely, seldom He rarely drives to work
never

SKILL 10: LISTEN FOR NEGATIVES WITH COMPARATIVES

Negatives can be used with comparatives in Listening Part A of the TOEFL test. A sentence with a
negative and comparative has a superlative, or very strong meaning.

COMPARATIVES WITH NEGATIVES

COMPARAT EXAMPLE MEANING
IVE
More No one is more beautiful than she is She is the most beautiful
-er He couldn’t be happier He is extremely happy

FUNCTIONS

SKILL 11: LISTEN FOR EXPRESSIONS OF AGREEMENT

Expression of agreement are common in Listening Part A, so you should become familiar with
them. The following example shows agreement with a positive statement.

EXPRESSIONS OF AGREEMENT
Agreement with positive statements Agreement with negative statements
So do I
Me, too
Neither do I.
I’ll say!
I don’t either.
Isn’t it!
You can say that again!

SKILL 12: LISTEN FOR EXPRESSIONS OF UNCERTAINTY AND SUGGESTION

Expression of uncertainty and suggestion are common in Listening Part A, so you should become
familiar with them. The following example shows an expression of uncertainty.

EXPRESSIONS OF UNCERTAINTY AND SUGGESTION

UNCERTAINTY SUGGESTION
…isn’t it (tag)? Why not…?
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As far as I know
Let’s…
As far as I can tell

SKILL 13: LISTEN FOR EMPHATIC EXPRESSIONS OF SURPRISE

Emphatic expressions of surprise are common in Listening Part A, so you should become familiar
with them. When surprise is expressed, it implies that the speaker did not expect something to be
true.

EXPRESSIONS OF EMPHATIC SURPRISE

VERB EMPHATIC EXAMPLE MEANING
FORM
Be Be, with emphasis Then, he is here! I thought he was not
Modal Modal, with Then, you can go! here.
Present tense emphasis Then, you do play I thought you could not
Do(es), with tennis! go.
emphasis I thought you did not
play tennis.
Past tense Did, with emphasis Then, she did read it. I thought she had not
read it.
Perfect tense Have, with emphasis Then, he has gone I thought he had not
there. gone there.

CONTRARY MEANINGS

SKILL 14: LISTEN FOR WISHES

Conversations about wishes can appear in Listening Part A. The important idea to remember about
wishes is that a wish implies that the opposite of the wish is true.

KEY INFORMATION ABOUT WISHES

POINT EXAMPLE MEANING
 An affirmative wish I wish I had time to help. No time to help
implies a negative reality.
 A negative wish implies an I wish I did not have time to Time to help
affirmative reality help.
 A past tense verb implies a I wish he were at home.* Is not at home
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present reality.
 A past perfect tense verb I wish he had been at home. Was not at home
implies a past reality
*Remember that were is used instead of was in wishes: “I wish I were going.”

SKILL 15: LISTEN FOR UNTRUE CONDITIONS

Conversations containing conditions can appear in Listening Part A. The important idea to
remember about conditions is that a condition implies that the opposite of the condition is true.

KEY INFORMATION ABOUT UNTRUE CONDITIONS

POINT EXAMPLE MEANING
 An affirmative conditions If she were at home, she Not at home
implies a negative reality. could do it.*
 A negative conditions If she weren’t at home, she At home
implies an affirmative could do it.
reality
 A past tense implies a If I had money, I would buy Do not have money
present reality. it.
 A past perfect verb implies Did not have money
a past reality. If I had had money, I would
have bought it.
 Had can be used without Had I had money, I would Did not have money
if. have bought it.**
*Remember that were is used instead of was in untrue conditions: “If I were there, I would help.”
**This has the same meaning as “If I had had money…” Note that the subject and “had” are
inverted.

IDIOMATIC LANGUAGE

SKILL 16: LISTEN FOR TWO AND THREE-PART VERBS

Two- and three-part verbs appear in some questions in Listening Part A. These verbs are
expressions that include a verb and one or more particles (such as in, on, or at); the particle
changes the meaning of the verb. Questions involving two- and three-part verbs can be difficult for
students because the addition of the particle changes the meaning of the verb in an idiomatic way.

SKILL 17: LISTEN FOR IDIOMS

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TOEFL EXERCISE: In this exercise, listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the
recording program, and then choose the best answer to the question.

Now begin the recording program at TOEFL EXERCISE.

1. (A There’s no more wood inside.

) The wood in the fireplace should be put outside.
(B There’s a fire outside.
) He needs to bring some wood outside.
(C
)
(D
)
2. (A She worked late at a conference.
) Her meeting was canceled.
(B She called a conference at work.
) She was late to a conference.
(C
)
(D
)
3. (A In a hospital.
) At a police station.
(B At the beach.
) In a locker room.
(C
)
(D
)

4. (A There was too much room on the dance floor.

) He enjoyed the room where they went dancing.
(B The dance floor was too crowded.
) The club needed more rooms for dancing.
(C
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)
(D
)
5. (A He could not understand the fax machine.
) He wrote the letter that was sent.
(B The fax machine was easy for him to use.
) He was not very good with figures.
(C
)
(D
)

6. (A The woman hit her head on a nail.

) The woman hit his new car.
(B The woman was exactly right.
) The woman bought the new car.
(C
)
(D
)

7. (A He would like the woman to help him find his paper.

) He wants the woman to pat the paper away.
(B He needs the woman to review the paper.
) He would like the woman to write the paper for him.
(C
)
(D
)

8. (A Information about the problem is unavailable.

) No one has been informed.
(B Everybody knows what is going on.
) Nobody is aware that the problem is serious.
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(C
)
(D
)
9. (A He did not sleep well.
) He never woke up this morning.
(B The alarm failed to go off.
) He needed a loud alarm to wake up.
(C
)
(D
)

10. (A The pilot made an emergency landing.

) The pilot was forced to leave the plane in a hurry.
(B The pilot fielded questions about the forced landing.
) The plane was damaged when it landed forcefully.
(C
)
(D
)

PART B

Pada Part B, anda akan mendengarkan sebuah percakapan panjang (long conversation) antara dua
orang dan setiap satu percakapan panjang diikuti beberapa pertanyaan. Teks lisan setiap percakapan
panjang (long conversation) terdiri dari 140 s.d 290 kata dengan durasi percakapan sekitar 40 – 80
detik. Topik percakapan bersifat akademis, sejarah, ilmu pengetahuan, atau organisasi Universitas,
tidak jarang memuat informasi dalam bentuk angka. Anda mempunyai waktu sekitar 12 detik untuk
menjawab beberapa pertanyaan dalam satu percakapan panjang (long conversation).

TIPS PART B: Long Conversation

1. Ketika narator membacakan direction part B, anda sebaiknya membaca pilihan
jawaban yang tersedia kemudian merekam dan memperkirakan topik apa yang akan
dibicarakan.
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2. Ketika menyimak conversation, anda harus mengetahui apa topik yang dibicarakan.
3. Pahami setiap pertanyaan
4. Pahami bentuk-bentuk functional expression {Agreement (persetujuan), Uncertainly
(ketidakpastian), Suggestion (pendapat), Surprise (keterkejutan), Idiomatic,
Expression, dan situasi ketika pembicaraan dilakukan.

Setelah percakapan panjang (long conversation) selesai, anda akan mendengar beberapa pertanyaan
yang diucapkan sekali. Setiap pertanyaan dimulai dengan Question Word (kata tanya), Question
Word (kata tanya) yang biasa digunakan seperti:

 What (Apa/Apa yang/ Berapa)

 How (Bagaimana)
 Where (Dimana/Kemana)
 When (Kapan)
 Who (Siapa)
 Whom (Kepada/Dengan siapa)

Berikut ini beberapa penggunaan kalimat tanya yang sering muncul pada soal TOEFL Listening
Comprehension Section Part B.

1. What is the main topic of this conversation?

(Apa topik utama percakapan ini?)
2. Where does the conversation take place?
(Dimana percakapan ini berlangsung?)
3. When did it occur?
(Kapan itu terjadi?)
4. What will the man probably do next?
(Apa yang mungkin dilakukan pria itu kemudian?)
5. How is the women decide to buy a...?
(Bagaimana wanita itu memutuskan untuk membeli...?
6. Who is the guest speaker?
(Siapa pembicara tamu itu?)

Pada lembar soal (sebelum mengerjakan soal listening) anda perlu membaca dengan cermat
petunjuk (direction) pengerjaan soal. Berikut ini petunjuk (direction) yang harus dipahami pada
soal listening part B.
21 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

PART B
Direction:
In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you
will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
Petunjuk:
Pada bagian tes ini, Anda akan mendengar percakapan panjang. Diakhir tiap percakapan,
Anda akan mendengarkan beberapa pertanyaan. Percakapan dan pertanyaan tidak akan
dibacakan berulang.
Setelah Anda mendengar pertanyaan, bacalah empat kemungkinan pilihan jawaban pada
lembar soal dan pilihlah jawaban yang paling benar. Kemudian, pada lembar jawaban,
carilah nomor soal dan isi jawaban yang anda pilih pada bagian yang disediakan.

Setelah membaca petunjuk diatas, anda akan mendengarkan satu contoh percakapan panjang yang
diikuti pertanyaan dan jawaban benar yang diputar audio. Kemudian setelah audio selesai
membacakan contoh (example), anda akan langsung diarahkan untuk mendengarkan percakapan
panjang dan beberapa pertanyaan.

STRATEGIES

SKILL 18: ANTICIPATE THE TOPICS

It is very helpful to your overall comprehension if you know what topics to expect in Listening Part
B. You should therefore try to anticipate the topics you will be hearing. For example, are the
conversations about some aspect of school life, or some type of social issue, or a trip someone is
planning? A helpful strategy is therefore to look briefly at the answers in the test book, before you
actually hear the conversations in the recording program, and try to determine the topics of the
conversations that you will hear.

SKILL 19: ANTICIPATE THE QUESTIONS

It is very helpful to your ability to answer individual questions in Listening Part B if you can
anticipate what the questions will be and listen specifically for the answers to those questions.
22 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

WHILE LISTENING

SKILL 20: DETERMINE THE TOPIC

As you listen to each conversation in Listening Part B, you should be thinking about the topic
(subject) or main idea for each conversation. Since the first one or two sentences generally give the
topic, you should be asking yourself what the topic is while you are listening carefully to the first
part of the conversation.

SKILL 21: DRAW CONCLUSIONS ABOUT WHO, WHAT, WHEN, WHERE

As you listen to each conversation in Listening Part B, you should be trying to set the situation in
your mind. You should be thinking the following thoughts:

 Who is talking?
 When does the conversation probably take place?
 Where does the conversation probably take place?
 What is the source of information for the conversation?

SKILL 22: LISTEN FOR ANSWERS IN ORDER

There are two possible methods to use while you listen to a conversation in the Listening Part B of
the TOEFL test.

 You can just listen to the conversation(and ignore the answer)

 You can follow along with the answer while you listen.

Some students prefer to just listen to the conversation while it is being spoken, and if that method
works well for you, then that is what you should do. Other students find that they can answer more
questions correctly if they read along with the answers while the conversation is being spoken.
Because the detail questions are answered in order, it is possible to read along while you listen to
the conversation in the recording program.

TOEFL EXERCISE: In this exercise, you will use all of the information that you learned in skills
18 through 22.
While you are listening to the conversations, you should do the following:
 Listen for the topic in the first lines.
 Draw conclusions about the situation (who, what, when, where)
 Listen for the answers in order

Now begin the recording program at TOEFL EXERCISE.

23 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

1. (A To a concert
) To a rehearsal
(B To a lecture
) To the library
(C
)
(D
)
2. (A One
) Two
(B Three
) Four
(C
)
(D
)
3. (A The bus does not go directly to the Music Building.
) The bus goes very slowly to the Music Building.
(B The bus sometimes does not come.
) The bus will not arrive for a while.
(C
)
(D
)

4. (A Walk.
) Wait for the bus.
(B Miss the lecture.
) Think of another plan.
(C
)
(D
)
5. (A Boring
24 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

) Fantastic
(B Lengthy
) Faithful
(C
)
(D
)

6. (A By car
) By plane
(B By train
) By bicycle
(C
)
(D
)
7. (A She went directly to Yellowstone.
) She spent a few weeks in Laramie.
(B She stopped at the Devil’s Tower National Monument.
) She made a few stops before going on to Yellowstone.
(C
)
(D
)

8. (A Laramie.
) Devil’s Tower National Monument.
(B Old Faithful.
) Wyoming.
(C
)
(D
)
9. (A Hear again about Yellowstone.
25 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

) Take a trip to Yellowstone.

(B Get a job in a national park.
) Move to Yellowstone.
(C
)
(D
)

10. (A How and when we celebrate Thanksgiving.

) The traditional Thanksgiving dinner.
(B When Thanksgiving began.
) Abraham Lincoln.
(C
)
(D
)
11. (A With colonists in Massachusetts.
) Alone and thinking about how Thanksgiving developed.
(B With a big Thanksgiving dinner.
) In an untraditional manner.
(C
)
(D
)
12. (A The terrible winter.
) The corn harvest.
(B The development of Thanksgiving Day.
) For getting the whole family together.
(C
)
(D
)
13. (A At many different times.
) In July.
26 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(B Any time in November.

) On a Thursday in November.
(C
)
(D
)
PART C

Pada part C, Anda akan mendengarkan ceramah pendek (a Short talks) selama 40 – 80 detik tiap
teks, dan setiap satu ceramah pendek (a Short talks) akan diikuti oleh beberapa pertanyaan. Setiap
satu teks terdiri dari 3 sampai 7 pertanyaan, Anda diberikan waktu 12 detik untuk menjawab
beberapa pertanyaan dalam satu teks ceramah.

TIPS PART C: a short lecture/ talks

1. Baca dan pahami pilihan jawaban yang tersedia pada lembar soal dan temukan kata
kuncinya.
2. Topik pembicaraan pada kalimat pertama biasanya akan menentukan topik-topik
kalimat berikutnya.
3. Fokuskan pendengaran Anda pada hal-hal yang berkaitan dengan kata tanya
(questions word) seperti what,who, when,where,why dan how.
4. Buatlah simpulan atas situasi yang terjadi saat pembicaraan dilakukan.

Contoh pertantaan yang sering di dengarkan dalam part C meliputi main idea, details, purpose, and
implication.

a. Pertanyaan terkait main idea biasanya meliputi:

 What is the main idea of the talk?
(Apa pikiran utama dari percakapan tersebut?)
 What is the talk mainly about?
(Tentang apa percakapan tersebut?)
 What are the speaker discussing?
(Apa yang sedang dibicarakan oleh pembicara?)
 What would be a good title for the lecture?
(Judul apa yang tepat untuk kuliah tersebut?)
b. Pertanyaan terkait detail biasanya meliputi:
27 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

 What does the man/woman say about?

(Apa yang dikatakan laki-laki/wanita itu tentang...?)
 What does the man/woman want?
(Apa yang diinginkan laki-laki/wanita tersebut?)
 What does the man/woman suggest about...?
(Apa saran laki-laki/wanita tersebut tentang?)
 What is the man/woman describing?
(Apa yang laki-laki/wanita tersebut deskripsikan?)
c. Pertannyaan terkait purpose biasanya meliputi:
 Why did...?
(Mengapa (dalam bentuk past tense/ lampau)...?)
 Why is...?
(Mengapa (present/ sekarang)...?)
 Why does the man/woman think...?
(Mengapa laki-laki/ wanita tersebut mengira...?)
 Why does the speaker mention...?
(Mengapa pembicara menyebutkan...?)
d. Pertanyaan terkait implication biasanya meliputi:
 What does the speaker imply about...?
(Apa yang pembicara maksud tentang...?)
 What does the speaker infer about...?
(Apa yang pembicara simpulkan tentang...?)
 What does the man/woman mean when he/she says...?
(Apa yang laki-laki/wanita tersebut maksud ketika ia mengatakan...?)
e. Pertanyaan bentuk lain pada bagian ini biasanya akan menyuruhmu untuk menyimpulkan,
mencocokan pertanyaa, dan mengkategorikan pilihan jawaban, sebagai contoh:
 You may be asked to pick out the correct drawing from what was described in words.
(Kamu akan diminta untuk memilih gambar yang sesuai dengan apa yang sedang di
deskripsikan dengan kata-kata)
 You may be asked to match two concepts together.
(Kamu akan diminta untuk mencocokan dua konsep bersamaan)
 You may be asked to determine the sequences of events.
(Kamu akan diminta untuk menentukan urutan kejadian)
28 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

 You may be asked to catagorize certain concepts.

(Kamu akan diminta untuk mengkategorikan konsep tertentu)

Pada lembar soal (sebelum mengerjakan soal listening) anda perlu membaca dengan cermat
petunjuk (direction) pengerjaan soal. Berikut ini petunjuk (direction) yang harus dipahami pada
soal listening part C.

PART C
Direction:
In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some
questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
Petunjuk:
Pada bagian tes ini, Anda akan mendengar ceramah. Diakhir tiap ceramah, Anda akan
mendengarkan beberapa pertanyaan. Cremah dan pertanyaan tidak akan dibacakan
berulang.
Setelah Anda mendengar pertanyaan, bacalah empat kemungkinan pilihan jawaban pada
lembar soal dan pilihlah jawaban yang paling benar. Kemudian, pada lembar jawaban,
carilah nomor soal dan isi jawaban yang anda pilih pada bagian yang disediakan.

Setelah membaca petunjuk diatas, and akan mendengarkan satu contoh ceramah yang diikuti
pertanyaan dan jawaban benar yang diputar audio. Kemudian setelah audio selesai membacakan
contoh (example), anda akan langsung diarahkan untuk mendengarkan ceramah dan beberapa
pertanyaan.

BEFORE LISTENING

SKILL 23: ANTICIPATE THE TOPICS

It is very helpful to your overall comprehension if you know what topics to expect in Listening Part
C. You should therefore try to anticipate the topics that you will be hearing (as you did in Listening
Part B). For example, are the talks about American history, or literature, or some aspect of school
life? A helpful strategy is therefore to look briefly at the answers in the test book, before you
29 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

actually hear the talks on the recording, and try to determine the topics of the talks that you will
hear.

SKILL 24: ANTICIPATE THE QUESTIONS

It is very helpful to your ability to answer individual questions in Listening Part C, if you can
anticipate what the questions will be and listen specifically for the answers to those questions (as
you did in Listening Part B).

WHILE LISTENING

SKILL 25: DETERMINE THE TOPIC

As you listen to each talk in Listening Part C, you should be thinking about the topic (subject) or
main idea for the talk (as you did in Listening Part B). Since the first sentence is generally a topic
sentence, you should be asking yourself what the topic is while you are listening carefully to the
first part of the talk.

SKILL 26: DRAW CONCLUSIONS ABOUT WHO, WHAT, WHEN, WHERE.

As you listen to each talk in Listening Part C, you should be trying to set the situation in your mind
(as you did in Listening Part B). You should be thinking the following thoughts:

 Who is talking?
 When does the talk probably take place?
 Where does the talk probably take place?
 What course is the talk concerned with?
 What is the source of information for the talk?

SKILL 27: LISTEN FOR ANSWERS IN ORDER

There are two possible methods to use while you listen to talk in Listening Part C.

 You can just listen to the talk (and ignore the answer)
 You can follow along with the answer while you listen.

Some students prefer to just listen to the talks while it is being spoken, and if that method works
well for you, then that is what you should do. Other students find that they can answer more
questions correctly if they read along with the answers while the talk is being spoken. Because the
detail questions are answered in order, it is possible to read along while you listen to the talk in the
recording program.
30 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

TOEFL EXERCISE: In this exercise, you will use all of the information that you learned in skills
23 through 27.

While you are listening to the conversations, you should do the following:
 Listen for the topic in the first sentence.
 Draw conclusions about the situation (who, what, when, where)
 Listen for the answers in order

Now begin the recording program at TOEFL EXERCISE.

1. (A Other librarians.
) Undergraduate students.
(B Students who are not in the business department.
) Graduate business students.
(C
)
(D
)
2. (A It opens at 7:00 A.M.
) It closes at 7:00 P.M.
(B It closes at midnight.
) It is always open.
(C
)
(D
)
3. (A Computer area and business materials.
) Magazines and newspapers.
(B Business department and library staff offices.
) First and second floors of the library.
(C
)
(D
)

4. (A Go home.
31 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

)
(B Return to class.
) Work on the computers.
(C Tour the library.
)
(D
)
5. (A A student in health services.
) A drug abuse lecturer.
(B A dermatologist.
) A representative of the tobacco industry.
(C
)
(D
)

6. (A How to reduce nicotine and other addictions.

) How stress affects the skin.
(B The effects of alcohol on health.
) How to achieve optimal health.
(C
)
(D
)
7. (A Alcohol.
) Nicotine.
(B Caffeine.
) A reduced supply of blood.
(C
)
(D
)

8. (A It increases the flow of blood to the skin.

32 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

) It causes increased consumption of alcohol.

(B It prevents the skin from receiving enough nourishment.
) It causes stress.
(C
)
(D
)
9. (A Before the Civil War.
) At the end of the Civil War.
(B At the beginning of the twentieth century.
) Within the last decade.
(C
)
(D
)

10. (A The Civil War ended.

) The U.S. government issued a large amount of paper currency.
(B The price of gold plummeted.
) The value of gold became inflated.
(C
)
(D
)
11. (A The president.
) The president’s brother.
(B The president’s brother-in-law.
) The president’s wife.
(C
)
(D
)
12. (A Issue greenbacks.
) Sell gold.
33 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(B Corner the gold market.

) Hold its gold reserves.
(C
)
(D
)
34 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

POLA SOAL - LISTENING COMPREHENSION

Time-approximately 35 minutes

(Including the reading of the directions for each part)

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversation and talks in English. There are three parts to this section, with special directions for
each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you
hear. Do not take notes or write in your test book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are
told to do so.

Part A

Direction: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will
not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and
choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Listen to an example: Sample Answer

On the recording, you will hear:

(man) That exam was just awful.

(woman) Oh, it could have been worse.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
In your test book, you will read: (A) The exam wa really awful.
(B) It was the worst exam she had ever seen.
(C) It couldn’t have been more difficult.
(D) It wasn’t that hard.
You learn from the conversation that the man thought the exam was very difficult and that the
woman disagreed with the man. The best answer to the question, “What does the woman
mean?” is (D), “It wasn’t that hard.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

1. (A The coffee is much better this morning

) He’s feeling bitter this morning
(B
35 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

) The Coffe isn’t very good

(C He cannot taste the butter

)

(D
)

2. (A The two classes meet in an hour and a half

) The class meets three hours per week
(B Each half of the class is an hour long
)
Two times a week the class meets for an hour
(C
)

(D
)

3. (A A few minutes ago, the flight departed.

) The fight will start in a while
(B They are frightened about the departure.
)
The plane is going to take off soon.
(C
)

(D
)

4. (A He hasn’t yet begun his project.

) He’s supposed to do his science project next week.
(B He needs to start working on changing the due date
)
He’s been working steadily on his science project.
(C
)

(D
)
36 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

5. (A At the post office.

) In a florist shop.
(B In a restaurant.
)
In a hospital delivery room.
(C
)

(D
)

6. (A The professor drowned the cells in a lab.

) The topic was presented in a boring way.
(B The professor divided the lecture into parts.
)
The biologist tried to sell the result of the experiment.
(C
)

(D
)

7. (A She needs to get a driver's license

) It is impossible to cash a check without two pieces of identification.
(B The man should check to see if he needs credit.
)
A credit card can be used to get a driver’s license.
(C
)

(D
)

8. (A Housing within his budget is hard to locate.

) It’s hard to find his house in New York.
(B
37 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

) He can’t afford to move his house to New York.

(C Housing in New York is unavailable.

)

(D
)

9. (A The boss was working on the reports.

) He would have to finish the reports before the end of next month
(B He was directed to stay late and finish some work.
)
He could finish the reports at home.
(C
)

(D
)

10. (A The boisterous students made the teacher mad.

) The teacher angered the students with the exam results.
(B The students were angry that the teacher was around.
)
The angered students complained to the teacher.
(C
)

(D
)

11. (A The prices are reasonable.

) The store is too far out of town.
(B He would like the woman to repeat what she said.
)
He agrees with the woman.
(C
)

(D
)
38 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

12. (A It has rarely rained this much.

) It hardly rained this year.
(B It is barely raining this year.
)
It seldom rains so little.
(C
)

(D
)

13. (A He needs to do a better job writing questions.

) His writing must certainly be improved.
(B Without the questions, he cannot write the answers.
)
He needs to understand the written questions better.
(C
)

(D
)

14. (A The agent was standing in line with his passport.

) The line to get new passports is very long.
(B The woman must wait her turn to get her passport checked.
)
He can check her passport instead of the agent
(C
)

(D
)

15. (A He couldn’t finish closing the library book.

) He hadn’t finished the library assignment, but he was close.
(B
39 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

) He was working on the assignment when the library closed.

(C His homework was incomplete because the library wasn’t open.

)

(D
)

16. (A He wishes the hard work had had a better result.

) He thinks the lawyer hardly prepared.
(B He wishes the lawyer had prepared.
)
He thinks the lawyer worked for free.
(C
)

(D
)

17. (A The history class begins next week.

) He thinks the papers should be turned in next week.
(B He has already done the paper for next week.
)
The papers are not due next week.
(C
)

(D
)

18. (A He's not really happy.

) The contractor’s work was satisfactory.
(B He would rather work with the contractor himself.
)
He was already contacted about the work.
(C
)
40 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(D
)

19. (A The man should try another type of paper.

) The man should locate a typist tomorrow morning.
(B The man should make a tape in the morning.
)
The man should complete the paper without help.
(C
)

(D
)

20. (A She’d like some pie.

) It’s easy to buy it.
(B The task the man’s working on isn’t difficult.
)
It’s easier to prepare pie than do what the man is doing.
(C
)

(D
)

21. (A He reported that the time for the budget meeting had been set.
) He is always late in submitting his accounting figures.
(B He never manages to budget his time well.
)
He is never too late in turning in his reports.
(C
)

(D
)

22. (A The repairs would require an extension.

)
41 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(B The car is going to need a lot of repairs.

) Buying a new car would be quite expensive.
(C The mechanic extended the repair warranty.
)

(D
)

23. (A Betty wrote the letter as directed.

) The directions were given to Betty in a letter.
(B Betty will follow the instructions later.
)
Betty worked exactly as instructed.
(C
)

(D
)

24. (A Walter's had a lack of success with his business.

) Walter’s failed in business.
(B Walter's new company is doing rather well.
)
Walter hoped to succeed in business.
(C
)

(D
)

25. (A He should put the organ in the closet.

) The closet has already been organized.
(B He needs to rearrange the closet.
)
He wishes the closet were closer.
(C
)
42 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(D
)

26. (A She didn’t do the work.

) She gave the assignment her best effort.
(B She finished the assignment even though it was difficult.
)
She gave the man a signal.
(C
)

(D
)

27. (A She said some terrible things.

) She didn’t say anything nice.
(B She didn't have any nice things.
)
She said really wonderful things
(C
)

(D
)

28. (A New employees are rarely initiated into the company.

) New workers don’t generally undertake actions on their own.
(B New employees are initially rated.
)
It’s rare for employees to make new suggestions.
(C
)

(D
)

29. (A The woman is more than a week late.

)
43 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(B The children would have wrecked the house later.

) The woman was so late that she was a wreck.
(C He’s glad that she was not any later.
)

(D
)

30. (A He had not gone to the store.

) He was still at the market.
(B He was going to take care of the shopping.
)
He always went to the market.
(C
)

(D
)

Part B

Direction: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each
conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best
answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

31. (A) She’s a senior

(B) She’s junior

(C) She’s a transfer student

(D) She’s a graduate student

32. (A) How to transfer to a junior college.

44 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(B) How to find his way around campus.

(C) The course requirements for a literature major.

(D) Who won the campus election.

33. (A) Three

(B) Five

(C) Eight

(D) Ten

34. (A) American literature.

(B) World literature.

(C) Literary analysis.

(D) Surveying.

35. (A) In a book.

(B) From a television program.

(C) During a trip that she took.

(D) From a lecture.

36. (A) To communicate with other dolphins.

(B) To recognize objects in the water.

(C) To learn human language.

(D) To express fear.

37. (A) Five

(B) Fifteen

(C) Fifty

(D) Five hundred

45 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

38. (A) It is limited.

(B) It is greater than human intelligence.

(C) It is less than previously thought.

(D) We are beginning to learn how much they have.

Part C

Direction: In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will
hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best
answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example,

On the recording, you will hear:

(narrator) Listen to an instructor talk to his class about painting.

(man) Artist Grant Wood was a guiding force in the school of painting known as
American regionalist, a style reflecting the distinctive characteristics of art from
rural areas of the United States. Wood began drawing animals on the family farm
at the age of three, and when he was thirty-eight one of his paintings received a
remarkable amount of public notice and acclaim. This painting, called “American
Gothic," is a starkly simple depiction o f a serious couple staring directly out at the
viewer.
Now listen to a sample question Sample Answer
(narrator) What style of painting is known as American regionalist?
In your test book, you will read: (A) Art from Americas inner cities.
(B) Art from the central region of the U.S.
(C) Art from various urban areas in the U.S.
(D) Art from rural sections of America.
The best answer to the question, ‘What style of painting is known as American regionalist?’ is (D),
“Art from rural sections of America.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

Now listen to another sample question Sample Answer

(narrator) What is the name of Wood’s most successful painting?

In your test book, you will read: (A) “American Regionalist.”

(B) “The Family Farm in Iowa.”
(C) “American Gothic.”
(D) “A Serious Couple.”
The best answer to the question, ‘What is the name of Wood’s most successful painting?’ is (C),
39. (A) To
“American protect
Gothic.” its members.
Therefore, the correct choice is (C).
46 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(B) To save the natural environment.

(C) To honor the memory of John Muir.

(D) To improve San Francisco's natural beauty.

40. (A) For less than a year.

(B) Only for a decade.

(C) For more than a century.

(D) For at least two centuries.

41. (A) San Francisco.

(B) All fifty states.

(C) The Sierra Nevadas.

(D) The eastern U.S.

42. (A) All over the world.

(B) In the entire United States.

(C) Only in California.

(D) Only in the Sierra Nevadas.

43. (A) Students signing up for athletic teams.

(B) Students going on a tour of a university campus.

(C) Students playing various sports.

(D) Students attending a university dedication ceremony.

44. (A) Membership on an athletic team.

(B) Enrollment in an exercise class.

(C) A valid student identification card.

(D) Permission from a faculty member.

47 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

45. (A) To the tennis courts.

(B) To the arena.

(C) To the gymnasium.

(D) To the Athletic Department office.

46. (A) Go to the Art Center.

(B) Go to the Art Center.

(C) Visit the exercise room.

(D) Watch a football game.

47. (A) Science

(B) Art

(C) Literature

(D) Music

48. (A) They are completely different.

(B) They are somewhat similar but have an essential difference.

(C) They are exactly the same in all respects.

(D) They are unrelated.

49. (A) Objective

(B) Idealistic

(C) Philosophical

(D) Environmental

50. (A) Heredity

(B) Environment
48 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(C) Idealism

(D) Natural Laws

49 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

CHAPTER II

STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Structure and Written Expression adalah salah satu bagian dari tes TOEFL yang menguji
kemampuan seseorang dalam memahami dan menggunakan bahasa Inggris secara efektif dalam hal
tata bahasa dan struktur kalimat.

Structure and Written Expression dalam tes TOEFL terdiri dari 40 soal pilihan ganda yang harus
diselesaikan dalam waktu 25 menit. Soal-soal dalam bagian ini bertujuan untuk menguji
kemampuan peserta dalam mengenali dan memperbaiki kesalahan tata bahasa dalam kalimat-
kalimat dalam bahasa Inggris. Beberapa jenis kesalahan tata bahasa yang umumnya diuji dalam
bagian ini antara lain kesalahan dalam penggunaan kata-kata, kesalahan dalam struktur kalimat,
dan kesalahan dalam penggunaan tanda baca.

Soal-soal ini dibagi menjadi 2 bagian, yaitu: 1. Structure yang terdiri dari 15 soal adalah kalimat
yang tidak lengkap. Dibawah setiap kalimat Anda akan melihat empat kata atau frasa, bertanda (A),
(B), (C), dan (D). pilih satu kata atau frasa yang paling melengkapi kalimat. 2. Written Expression
terdiri dari 25 soal. Setiap kalimat memiliki empat kata atau frasa yang digaris bawahi. Empat
bagian kata atau frasa tersebut diberi tanda (A), (B), (C), dan (D). Anda akan diminta untuk
mengidentifikasi bagian yang salah pada kalimat tersebut agar menjadi kalimat yang benar secara
gramatikal.

Tips dan trik mengerjakan Structure and Written Expression

1. Cari subjek dan kata kerja: Kalimat dalam bahasa Inggris benar bila memiliki minimal
Subject dan Verbs.

2. Perhatikan masing-masing jawaban: Apabila Anda sudah mengidentifikasi komponen

kalimat mulai dari subjek, predikat, objek juga kata keterangan maka berikutnya Anda
harus memperhatikan komponen yang hilang dalam kalimat tersebut. Setelah itu perhatikan
pilihan-pilihan jawaban yang tersedia. Hindari menjawab sebelum baca keseluruhan soal
dan perhatikan seluruh pilihan jawaban yang ada. Terkadang semua pilihan jawaban tampak
benar kecuali apabila Anda membaca setiap kata demi kata.

3. Proses pengerjaan dengan cara eliminasi: Apabila sudah berulang kali membaca soal namun
masih bingung memutuskan pilihan jawaban, cobalah mengerjakan secara eliminasi.
Eliminasi terlebih dahulu bagian yang mengganggu sebanyak mungkin. Biasanya pilihan
50 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

jawaban yang salah adalah karena hilangnya frasa maupun kata penting sehingga kalimat
tampak kurang lengkap.

4. Cermati kata yang digaris bawahi: Pada bagian written expression soal TOEFL terdapat
kata maupun kelompok kata digarisbawahi. Cari bagian mana yang kurang tepat dengan
mengidentifikasi.

5. Struktur kalimat harus paralel: TOEFL written expression juga berhubungan dengan
struktur kalimat paralel, di mana terdapat dua maupun lebih kata maupun kalimat juga unit
bahasa lain yang mempunyai kesetaraan. Sehingga lebih menekankan dalam hal
konsistensi. Perhatikan kata kerja maupun kata benda yang digunakan termasuk pola
grammar.

Skill dalam Menegerjakan Structure and Written Expression

SKILL 1. Pastikan kalimat memiliki Subject dan Verb

Kalimat dalam bahasa Inggris benar bila memiliki minimal Subject dan Verbs. Subject
umumnya terletak di awal kalimat dan berfungsi sebagai benda (noun).

Verbs berfungsi sebagai predikat dalam kalimat bahasa Inggris. Macamnya ada: Verb 1, Verb
2, Verb 3, dan Verb-ing. Bila verb tidak ada di dalam kalimat, tobe bisa digunakan sebagai
pengganti verb dengan syarat tobe bertemu dengan salah satu dari bentuk kata berikut:
1. Bertemu kata sifat. Tobe + adjective. Contoh: She is beautiful.

2. Bertemu kata benda. Tobe + noun. Contoh: He is a teacher.

3. Bertemu kata kerja Verb-ing. Tobe + Verb-Ing. Contoh: she is reading a novel
now.

4. Bertemu kata kerja bentuk III. Tobe + Verb III. Contoh: The car was repaired by my
father last night.
Exercise:
1. Kalimat tidak memiliki subject.

_______was backed up for miles on the freeway.

(A)Yesterday

(B) In the morning

(C) Traffic
51 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(D) Cars

2. Kalimat tidak memiliki Verb.

Engineers_______for work on the new space program.

(A)necessary

(B) are needed

(C) hopefully

(D) next month

3. Kalimat memiliki Subject dan Verb tetapi tidak sempurna.

The boy_______going to the movies with a friend.

(A)he is

(B) he always was

(C) is relaxing

(D) will be
SKILL 2. Objects of Prepositions

Object of prepositions merupakan kata benda (noun), kata ganti (pronoun), gerund (Verb-ing),
atau klausa kata benda (noun clause) yang muncul setelah kata depan (preposition). Yang perlu
diingat, setelah kata prepositions ini adalah object of prepositions, bukan subject dan yang
lainnya.
Contoh prepositions:

Aboard, about, above, across, after, against, along, amid, among, anti, around, as, at,
before, behind, below, beneath, beside, besides, between, beyond, but, by, concerning,
considering, despite, down, during, except, excepting, excluding, following, for, from, in,
inside, into, like, minus, near, of, off, on, onto, opposite, outside, over, past, per, plus,
regarding, round, save, since, than, through, to, toward, towards, under, underneath,
unlike, until, up, upon, versus, via, with, within, without.

Exercise:
4. With his friend _______ found the movie theater.

(A) Has
52 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(B) He

(C) Later

(D) When

SKILL 3. Hati-hati dengan appositive

Appositive adalah sebuah kata benda yang diletakkan setelah kata benda lainnya dan memiliki
arti yang sama. Dengan kata lain, appositive menjelaskan atau menyediakan informasi
tambahan tentang noun yang mendahului atau setelahnya.
Exercise:
5. _______, George, is attending the lecture.
(A) Right now
(B) Happily
(C) Because of the time
(D) My friend

6. _______, Sarah rarely misses her basketball shots.

(A) An excellent basketball player

(B) An excellent basketball player is

(C) Sarah is an excellent basketball player

(D) Her excellent basketball play

SKILL 4. Melihat kesesuaian verb setelah prepositional phrases

Perhatikan contoh berikut:
The book on the table is mine.

Penjelasan: Preposition disini on dan object of preposition adalah the table. Dalam satu
kesatuan on the table disebut dengan prepositional phrase.

Perlu memahami prepositional phrase memiliki pola, seperti: Subject + Prepositional Phrase +
Verb.

SKILL 5. Melihat kesesuaian verb setelah ekspresi kuantitas

Subject yang menggunakan ekspresi kuantitas dapat berupa all, most, some, dan half, maka
verbnya mengikuti bentuk benda yang mengikuti setelah of, apakah tunggal atau jamak.
53 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

Perhatikan contoh berikut:

All of the books are mine.

Penjelasan: Dalam kalimat tersebut, kata setelah of adalah the books, yaitu bentuk jamak,
maka to be yang mengikuti adalah are.

All of the book is interesting.

Penjelasan: to be yang mengikutinya berbentuk is atau bentuk yang digunakan untuk kalimat
dengan subject tunggal.

SKILL 6. Melihat kesesuaian verb yang dibalikkan (inverted verbs)

Dalam menganalisa kalimat inverted subjects dan verbs, sangat penting langsung melihat
subject terlebih dahulu, baru kemudian melihat verbnya.
Perhatikan contoh berikut:

Behind the house was the bicycles I wanted.

Penjelasan: Dalam kalimat tersebut, subjectnya adalah the bicycles, berbentuk jamak. Maka, to
be yang digunakan harusnya were, bukan was. Kalimat ini salah.

SKILL 7. Melihat kesesuaian verb setelah kata-kata tertentu

Kata-kata tertentu dalam bahasa Inggris memiliki makna tunggal secara tata bahasa
(grammatically).
Perhatikan contoh berikut:

Everybody are going to the theater.

Penjelasan: Kalimat ini salah, karena everybody adalah tunggal (singular), seharusnya to be
yang digunakan adalah is.

Berikut beberapa daftar kata-kata yang dianggap tunggal (singular) dalam tata bahasa
(grammar) bahasa Inggris:

a. Anybody, anyone, anything

b. Everybody, everyone, everything
c. Nobody, no one, nothing
d. Somebody, someone, something

SKILL 8. Menggunakan parallel structure dengan coordinate conjunctions

54 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

Coordinate conjunction berfungsi menggabungkan pernyataan atau ekspresi yang setara.

Dengan kata lain, struktur yang muncul sebelum coordinate conjunction setara dengan dengan
struktur yang muncul setelahnya. Conjunctions bisa menggabungkan benda, kata kerja, kata
sifat, frasa, dan klausa.
Kata yang digunakan sebagai coordinate conjunctions ada tiga, yaitu and, but, dan or. Pola
yang dapat digunakan untuk susunan sebuah parallel structure:

1. _______ (same structure) _______ (and, or, but) _______ (same structure) _______
2. ___ (same structure), ___ (same structure) ___, ___ (and, but, or) ___ (same structure) ___

Perhatikan contoh berikut:

1. She is not a teacher but a lawyer.

2. He only eats and sleeps when he takes a vacation.
3. There are students in the classroom, in the library, and in front of the building.

SKILL 9. Mengunakan parallel structure konjungsi yang berpasangan

Konjungsi yang berpasangan contohnya:
both… and …

either… or …

nither... nor …

not only… but also …

Kata-kata yang muncul setelah konjungsi pertama harus memiliki parallel structure dengan
kata-kata yang muncul setelah konjungsi setelahnya. Ini yang disebut dengan parallel structure
di konjungsi yang dipasangkan.

Perhatikan contoh berikut:

1. I know both where you went and what you did.

2. Either sam or sue has the book.
3. The tickets are neither in my pocket nor in my purse.
4. He is not only an excellent student but also an outstanding athlete.

SKILL 10. Menggunakan parallel structure dalam kalimat perbandingan

55 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

Dalam kalimat perbandingan, baik yang menunjukkan kesetaraan, lebih atau pun paling,
structure yang muncul sebelum dan sesudah penghubung yang digunakan haruslah parallel –
memiliki pola struktur kalimat yang sama.

Berikut ilustrasi penghubung yang digunakan dalam kalimat perbandingan dan bagian struktur
yang harus sama.
(same structure) more…than (same structure)
-er…than
less…than
as…as
Perhatikan contoh berikut: the same…as
similar…to
1. What is written is more easily understood than what is spoken.
2. The work that I did is similar to the work that you did.
3. Renting those apartments costs about the same as leasing them.
4. My school is farther than your school.
56 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

POLA SOAL - STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Time-25 minutes

Structure
Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will
see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), dan (D). Choose the one word or phrase
that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, fins the number of the
question and fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

Look at the examples.

Example I
The presidents _______ the election by a landslide.
(A) won
(B) he won
(C) yesterday
(D) fortunately

The sentence should read, “The president won the election by a

landslide.” Therefore, you should choose (A).

1. The North Platte River_______ From Wyoming into Nebraska.

(A) it flowed
(B) flows
(C) flowing
(D) with flowing water

2. _______Biloxing received its name from a Sioux word meaning “first people”.
(A) The city of
(B) Located in
(C) It is in
(D) The tour included

3. A pride of lions_______up to forty lions, including one to three males, several females, and
cubs.
(A) can contain
57 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(B) it contains
(C) contain
(D) containing

4. _______ tea plant are small and white.

(A) The
(B) On the
(C) Having flowers the
(D) The flowers of the

5. The tetracyclines, _______antibiotics, are used to treat infections.

(A) are a family of
(B) being a family
(C) a family of
(D) their family is

6. Any possible academic assistance from talking stimulants_______ marginal at best.

(A) it is
(B) there is
(C) is
(D) as

7. Henry Adams, born in Bowton, _______famous as a historian and novelist.

(A) became
(B) and became
(C) he was
(D) and he became

8. The major cause _______ the pull of the Moon on the Earth.
(A) the ocean tides are
(B) of ocean tides is
(C) of the tides ocean
(D) the oceans’ tides
58 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

9. Still a novelty in the late nineteenth century, _______ limited to the rich.
(A) was
(B) was
(C) it was photography
(D) photography was

10. A computerized map of the freeways using information gathered by sensors embedded in
the pavement_______ on a local cable channel during rush hours.
(A) airs
(B) airing
(C) air
(D) to air
Written Expression
Direction: In questions 16-40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The
four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), dan (D). identify the one
underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Look at the examples.
Example I
The four string on a violin are tuned in fifths.
A B C D
The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths.” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

11. Certain types of snakes have been known to survive fasts more as a year long.
A B C D
12. The grizzly bear, which can grow up to eight feet tall, has been called a more dangerous
A B C D
animal on North American.

13. Climate, soil type, and availability of water are the most critical factors than selecting the
A B C
best type of grass for a lawn.
D
14. The coyote is somewhat smaller in size than a timber wolf.
59 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

A B C D
15. The weather reports all showed that there were a tremendous storm front moving in.
A B C D
16. Seldom cactus plants are found outside of North America.
A B C D
17. In a basketball game a player what is fouled receives one or two free throws.
A B C D
18. Until recently, California was largest producer of oranges in the United States.
A B C D
19. An understanding of engineering theories and problem are impossible until basic
A B
arithmetic is fully mastered.
C D
20. The earliest the CVS (chorionic villus sampling) procedure in the pregnancy, the greater
A B C
the risk to the baby.
D
60 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

CHAPTER III

READING COMPREHENSION
Reading Comprehension Section bertujuan untuk menguji kemampuan Anda dalam memahami,
menginterprestasikan, dan menganalisa teks atau bacaan mengenai berbagai macam topik. Bagian
ini terdiri dari empat sampai enam teks/bacaan kira-kira 200 - 450 kata. Setiap teks biasanya diikuti
oleh 7-12 pertanyaan. Jumlah soal untuk Reading Comprehension adalah 50 soal. Anda harus
menyelesaikan semua pertanyaan dalam waktu 55 menit. Bagian ini hanya mengujikan teks bacaan
saja, tanpa gambar, diagram, atau alat bantu visual lainnya. Topik bacaan biasanya berkaitan
dengan masalah-masalah akademik, terutama textbook mengenai Biologi, Fisika, Geografi, Sejarah
Amerika, Biografi, Ekonomi, Ilmu-ilmu Sosial, dan Seni.

TIPS UMUM MENGERJAKAN SOAL READING COMPREHENSION

1. Jangan terlalu lama membaca teks bacaan. Tidak perlu membaca teks bacaan secara keseluruhan.

2. Perhatikan semua pertanyaan yang terdapat pada sebuah bacaaan dan ingat-ingat kata kuncinya.

3. Jangan berpikir terlalu lama pada kata atau frasa yang anda sendiri tidak tahu maksudnya. (Ingat,
waktu yang diberikan sangat singkat)

4. Identifikasi kata benda dan kata kerja penting

5. Bacalah sekilas, amati kalimat pertama masing masing paragraf

6. Bacalah teks dengan cermat, tandai poin-poin utama, nama-nama, definisi, simpulan, tempat dan
angka-angka

7. Berkonsentrasi dalam membaca teks bacaan dan jawablah pertanyaan, jangan terpaku pada satu
soal.

8. Anda harus mengisi semua jawaban, jika harus menebak jawaban, pilihlah jawaban B dan C.
Ingat, jawaban yang salah tidak akan mengurangi nilai anda.

Untuk menjawab soal reading anda harus memahami berbagai jenis pertanyaan. Berikut ini adalah
berbagai tipe pertanyaannya:

1. Pertanyaan tentang topik atau tema

61 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

Topik utama merupakan subjek utama bacaan tentang apa bacaan itu. Topik atau tema bisa berupa;
inti isi tulisan (the text about) atau judul tulsan (title). Topik merupakan salah satu item yang
hampir bisa dipastikan keluar pada setiap tes TOEFL.

Contoh pertanyaan:

 What is the main topic of this passage?

(Apa topik utama bacaan ini?)
 The text is mainly talking about?
(Bacaan ini sedang membicarakan tentang?)
 The passage is about?
(Bacaan ini mengenai?)

Tips menjawab Pertanyaan tentang Topik atau Tema

Untuk mengetahui topik seluruh bacaan anda tidak perlu membaca secara detail mendalam, yang
perlu anda lakukan sebagai berikut.

1. Membaca kalimat pertama dan terakhir pada tiap-tiap paragraf bacaan.

2. Temukan kata kunci (keyword) yang selalu di ulang-ulang baik pada bagian awal, tengah atau
akhir terutama bagian simpulan.

3. Kata kunci (keyword) bisa berupa sinonim atau kata yang sama artinya.

4. Jika pertanyaan mengenai suatu topik, maka jawabanya berupa satu kata atau bentuk frasa
(kelompok kata).

2. Pertanyaan tentang Gagasan Utama (Main Idea)

Gagasan utama adalah pokok pikiran utama dari sebuah paragraf yang memuat keterangan
penjelasan, uraian atau pendapat dari si penulis tentang topik (pokok bahasan). Gagasan utama
merupakan penjelasan untuk judul dari topik, menjelaskan dari sudut pandang si penulis Gagasan
utama merupakan penjelasan topik, maka akan lebih panjang dan berupa kalimat lengkap.

Contoh pertanyaan:

 What is the main idea of this passage?

(Apa gagasan utama bacaan ini?)
 What is the text talking about?
62 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(Text ini menceritakan tentang apa?)

 The main idea of this passage is....
(Gagasan utama pada bacaan ini adalah...)
 What's the author main idea of paragraph 27
(Apa ide utama paragraf ke 2 menurut pengarang?)

Tips menjawab Pertanyaan tentang Gagasan Utama

Untuk mencari gagasan utama, yang perlu anda lakukan sebagai berikut:

1. Cari dulu top/ tema dari paragraf utama.

2. Perhatikan kata-kata Frasa dari paragraf tersebut yang akan mengungkapkan main-idea nya

3. Main idea dari sebuah bacaan biasanya terdapat pada dua kalimat pertama

4. Jika pertanyaan tentang main idea atau pokok pikiran, jawabanya berupa kalimat lengkap
(complete sentence) yaitu terdiri dari subjek dan predikat

3. Pertanyaan tentang Judul (Title)

Untuk menjawab pertanyaan jenis ini, bacalah paragraf satu, atau beberapa paragraf awal. Judul
biasanya berupa kata, frasa, atau kalimat sangat pendek.

Contoh pertanyaan:

 What is the best title of the passage?

(Apa judul yang paling tepat terbaik untuk bacaan ini?)
 What will be must suitable title for the passage?
(Apa judul yang tepat sesuai untuk bacaan ini?)

4. Pertanyaan tentang Tujuan (Purpose/aim)

Tujuan merupakan alasan utama penulis bacaan itu. Tujuan ini dapat ditemukan pada paragraf
pertama atau kedua. Biasanya berhubungan dengan main idea.

Contoh pertanyaan:

 What is the purpose of the text?

(Apa tujuan/maksud bacaan ini?)
 What is the aim of the passage?
(Apa tujuan bacaan ini?)
63 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

5. Pertanyaan tentang informasi detail

Salah satu bagian penting dalam reading comprehension adalah menjawab tentang detail.
Pertanyaan ini menanyakan fakta-fakta yang terdapat dalam bacaan mengenai: who, what, where,
when, dan how.

Sebagian besar pertanyaan pada bagian pemahaman becaan termasuk dalam ketegori tipe
pertanyaan detail. Tipe pertanyaan ini bertanya mengenai sebagian kecil dari bacaan, bukan secara
keseluruhan dan sekaligus bertanya mengenai informasi tersurat yang diungkapkan dalam bacaan.

Tips menjawab pertanyaan informasi detail (detailed information)

Berikut ini beberapa yang harus diperhatikan.

1. Pertanyaan macam ini menyangkut rincian atau detail yang terdapat pada bagian-bagian tertentu
dalam bacaan.

2. Jawaban atas tipe pertanyaan ini umumnya dapat langsung ditemukan dalam bacaan.

3. Jawaban atas pertanyaan macam ini umumnya diberikan secara berurutan dalam bacaan.

4. Dalam banyak hal, pertanyaan detail menuntut anda untuk memilih jawaban yang merupakan
parafrasa, atau mengungkapkan ulang intonasi yang sama dengan kata-kata yang berbeda, dan
fakta yang terdapat dalam bacaan. Suatu parafrasa menyampaikan makna yang sama, tetapi sedikit
berbeda dalam pemakaian kosakata maupun tata bahasa.

Bentuk-bentuk berikut dapat digunakan untuk mengawali pertanyaan detail:

 According to the passage...

(menurut bagian itu...
 it is indicated that...
(hal ini menunjukan bahwa.....)
 It is stated
(Hal ini menyatakan..)
 All of the following are mentioned EXCEPT...
(semua yang disebutkan berikut KECUALL
 Which of the following is NOT Supported by
(mana dari berikut ini TIDAK didukung oleh..
 The passage stated that
(bagian ini menyatakan bahwa....)
64 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

 The author stated that...

(penulis menyatakan bahwa.......)
 What does the author say about....
(Penulis mengatakan tentang...)

6. Pertanyaan tentang Simpulan (Conclusion)

Simpulan merupakan rangkuman dari bacaan simpulan terletak pada bagian akhir bacaan.

Contoh pertanyaan:

 It can be concluded that...

(dapat disimpulkan bahwa...)
 What is the conclusion of this text?
(apa kesimpulan dari bacaan ini?)
 We can conclude that...
(kita dapat menyimpulkan bahwa.....)
 It can be inferred that...
(dapat disimpulkan bahwa...)
 What can we infer from the text?
(apa yang bisa kita simpulkan dari teks?)

7. Pertanyaan tentang rujukan kata (Reference)

Kata-kata pronouns seperti: he-him-his-himself, she-her-hers-herself, dan sebagainya, digunakan

oleh penulis untuk mengganti kata benda yang baru saja disebutkan sehingga tidak harus
mengganti dengan kata benda yang sama. Penulis cukup menggunakan reference.

Kata acuan seringkali, tetapi tidak selalu berupa pronomina atau pronouns. Kata ini dapat mengacu
pada satu nomina (noun) atau satu frasa nomina (noun phrase) yang tersusun dari beberapa kata.
65 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

POLA SOAL - READING COMPREHENSION

Time: Approximately 55 Minutes 50 Questions
Directions:
In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it.
For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds
to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Read the following passage:
The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society, or to draw attention to the
importance of precise timekeeping. For as long as merchants have set out their wares at daybreak
and communal festivities have been celebrated, people have been in rough agreement with their
neighbors as to the time of day. The value of this tradition is today more apparent than ever. Were it
not for public acceptance of a single yardstick of time, social life would be unbearably chaotic: the
massive daily transfers of goods, services, and information would proceed in fits and starts; the
very fabric of modem society would begin to unravel.
Example I:
What is the main idea of the passage?  
(A) In modern society we must make more time for our neighbors.
(B) The traditions of society are timeless.
(C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society.
(D) Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities.

Sample Answer

A B C D

The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how time is to be measured in
order to function smoothly. Therefore, you should choose (C).

Example II
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In line 4, the phrase “this tradition” refers to....

(A) the practice of starting the business day at dawn
(B) friendly relations between neighbors
(C) the railroad’s reliance on time schedules
(D) people’s agreement on the measurement of time
Sample Answer

A B C D
The phrase “this tradition” refers to the preceding clause, “people have been in rough agreement
with their neighbors as to the time of day.” Therefore, you should choose (D)
Conflict within an organization is not always viewed as undesirable, various managers have
widely divergent ideas on the value that conflict can have.
According to the traditional view of conflict, conflict is harmful to an organization.
Managers with this traditional view of conflict see it as their role in an organization to rid
the organization of any possible sources of conflict.
The interactionist view of conflict on the other hand, holds that conflict can serve an
important function in an organization by reducing complacency among workers and causing
positive changes to occur. Managers who hold an interactionist view of conflict may
actually take steps to stimulate within the organization.

1. How is the information in the passage organized?

(A) The origin of ideas about conflict is presented.

(B) Contrasting views of conflicts are presented.

(C) Two theorists discuss the strength and weaknesses of their views on conflict.

(D) Examples of conflict within organizations are presented

2. What type of information is included in the third paragraph?

(A) A comparison of the interactionist and traditional views of conflict

(B) A discussion of the weaknesses of the interactionist view of conflict

(C) An outline of the type of manager who prefers the interactionist view of conflict

(D) A description of one of the opposing views of conflict

67 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

IQ, or intelligence Quotient as the radio of a patron’s mental age to chronological age, with the
radio multiplied by 100 remove the decimal. Chronological age is easily determined; mental age
is generally measured by some kind of standard test and is not so simple to define.
In theory, a standardized IQ test is set up to measure an individual’s ability to perform
intellectual operations such as reasoning and problem solving. These intellectual operations are
considered to represent intelligence. I
n practice, it has been impossible to arrive at consensus at to which types of intellectual
operations demonstrate intelligence. Furthermore, it has been impossible to devise a test without
cultural bias, which is to say that any IQ tests so far proposed have been shown to reflect the
culture of the test makers. Test makers from that culture would, it follows, score higher on such a
test than test takers from a different culture with equal intelligence.
3. What type of information is included in the first paragraph

(A) An argument

(B) A definition

(C) An opinion

(D) A theory

4. How does the information in the third paragraph differ from that in the second paragraph?

(A) It presents a contrasting point of view.

(B) It follows chronologically from the ideas in the second paragraph.

(C) It presents real information rather than a premise.

(D) It presents an example of the ideas in the second paragraph

The largest lake in the western United sates in the Great Salt Lake, an island saltwater lake in
northwestern Utah, is just outside the state capital of Salt Lake City. Rivers and streams feed into
the Great Salt Lake, but none drain out of it, this has a major influence on both the salt content
and the size of the lake.

Although the Great Lake was fed by freshwater streams, it is actually saltier than the oceans of the
world. The salt comes from the more than two million tons of minerals that flow into the lake
each year from the rivers and creeks that feed it. Sodium and chloride-the components comprise
68 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

the large majority of the lake’s mineral content.

The Great Salt Lake can vary tremendously from its normal size of 1,700 square miles, depending
on long term weather conditions. During periods of heavy rains, the size of the lake can swell
tremendously from the huge amount of water flowing into the lake from its Feeder Rivers and
streams; in 1980 the lake even reached a size of 2,400 square miles. During periods of dry
weather, the size of the lake decreases, sometimes drastically, due to evaporation.

5. How is the information in the passage organized?

(A) Two unusual characteristics of the Great Lake are discussed.

(B) Contrasting theories about the Great Salt Lake’s salt levels are presented.

(C) The process by which the Great Salt Lake gets its salt is outlined.

(D) The reasons for the variation in the Great Salt Lake’s size are given.

6. The third paragraph contains information on …

(A) how the size of the lake affects weather conditions

(B) the effects of contrasting weather conditions on the size of the lake

(C) the effects of changes in the size of the lake

(D) the causes of the varied weather conditions in the area of the lake

Common types of calendars can be based on the Sun or on the Moon. The solar calendar is based
on the solar year. Since the solar year is 362.2422 days long, solar calendars consist of regular
years of 365 days and have an extra day every fourth year, or leap year, to make up for the
additional fractional amount. In a solar calendar, the waxing and waning of the moon can take
place at various stages of each month.

Lunar calendar is synchronized to the lunar month rather than the solar year. Since the lunar
month is twenty-nine and thirty days. A twelve-month lunar year thus has 354 days, 11 days
shorter than a solar year.

Solar eclipse
69 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

Lunar eclipse

7. What is the main idea of the passage?

(A) All calendars are the same.

(B) The solar calendar is based on the sun.

(C) Different calendars have dissimilar bases.

(D) The lunar month is twenty-nine and a half days long.

8. How is the information in the passage organized?

(A) Characteristics of the solar calendar are outlined.

(B) Two types of calendars are described.

(C) The strengths and weakness of the lunar calendar are described.

(D) The length of each existing calendar is contrasted.

Vaccines are prepared from harmful viruses or bacteria and administered to patients to provide
immunity to specific diseases. The various types of vaccines are classified according to the
method by which they are derived.

The most basic class of vaccines actually contains disease-causing microorganisms that have
been killed with a solution containing formaldehyde. In this type of vaccine, the
microorganisms are dead and therefore cannot cause disease; however, the antigens found in
and on the microorganisms can still stimulate the formation of antibodies. Examples of this
type of vaccine are the ones that fight influenza, typhoid fever, and cholera.

A second type of vaccine contains the toxins produced by the microorganisms rather than the
microorganisms themselves. This type of vaccine is prepared when the microorganism itself
does little damage but the toxin within microorganism is extremely harmful. For example, the
bacteria that cause diphtheria can thrive without much harm, but when toxins are released from
the bacteria, muscles can become paralyzed and death can ensue.

A final type of toxin contains living microorganisms that have been rendered harmless. With
this type of vaccine, a large number of antigen molecules are produced and the immunity that
70 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

results is generally longer lasting than the immunity from other types of vaccines. The Sabin
oral antipolio vaccine and BCG vaccine against tuberculosis are examples of this type of
vaccine.

9. Which of the following expresses the main idea of the passage?

(A) Vaccines provide immunity to specific diseases.

(B) Vaccines contain disease-causing microorganisms.

(C) Vaccines are derived in different ways.

(D) New approaches in administering vaccines are being developed.

10. How many types of vaccines are presented in the passage?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Five

In English there are many different kinds of expressions that people use to give a name to
anything whose name is unknown or momentarily forgotten. The word gadget is one such word.
It was first used by British sailors in the 1850’s and probably came from the French word
gachette, which was a small hook. In everyday use, the word has a more general meaning. Other
words are also used to give a name to something, unnamed or unknown and these words tend to
be somewhat imaginative. Some of the more commonly used expressions are a what-d’ye-call-it,
a whats is, a thingamabob, a thingamajig, a doodad, or a doohickey.

11. Which of the following is NOT true about the word “gadget” ?

(A) It is used to name something when the name is not known

(B) It was used at the beginning of the nineteenth century

(C) It most likely came from a word in the French language.

(D) It is first known use was by British sailors.

71 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

12. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an expression for something
that is not known?
(A) a thingamabob

(B) gadget

(C) A doohickey

(D) A what-is-it

Blood plasma is a clear, almost colorless liquid. It consists of blood from which the red and
white blood cells have been removed. It is often used in transfusions because a patient
generally needs the plasma portion of the blood more than the other components.

Plasma differs in several important ways from whole blood. First of all, plasma can be mixed
for all donors and does not have to be from the right blood group, as whole blood does. In
addition, plasma can be dried and stored, while whole blood cannot.

13. All of the following are true about blood plasma EXCEPT…

(A). it is a deeply colored liquid

(B). blood cells have taken out of it

(C). patients are often transfused with it

(D). it is generally more important to the patient than other part of whole blood

14. Which of the following is NOT stated about whole blood?

(A). it is different from plasma

(B). it cannot be dried

(C). it is impossible to keep in storage for a long time.

(D). it is a clear, colorless liquid.

Elizabeth Cochrane Seaman was an American journalist at the turn of the century who wrote for
the newspaper New York World under the pen name Nellie Bly, a name which was taken from
the Stephen, Foster song Nellie Bly. She achieved fame for her exposes and in particular for the
72 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

bold and adventuresome way that she obtained her stories.

She felt that the best way to get the real story was from the inside rather than as an outside
observer who could be treated to a prettified version of reality. On one occasion she pretended
to be a thief so that she would get a nested and see for herself how female prisoners were really
treated. On another occasion she faked mental illness in order to be admitted to a mental
hospital to get the real picture on the treatment of mental patients.

15. Which of the following is NOT true about Nellie Bly?

(A). Nelly Bly’s real name was Elizabeth Cochrane seaman.

(B). Nellie Bly was mentally ill

(C). The name Nellie Bly came from a song.

(D). The name Nellie Bly was used on articles that Seaman wrote.
73 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

16. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as something that Nellie Bly did to get a good
story?
(A). she acted like a thief

(B). she got arrested by the police.

(C). she pretended to be ill.

(D). she worked as a doctor in a mental hospital.

Carnivorous plants, such as the sundew and the Venus Flytrap are generally found in the humid
areas where there is an inadequate supply of nitrogen in the soil. In order to survive, these plants
have developed mechanisms to trap insects within their foliage. They have digestive fluids to
obtain the necessary nitrogen from the insects. These plants trap the insects in a variety of ways.
The sundew has sticky hairs on its leaves; when an insect lands on these leaves, it gets caught up
in the sticky hairs, and the leaf wraps itself around the insect. The leaves of the Venus-Flytrap
function more like a trap, snapping suddenly and forcefully shut around an insect.

17. The pronoun ‘they’ in line 4 refers to

(A) humid areas

(B) these plants

(C) insects

(D) digestive fluids

18. The pronoun ‘it’ in line 6 refers to …

(A) a variety

(B) the sundew

(C) An insect

(D) the leaf

74 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

The Hawaiian language is a melodious language in which all words are derived from an Alphabet
of only twelve letters, the five vowels, A,E,I,O,U and the seven consonants H,K,L,M,N,P,W.
Each syllable in the language ends in a vowel, and two consonants never appear together, so
vowels have a much higher frequency in the Hawaiian language than they do in English.
This musical sounding language can be heard regularly by visitors to the islands. Most
Hawaiians speak English, but it is quite common to hear English that is liberally spiced with
words and expressions from the traditional language of the culture. A visitor may be greeted with
the expression aloha, and may be referred to as a malihini because he is a new comer to the
island. This visitor may attend an outside luau where everyone eats too much and be invited
afterwards to dance the hula.

19. Which of the following is probably NOT a Hawaiian word?

(A) mahalo

(B) mahimahi

(C) meklea

(D) moana

20. It is implied a luau is …

(A) a dance

(B) a feast

(C) a concert

(D) a language

(E)
Eskimos need efficient and adequate means to travel across water in that the areas where they
live are surrounded by oceans, bays, and inlets and dotted with lakes and seas. Two different
types of boats have been developed by the Eskimo, each constructed to meet specific needs. The
Kayak is something like a canoe that has been covered by deck. A kayak is generally constructed
with one opening in the deck for one rider, however, some kayaks are made for two,
Because the deck of a kayak is covered over except for the hole (or holes) for its rider (or riders),
a kayak can tip over in the water and roll back without filling with water and sinking. One of the
primary uses of the kayak is for hunting.
75 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

The umiak is not closed over, as is in the kayak, instead it is an open boat that is built to hold ten
to twelve passengers. Eskimos have numerous uses for the umiak which reflect the size of the
boat; e.g. the umiak is used to haul belongings from campsite to campsite, and it is used for
hunting larger animals that are too big to be hunted in a kayak.

21. It can be inferred from the passage that an example of the animal mentioned in lines 11-
12 might be …
(A) a kangaroo

(B) a snake

(C) a whale

(D) a salmon

22. Kayak has same construction with …

(A) Boat
(B) Ship
(C) Canoe
(D) Ferry

Two types of trees from the same family of trees share honors in certain respects as the most
impressive of trees. Both evergreen conifers, the California redwood (Sequoia sempervirens) and
the giant sequoia (Sequoiandendrom gigantteum) are found growing natively only in the state of
California. The California redwood is found along the northern coast of the state, while the giant
sequoia is found inland and at a higher elevations, along the western slopes of the Sierra Nevadas.

The California redwood is the tallest living tree and is in fact the tallest living thing on the face of
the earth; the height of the tallest redwood on the record is 385 feet (120 meters). Though not
quite as tall as the California redwood, with the height of 320 feet ( 100 meters), the giant sequoia
is nonetheless the largest and the most massive of living things ; giant sequoias have been
measured at more than 100 feet (30 meters) around the base, with weights of more than 6,000
tons.

23. It is implied in the passage that

76 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(A) the leaves of only California redwood turn brown in the autum

(B) the leaves of only the giant sequoia turn brown in the winter

(C) the leaves of both types of trees in the passage turn brown in the winter

(D) the leaves of neither types of tree in the passage turn brown in the winter

24. It can be inferred from the passage that the Siera Nevadas are …

(A) a type of giant redwood

(B) a coastal community

(C) a group of lakes

(D) a mountain range

25. Which of the following is implied in the passage?

(A) The giant sequoia is taller than the California redwood.

(B) The California redwood is not as big around as the giant sequoia.

(C) The California redwood weighs more than the giant sequoia.

(D) Other living things are larger than the giant sequoia.

Another myth of the oceans concerns Davy Jones, who in folklore is the mean-spirited sovereign
of the ocean’s depths. The name “Jones” is thought by some etymologists to have been derived
from the name “Jonah” the Hebrew prophet who spent three days in a whales belly.
According to tradition, any object that goes overboard and sinks to the bottom of the ocean is said
to have gone to Davy Jones’s locker, the ocean sized, mythical receptacle for anything that falls
into the water, needless to say, any sailor on the seas is not so eager to take a tour of Davy
Jones’s locker, although it might be a rather interesting trip considering all the treasures located
there.

26. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses

(A) The youth of Davy Jones

(B) Davy Jones career as a sailor

77 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(C) A different traditional story from the sea

(D) Preparing to travel on the ocean

27. The topic of the paragraph following the passage most likely is

(A) valuable items located of the bottom of the ocean.

(B) Where Davy Jones is found today

(C) Jonah and the whale

(D) Preventing objects from failing overboard

One of the leading schools of psychological thought in the twentieth century is behaviorism – the
belief that the role of the psychologist is to study behavior, which is observable, rather than
conscious and unconscious thought, which is not. Probably the best known proponent of
behaviorism is B.E Skinner, who is famous for his research on how rewards and punishment
influence behavior. He came to believe that positive reinforcements such as praise, food, or money
were more effective in promoting good behavior than negative reinforcement or punishment.

28. In “behaviorism” In line 2, a psychologist is concerned with

(A) unconscious thought patterns

(B) observable actions

(C) unobservable actions

(D) unobservable actions

29. What is “positive reinforcement” in line 7

A) a gift

B) A reward

C) A bribe

D) A penalty
78 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

30. What is “negative reinforcement” in line 9?

(A) A promotion

(B) A reward

(C) A surprise

D) A punishment

Ring lardner himself was born into a wealthy, educated, and cultured family. For the book of his
carrier, he worked as a reporter for newspapers in South Bend, Boston, Santa Louis, and Chicago.
However, it is for his short stories of lower middle – clash Americans that ring lardner is perhaps
best known. In these stories, Lardner vividly creates the language and the ambiance of this lower
class, often using the misspelled words, grammatical errors and incorrect diction that typified the
language of the lower middle class

31. The word “vividly” in line 6 is closest in meaning to …

A) in a cultured way

(B) in a correct way

(C) in a lifelike way

(D) in a brief way

32. The word “misspelled” in line 7 is closest in meaning to …

(A) highly improper

(B) vulgar

(C) incorrectly written

(D) slang

33. The word “diction” in line 8 is closest in meaning to …

(A) Writing

(B) Sentence structure

79 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

(C) Form

(D) Speech

Cardamon is not as widely used as a spice in the United States as it is in other parts of the world.
This fruit of the ginger plant provides an oil that basically has been used solely as a stimulant in
American and English medicines. Other cultures have recognized the multipurpose benefits of this
aromatic fruit. In Asia it is used to season sauces such as curry; in Middle Eastern countries it is
seeped to prepare a flavorful golden colored tea; in parts of northern Europe it is used as spice in
various types of pastry.

34. The word “solely” in line 2 could best be replaced by …

A) initially

B) only

C) reportedly

D) healthfully

35. The word “multipurpose” in line 3 is closest in meaning to the word “season” in line 4?

(A) Health

(B) Singular

(C) Recognized

(D) varied

36. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “season” in line 4?

(A) Divide

(B) Forecast

(C) Spice

(D) Put a time limit

80 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

37. “Curry” in line 4 is …

(A) the fruit of ginger plant

(B) A spicy type of sauce

(C) A culture in the area of the Middle East

(D) A type of golden-colored tea

38. The word “seeped” in line 5 is closest in meaning to …

(A) Steamed

(B) Dried

(C) Stored

(D) grown

The life-span of an elephant that dies from natural causes is about sixty-five years. Of course, an
elephant can perish from a number of” unnatural causes”; e.g it can be killed by hunters, most
probably for the valuable ivory in its tusks; it can die from deases that spread throughout an
elephant herd; or it can die from drought or from the lack of food that almost certainly
accompanies the inadequate supply of water.

If, however, an elephant survives disasters, it falls prey to old age in its mid-sixties. Around this
age, the cause of death is attributed to the loss of the final set of molars. When this last set of
teeth is gone, the elephant dies from malnutrition because it is unable to obtain unadequate
nourishment. In old age, elephant tend to search out a final home where there is shade for
comfort from the sun and soft vegetation for cushioning; the bones of many old elephants have
been found in such places.

39. The word “perish in line 2 means

(A) fall ill

(B) shoot

(C) die
(D) get rich
81 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

40. The word “unnatural” in line 2 is closest meaning to

(A) wild

(B) violent
(C) domesticated

(D) abnormal

41. The word “drought” in line 4 means ..

(A) a drowning

(B) a lack of food

(C) an inadequate supply of water

(D) an overabundance of animals

42. Which of the following could be used to replace the word “survives” in line 6
(A) Rises to
(B) Succumbs to 5
(C) Denies
(D) Lives through

43. “Molars” in line 7 are…

(A) germs

(B) old-age characteristics

(C) types of food

(D) teeth

44. In line 8, “malnutrition” is used to describe someone who …

(A) is in good health

(B) has an illness

(C) suffers from poor eating

(D) experiences dental problems
82 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

45. The expression “a final home” in line 9 is closest in meaning to …

(A) a place to die

(B) a comfortable house

(C) a place for sale

(D) the only remaining place to live

46. The word “shade” in line 9 is closest in meaning to …

(A) color
(B) heat

(C) diminished light

(D) a front porch

Sapphira and the Slave Girl was the last novel of Willa Cather's illustrious literary career. Although
the story takes place in 186, well before her own birth, she drew heavily on both vivid childhood
memories and tales handed down by older relatives to describe life in rural northern Virginia in the
middle of the nineteenth century.
Of Carther's novels, Sapphira and the Slave Girl is the one most conceded with providing an
overall picture of day-to-day life a specific era. A number of the novel's characters, it would seem,
are included in the story only because they are representative of the types of people found in 19th
century rural Virginia; indeed, a few of them play no part whatsoever in the unfolding of the plot.
For instance, we are introduced to a poor white woman, Mandy Ringer, who is portrayed as
intelligent and content, despite the fact that she has no formal education and must toil constantly in
the fields.
The title, however accurately reflects that the novel is mainly about slavery, Carther's attitude
toward this institution may best be summed up as somewhat ambiguous. On the on hand, she
displays almost total difference to the legal and political aspects of slavery when she misidentifies
certain crucial dates in its growth and development. She never really offers a direct condemnation
of slavery. Yet the evil that was slavery gets through to us in her typically subtle ways. Characters
like Mrs. Blake who oppose the institution are portrayed in a sympathetic light. Furthermore, the
83 Pusat Bahasa UMUS

suffering of slaves themselves and the petty, nasty and often cruel behavior of the slave owners are
painted in stark terms.
47. What is the main topic of this passage?
(A) Cather's anti-slavery stance
(B) The backdrop of Cather's last novel
(C) Cather's strangely titled novel
(D) Life in the Virginia country

48. The author refers to Sapphira and the Slave Girl ass........
(A) A heroic tale of the Civil War
(B) A sweeping epic of the Old South
(C) Using Cather's personal recollections
(D) A political treatise on slavery

49. The word "vivid" in line 3 is closest in meaning to..........

(A) Disturbing
(B) Buried
(C) Forgotten
(D) Clear

50. What is NOT true of Mandy Ringer?

(A) She is slave
(B) She is intelligent
(C) She is uneducated
(D) She is poor
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Educational Testing Service. (2001). TOEFL Institutional Testing Program Examine Handbook
and Admission Form. Princeton, New Jersey, USA: Overseas Edition.

Educational Testing Service. (2003). TOEFL Practice Test, Volume 1. Es, USA.

Hinkel, E. (2004). TOEFL Test Strategies. Hauppauge, New York, USA: Barron's Educational
Series, Inc.

Kaplan, J. S. (2010). TOEFL Paper and Pencil (3rd ed.). New York, NY and Toronto, ON: Simon
& Schuster.

Learning Express. (2004). TOEFL Exam Essentials. New York, NY: Learning Express.

Gallagher, N. (2007). Delta's Key to The Next Generation TOEFL Tat: Advanced Skill Practice
Book (1st ed.). Educatioal Series Inc.

Philips, D. (2001). Longman Complete Course for the TOEFL Test: Preparation for the
Computer and Paper Test. New York, NY: Pearson Longman.

Philips, D. (2001). Longman Preparation Course for the TOEFL Test: The Paper Test. New York,
NY: Pearson Longman.

Philips, D. (2004). Longman Introductory Course for the TOEFL Test: The Paper Test. White
Plains, NY: Pearson Education.

Practice Test TOEFL. (n.d.). CMedia.

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